checking

FULL LENGTH TEST 8 – 2024

Time limit: 0

0 of 100 questions completed

Questions:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29
30. 30
31. 31
32. 32
33. 33
34. 34
35. 35
36. 36
37. 37
38. 38
39. 39
40. 40
41. 41
42. 42
43. 43
44. 44
45. 45
46. 46
47. 47
48. 48
49. 49
50. 50
51. 51
52. 52
53. 53
54. 54
55. 55
56. 56
57. 57
58. 58
59. 59
60. 60
61. 61
62. 62
63. 63
64. 64
65. 65
66. 66
67. 67
68. 68
69. 69
70. 70
71. 71
72. 72
73. 73
74. 74
75. 75
76. 76
77. 77
78. 78
79. 79
80. 80
81. 81
82. 82
83. 83
84. 84
85. 85
86. 86
87. 87
88. 88
89. 89
90. 90
91. 91
92. 92
93. 93
94. 94
95. 95
96. 96
97. 97
98. 98
99. 99
100. 100

Information

.

You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.

Test is loading…

You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:

Your results are here!! for” FULL LENGTH TEST 8 – 2024 “

0 of 100 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0

1. Not categorized
   You have attempted: 0
   Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
   Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
   

maximum of 200 points

Pos.	Name	Entered on	Points	Result
Table is loading
No data available

Your result has been entered into leaderboard

Loading

Name: E-Mail:

Captcha:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29
30. 30
31. 31
32. 32
33. 33
34. 34
35. 35
36. 36
37. 37
38. 38
39. 39
40. 40
41. 41
42. 42
43. 43
44. 44
45. 45
46. 46
47. 47
48. 48
49. 49
50. 50
51. 51
52. 52
53. 53
54. 54
55. 55
56. 56
57. 57
58. 58
59. 59
60. 60
61. 61
62. 62
63. 63
64. 64
65. 65
66. 66
67. 67
68. 68
69. 69
70. 70
71. 71
72. 72
73. 73
74. 74
75. 75
76. 76
77. 77
78. 78
79. 79
80. 80
81. 81
82. 82
83. 83
84. 84
85. 85
86. 86
87. 87
88. 88
89. 89
90. 90
91. 91
92. 92
93. 93
94. 94
95. 95
96. 96
97. 97
98. 98
99. 99
100. 100

1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 100

   1. Question

   How many of the following items will not be taken into consideration during the calculation of Gross Domestic Product by the Expenditure Method?
   (1) Net increase in Inventory of businesses
   (2) Household expenditure on services
   (3) Government expenditure on public goods & services
   (4) Brokerage paid for the transfer of shares
   (5) Transfer Payments made by the Government
   (6) Import of agricultural commodities
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only three
   (C) Only four
   (D) All

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Calculation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) – the value of goods and services produced in a country’s economy – is one of the ways of calculating the national income of a country. There are multiple methods which may be used for calculating this figure. One of these methods is the Expenditure method.
   GDP = C + G + I + X
   Where, C is the consumptive expenditures of firms and households in an economy; G is the expenditure made by the government, I is the investment made by the household and the firms; and X is the Net of Exports and Imports in an economy.
   Option 1 is incorrect: An increase in Inventory (goods/ raw materials stocked for production/ sale later) is considered as a form of Capital Formation, i.e. Investment by a firm. Hence it will be included under the ‘I’ head of the equation.
   Option 2 is incorrect: Expenditure on various services by a household (example – paying plumbers and electricians, buying movie tickets, booking cabs, etc) is one of the core economic activities in a nation. It is included under the ‘C’ head of the equation.
   Option 3 is incorrect: The expenses incurred by the government to provide public good and services like roads (buying materials, hiring labour, etc), free primary education (constructing school buildings, paying salaries to teachers, etc) all would be included under the ‘G’ head of the equation and hence included in calculation of GDP.
   Option 4 is incorrect: When assets such as bonds and shares are procured, it signifies a change in ownership and does not affect the value of goods and services; hence, the transactions are not involved in expense calculation. However, the brokerage paid for the transfer of shares is considered while using the expenditure method.
   Option 5 is correct: Transfer Payments are one sided economic transaction where a service or sum of money is provided without any service or monetary consideration in return. For example, donations to charities, international aid to poor war-torn countries, etc. Since these transactions don’t create any new value of goods and services, they are not included in the GDP.
   Option 6 is incorrect: All imports, whether of agricultural commodities for food security purposes (like edible oil imports) or luxury item imports like gadgets, etc, are included under the head of ‘X’ in the equation and hence included in the calculation for GDP.

   Unattempted
   

   Calculation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) – the value of goods and services produced in a country’s economy – is one of the ways of calculating the national income of a country. There are multiple methods which may be used for calculating this figure. One of these methods is the Expenditure method.
   GDP = C + G + I + X
   Where, C is the consumptive expenditures of firms and households in an economy; G is the expenditure made by the government, I is the investment made by the household and the firms; and X is the Net of Exports and Imports in an economy.
   Option 1 is incorrect: An increase in Inventory (goods/ raw materials stocked for production/ sale later) is considered as a form of Capital Formation, i.e. Investment by a firm. Hence it will be included under the ‘I’ head of the equation.
   Option 2 is incorrect: Expenditure on various services by a household (example – paying plumbers and electricians, buying movie tickets, booking cabs, etc) is one of the core economic activities in a nation. It is included under the ‘C’ head of the equation.
   Option 3 is incorrect: The expenses incurred by the government to provide public good and services like roads (buying materials, hiring labour, etc), free primary education (constructing school buildings, paying salaries to teachers, etc) all would be included under the ‘G’ head of the equation and hence included in calculation of GDP.
   Option 4 is incorrect: When assets such as bonds and shares are procured, it signifies a change in ownership and does not affect the value of goods and services; hence, the transactions are not involved in expense calculation. However, the brokerage paid for the transfer of shares is considered while using the expenditure method.
   Option 5 is correct: Transfer Payments are one sided economic transaction where a service or sum of money is provided without any service or monetary consideration in return. For example, donations to charities, international aid to poor war-torn countries, etc. Since these transactions don’t create any new value of goods and services, they are not included in the GDP.
   Option 6 is incorrect: All imports, whether of agricultural commodities for food security purposes (like edible oil imports) or luxury item imports like gadgets, etc, are included under the head of ‘X’ in the equation and hence included in the calculation for GDP.
2. Question 2 of 100

   2. Question

   How many of the following is/are the flaws in using Gross Domestic Product as an index for greater well-being of the people of a nation?
   (1) It does not take into account inequality in income.
   (2) It does not account for technological advancements
   (3) It excludes non-marketed activities.
   (4) It does not include externalities caused by an economic activity.
   Select the correct answer from the code given below:
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) Only three
   (D) All

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Gross domestic product (GDP) is the value of the goods and services produced by the nation’s economy less the value of the goods and services used up in production. GDP is also equal to the sum of personal consumption expenditures, gross private domestic investment, net exports of goods and services, and government consumption expenditures and gross investment.
   Statement 1 is correct: GDP does not provide information about the distribution of income, which bears importantly on the welfare of individuals within an economy. GDP per capita is only an average. When GDP per capita rises by 5%, it could mean that GDP for everyone in the society has risen by 5% or that the GDP of some groups has risen by more while the GDP of others has risen by less—or even declined.
   Statement 2 is correct: GDP does not factor in the increases in technology that improves the well-being. For example, the internet has made it easier for people to arrange for travel directly instead of going through a travel agent—these personal efforts to book travel are not counted in GDP but the services of a travel agent would be counted, leading GDP growth to understate the increase in welfare.
   Statement 3 is correct: Another shortcoming of GDP as a measure of economic well-being is GDP’s exclusion of non-market activities that create welfare for households. Because GDP uses market prices to value goods and services, it excludes the value of almost all activity that takes place outside markets.
   Child care provided in day-care centers is part of GDP, whereas child care by parents at home is not.
   Volunteer work also contributes to the well-being of those in society, but GDP does not reflect these contributions.
   Statement 4 is correct: Externalities refer to the benefits (or harms) a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid (or penalised). Externalities do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold thus they are not part of GDP calculation. For example, let us suppose there is an oil refinery which refines crude petroleum and sells it in the market. We can estimate the value added of the refinery. The value added of the refinery will be counted as part of the GDP of the economy. But in carrying out the production the refinery may also be polluting the nearby river. This may cause harm to the people who use the water of the river. Hence their well-being will fall.

   Unattempted
   

   Gross domestic product (GDP) is the value of the goods and services produced by the nation’s economy less the value of the goods and services used up in production. GDP is also equal to the sum of personal consumption expenditures, gross private domestic investment, net exports of goods and services, and government consumption expenditures and gross investment.
   Statement 1 is correct: GDP does not provide information about the distribution of income, which bears importantly on the welfare of individuals within an economy. GDP per capita is only an average. When GDP per capita rises by 5%, it could mean that GDP for everyone in the society has risen by 5% or that the GDP of some groups has risen by more while the GDP of others has risen by less—or even declined.
   Statement 2 is correct: GDP does not factor in the increases in technology that improves the well-being. For example, the internet has made it easier for people to arrange for travel directly instead of going through a travel agent—these personal efforts to book travel are not counted in GDP but the services of a travel agent would be counted, leading GDP growth to understate the increase in welfare.
   Statement 3 is correct: Another shortcoming of GDP as a measure of economic well-being is GDP’s exclusion of non-market activities that create welfare for households. Because GDP uses market prices to value goods and services, it excludes the value of almost all activity that takes place outside markets.
   Child care provided in day-care centers is part of GDP, whereas child care by parents at home is not.
   Volunteer work also contributes to the well-being of those in society, but GDP does not reflect these contributions.
   Statement 4 is correct: Externalities refer to the benefits (or harms) a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid (or penalised). Externalities do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold thus they are not part of GDP calculation. For example, let us suppose there is an oil refinery which refines crude petroleum and sells it in the market. We can estimate the value added of the refinery. The value added of the refinery will be counted as part of the GDP of the economy. But in carrying out the production the refinery may also be polluting the nearby river. This may cause harm to the people who use the water of the river. Hence their well-being will fall.
3. Question 3 of 100

   3. Question

   With reference to the methods of Gross Domestic Product calculation, consider the following statements:
   (1) In a fixed base index, weight assigned to various economic activities and goods automatically changes as the economy changes structurally.
   (2) In chain method, the base period keeps changing from year to year.
   (3) Unlike fixed base method, chain base method cannot be used if data on previous year is not available.
   How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1 is incorrect: In a fixed base index, weight assigned to various economic activities and goods changes only if two conditions are met simultaneously- Economy should change its structure and Government should take action to change the weights and base. So, mere change in economic structure is not sufficient condition for change in weights automatically, government should also take active step to change it.
   Statement 2 is correct: In chain base method, the base period is not fixed. In this method, the year immediately preceding the one for which the price index has to be calculated is assumed as the base year.
   In most cases, the shift resulted in significant changes in the numbers of the preceding year, indicating the better outcome produced by this method. The advantage of the chain base method is that the GDP estimation method will capture the structural changes by allowing new activity and items to be added every year in the economy.
   Statement 3 is correct: A disadvantage of the chain method is that if the data for any one of the year is not available then we cannot compute the chain index number for the subsequent period.
   This is so because we need to calculate the link relatives, which are not possible to be calculated in this case. In fixed base method the base is fixed so data can be computed even if data on previous year is not available.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1 is incorrect: In a fixed base index, weight assigned to various economic activities and goods changes only if two conditions are met simultaneously- Economy should change its structure and Government should take action to change the weights and base. So, mere change in economic structure is not sufficient condition for change in weights automatically, government should also take active step to change it.
   Statement 2 is correct: In chain base method, the base period is not fixed. In this method, the year immediately preceding the one for which the price index has to be calculated is assumed as the base year.
   In most cases, the shift resulted in significant changes in the numbers of the preceding year, indicating the better outcome produced by this method. The advantage of the chain base method is that the GDP estimation method will capture the structural changes by allowing new activity and items to be added every year in the economy.
   Statement 3 is correct: A disadvantage of the chain method is that if the data for any one of the year is not available then we cannot compute the chain index number for the subsequent period.
   This is so because we need to calculate the link relatives, which are not possible to be calculated in this case. In fixed base method the base is fixed so data can be computed even if data on previous year is not available.
4. Question 4 of 100

   4. Question

   With reference to ‘GDP Deflator’, consider the following statements:
   (1) It is a more comprehensive measure of inflation as against wholesale price indices.
   (2) Unlike Consumer Price Index, GDP deflator accounts for all goods and services, whether produced domestically or outside.
   (3) In India, GDP deflator data is only available on a quarterly basis along with GDP estimates.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The GDP deflator, also called implicit price deflator, is a measure of inflation. It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that of prices that prevailed during the base year. GDP price deflator measures the difference between real GDP and nominal GDP.
   Statement 1 is correct: GDP Deflator helps show the extent to which the increase in gross domestic product has happened on account of higher prices rather than increase in output. Since the deflator covers the entire range of goods and services produced in the economy — as against the limited commodity baskets for the wholesale or consumer price indices — it is seen as a more comprehensive measure of inflation.
   Statement 2 is incorrect: The GDP deflator underestimates true inflation. The reason is that the GDP deflator reflects the prices of all goods and services produced domestically in the country, whereas the CPI reflects the prices of all goods and services bought by domestic Consumer (whether they are produced in India or not is immaterial).
   For example, suppose the price of an airplane produced by an Indian company which is sold to the Indian Air Force rises. Although the plane is a part of GDP it is not the part of the basket of goods and services purchased by an Indian consumer. Thus, the price increase shows up in the GDP deflator, but not in the CPI.
   Now suppose the Toyota raises the price of its cars. Since Toyota cars are made in the Japan, they are not a part of India’s GDP. But Indian consumers buy Toyotas and so the car is part of Indian consumers’ basket of goods. Hence a price increase of an imported consumer good, such as Toyota, gets reflected in the CPI, but not in the GDP deflator.
   Statement 3 is correct: The GDP deflator reflects up-to-date expenditure patterns. GDP deflator is available only on a quarterly basis along with GDP estimates, whereas CPI and WPI data are released every month.

   Unattempted
   

   The GDP deflator, also called implicit price deflator, is a measure of inflation. It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that of prices that prevailed during the base year. GDP price deflator measures the difference between real GDP and nominal GDP.
   Statement 1 is correct: GDP Deflator helps show the extent to which the increase in gross domestic product has happened on account of higher prices rather than increase in output. Since the deflator covers the entire range of goods and services produced in the economy — as against the limited commodity baskets for the wholesale or consumer price indices — it is seen as a more comprehensive measure of inflation.
   Statement 2 is incorrect: The GDP deflator underestimates true inflation. The reason is that the GDP deflator reflects the prices of all goods and services produced domestically in the country, whereas the CPI reflects the prices of all goods and services bought by domestic Consumer (whether they are produced in India or not is immaterial).
   For example, suppose the price of an airplane produced by an Indian company which is sold to the Indian Air Force rises. Although the plane is a part of GDP it is not the part of the basket of goods and services purchased by an Indian consumer. Thus, the price increase shows up in the GDP deflator, but not in the CPI.
   Now suppose the Toyota raises the price of its cars. Since Toyota cars are made in the Japan, they are not a part of India’s GDP. But Indian consumers buy Toyotas and so the car is part of Indian consumers’ basket of goods. Hence a price increase of an imported consumer good, such as Toyota, gets reflected in the CPI, but not in the GDP deflator.
   Statement 3 is correct: The GDP deflator reflects up-to-date expenditure patterns. GDP deflator is available only on a quarterly basis along with GDP estimates, whereas CPI and WPI data are released every month.
5. Question 5 of 100

   5. Question

   Consider the following statements with reference to Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) :
   (1) Purchasing Power Parity exchange rates stay relatively stable when compared with market exchange rate.
   (2) It helps in determining the differences in the quality of goods and services between the countries.
   (3) It takes into accounts the cost of non-traded goods and services like haircuts or massages.
   (4) It allows comparison of living costs and standards across different countries in the world.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only three
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is a theory that compares the purchasing powers of currencies from different countries around the world. PPP theory aims to look at differing world economies as if they were on a single currency, creating parity between different world currencies. PPP can be used to determine how much more or less expensive it can be to live in another country.
   Statement 1 is correct: PPP exchange rate helps to determine trends in exchange rates over the long term. Market exchange rates tend to move towards the PPP exchange rate. PPP exchange rates stay relatively stable when compared with financial world market rates. Comparing GDP using market rates can mean more volatility in comparisons, even when the individual countries' markets are stable.
   Statement 2 is incorrect: Purchasing Power Parity does not consider differences in the quality of goods between countries. The same product, for example, can have a different quality in different countries. Thus, it is difficult for us to determine identical baskets of goods and services.
   Consumer tastes and preferences also vary across countries. Often, manufacturers use a differentiation approach rather than product standardization. They adapt their offerings to local tastes in each country. And purchasing power parity does not capture such a difference.
   Statement 3 is correct: Purchasing Power Parity accounts for non-traded goods. GDP measures a country’s economic productivity as it relates to the sale of tangible, internationally traded goods. However, PPP accounts for the cost of non-traded goods and services—like haircuts or massages—which also speaks to the productivity of a given economy.
   Statement 4 is correct: Purchasing Power Parity provides real-world examples of living costs and standards.

   Unattempted
   

   Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is a theory that compares the purchasing powers of currencies from different countries around the world. PPP theory aims to look at differing world economies as if they were on a single currency, creating parity between different world currencies. PPP can be used to determine how much more or less expensive it can be to live in another country.
   Statement 1 is correct: PPP exchange rate helps to determine trends in exchange rates over the long term. Market exchange rates tend to move towards the PPP exchange rate. PPP exchange rates stay relatively stable when compared with financial world market rates. Comparing GDP using market rates can mean more volatility in comparisons, even when the individual countries' markets are stable.
   Statement 2 is incorrect: Purchasing Power Parity does not consider differences in the quality of goods between countries. The same product, for example, can have a different quality in different countries. Thus, it is difficult for us to determine identical baskets of goods and services.
   Consumer tastes and preferences also vary across countries. Often, manufacturers use a differentiation approach rather than product standardization. They adapt their offerings to local tastes in each country. And purchasing power parity does not capture such a difference.
   Statement 3 is correct: Purchasing Power Parity accounts for non-traded goods. GDP measures a country’s economic productivity as it relates to the sale of tangible, internationally traded goods. However, PPP accounts for the cost of non-traded goods and services—like haircuts or massages—which also speaks to the productivity of a given economy.
   Statement 4 is correct: Purchasing Power Parity provides real-world examples of living costs and standards.
6. Question 6 of 100

   6. Question

   Consider the following pairs:
   Places related to uranium resources – Related state
   (1) Yadgir – Andhra Pradesh
   (2) Gondia – Maharashtra
   (3) Nalgonda – Telangana
   How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Places related to uranium resources – Related state
   (1) Yadgir, South Canara – Karnataka
   (2) Gondia Maharashtra
   (3) Nalgonda Telangana
   (4) Una Himachal Pradesh
   (5) Kadapa, Guntur Andhra Pradesh
   (6) East Singhbhum, Saraikela-Kharswan Jharkhand
   (7) Sikar – Rajasthan
   (8) Rudraprayag – Uttarakhand
   (9) Sonbhadra – Uttar Pradesh
   (10) Rajnandgaon, Surguja – Chhattisgarh

   Unattempted
   

   Places related to uranium resources – Related state
   (1) Yadgir, South Canara – Karnataka
   (2) Gondia Maharashtra
   (3) Nalgonda Telangana
   (4) Una Himachal Pradesh
   (5) Kadapa, Guntur Andhra Pradesh
   (6) East Singhbhum, Saraikela-Kharswan Jharkhand
   (7) Sikar – Rajasthan
   (8) Rudraprayag – Uttarakhand
   (9) Sonbhadra – Uttar Pradesh
   (10) Rajnandgaon, Surguja – Chhattisgarh
7. Question 7 of 100

   7. Question

   With reference to Neon and Palladium, consider the following statements:
   (1) Both are important raw materials in the semi-conductor industry.
   (2) Palladium is used in the photolithography technique for creating integrated circuits.
   (3) Neon is used to coat electrodes that aid in the regulation of electrical flow.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Neon and palladium both play significant roles in the semiconductor industry.
   Neon is used in the production of neon lights, which are commonly used for signage and displays. While not directly used in semiconductor manufacturing, neon is crucial for creating plasma, which is an integral part of processes like plasma etching and plasma deposition used in semiconductor fabrication.
   Palladium, on the other hand, is used in various stages of semiconductor production. It's often used as a catalyst in chemical vapor deposition (CVD) processes, where thin films of materials are deposited onto substrates to create semiconductor devices. Palladium is also used in some types of semiconductor packaging, particularly in wire bonding processes.
   Overall, both neon and palladium contribute to the functionality and production of semiconductor devices, albeit in different ways. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
   The photolithography technique, which is the most prevalent method for creating integrated circuits, uses neon gas. The neon gas is specifically employed in the laser devices that cut integrated circuits. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
   Palladium is utilised in semi-conductor and electrical production for a variety of functions.
   Neon, as a noble gas, is not typically used to coat electrodes for regulating electrical flow in semiconductor manufacturing or any other electrical applications. Noble gases like neon are generally inert and do not readily react with other substances, making them unsuitable for electrode coatings or regulation of electrical flow. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

   Unattempted
   

   Neon and palladium both play significant roles in the semiconductor industry.
   Neon is used in the production of neon lights, which are commonly used for signage and displays. While not directly used in semiconductor manufacturing, neon is crucial for creating plasma, which is an integral part of processes like plasma etching and plasma deposition used in semiconductor fabrication.
   Palladium, on the other hand, is used in various stages of semiconductor production. It's often used as a catalyst in chemical vapor deposition (CVD) processes, where thin films of materials are deposited onto substrates to create semiconductor devices. Palladium is also used in some types of semiconductor packaging, particularly in wire bonding processes.
   Overall, both neon and palladium contribute to the functionality and production of semiconductor devices, albeit in different ways. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
   The photolithography technique, which is the most prevalent method for creating integrated circuits, uses neon gas. The neon gas is specifically employed in the laser devices that cut integrated circuits. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
   Palladium is utilised in semi-conductor and electrical production for a variety of functions.
   Neon, as a noble gas, is not typically used to coat electrodes for regulating electrical flow in semiconductor manufacturing or any other electrical applications. Noble gases like neon are generally inert and do not readily react with other substances, making them unsuitable for electrode coatings or regulation of electrical flow. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
8. Question 8 of 100

   8. Question

   With respect to a “Money Bill”, consider the following statements:
   (1) The Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor recommend changes in the Bill.
   (2) Under Article 109, if the Rajya Sabha fails to return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed anyway.
   (3) Money Bill is a type of legislation that relates to the appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, which is the main fund of the government.
   How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Once a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it goes to the Rajya Sabha, along with the Speaker’s certificate, that it is a Money Bill for its recommendations. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   However, the Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor amend such a Bill, but can only recommend changes in the Bill. The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill within 14 days, after which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject all or any of its recommendations. In either case, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses. Under Article 109 (5), if the Rajya Sabha fails to return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed anyway. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
   In India, a Money Bill is a type of legislation that relates to the appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, which is the main fund of the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   Once a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it goes to the Rajya Sabha, along with the Speaker’s certificate, that it is a Money Bill for its recommendations. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   However, the Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor amend such a Bill, but can only recommend changes in the Bill. The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill within 14 days, after which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject all or any of its recommendations. In either case, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses. Under Article 109 (5), if the Rajya Sabha fails to return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed anyway. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
   In India, a Money Bill is a type of legislation that relates to the appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, which is the main fund of the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
9. Question 9 of 100

   9. Question

   With respect to a “Constitution Amendment Bill”, consider the following statements:
   (1) Under Article 368, it can only be introduced in the House of the People.
   (2) It can be passed through a simple majority of votes.
   (3) The Bill can be introduced either by a Minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   A Constitution Amendment Bill, under Article 368, can be introduced in either House of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   As per the procedure laid down in the Constitution under Article 368, the Constitution Amendment Bills can be of two types:
   (1) Amendment requiring special majority for their passage in each House;
   (2) Amendment which needs to be passed by the Legislatures of not less than half of the States, along with special majority for certain constitutional provisions relating to the federal character, which may be categorised as entrenched provisions.
   The Bill can be introduced either by a Minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President. Each House must pass the Bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the Bill. After duly passed by both the Houses of the Parliament and ratified by the State Legislatures, where necessary, the Bill is presented to the President for assent. The President must give his assent to the Bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the Bill nor return the Bill to the Parliament for reconsideration. After the President’s assent, the Bill becomes an Act. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
   Article 368 provides for 2 types of amendments, i.e., by a special majority of the Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other Articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of the Parliament, i.e., a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be the amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   A Constitution Amendment Bill, under Article 368, can be introduced in either House of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   As per the procedure laid down in the Constitution under Article 368, the Constitution Amendment Bills can be of two types:
   (1) Amendment requiring special majority for their passage in each House;
   (2) Amendment which needs to be passed by the Legislatures of not less than half of the States, along with special majority for certain constitutional provisions relating to the federal character, which may be categorised as entrenched provisions.
   The Bill can be introduced either by a Minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President. Each House must pass the Bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the Bill. After duly passed by both the Houses of the Parliament and ratified by the State Legislatures, where necessary, the Bill is presented to the President for assent. The President must give his assent to the Bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the Bill nor return the Bill to the Parliament for reconsideration. After the President’s assent, the Bill becomes an Act. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
   Article 368 provides for 2 types of amendments, i.e., by a special majority of the Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other Articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of the Parliament, i.e., a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be the amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
10. Question 10 of 100

    10. Question

    With respect to the “Rajya Sabha”, consider the following statements:
    (1) The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of the seats to the States and the Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.
    (2) The representatives are elected by all the members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.
    (3) The members of a State's Legislative Assembly vote following the system of proportional representation using the single transferable vote.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    About the Rajya Sabha – Article 83(1): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every second year. A member, who is elected for a full term, serves for a period of 6 years. Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are the representatives of the States and of the two Union Territories. The members nominated by the President are the persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service.
    The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for the allocation of the seats to the States and the Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha. The allocation of the seats is made on the basis of the population of each State. Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for the membership of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    A person to be qualified for the membership of the Rajya Sabha should possess the following qualifications:
    (1) He must be a citizen of India, and make and subscribe before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission, an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule to the Constitution; (2) He must be not less than 30 years of age; and (3) He must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by the Parliament.
    Electoral College:
    • The representatives of the States and of the Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the method of indirect election. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    • The representatives of each State and two Union territories are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State and by the members of the Electoral College for that Union Territory, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    About the Rajya Sabha – Article 83(1): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every second year. A member, who is elected for a full term, serves for a period of 6 years. Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are the representatives of the States and of the two Union Territories. The members nominated by the President are the persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service.
    The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for the allocation of the seats to the States and the Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha. The allocation of the seats is made on the basis of the population of each State. Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for the membership of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    A person to be qualified for the membership of the Rajya Sabha should possess the following qualifications:
    (1) He must be a citizen of India, and make and subscribe before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission, an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule to the Constitution; (2) He must be not less than 30 years of age; and (3) He must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by the Parliament.
    Electoral College:
    • The representatives of the States and of the Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the method of indirect election. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    • The representatives of each State and two Union territories are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State and by the members of the Electoral College for that Union Territory, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
11. Question 11 of 100

    11. Question

    With respect to the “Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha”, consider the following statements:
    (1) She is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
    (2) She is of the rank of the Cabinet Minister in the Government of India.
    (3) She is the overall head of the Bureau of Parliamentary Studies and Training.
    (4) She cannot authenticate a Bill in the absence of the Speaker.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only two
    (B) Only three
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha does not hold the rank of a Cabinet Minister. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha is indeed the overall head of the Bureau of Parliamentary Studies and Training. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha can authenticate a Bill in the absence of the Speaker. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha does not hold the rank of a Cabinet Minister. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha is indeed the overall head of the Bureau of Parliamentary Studies and Training. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha can authenticate a Bill in the absence of the Speaker. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
12. Question 12 of 100

    12. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    (1) Sonapani Glacier: Pir Panjal range
    (2) Rimo Glacier: Eastern Himalaya
    (3) Zemu Glacier: Karakoram range
    (4) Milam Glacier: Kumaon Himalaya
    How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
    (A) One pair only
    (B) Two pairs only
    (C) Three pairs only
    (D) All four pairs

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Rimo Glacier: Karakoram range
    Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Zemu Glacier: Eastern Himalaya
    Himalayan glaciers
    Sonapani Glacier is in the Chandra Valley of Lahul and Spiti region in the Pir Panjal range.
    Milam Glacier is a major glacier of the Kumaon Himalaya. It is located in the tehsil of Munsiyari, part of the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand.
    Zemu Glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalaya. It is about 26 kilometres (16 mi) in length and is located at the base of Kangchenjunga in the Himalayan region of Sikkim.
    Rimo rests in the northern part of the Rimo Muztagh which is a sub range of the Karakoram Range and is located about 20 km northeast of the snout of the Siachen Glacier.

    Unattempted
    

    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Rimo Glacier: Karakoram range
    Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Zemu Glacier: Eastern Himalaya
    Himalayan glaciers
    Sonapani Glacier is in the Chandra Valley of Lahul and Spiti region in the Pir Panjal range.
    Milam Glacier is a major glacier of the Kumaon Himalaya. It is located in the tehsil of Munsiyari, part of the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand.
    Zemu Glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalaya. It is about 26 kilometres (16 mi) in length and is located at the base of Kangchenjunga in the Himalayan region of Sikkim.
    Rimo rests in the northern part of the Rimo Muztagh which is a sub range of the Karakoram Range and is located about 20 km northeast of the snout of the Siachen Glacier.
13. Question 13 of 100

    13. Question

    Consider the following rivers:
    (1) Chip Chap River
    (2) Shyok River
    (3) Karakash River
    (4) Galwan River
    The Depsang Plains are bounded by how many of the rivers mentioned above?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Depsang Plains are located in the north-western part of Aksai Chin.
    They are bounded on the north by the valley of the Chip Chap River and on the west by the Shyok River. On the east they are bounded by low hills of the “Lak Tsung” range, which separate them from the basin of the Karakash River.
    In the south, the Depsang Plains proper end at the Depsang La pass, but in common parlance, the Depsang region is taken to include the mountainous region to the south of it, including the “Depsang Bulge”.
    The Karakoram Pass is located to the north of the Depsang Plains while the Lingzi Thang plains lie to the southeast. On the west is the southern part of the Rimo glacier, the source of the Shyok River.
    Galwan River does not directly bound the Depsang Plains.
    Hence, options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Depsang Plains are located in the north-western part of Aksai Chin.
    They are bounded on the north by the valley of the Chip Chap River and on the west by the Shyok River. On the east they are bounded by low hills of the “Lak Tsung” range, which separate them from the basin of the Karakash River.
    In the south, the Depsang Plains proper end at the Depsang La pass, but in common parlance, the Depsang region is taken to include the mountainous region to the south of it, including the “Depsang Bulge”.
    The Karakoram Pass is located to the north of the Depsang Plains while the Lingzi Thang plains lie to the southeast. On the west is the southern part of the Rimo glacier, the source of the Shyok River.
    Galwan River does not directly bound the Depsang Plains.
    Hence, options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
14. Question 14 of 100

    14. Question

    Peninsular Hills are of the relict type, being remnants of the originally higher hills but some typical horsts are also seen. In this context, consider the following statements:
    (1) Bharner and Kaimur hills form the eastern part of the Satpura Range.
    (2) Dhupgarh near Panchmarhi on Mahadev Hills is the highest peak of the Vindhyan range.
    (3) Tapti originates from the Amarkantak plateau.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Bharner and Kaimur hills form the eastern part of the Vindhyan Range.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Dhupgarh (1,350 m) near Pachmarhi on Mahadev Hills is the highest peak of Satpura.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Tapti River originates in the Betul plateau.
    Hill Ranges of Indian Peninsular Plateau
    Hill Ranges of Indian Peninsular Plateau are 1. The Aravalli Range, 2. The Vindhyan Range, 3. The Satpura Range, 4. The Western Ghats (or the Sahyadris), 5. The Eastern Ghats.
    Most of these hills are of the relict type, being remnants of the originally higher hills. Aravalli are the oldest fold mountains in India.
    The Vindhyan Range rises as an escarpment flanking the northern edge of the Narmada-Son Trough overlooking the Narmada valley. It runs more or less parallel to the Narmada Valley in an east-west direction.
    The western part of this range is covered with lava while the eastern part extends as the Bharner and Kaimur hills.
    The Satpura Range: ‘Sat’ means seven and ‘pura’ means mountains. Therefore, the Satpura range is a series of seven mountains. It runs in an east-west direction south of the Vindhyas and in between the Narmada and the Tapi, roughly parallel to these rivers. Dhupgarh (1,350 m) near Pachmarhi on Mahadev Hills is the highest peak of Satpura.
    Tapti River originates in the Betul plateau and Narmada River takes its birth in Amarkantak plateau.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Bharner and Kaimur hills form the eastern part of the Vindhyan Range.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Dhupgarh (1,350 m) near Pachmarhi on Mahadev Hills is the highest peak of Satpura.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Tapti River originates in the Betul plateau.
    Hill Ranges of Indian Peninsular Plateau
    Hill Ranges of Indian Peninsular Plateau are 1. The Aravalli Range, 2. The Vindhyan Range, 3. The Satpura Range, 4. The Western Ghats (or the Sahyadris), 5. The Eastern Ghats.
    Most of these hills are of the relict type, being remnants of the originally higher hills. Aravalli are the oldest fold mountains in India.
    The Vindhyan Range rises as an escarpment flanking the northern edge of the Narmada-Son Trough overlooking the Narmada valley. It runs more or less parallel to the Narmada Valley in an east-west direction.
    The western part of this range is covered with lava while the eastern part extends as the Bharner and Kaimur hills.
    The Satpura Range: ‘Sat’ means seven and ‘pura’ means mountains. Therefore, the Satpura range is a series of seven mountains. It runs in an east-west direction south of the Vindhyas and in between the Narmada and the Tapi, roughly parallel to these rivers. Dhupgarh (1,350 m) near Pachmarhi on Mahadev Hills is the highest peak of Satpura.
    Tapti River originates in the Betul plateau and Narmada River takes its birth in Amarkantak plateau.
15. Question 15 of 100

    15. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding India-UAE Relations :
    (1) The two countries signed agreements on interlinking of digital payment platforms- UPI (India) and AANI (UAE).
    (2) Bharat Mart aims to integrate retail, warehousing, and logistics services at Jebel Ali Free Trade Zone in Dubai, potentially boosting exports from India’s micro, small, and medium sectors.
    (3) India and the UAE established diplomatic relations in 1972.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    India-UAE signed agreements on the interlinking of digital payment platforms- UPI (India) and AANI (UAE). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    This will facilitate seamless cross-border transactions between India and UAE, enhancing financial connectivity and cooperation.
    The Indian Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of Bharat Mart, which aims to integrate retail, warehousing, and logistics services at Jebel Ali Free Trade Zone in Dubai, potentially boosting exports from India’s micro, small, and medium sectors by offering them access to international buyers in the Gulf, West Asia, Africa, and Eurasia. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    India and the UAE established diplomatic relations in 1972. Indian PM Indira Gandhi visited UAE in 1981. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    India-UAE signed agreements on the interlinking of digital payment platforms- UPI (India) and AANI (UAE). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    This will facilitate seamless cross-border transactions between India and UAE, enhancing financial connectivity and cooperation.
    The Indian Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of Bharat Mart, which aims to integrate retail, warehousing, and logistics services at Jebel Ali Free Trade Zone in Dubai, potentially boosting exports from India’s micro, small, and medium sectors by offering them access to international buyers in the Gulf, West Asia, Africa, and Eurasia. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    India and the UAE established diplomatic relations in 1972. Indian PM Indira Gandhi visited UAE in 1981. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
16. Question 16 of 100

    16. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Western Coastal Plains of India :
    (1) As compared to eastern coastal plain, the western coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast.
    (2) It has less number of ports and harbours as compared to eastern coastal plain.
    (3) It is broader in the middle and get narrower towards North and South.
    (4) The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: As compared to western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It has more number of ports and harbours as compared to eastern coastal plain.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It is broader in the North and South and is narrower in the middle.
    Western Coastal Plains of India
    As compared to western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast.
    It has more number of ports and harbours as compared to eastern coastal plain.
    It is broader in the North and South and is narrower in the middle.
    Statement 4 is correct: The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: As compared to western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It has more number of ports and harbours as compared to eastern coastal plain.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It is broader in the North and South and is narrower in the middle.
    Western Coastal Plains of India
    As compared to western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast.
    It has more number of ports and harbours as compared to eastern coastal plain.
    It is broader in the North and South and is narrower in the middle.
    Statement 4 is correct: The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.
17. Question 17 of 100

    17. Question

    Arrange the following countries into the increasing order of the length of border with India:
    (1) Pakistan
    (2) Nepal
    (3) Myanmar
    (4) Bhutan
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) 4-3-2-1
    (B) 4-2-1-3
    (C) 3-2-1-4
    (D) 3-1-4-2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The correct order is- Bhutan- Myanmar- Nepal- Pakistan.
    Country: length of border (in Kms) with India
    Bangladesh: 4,096.7
    China: 3,488
    Pakistan: 3,323
    Nepal: 1,751
    Myanmar: 1,643
    Bhutan: 699
    Afghanistan: 106

    Unattempted
    

    The correct order is- Bhutan- Myanmar- Nepal- Pakistan.
    Country: length of border (in Kms) with India
    Bangladesh: 4,096.7
    China: 3,488
    Pakistan: 3,323
    Nepal: 1,751
    Myanmar: 1,643
    Bhutan: 699
    Afghanistan: 106
18. Question 18 of 100

    18. Question

    Arrange the following faults of the Himalayas in north-south direction:
    (1) Main Central Thrust
    (2) Himalayan Frontal Thrust
    (3) Main Boundary Thrust
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1-2-3
    (B) 1-3-2
    (C) 2-3-1
    (D) 3-1-2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The correct order is – Main Central Thrust- Main Boundary Thrust- Himalayan Frontal Thrust.
    Active faults of the Himalayas
    The geology of the Himalayas on its southern side is characterized by three major tectonic units:
    The Main Central Thrust (MCT), the Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) and the Himalayan Frontal Thrust (HFT) or the Main Frontal Thrust (MFT).
    These structures essentially separate the different rocky formations that characterize the different stages of the Himalayan outcrop—the higher Himalayas, the lesser Himalayas, and the sub-Himalayan Shivalik range.
    The highest and the oldest of these is the MCT, which is a north-dipping fault and marks the tectonic contact between the higher and the lesser Himalayas.
    The lesser and the sub-Himalayas are separated by the MBT.
    The HFT or the MFT constitutes the southern-most and the youngest thrust.

    Unattempted
    

    The correct order is – Main Central Thrust- Main Boundary Thrust- Himalayan Frontal Thrust.
    Active faults of the Himalayas
    The geology of the Himalayas on its southern side is characterized by three major tectonic units:
    The Main Central Thrust (MCT), the Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) and the Himalayan Frontal Thrust (HFT) or the Main Frontal Thrust (MFT).
    These structures essentially separate the different rocky formations that characterize the different stages of the Himalayan outcrop—the higher Himalayas, the lesser Himalayas, and the sub-Himalayan Shivalik range.
    The highest and the oldest of these is the MCT, which is a north-dipping fault and marks the tectonic contact between the higher and the lesser Himalayas.
    The lesser and the sub-Himalayas are separated by the MBT.
    The HFT or the MFT constitutes the southern-most and the youngest thrust.
19. Question 19 of 100

    19. Question

    Consider the following pairs :
    Bridges : Rivers
    (1) Bhupen Hazarika Setu : Lohit
    (2) Daulat Beg Oldi Bridge : Galwan
    (3) Naranarayan Setu : Ganga
    (4) Anji Khad Bridge : Kaveri
    How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched : Daulat Beg Oldi Bridge is built over river Shyok.
    Pair 3 is incorrectly matched : Naranarayan Bridge has been constructed over the Brahmaputra River.
    Bridges on Himalayan Rivers
    The 4.9 km-long Bogibeel Bridge on the Brahmaputra River boasts of being Asia’s second longest rail-cum-road bridge.
    Pair 1 is correctly matched : The three lane, 9.15 kilometre Dhola-Sadiya Bridge has been built over river Lohit, a tributary of River Brahmaputra, and links Dhola in Assam to Sadiya in Arunachal Pradesh. It is also referred to as the Bhupen Hazarika Setu.
    The Border Road Organisation (BRO) had built the all-weather, 70-tonne Bridge over the river Shyok and the 255-km-long Darbuk Shyok Daulat Beg Oldi (DSDBO) road under ‘Project Himank’.
    Naranarayan was the third bridge to have been constructed over the Brahmaputra River in Assam. The Naranarayan Setu is named after Nara Narayan, a 16th-century Koch king.
    Pair 4 is incorrectly matched : Anji Khad Bridge is constructed over the Anji River, a tributary of the Chenab River between Katra and Reasi.

    Unattempted
    

    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched : Daulat Beg Oldi Bridge is built over river Shyok.
    Pair 3 is incorrectly matched : Naranarayan Bridge has been constructed over the Brahmaputra River.
    Bridges on Himalayan Rivers
    The 4.9 km-long Bogibeel Bridge on the Brahmaputra River boasts of being Asia’s second longest rail-cum-road bridge.
    Pair 1 is correctly matched : The three lane, 9.15 kilometre Dhola-Sadiya Bridge has been built over river Lohit, a tributary of River Brahmaputra, and links Dhola in Assam to Sadiya in Arunachal Pradesh. It is also referred to as the Bhupen Hazarika Setu.
    The Border Road Organisation (BRO) had built the all-weather, 70-tonne Bridge over the river Shyok and the 255-km-long Darbuk Shyok Daulat Beg Oldi (DSDBO) road under ‘Project Himank’.
    Naranarayan was the third bridge to have been constructed over the Brahmaputra River in Assam. The Naranarayan Setu is named after Nara Narayan, a 16th-century Koch king.
    Pair 4 is incorrectly matched : Anji Khad Bridge is constructed over the Anji River, a tributary of the Chenab River between Katra and Reasi.
20. Question 20 of 100

    20. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding a river:
    (1) Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located on the western tip of an Island named Chorao along this river.
    (2) It is one of the thirteen west flowing rivers which run through Karnataka.
    (3) The river Mapusa is a tributary of this river.
    Which of the following rivers is being described above?
    (A) Zuari
    (B) Nethravathi
    (C) Mandovi
    (D) Sharavathi

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Mandovi River also known as Mahadayi or Mhadei River, is described as the lifeline of the Indian state of Goa. The Mandovi and the Zuari are the two primary rivers in the state of Goa.
    It originates from a cluster of 30 springs at Bhimgad in the Western Ghats in the Belagam district of Karnataka. It is one of the thirteen west flowing rivers in Karnataka. Others are Sharavathi, Kalinadi, Gangavalli, Aghanashini, Chakra Nadi, Varahi, Netravathy, and Barapole, etc.
    The river Mapusa is a tributary of the Mandovi. The Cumbarjuem Canal, which links both rivers, has made the interiors of the Mandovi accessible to ships carrying iron ore.
    Mandovi joins with the Zuari at a common creek at Cabo Aguada, forming the Mormugao harbour.
    Three large freshwater isles — Divar, Chorao and Vanxim are present in the Mandovi near the town of Old Goa.
    Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is an estuarine mangrove habitat, which is declared as the bird sanctuary, and located on western tip of the Island of Chorao along the Mandovi River.

    Unattempted
    

    The Mandovi River also known as Mahadayi or Mhadei River, is described as the lifeline of the Indian state of Goa. The Mandovi and the Zuari are the two primary rivers in the state of Goa.
    It originates from a cluster of 30 springs at Bhimgad in the Western Ghats in the Belagam district of Karnataka. It is one of the thirteen west flowing rivers in Karnataka. Others are Sharavathi, Kalinadi, Gangavalli, Aghanashini, Chakra Nadi, Varahi, Netravathy, and Barapole, etc.
    The river Mapusa is a tributary of the Mandovi. The Cumbarjuem Canal, which links both rivers, has made the interiors of the Mandovi accessible to ships carrying iron ore.
    Mandovi joins with the Zuari at a common creek at Cabo Aguada, forming the Mormugao harbour.
    Three large freshwater isles — Divar, Chorao and Vanxim are present in the Mandovi near the town of Old Goa.
    Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is an estuarine mangrove habitat, which is declared as the bird sanctuary, and located on western tip of the Island of Chorao along the Mandovi River.
21. Question 21 of 100

    21. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Indian deserts:
    (1) It is found along the eastern margin of the Aravalli Hills which receives rainfall less than 150cm per year.
    (2) The cold desert of Ladakh is enclosed by Karakoram Range and Zanskar mountains.
    (3) The longitudinal dunes are prominent along Indo-Pakistan border.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills.
    The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills.
    It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
    This region receives very low rainfall below 150 mm per year. It has arid climate with low vegetation cover.
    Barchans (crescent-shaped dunes) cover larger areas but longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo-Pakistan boundary.
    Ladakh is a cold desert lying in the Great Himalayas, on the eastern side of Jammu and Kashmir.
    The Karakoram Range in the north and the Zanskar mountains in the south enclose it.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills.
    The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills.
    It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
    This region receives very low rainfall below 150 mm per year. It has arid climate with low vegetation cover.
    Barchans (crescent-shaped dunes) cover larger areas but longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo-Pakistan boundary.
    Ladakh is a cold desert lying in the Great Himalayas, on the eastern side of Jammu and Kashmir.
    The Karakoram Range in the north and the Zanskar mountains in the south enclose it.
22. Question 22 of 100

    22. Question

    Consider the following islands of Andaman & Nicobar Island group:
    (1) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island
    (2) Swaraj Dweep
    (3) Shaheed Dweep
    (4) North Sentinel Island
    Arrange the above given islands from north to south direction:
    (A) 1-4-3-2
    (B) 2-4-3-1
    (C) 2-3-1-4
    (D) 3-2-1-4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The correct order from North to south is- Swaraj Dweep – Shaheed Dweep – Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Dweep – North Sentinel Island.
    Islands of Andaman & Nicobar Islands
    Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island
    The Ross Island was renamed as Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Dweep.
    It was named after Captain Daniel Ross.
    Shaheed Dweep
    The Neil Island was renamed as Shaheed Dweep.
    Neil Island is also known as the vegetable bowl of the Andaman Islands; thanks to its climatic conditions the land is ideal for thecultivation of fruits and vegetables.
    Swaraj Dweep
    The Havelock Island was renamed as Swaraj Dweep.
    Officially, it is part of South Andaman administrative district.
    North Sentinel Island
    It is a small island, off the main shipping routes, surrounded by a shallow reef with no natural harbors.
    The Sentinelese people are related to other indigenous groups in the Andaman Islands, a chain of islands in India’s Bay of Bengal.

    Unattempted
    

    The correct order from North to south is- Swaraj Dweep – Shaheed Dweep – Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Dweep – North Sentinel Island.
    Islands of Andaman & Nicobar Islands
    Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island
    The Ross Island was renamed as Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Dweep.
    It was named after Captain Daniel Ross.
    Shaheed Dweep
    The Neil Island was renamed as Shaheed Dweep.
    Neil Island is also known as the vegetable bowl of the Andaman Islands; thanks to its climatic conditions the land is ideal for thecultivation of fruits and vegetables.
    Swaraj Dweep
    The Havelock Island was renamed as Swaraj Dweep.
    Officially, it is part of South Andaman administrative district.
    North Sentinel Island
    It is a small island, off the main shipping routes, surrounded by a shallow reef with no natural harbors.
    The Sentinelese people are related to other indigenous groups in the Andaman Islands, a chain of islands in India’s Bay of Bengal.
23. Question 23 of 100

    23. Question

    How many of the following countries bordering the Aral Sea?
    (1) Turkmenistan
    (2) Kazakhstan
    (3) Uzbekistan
    (4) Kyrgyzstan
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Aral Sea basin covers 1.5 million square kilometers in Central Asia and is predominantly shared by six countries: Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and Afghanistan. The Aral Sea is bordered by Kazakhstan and the autonomous Republic of Karakalpakstan in Uzbekistan.

    Unattempted
    

    The Aral Sea basin covers 1.5 million square kilometers in Central Asia and is predominantly shared by six countries: Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and Afghanistan. The Aral Sea is bordered by Kazakhstan and the autonomous Republic of Karakalpakstan in Uzbekistan.
24. Question 24 of 100

    24. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to Falkland Island:
    (1) Falkland Islands are otherwise called as Malvinas Islands.
    (2) The capital of Falkland is Stanley
    (3) It is an internally self-governing overseas territory of the USA in the South Atlantic Ocean.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Falkland Islands, also known as Malvinas Islands, are an archipelago consisting of two main islands (East and West Falkland) and 778 smaller islands, with a total area of approximately 4,700 sq. m (half the size of Wales). The Falkland Islands are situated in the South Atlantic, some 400 miles from the South American mainland and 850 miles north of the Antarctic Circle. So, statement 1 is correct.
    The major town and capital is Stanley on the East Falkland. It also has several scattered small settlements and also a Royal Air Force base. So, statement 2 is correct.
    It is an internally self-governing overseas territory of the United Kingdom in the South Atlantic Ocean. So, statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Falkland Islands, also known as Malvinas Islands, are an archipelago consisting of two main islands (East and West Falkland) and 778 smaller islands, with a total area of approximately 4,700 sq. m (half the size of Wales). The Falkland Islands are situated in the South Atlantic, some 400 miles from the South American mainland and 850 miles north of the Antarctic Circle. So, statement 1 is correct.
    The major town and capital is Stanley on the East Falkland. It also has several scattered small settlements and also a Royal Air Force base. So, statement 2 is correct.
    It is an internally self-governing overseas territory of the United Kingdom in the South Atlantic Ocean. So, statement 3 is not correct.
25. Question 25 of 100

    25. Question

    Which of the following sea separates the Asian and African Continent?
    (A) Black Sea
    (B) Red Sea
    (C) Mediterranean Sea
    (D) Caspian Sea

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Red Sea is a semi-enclosed inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa from Asia. It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the South through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow Strait of Bab el Mandeb. The Sinai Peninsula bifurcates the northern portion of the Red Sea into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez, where it is connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the famous Suez Canal. So, option (B) is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Red Sea is a semi-enclosed inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa from Asia. It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the South through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow Strait of Bab el Mandeb. The Sinai Peninsula bifurcates the northern portion of the Red Sea into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez, where it is connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the famous Suez Canal. So, option (B) is correct.
26. Question 26 of 100

    26. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to Lake Victoria:
    (1) Lake Victoria is the second largest freshwater lake in the World in terms of area.
    (2) It is the largest temperate lake in the World.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    After Lake Superior, Lake Victoria is considered the second-largest freshwater lake on the planet. The huge area of Lake Victoria is shared by the African nations of Tanzania (49%), Uganda (45%), and Kenya (6%). So, statement 1 is correct.
    Lake Victoria covering a huge area of about 59,947 sq. km, is the largest lake on the African continent and is also the biggest tropical lake in the World. So, statement 2 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    After Lake Superior, Lake Victoria is considered the second-largest freshwater lake on the planet. The huge area of Lake Victoria is shared by the African nations of Tanzania (49%), Uganda (45%), and Kenya (6%). So, statement 1 is correct.
    Lake Victoria covering a huge area of about 59,947 sq. km, is the largest lake on the African continent and is also the biggest tropical lake in the World. So, statement 2 is not correct.
27. Question 27 of 100

    27. Question

    Sunda Strait connects which of the following water bodies?
    (A) Celebes Sea & Java Sea.
    (B) Java Sea & Indian Ocean
    (C) East China Sea & South China Sea
    (D) East Siberian Sea & Bering Sea

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Sunda Strait is situated between the Indonesian islands of Sumatra in the northwest and Java in the southeast. It links the Java Sea of the western Pacific Ocean with the eastern Indian Ocean. So, option (B) is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Sunda Strait is situated between the Indonesian islands of Sumatra in the northwest and Java in the southeast. It links the Java Sea of the western Pacific Ocean with the eastern Indian Ocean. So, option (B) is correct.
28. Question 28 of 100

    28. Question

    How many of the following is/are the right bank tributaries of Brahmaputra?
    (1) Subansiri River.
    (2) Manas River
    (3) Sankosh River
    (4) Teesta River
    (5) Lohit River
    Select the correct answers using the code given below:
    (A) None
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only four
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Brahmaputra River originates in the north from the Kailash ranges of the Himalayas at an elevation of 5,150 m just south of the lake called Konggyu Tsho and flows for about a total length of 2,900 km. In India, it flows for 916 km. The principal tributaries of the river joining from the right are the Dibang, the Subansiri, the Jiabharali, the Dhansiri, the Manas, the Torsa, the Sankosh and the Teesta, whereas the Burhidihing, the Desang, the Dikhow, the Dhansiri, the Lohit and the Kopili joins it from left. Hence, options 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Brahmaputra River originates in the north from the Kailash ranges of the Himalayas at an elevation of 5,150 m just south of the lake called Konggyu Tsho and flows for about a total length of 2,900 km. In India, it flows for 916 km. The principal tributaries of the river joining from the right are the Dibang, the Subansiri, the Jiabharali, the Dhansiri, the Manas, the Torsa, the Sankosh and the Teesta, whereas the Burhidihing, the Desang, the Dikhow, the Dhansiri, the Lohit and the Kopili joins it from left. Hence, options 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
29. Question 29 of 100

    29. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to Kabini :
    (1) Kabini River originates in the Wayanad district of Kerela in the Western Ghats.
    (2) The Kabini is an important tributary of the river Cauvery.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Kabini river originates in the Wayanad District of Kerala in the Western Ghats by the confluence of the Panamaram River and the Mananthavady River. It has a drainage basin of 7,040 sq. km and forms the border between Kerala and Karnataka state for about 12 km. So, statement 1 is correct.
    Kabini river flows eastward, and it is a Major tributary of the Kaveri River at Tirumakudalu Narasipura in Karnataka. The Kaveri river then irrigates Tamil Nadu, and it is a major drinking water source before emptying into the Bay of Bengal near kaveripoompattinam. So, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Kabini river originates in the Wayanad District of Kerala in the Western Ghats by the confluence of the Panamaram River and the Mananthavady River. It has a drainage basin of 7,040 sq. km and forms the border between Kerala and Karnataka state for about 12 km. So, statement 1 is correct.
    Kabini river flows eastward, and it is a Major tributary of the Kaveri River at Tirumakudalu Narasipura in Karnataka. The Kaveri river then irrigates Tamil Nadu, and it is a major drinking water source before emptying into the Bay of Bengal near kaveripoompattinam. So, statement 2 is correct.
30. Question 30 of 100

    30. Question

    With reference to ‘Karewas’, consider the following statements:
    (1) Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.
    (2) Karewa formations are useful for the cultivation of tea.
    (3) These are formed in Kashmir Himalayas.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.
    Statement 2 is not correct: Karewa formations are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
    Statement 3 is correct: The Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.
    Statement 2 is not correct: Karewa formations are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
    Statement 3 is correct: The Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations.
31. Question 31 of 100

    31. Question

    With reference to Organisms and their populations, consider the following statements:
    (1) Allen's Rule states that mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss
    (2) Parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host incubate them is known as Endoparasitism.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. (This is called the Allen’s Rule.) In the polar seas aquatic mammals like seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) below their skin that acts as an insulator and reduces loss of body heat.
    Statement 2 is not correct: Brood parasitism in birds is a fascinating example of parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host incubate them.
    During the course of evolution, the eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them from the nest.
    Parasites may be characterized as ectoparasites—including ticks, fleas, leeches, and lice—which live on the body surface of the host and do not themselves commonly cause disease in the host; or endoparasites, which may be either intercellular (inhabiting spaces in the host’s body) or intracellular (inhabiting cells in the host’s body).

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. (This is called the Allen’s Rule.) In the polar seas aquatic mammals like seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) below their skin that acts as an insulator and reduces loss of body heat.
    Statement 2 is not correct: Brood parasitism in birds is a fascinating example of parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host incubate them.
    During the course of evolution, the eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them from the nest.
    Parasites may be characterized as ectoparasites—including ticks, fleas, leeches, and lice—which live on the body surface of the host and do not themselves commonly cause disease in the host; or endoparasites, which may be either intercellular (inhabiting spaces in the host’s body) or intracellular (inhabiting cells in the host’s body).
32. Question 32 of 100

    32. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) A Marine Heat Wave (MHW) is an extreme event when a sea region's surface temperature rises 3-4°C above its average for at least five days.
    (2) The Extreme Event Attribution (EEA) technique assesses how much human-induced climate change affects specific extreme weather events.
    (3) MHWs also fuel the growth of invasive alien species, which can be destructive to marine food webs.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A Marine Heat Wave (MHW) is an extreme weather event. It occurs when the surface temperature of a particular region of the sea rises to 3 or 4 degrees Celsius above the average temperature for at least five days. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    According to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), MHWs can last for weeks, months or even years.
    The Extreme Event Attribution (EEA) technique determines the extent to which human-induced climate change influences the likelihood and severity of specific extreme weather events. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    MHWs also fuel the growth of invasive alien species, which can be destructive to marine food webs. Additionally, they force species to change their behavior in a way that puts wildlife at increased risk of harm — MHWs have been linked to whale entanglements in fishing gear, according to a report by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A Marine Heat Wave (MHW) is an extreme weather event. It occurs when the surface temperature of a particular region of the sea rises to 3 or 4 degrees Celsius above the average temperature for at least five days. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    According to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), MHWs can last for weeks, months or even years.
    The Extreme Event Attribution (EEA) technique determines the extent to which human-induced climate change influences the likelihood and severity of specific extreme weather events. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    MHWs also fuel the growth of invasive alien species, which can be destructive to marine food webs. Additionally, they force species to change their behavior in a way that puts wildlife at increased risk of harm — MHWs have been linked to whale entanglements in fishing gear, according to a report by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
33. Question 33 of 100

    33. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Peak : State
    (1) Sandakphu peak : Mizoram
    (2) Phawngpui : Manipur
    (3) Agasthyarkoodam : Kerala
    (4) Gorichen : Arunachal Pradesh
    How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Sandakphu or Sandakfu or Sandakpur is the highest peak in the district of Ilam, Nepal and West Bengal, India. It is the highest point of the Singalila Ridge in Darjeeling district on the West Bengal-Nepal border. The peak is located at the edge of the Singalila National Park.
    Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Phawngpui, also known as Blue Mountain is the highest mountain peak in the Mizoram.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched: Agasthyakoodam is the second highest peak in Kerala has long been known as a bird watcher’s paradise and many gather here to catch sight of exotic avian species. It can be viewed from near Neyyar Dam as well as Bonacaud.
    Pair 4 is correctly matched: Gorichen Peak with the stature of 6858 m is the most astounding top in Arunachal Pradesh. The mountain is arranged in the Tawang District.

    Unattempted
    

    Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Sandakphu or Sandakfu or Sandakpur is the highest peak in the district of Ilam, Nepal and West Bengal, India. It is the highest point of the Singalila Ridge in Darjeeling district on the West Bengal-Nepal border. The peak is located at the edge of the Singalila National Park.
    Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Phawngpui, also known as Blue Mountain is the highest mountain peak in the Mizoram.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched: Agasthyakoodam is the second highest peak in Kerala has long been known as a bird watcher’s paradise and many gather here to catch sight of exotic avian species. It can be viewed from near Neyyar Dam as well as Bonacaud.
    Pair 4 is correctly matched: Gorichen Peak with the stature of 6858 m is the most astounding top in Arunachal Pradesh. The mountain is arranged in the Tawang District.
34. Question 34 of 100

    34. Question

    With reference to the Zabti System, consider the following statements:
    (1) This system was developed by Akbar.
    (2) The revenue is fixed according to the continuity of cultivation and quality of soil.
    (3) This system was predominant in northern India only.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: the Zabti was the system most in use in different parts of the Mughal empire. Developed by Akbar on the lines laid down by Sher Shah, it set up a demand schedule differing, though ever so slightly, from one assessment circle to another.
    Statement 2 is correct: The revenue, fixed according to the continuity of cultivation and quality of soil, ranged from one-third to one-half of production value and was payable in copper coin (dāms).
    The peasants thus had to enter the market and sell their produce in order to meet the assessment.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The system, called zabt, was applied in northern India and in Malwa and parts of Gujarat. The earlier practices (e.g., crop sharing), however, also were in vogue in the empire. The new system encouraged rapid economic expansion. Moneylenders and grain dealers became increasingly active in the countryside.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: the Zabti was the system most in use in different parts of the Mughal empire. Developed by Akbar on the lines laid down by Sher Shah, it set up a demand schedule differing, though ever so slightly, from one assessment circle to another.
    Statement 2 is correct: The revenue, fixed according to the continuity of cultivation and quality of soil, ranged from one-third to one-half of production value and was payable in copper coin (dāms).
    The peasants thus had to enter the market and sell their produce in order to meet the assessment.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The system, called zabt, was applied in northern India and in Malwa and parts of Gujarat. The earlier practices (e.g., crop sharing), however, also were in vogue in the empire. The new system encouraged rapid economic expansion. Moneylenders and grain dealers became increasingly active in the countryside.
35. Question 35 of 100

    35. Question

    With reference to Sangam Literature, consider the following statements:
    (1) The earliest works in Tamil literature called the Sangam Literature was composed and compiled in assemblies (known as sangams) of poets that were held in the city of Madurai.
    (2) The Sangam literature provides details regarding the administration during the Sangam Age.
    (3) Tolkappiyam was the earliest of the Sangam Literature.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Some of the earliest works in Tamil, known as Sangam literature, were composed around 2300 years ago. These texts were called Sangam because they were supposed to have been composed and compiled in assemblies (known as sangams) of poets that were held in the city of Madurai.
    Statement 2 is correct: The Sangam literature provides details regarding the administration during the Sangam Age. Monarchy was the system of government during this period. The king was called as Vendan, Ko and Irai. The local chieftains were known as Velirs. The law of succession was practiced and the eldest son had enjoyed the right to succeed his father.
    Statement 3 is correct: The Sangam literature chiefly consists of Tolkappiyam, Ettuttogai and Pattuppattu. These works provide valuable information to know the history of the Sangam Age. Among these, Tolkappiyam was the earliest.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Some of the earliest works in Tamil, known as Sangam literature, were composed around 2300 years ago. These texts were called Sangam because they were supposed to have been composed and compiled in assemblies (known as sangams) of poets that were held in the city of Madurai.
    Statement 2 is correct: The Sangam literature provides details regarding the administration during the Sangam Age. Monarchy was the system of government during this period. The king was called as Vendan, Ko and Irai. The local chieftains were known as Velirs. The law of succession was practiced and the eldest son had enjoyed the right to succeed his father.
    Statement 3 is correct: The Sangam literature chiefly consists of Tolkappiyam, Ettuttogai and Pattuppattu. These works provide valuable information to know the history of the Sangam Age. Among these, Tolkappiyam was the earliest.
36. Question 36 of 100

    36. Question

    With reference to the arts of Mauryan period, consider the following statements:
    (1) The Mauryan stone pillars mirrored the rockcut pillars of the Achamenian empire
    (2) Events from the life of the Buddha, the Jataka stories, were depicted on the railings and torans of the stupas.
    (3) Lomus Rishi cave is an example of Mauryan Period architecture.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: The tradition of constructing pillars is very old and it may be observed that erection of pillars was prevalent in the Achamenian empire as well.
    But the Mauryan pillars are different from the Achamenian pillars. The Mauryan pillars are rockcut pillars thus displaying the carver’s skills, whereas the Achamenian pillars are constructed in pieces by a mason.
    Statement 2 is correct: The stupa consists of a cylindrical drum and a circular anda with a harmika and chhatra on the top which remain consistent throughout with minor variations and changes in shape and size. Apart from the circumambulatory path, gateways were added.
    Thus, with the elaborations in stupa architecture, there was ample space for the architects and sculptors to plan elaborations and to carve out images.During the early phase of Buddhism, Buddha is depicted symbolically through footprints, stupas, lotus throne, chakra, etc.
    This indicates either simple worship, or paying respect, or at times depicts historisisation of life events. Gradually narrative became a part of the Buddhist tradition. Thus events from the life of the Buddha, the Jataka stories, were depicted on the railings and torans of the stupas. Mainly synoptic narrative, continuous narrative and episodic narrative are used in the pictorial tradition.
    Statement 3 is correct: The rock-cut cave carved at Barabar hills near Gaya in Bihar is known as the Lomus Rishi cave. The façade of the cave is decorated with the semicircular chaitya arch as the entrance. The elephant frieze carved in high relief on the chaitya arch shows considerable movement. The interior hall of this cave is rectangular with a circular chamber at the back. The entrance is located on the side wall of the hall. The cave was donated by Ashoka for the Ajivika sect.
    The Lomus Rishi cave is an example of this period. But many Buddhist caves of the subsequent periods were excavated in eastern and western India.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: The tradition of constructing pillars is very old and it may be observed that erection of pillars was prevalent in the Achamenian empire as well.
    But the Mauryan pillars are different from the Achamenian pillars. The Mauryan pillars are rockcut pillars thus displaying the carver’s skills, whereas the Achamenian pillars are constructed in pieces by a mason.
    Statement 2 is correct: The stupa consists of a cylindrical drum and a circular anda with a harmika and chhatra on the top which remain consistent throughout with minor variations and changes in shape and size. Apart from the circumambulatory path, gateways were added.
    Thus, with the elaborations in stupa architecture, there was ample space for the architects and sculptors to plan elaborations and to carve out images.During the early phase of Buddhism, Buddha is depicted symbolically through footprints, stupas, lotus throne, chakra, etc.
    This indicates either simple worship, or paying respect, or at times depicts historisisation of life events. Gradually narrative became a part of the Buddhist tradition. Thus events from the life of the Buddha, the Jataka stories, were depicted on the railings and torans of the stupas. Mainly synoptic narrative, continuous narrative and episodic narrative are used in the pictorial tradition.
    Statement 3 is correct: The rock-cut cave carved at Barabar hills near Gaya in Bihar is known as the Lomus Rishi cave. The façade of the cave is decorated with the semicircular chaitya arch as the entrance. The elephant frieze carved in high relief on the chaitya arch shows considerable movement. The interior hall of this cave is rectangular with a circular chamber at the back. The entrance is located on the side wall of the hall. The cave was donated by Ashoka for the Ajivika sect.
    The Lomus Rishi cave is an example of this period. But many Buddhist caves of the subsequent periods were excavated in eastern and western India.
37. Question 37 of 100

    37. Question

    With reference to “Textile recycling”, consider the following statements:
    (1) Textile recycling is more convenient compared to recycling materials like glass or paper.
    (2) The vast majority of recycled textiles come from plastic bottles.
    (3) T-shirt made from recycled polyester cannot be recycled again.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Textile recycling is more complex compared to recycling materials like glass or paper. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The vast majority (93%) of recycled textiles come from plastic bottles or PET bottles (polyethylene terephthalate), which are made from fossil fuels. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    However, unlike plastic bottles that can be recycled multiple times, a T-shirt made from recycled polyester cannot be recycled again. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Textile recycling is more complex compared to recycling materials like glass or paper. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The vast majority (93%) of recycled textiles come from plastic bottles or PET bottles (polyethylene terephthalate), which are made from fossil fuels. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    However, unlike plastic bottles that can be recycled multiple times, a T-shirt made from recycled polyester cannot be recycled again. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
38. Question 38 of 100

    38. Question

    With reference to Muhammad bin Tughlaq, consider the following statements:
    (1) He founded the Tughlaq dynasty with his nephew Firuz Shah Tughlaq
    (2) He was the first Sultan to provide high post to the hindu and various people belonging to lower caste.
    (3) Despite being functionally illiterate, Muhammad Bin Tughlaq extented patronage to various scholars from multiple religions.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq established a new dynasty which ruled till 1412. The Tughlaqs provided three competent rulers: Ghiyasuddin, his son Muhammad bin Tughlaq (1324—51), and his nephew Firuz Shah Tughlaq (1351—88).The first two of these sultans ruled over an empire which comprised almost the entire country.
    The empire of Firuz was smaller but even then it was almost as large as that ruled over by Alauddin Khalji. After the death of Firuz, the Delhi Sultanat disintegrated and north India was divided into a series of small states.
    Although the Tughlaqs continued to rule till 1412, the invasion of Delhi by Timur in 1398 may be said to mark the end of the Tughlaq empire.
    Statement 2 is correct: Among all the Sultans of Delhi Sultanate, Muhammad Bin Tughlaq's empire extended in the largest area. His empire was divided into 23 provinces. He was the first Sultan to provide high post to the Hindus and various people belonging to lower caste.
    Statement 3 is not correct: Muhammad bin Tughlaq was one of the most remarkable rulers of his age. He was deeply read in religion and philosophy, and had a critical and open mind. He conversed not only with the Muslim mystics, but also with the Hindu yogis and Jain saints such as Jinaprabha Suri.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq established a new dynasty which ruled till 1412. The Tughlaqs provided three competent rulers: Ghiyasuddin, his son Muhammad bin Tughlaq (1324—51), and his nephew Firuz Shah Tughlaq (1351—88).The first two of these sultans ruled over an empire which comprised almost the entire country.
    The empire of Firuz was smaller but even then it was almost as large as that ruled over by Alauddin Khalji. After the death of Firuz, the Delhi Sultanat disintegrated and north India was divided into a series of small states.
    Although the Tughlaqs continued to rule till 1412, the invasion of Delhi by Timur in 1398 may be said to mark the end of the Tughlaq empire.
    Statement 2 is correct: Among all the Sultans of Delhi Sultanate, Muhammad Bin Tughlaq's empire extended in the largest area. His empire was divided into 23 provinces. He was the first Sultan to provide high post to the Hindus and various people belonging to lower caste.
    Statement 3 is not correct: Muhammad bin Tughlaq was one of the most remarkable rulers of his age. He was deeply read in religion and philosophy, and had a critical and open mind. He conversed not only with the Muslim mystics, but also with the Hindu yogis and Jain saints such as Jinaprabha Suri.
39. Question 39 of 100

    39. Question

    With reference to Paintings, Consider the following statements:
    (1) Rajput Painting was contemporary in style whereas the Mughal paintings was traditional and romantic.
    (2) Pahari painting depicts legends of the God Krishna.
    (3) The emergence of the Mewar School of painting is widely associated with an early dated set of Ragamala paintings.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: The Rajput painting, the art of the independent Hindu feudal states in India, are different from the court art of the Mughal emperors. The Mughal painting was contemporary in style usually depicts the Mughal emperor and his household. The royal pomp and show, the battles and the hunting scenes whereas the Rajput was traditional, devotional and romantic. Rajput painting is further divided into Rajasthani painting, or the schools of the Rajasthan and central India, and Pahari painting, or the art of the Himalayan kingdoms.
    Statement 2 is correct: Pahari painting, style of miniature painting and book illustration that developed in the independent states of the Himalayan foothills in India. The style is made up of two markedly contrasting schools, the bold intense Basohli and the delicate and lyrical Kangra. Pahari painting—sometimes referred to as Hill painting, is closely related in conception and feeling to Rājasthanī painting and shares with the Rājput art of the North Indian plains a preference for depicting legends of the cowherd god Krishna.
    Statement 3 is correct: The emergence of the Mewar School of painting is widely associated with an early dated set of Ragamala paintings painted at Chawand in 1605 by an artist named Nisardin.
    The set has a colophon page that reveals the above vital information. This set shares its visual aesthetics and has close affinity with the pre-seventeenth century painting style in its direct approach, simpler compositions, sporadic decorative details and vibrant colours.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: The Rajput painting, the art of the independent Hindu feudal states in India, are different from the court art of the Mughal emperors. The Mughal painting was contemporary in style usually depicts the Mughal emperor and his household. The royal pomp and show, the battles and the hunting scenes whereas the Rajput was traditional, devotional and romantic. Rajput painting is further divided into Rajasthani painting, or the schools of the Rajasthan and central India, and Pahari painting, or the art of the Himalayan kingdoms.
    Statement 2 is correct: Pahari painting, style of miniature painting and book illustration that developed in the independent states of the Himalayan foothills in India. The style is made up of two markedly contrasting schools, the bold intense Basohli and the delicate and lyrical Kangra. Pahari painting—sometimes referred to as Hill painting, is closely related in conception and feeling to Rājasthanī painting and shares with the Rājput art of the North Indian plains a preference for depicting legends of the cowherd god Krishna.
    Statement 3 is correct: The emergence of the Mewar School of painting is widely associated with an early dated set of Ragamala paintings painted at Chawand in 1605 by an artist named Nisardin.
    The set has a colophon page that reveals the above vital information. This set shares its visual aesthetics and has close affinity with the pre-seventeenth century painting style in its direct approach, simpler compositions, sporadic decorative details and vibrant colours.
40. Question 40 of 100

    40. Question

    With reference to Deccani painting, consider the following statements:
    (1) The style is sensitive and has no influence of foreign art forms.
    (2) Deccani colours are rich and luminous, and much use is made of gold and white.
    (3) Mughal schools of the north and the Deccani schools had a certain amount of influence on one another.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: Deccani painting, style of miniature painting that flourished from the late 16th century among the Deccani sultanates in peninsular India. The style is a sensitive, highly integrated blend of indigenous and foreign art forms.
    Statement 2 is correct: The elongated figures are seemingly related to Vijayanagar wall paintings, while the floral-sprigged backgrounds, high horizons, and general use of landscape show Persian influence. Deccani colours are rich and luminous, and much use is made of gold and white.
    Statement 3 is correct: From the 17th century onward, the Mughal schools of the north and the Deccani schools had a certain amount of influence on one another. Deccani art also had its effect on the development of miniature painting in the Hindu courts of Rājasthān and central India.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: Deccani painting, style of miniature painting that flourished from the late 16th century among the Deccani sultanates in peninsular India. The style is a sensitive, highly integrated blend of indigenous and foreign art forms.
    Statement 2 is correct: The elongated figures are seemingly related to Vijayanagar wall paintings, while the floral-sprigged backgrounds, high horizons, and general use of landscape show Persian influence. Deccani colours are rich and luminous, and much use is made of gold and white.
    Statement 3 is correct: From the 17th century onward, the Mughal schools of the north and the Deccani schools had a certain amount of influence on one another. Deccani art also had its effect on the development of miniature painting in the Hindu courts of Rājasthān and central India.
41. Question 41 of 100

    41. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Vijayanagar empire:
    (1) Sangama rulers were chiefly Shaivaite whereas other dynasties were Vaishnavites.
    (2) Religious freedom was enjoyed by everyone.
    (3) The position of women had improved significantly.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Sangama rulers were chiefly Saivaites and Virupaksha was their family deity. But other dynasties were Vaishnavites. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Srivaishnavism of Ramanuja was very popular. But all kings were tolerant towards other religions. Borbosa referred to the religious freedom enjoyed by everyone. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Muslims were employed in the administration and they were freely allowed to build mosques and worship. A large number of temples were built during this period and numerous festivals were celebrated. The Epics and the Puranas were popular among the masses. The position of women had not improved. However, some of them were learned. Gangadevi, wife of Kumarakampana authored the famous work Maduravijayam. Hannamma and Thirumalamma were famous poets of this period. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The Sangama rulers were chiefly Saivaites and Virupaksha was their family deity. But other dynasties were Vaishnavites. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Srivaishnavism of Ramanuja was very popular. But all kings were tolerant towards other religions. Borbosa referred to the religious freedom enjoyed by everyone. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Muslims were employed in the administration and they were freely allowed to build mosques and worship. A large number of temples were built during this period and numerous festivals were celebrated. The Epics and the Puranas were popular among the masses. The position of women had not improved. However, some of them were learned. Gangadevi, wife of Kumarakampana authored the famous work Maduravijayam. Hannamma and Thirumalamma were famous poets of this period. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
42. Question 42 of 100

    42. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) A recession entails two consecutive quarters of GDP decline.
    (2) A technical recession occurs when a sustained decline in economic activity persists.
    (3) A recession can not be triggered by a country’s decision to reduce inflation by employing contractionary monetary or fiscal policies.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The National Bureau of Economic Research (an American NGO) defines recession as “a significant decline in economic activity spread across the economy, lasting more than a few months, normally visible in production, employment, real income, and other indicators.
    A recession occurs when a sustained decline in economic activity persists. It is of long duration. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    A technical recession specifically entails two consecutive quarters of GDP decline. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    A recession can also be triggered by a country’s decision to reduce inflation by employing contractionary monetary or fiscal policies. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The National Bureau of Economic Research (an American NGO) defines recession as “a significant decline in economic activity spread across the economy, lasting more than a few months, normally visible in production, employment, real income, and other indicators.
    A recession occurs when a sustained decline in economic activity persists. It is of long duration. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    A technical recession specifically entails two consecutive quarters of GDP decline. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    A recession can also be triggered by a country’s decision to reduce inflation by employing contractionary monetary or fiscal policies. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
43. Question 43 of 100

    43. Question

    “Chaul” and “Dabhol” were the principal ports of which of the following empires/ Kingdoms?
    (A) Kakatiya Kingdom
    (B) Reddi Kingdom
    (C) Bahmani kingdom
    (D) Vijayanagar empire

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Firuz Shah Bahmani paid much attention to the principal ports of his kingdom (Bahmani kingdom), Chaul and Dabhol, which attracted trading ships from the Persian Gulf and the Red Sea, and brought in luxury goods from all parts of the world.

    Unattempted
    

    Firuz Shah Bahmani paid much attention to the principal ports of his kingdom (Bahmani kingdom), Chaul and Dabhol, which attracted trading ships from the Persian Gulf and the Red Sea, and brought in luxury goods from all parts of the world.
44. Question 44 of 100

    44. Question

    Which of the following doctrines of Jainism was added by Mahavira?
    (A) Do not commit violence
    (B) Do not tell a lie
    (C) Observe continence
    (D) Do not hoard

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Jainism taught five doctrines :
    (i) do not commit violence,
    (ii) do not tell a lie,
    (iii) do not steal,
    (iv) do not hoard, and
    (v) observe continence (brahmacharya).
    It is said that only the fifth doctrine was added by Mahavira: the other four were taken over by him from previous teachers.

    Unattempted
    

    Jainism taught five doctrines :
    (i) do not commit violence,
    (ii) do not tell a lie,
    (iii) do not steal,
    (iv) do not hoard, and
    (v) observe continence (brahmacharya).
    It is said that only the fifth doctrine was added by Mahavira: the other four were taken over by him from previous teachers.
45. Question 45 of 100

    45. Question

    How many of the following crops was/were cultivated during Chalcolithic period?
    (1) Wheat
    (2) Rice
    (3) Bajra
    (4) Masur
    (5) Ragi
    (6) Cotton
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only two
    (B) Only three
    (C) Only five
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    What is remarkable about Chalcolithic people is that they produced wheat and rice.
    In addition to these staple crops they also cultivated bajra. They produced several pulses such as the lentil (masur), black gram, green gram, and grass pea. Almost all these foodgrains have been found at Navdatoli situated on the bank of the Narmada in Maharashtra. Perhaps at no other place in India so many cereals have been discovered as a result of digging. The people of Navdatoli also produced ber and linseed. Cotton was produced in the black cotton soil of the Deccan and ragi, bajra and several millets were cultivated in the lower Deccan.

    Unattempted
    

    What is remarkable about Chalcolithic people is that they produced wheat and rice.
    In addition to these staple crops they also cultivated bajra. They produced several pulses such as the lentil (masur), black gram, green gram, and grass pea. Almost all these foodgrains have been found at Navdatoli situated on the bank of the Narmada in Maharashtra. Perhaps at no other place in India so many cereals have been discovered as a result of digging. The people of Navdatoli also produced ber and linseed. Cotton was produced in the black cotton soil of the Deccan and ragi, bajra and several millets were cultivated in the lower Deccan.
46. Question 46 of 100

    46. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Ritual – About
    (1) Rajasuya – Confer supreme power to king
    (2) Ashvamedha – Royal chariot race
    (3) Vajapeya – Unquestioned control over an area
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one pair
    (B) Only two pairs
    (C) All three pairs
    (D) None of pairs

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The king’s influence was strengthened by rituals. He performed the rajasuya sacrifice, which was supposed to confer supreme power on him. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
    He performed the ashvamedha, which meant unquestioned control over an area in which the royal horse ran uninterrupted. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.
    He also performed the vajapeya or the chariot race, in which the royal chariot drawn by a horse was made to win the race against his kinsmen. All these rituals impressed the people by demonstrating the power and prestige of the king. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The king’s influence was strengthened by rituals. He performed the rajasuya sacrifice, which was supposed to confer supreme power on him. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
    He performed the ashvamedha, which meant unquestioned control over an area in which the royal horse ran uninterrupted. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.
    He also performed the vajapeya or the chariot race, in which the royal chariot drawn by a horse was made to win the race against his kinsmen. All these rituals impressed the people by demonstrating the power and prestige of the king. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
47. Question 47 of 100

    47. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The most distinctive pottery of the Vedic period is known as Painted Grey Ware.
    (2) The art and craft declined during the later phase of Vedic period.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The later Vedic period saw the rise of diverse arts and crafts. We hear of smiths and smelters, who certainly had something to do with iron working from about 1000 BC. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The Vedic people were familiar with copper from the very outset. Numerous copper tools of the pre-1000 BC period found in western UP and Bihar might suggest the existence of coppersmiths in non-Vedic societies. The later Vedic people were acquainted with four types of pottery—black-and-red ware, black-slipped ware, Painted Grey Ware, and red-ware. The last type of pottery was the most popular, and is found almost all over western UP. However, the most distinctive pottery of the period is known as Painted Grey Ware. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The later Vedic period saw the rise of diverse arts and crafts. We hear of smiths and smelters, who certainly had something to do with iron working from about 1000 BC. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The Vedic people were familiar with copper from the very outset. Numerous copper tools of the pre-1000 BC period found in western UP and Bihar might suggest the existence of coppersmiths in non-Vedic societies. The later Vedic people were acquainted with four types of pottery—black-and-red ware, black-slipped ware, Painted Grey Ware, and red-ware. The last type of pottery was the most popular, and is found almost all over western UP. However, the most distinctive pottery of the period is known as Painted Grey Ware. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
48. Question 48 of 100

    48. Question

    Regarding personal laws in India, consider the following statements:
    (1) In accordance with Islamic personal law, men have the legal allowance to practice polygamy, with a maximum limit of six wives.
    (2) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 lays out guidelines for property inheritance among Hindus, Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs.
    (3) The Shariat law of 1937 governs the personal matters of all Indian Muslims in India.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to Sharia or the Muslim personal law, men are allowed to practice polygamy that is, they can have more than one wife at the same time, up to a total of four. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 had codified laws related to marriage among Hindus.
    The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 which lays out guidelines for property inheritance among Hindus, Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The Shariat law of 1937 governs the personal matters of all Indian Muslims in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    According to Sharia or the Muslim personal law, men are allowed to practice polygamy that is, they can have more than one wife at the same time, up to a total of four. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 had codified laws related to marriage among Hindus.
    The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 which lays out guidelines for property inheritance among Hindus, Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The Shariat law of 1937 governs the personal matters of all Indian Muslims in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
49. Question 49 of 100

    49. Question

    How many of the following animals was/were domesticated by people of Indus Valley Civilization?
    (1) Pigs
    (2) Camel
    (3) Elephants
    (4) Oxen
    (5) Buffaloes
    (6) Goats
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only three
    (C) Only five
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Although the Harappans practised agriculture, animals were raised on a large scale. Oxen, buffaloes, goats, sheep, and pigs were domesticated. Humped bulls were favoured by the Harappans. There is evidence of dogs and cats from the outset, and asses and camels were bred and were obviously used as beasts of burden, and the latter may also have been used for ploughing. Evidence of the horse comes from a superficial level of Mohenjodaro and from a doubtful terracotta figurine from Lothal.
    The remains of a horse are reported from Surkotada, situated in west Gujarat, and relate to around 2000 BC but the identity is doubtful. In any case, the Harappan culture was not horse-centred. Neither the bones of a horse nor its representations have been traced in early and mature Harappan cultures. Elephants were well known to the Harappans, who were also acquainted with the rhinoceros. The contemporary Sumerian cities in Mesopotamia produced virtually the same food grains and domesticated the same animals as did the Harappans, but the Harappans in Gujarat produced rice and domesticated elephants which was not the case with the Mesopotamians.

    Unattempted
    

    Although the Harappans practised agriculture, animals were raised on a large scale. Oxen, buffaloes, goats, sheep, and pigs were domesticated. Humped bulls were favoured by the Harappans. There is evidence of dogs and cats from the outset, and asses and camels were bred and were obviously used as beasts of burden, and the latter may also have been used for ploughing. Evidence of the horse comes from a superficial level of Mohenjodaro and from a doubtful terracotta figurine from Lothal.
    The remains of a horse are reported from Surkotada, situated in west Gujarat, and relate to around 2000 BC but the identity is doubtful. In any case, the Harappan culture was not horse-centred. Neither the bones of a horse nor its representations have been traced in early and mature Harappan cultures. Elephants were well known to the Harappans, who were also acquainted with the rhinoceros. The contemporary Sumerian cities in Mesopotamia produced virtually the same food grains and domesticated the same animals as did the Harappans, but the Harappans in Gujarat produced rice and domesticated elephants which was not the case with the Mesopotamians.
50. Question 50 of 100

    50. Question

    With reference to the Tamil eco zones, consider the following pairs:
    Ecozone – Description
    (1) Neythal – Coastal land
    (2) Marutham – Riverine tract
    (3) Palai – Hilly region
    (4) Mullai – Parched land
    How many pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?
    (A) Only one pair
    (B) Only two pairs
    (C) Only three pairs
    (D) All four pairs

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to the thinai concept, Tamilagam was divided into five landscapes or eco-regions namely Kurinji, Marutam, Mullai, Neytal and Palai. Each region had distinct characteristics – a presiding deity, people and cultural life according to the environmental conditions, as follows:
    (1) Kurinji: Hilly region mainly for hunting and gathering.
    (2) Marutham: Riverine tract mainly for agriculture using plough and irrigation. Hence, pair 2 is correct.
    (3) Mullai: Forested region mainly for pastoralism combined with shifting cultivation.
    (4) Neythal: Coastal land mainly for fishing and salt making. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
    (5) Palai: Parched land which was unsuitable for cultivation and hence people took to cattle lifting and robbery.

    Unattempted
    

    According to the thinai concept, Tamilagam was divided into five landscapes or eco-regions namely Kurinji, Marutam, Mullai, Neytal and Palai. Each region had distinct characteristics – a presiding deity, people and cultural life according to the environmental conditions, as follows:
    (1) Kurinji: Hilly region mainly for hunting and gathering.
    (2) Marutham: Riverine tract mainly for agriculture using plough and irrigation. Hence, pair 2 is correct.
    (3) Mullai: Forested region mainly for pastoralism combined with shifting cultivation.
    (4) Neythal: Coastal land mainly for fishing and salt making. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
    (5) Palai: Parched land which was unsuitable for cultivation and hence people took to cattle lifting and robbery.
51. Question 51 of 100

    51. Question

    With reference to ancient India, the term “uparikara” referred to:
    (A) A military position during Mauryan times.
    (B) Forced labour prevalent during Gupta period.
    (C) One of the nine jewel in the court of Chandragupta II.
    (D) Famous mathematician of Satavahana period.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Gupta inscriptions mention the terms klipta, bali, udranga, uparikara, and iranyavesti which meant forced labour.
    In the Gupta period, Vishti or forced labour became a source of income for the state and was looked upon as a sort of taxation paid by the people. Anyone can be sent as the forced labourer, not particularly from the eldest son of the labourer. It was mentioned along with the taxes in the land grant inscriptions which suggest that Vishti was considered as source of income for the state.
    Usury (the lending of money at an exorbitant rate of interest) was in practice during the Gupta period. The detailed discussion in the sources of that period indicates that money was used, borrowed and loaned for profit.

    Unattempted
    

    Gupta inscriptions mention the terms klipta, bali, udranga, uparikara, and iranyavesti which meant forced labour.
    In the Gupta period, Vishti or forced labour became a source of income for the state and was looked upon as a sort of taxation paid by the people. Anyone can be sent as the forced labourer, not particularly from the eldest son of the labourer. It was mentioned along with the taxes in the land grant inscriptions which suggest that Vishti was considered as source of income for the state.
    Usury (the lending of money at an exorbitant rate of interest) was in practice during the Gupta period. The detailed discussion in the sources of that period indicates that money was used, borrowed and loaned for profit.
52. Question 52 of 100

    52. Question

    With reference to Mughal social structure, consider the following statements:
    (1) The Muqaddam was the head of an administrative organ of the village.
    (2) There was a salaried class known as Madad-i-Mash.
    (3) Indian Muslims could not obtain the status of nobility.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In Mughal social structure, the nobles came mostly from Central Asia and Iran. Afghans, Indian Muslims (shaikhzadas), Rajputs and Marathas also obtained the status of nobility. It is estimated that during the reign of Akbar over 15% of the nobility consisted of Rajputs. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Though the nature, composition and governance of village differed from place to place there were certain similarities in the village administration.
    The Muqaddam, privileged headman of the village, formed the Panch (Panchayat), an administrative organ of the village. The Panch was responsible for collection and maintenance of accounts at the village level. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The middle class consisted of small Mansabdars, petty shopkeepers, hakims (doctors), musicians, artists, petty officials of Mughal administration.
    There was a salaried class, and received grants called Madad-i-Mash from the Mughal emperor, local rulers and zamindars. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    In Mughal social structure, the nobles came mostly from Central Asia and Iran. Afghans, Indian Muslims (shaikhzadas), Rajputs and Marathas also obtained the status of nobility. It is estimated that during the reign of Akbar over 15% of the nobility consisted of Rajputs. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Though the nature, composition and governance of village differed from place to place there were certain similarities in the village administration.
    The Muqaddam, privileged headman of the village, formed the Panch (Panchayat), an administrative organ of the village. The Panch was responsible for collection and maintenance of accounts at the village level. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The middle class consisted of small Mansabdars, petty shopkeepers, hakims (doctors), musicians, artists, petty officials of Mughal administration.
    There was a salaried class, and received grants called Madad-i-Mash from the Mughal emperor, local rulers and zamindars. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
53. Question 53 of 100

    53. Question

    Consider the following countries:
    (1) Iceland
    (2) Latvia
    (3) Lithuania
    How many of the above is/are the members of Nordic-Baltic Cooperation?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Nordic-Baltic cooperation is an informal regional cooperation format established in 1992, bringing together 5 Nordic (Finland, Sweden, Norway, Denmark, and Iceland) and 3 Baltic countries (Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania).
    Sweden holds the chairmanship of the NB8 in 2024.

    Unattempted
    

    The Nordic-Baltic cooperation is an informal regional cooperation format established in 1992, bringing together 5 Nordic (Finland, Sweden, Norway, Denmark, and Iceland) and 3 Baltic countries (Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania).
    Sweden holds the chairmanship of the NB8 in 2024.
54. Question 54 of 100

    54. Question

    With reference to Advent of British to India, consider the following statements:
    (1) King James I of England obtained the permission for regular trade from Mughal Emperor Jahangir.
    (2) Fort St. George was the first landholding recorded by the East India Company on Indian soil.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Both the statements are correct:
    Advent of the British
    A group of wealthy merchants in London secured a royal charter from Queen Elizabeth I to have a share in the lucrative spice trade with the East.
    In 1611, King James I obtained from Mughal Emperor Jahangir through William Hawkins, permission for regular trade. The English obtained some trading privileges in Surat. The Viceroy of Gujarat, Prince Khurram granted trading privileges, but the British could not operate freely because the Portuguese exercised a powerful influence in the region.
    Madras was ceded to East India Company in 1639 by the Raja of Chandragiri with permission to build a fortified factory which was named Fort St. George. This was the first landholding recorded by the Company on Indian soil. In 1645, the ruler of Golkonda overran the territories under the Company’s control in Madras.
    Aurangzeb conquered Golkonda in 1687 and brought the Company territories under Mughal rule. But the privileges granted to the English continued.
    Within a short time Madras replaced Masulipatinam as the headquarters of the English on the Coromandel Coast.

    Unattempted
    

    Both the statements are correct:
    Advent of the British
    A group of wealthy merchants in London secured a royal charter from Queen Elizabeth I to have a share in the lucrative spice trade with the East.
    In 1611, King James I obtained from Mughal Emperor Jahangir through William Hawkins, permission for regular trade. The English obtained some trading privileges in Surat. The Viceroy of Gujarat, Prince Khurram granted trading privileges, but the British could not operate freely because the Portuguese exercised a powerful influence in the region.
    Madras was ceded to East India Company in 1639 by the Raja of Chandragiri with permission to build a fortified factory which was named Fort St. George. This was the first landholding recorded by the Company on Indian soil. In 1645, the ruler of Golkonda overran the territories under the Company’s control in Madras.
    Aurangzeb conquered Golkonda in 1687 and brought the Company territories under Mughal rule. But the privileges granted to the English continued.
    Within a short time Madras replaced Masulipatinam as the headquarters of the English on the Coromandel Coast.
55. Question 55 of 100

    55. Question

    Consider the following statements about Genome Sequencing:
    (1) Genome is composed of three nucleotide bases: adenine (A), cytosine (C), and thymine (T).
    (2) India announced its first complete human genome in 2003.
    (3) Genome is not the complete set of DNA instructions present in a cell.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The genome represents the entirety of an organism's hereditary information, serving as a biological instruction manual inherited from parents.
    Composed of four nucleotide bases: adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T), the genome contains approximately 3 billion base pairs in humans. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    This complex sequence encodes essential information governing an individual's physical characteristics, susceptibility to diseases, and other biological traits.
    The first whole human genome was sequenced with the collaboration of an international team.
    It took 13 years and $3 billion, and was completed in 2003. India announced its first complete human genome in 2009. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The genome is the complete set of DNA instructions present in a cell. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The genome represents the entirety of an organism's hereditary information, serving as a biological instruction manual inherited from parents.
    Composed of four nucleotide bases: adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T), the genome contains approximately 3 billion base pairs in humans. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    This complex sequence encodes essential information governing an individual's physical characteristics, susceptibility to diseases, and other biological traits.
    The first whole human genome was sequenced with the collaboration of an international team.
    It took 13 years and $3 billion, and was completed in 2003. India announced its first complete human genome in 2009. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The genome is the complete set of DNA instructions present in a cell. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
56. Question 56 of 100

    56. Question

    How many of the following fought against the British in the Battle of Buxar?
    (1) Shuja-ud-Daulah
    (2) Shah Alam II
    (3) Siraj-ud-Daulah
    (4) Mir Qasim
    (5) Mir Jafar
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only three
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Battle of Buxar was fought between 22 and 23 October 1764, between the forces under the command of the British East India Company, led by Hector Munro, and the combined armies of Balwant Singh, Raja of Benaras; Mir Qasim, Nawab of Bengal till 1764; the Nawab of Awadh, Shuja-ud-Daula; and the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II. The battle was fought at Buxar, a “strong fortified town” within the territory of Bihar, located on the banks of the Gangas river about 130 kilometres (81 mi) west of Patna; it was a challenging victory for the British East India Company. The war was brought to an end by the Treaty of Allahabad in 1765. The defeated Indian rulers were forced to sign this treaty, granting the East India Company diwani rights, which allowed them to collect revenue from the territories of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa on behalf of the Mughal emperor. This gave the company immense economic control, enabling them to pass financial policies to exploit the resources of the region for their own benefit. Hence, options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Battle of Buxar was fought between 22 and 23 October 1764, between the forces under the command of the British East India Company, led by Hector Munro, and the combined armies of Balwant Singh, Raja of Benaras; Mir Qasim, Nawab of Bengal till 1764; the Nawab of Awadh, Shuja-ud-Daula; and the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II. The battle was fought at Buxar, a “strong fortified town” within the territory of Bihar, located on the banks of the Gangas river about 130 kilometres (81 mi) west of Patna; it was a challenging victory for the British East India Company. The war was brought to an end by the Treaty of Allahabad in 1765. The defeated Indian rulers were forced to sign this treaty, granting the East India Company diwani rights, which allowed them to collect revenue from the territories of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa on behalf of the Mughal emperor. This gave the company immense economic control, enabling them to pass financial policies to exploit the resources of the region for their own benefit. Hence, options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
57. Question 57 of 100

    57. Question

    With reference to Mahalwari system, consider the following statements :
    (1) It was introduced during the period of Warren Hastings.
    (2) Under this system the revenue settlement was made with the proprietor of the estate but the land revenue was collected from individual cultivator.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Regulating Act of 1773 imposed on the court of Directors the legal obligation of informing all revenue transactions of the Company servants to the British Treasury.
    The Governor and Council consisting of the Commander-in-Chief and two counsellors sat as a Board of Revenue which discussed revenue matters. The Pitt India Act of 1784 separated the civil and military establishments in India.
    Mahalwari was introduced in 1833 during the period of William Bentinck. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Under the system the revenue settlement was made with the proprietor of the estate but the land revenue was collected from individual cultivators. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Regulating Act of 1773 imposed on the court of Directors the legal obligation of informing all revenue transactions of the Company servants to the British Treasury.
    The Governor and Council consisting of the Commander-in-Chief and two counsellors sat as a Board of Revenue which discussed revenue matters. The Pitt India Act of 1784 separated the civil and military establishments in India.
    Mahalwari was introduced in 1833 during the period of William Bentinck. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Under the system the revenue settlement was made with the proprietor of the estate but the land revenue was collected from individual cultivators. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
58. Question 58 of 100

    58. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Mughal art and architecture:
    (1) Humayun’s tomb was considered as precursor of the Taj Mahal.
    (2) Buland Darwaja was built to commemorate Akbar’s victory over Gujarat.
    (3) Tomb of Itimaddaulah was constructed wholly of white marble.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Akbar also built a palace-cum-fort complex at Fatepur Sikri (City of Victory), 36 kilometres from Agra. Many buildings in Gujaratis and Bengali styles are found in this complex. Gujaratis style buildings were probably built for his Rajput wives. The most magnificent building in it is the Jama Masjid and the gateway to it called Buland Darwaja or the Lofty Gate. The height of the gateway is 176 feet. It was built to commemorate Akbar’s victory over Gujarat. Other important buildings at Fatepur Sikri are Jodh Bai’s palace and Panch Mahal with five storeys.
    During Akbar’s reign, the Humayun’s tomb was built at Delhi and it had a massive dome of marble. It may be considered the precursor of the Taj Mahal.
    Akbar’s tomb at Sikandara near Agra was completed by Jahangir. Nur Jahan built the tomb of Itimaddaulah at Agra. It was constructed wholly of white marble with floral designs made of semi precious stones on the walls. This type of decoration was called pietra dura. This method became more popular during the reign of Shah Jahan. The pietra dura method was used on a large scale in the Taj Mahal by Shahjahan.

    Unattempted
    

    Akbar also built a palace-cum-fort complex at Fatepur Sikri (City of Victory), 36 kilometres from Agra. Many buildings in Gujaratis and Bengali styles are found in this complex. Gujaratis style buildings were probably built for his Rajput wives. The most magnificent building in it is the Jama Masjid and the gateway to it called Buland Darwaja or the Lofty Gate. The height of the gateway is 176 feet. It was built to commemorate Akbar’s victory over Gujarat. Other important buildings at Fatepur Sikri are Jodh Bai’s palace and Panch Mahal with five storeys.
    During Akbar’s reign, the Humayun’s tomb was built at Delhi and it had a massive dome of marble. It may be considered the precursor of the Taj Mahal.
    Akbar’s tomb at Sikandara near Agra was completed by Jahangir. Nur Jahan built the tomb of Itimaddaulah at Agra. It was constructed wholly of white marble with floral designs made of semi precious stones on the walls. This type of decoration was called pietra dura. This method became more popular during the reign of Shah Jahan. The pietra dura method was used on a large scale in the Taj Mahal by Shahjahan.
59. Question 59 of 100

    59. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Works – Author
    (1) Ain-i-Akbari – Abul Faizi
    (2) Pad shah Nama – Abdul Hamid Lahori
    (3) Shah Jahan Nama – Inayat Khan
    (4) Rihla-The Adventures – Ibn Battuta
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one pair
    (B) Only two pairs
    (C) Only three pairs
    (D) All four pairs

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Persian language became widespread in the Mughal Empire by the time of Akbar’s reign.
    Abul Fazl was a great scholar and historian of his period. He set a style of prose writing and it was followed by many generations. Many historical works were written during this period. They include Ain-i-Akbari and Akabar Nama authored by Abul Fazl. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
    The leading poet of that period was his brother Abul Faizi. The translation of Mahabharata into the Persian language was done under his supervision. Utbi and Naziri were the two other leading Persian poets. Jahangir’s autobiography, Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri was famous for its style. He also patronized many scholars like Ghiyas Beg, Naqib Khan and Niamatullah. Shah Jahan also patronized many writers and historians like Abdul Hamid Lahori, author of Pad shah Nama and Inayat Khan who wrote Shah Jahan Nama. His son Dara Shikoh translated the Bhagavat Gita and Upanishads into the Persian language. Many historical works were written during the reign of Aurangzeb. Hence, pairs 2 and 3 are correct.
    Famous dictionaries of the Persian language were also compiled during the Mughal period.
    Ibn Battuta, a Moroccan adventurer, wrote the book Rihla-The Adventures. Ibn Battuta traveled to China as the Sultan’s ambassador in 1342 after arriving in India in the years 1332–1333 AD, during the rule of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, who appointed him as the “qazi,” or judge, of Delhi. Ibn Battuta presents his travel-related opinions in Rihla with appropriate justification. Hence, pair 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Persian language became widespread in the Mughal Empire by the time of Akbar’s reign.
    Abul Fazl was a great scholar and historian of his period. He set a style of prose writing and it was followed by many generations. Many historical works were written during this period. They include Ain-i-Akbari and Akabar Nama authored by Abul Fazl. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
    The leading poet of that period was his brother Abul Faizi. The translation of Mahabharata into the Persian language was done under his supervision. Utbi and Naziri were the two other leading Persian poets. Jahangir’s autobiography, Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri was famous for its style. He also patronized many scholars like Ghiyas Beg, Naqib Khan and Niamatullah. Shah Jahan also patronized many writers and historians like Abdul Hamid Lahori, author of Pad shah Nama and Inayat Khan who wrote Shah Jahan Nama. His son Dara Shikoh translated the Bhagavat Gita and Upanishads into the Persian language. Many historical works were written during the reign of Aurangzeb. Hence, pairs 2 and 3 are correct.
    Famous dictionaries of the Persian language were also compiled during the Mughal period.
    Ibn Battuta, a Moroccan adventurer, wrote the book Rihla-The Adventures. Ibn Battuta traveled to China as the Sultan’s ambassador in 1342 after arriving in India in the years 1332–1333 AD, during the rule of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, who appointed him as the “qazi,” or judge, of Delhi. Ibn Battuta presents his travel-related opinions in Rihla with appropriate justification. Hence, pair 4 is correct.
60. Question 60 of 100

    60. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Hemophilia’:
    (1) A person diagnosed with Hemophilia A lacks a sufficient amount of factor IX (Factor nine).
    (2) An individual with Hemophilia B lacks an adequate supply of clotting factor VIII (Factor eight).
    (3) The main treatment for Haemophilia is Replacement Therapy.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The most common type of Haemophilia is called Haemophilia A. This means the person does not have enough clotting factor VIII (factor eight). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Haemophilia B is less common. A person with Haemophilia B does not have enough factor IX (factor nine). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The main treatment for Haemophilia is Replacement Therapy. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The most common type of Haemophilia is called Haemophilia A. This means the person does not have enough clotting factor VIII (factor eight). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Haemophilia B is less common. A person with Haemophilia B does not have enough factor IX (factor nine). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The main treatment for Haemophilia is Replacement Therapy. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
61. Question 61 of 100

    61. Question

    How many of the following factors shaped the Akbar’s religious policy?
    (1) Early contacts with the Sufi saints.
    (2) Ambition to establish an empire in Hindustan.
    (3) Marriage with Rajput women.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Akbar rose to fame in the pages of history due to his religious policy.
    Various factors were responsible for his religious ideas. The most important among them were his early contacts with the sufisaints, the teachings of his tutor Abdul Latif, his marriage with Rajput women, his association with intellectual giants like Shaikh Mubarakand his two illustrious sons – Abul Faizi and Abul Fazl – and his ambition to establish an empire in Hindustan. In the beginning of his life, Akbar was a pious Muslim. Soon after marrying Jodh Bai of Amber, he abolished the pilgrim tax.

    Unattempted
    

    Akbar rose to fame in the pages of history due to his religious policy.
    Various factors were responsible for his religious ideas. The most important among them were his early contacts with the sufisaints, the teachings of his tutor Abdul Latif, his marriage with Rajput women, his association with intellectual giants like Shaikh Mubarakand his two illustrious sons – Abul Faizi and Abul Fazl – and his ambition to establish an empire in Hindustan. In the beginning of his life, Akbar was a pious Muslim. Soon after marrying Jodh Bai of Amber, he abolished the pilgrim tax.
62. Question 62 of 100

    62. Question

    With reference to the history of India, which of the following leaders was associated with Rampa Rebellion?
    (A) Tilka Manjhi
    (B) Ramaswamy naicker
    (C) Birsa Munda
    (D) Sitarama Raju

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The unparalleled courage and valiant efforts of Sitarama Raju in leading a full-scale war against the colonial police and army in a tribal protest known as the Rampa Rebellion (1922-1924). This was against forest grievances in the Madras Presidency.
    Between August 1922 and May 1924, for close to 2 years, Sitarama Raju led one of the most intense uprisings against the British.
    The fact that the British government had to spend over ₹40 lakh in those days to defeat the rebellion speaks volumes about the success of the Rampa Rebellion. At 27 years, Sitarama Raju became a martyr falling to the British bullets.

    Unattempted
    

    The unparalleled courage and valiant efforts of Sitarama Raju in leading a full-scale war against the colonial police and army in a tribal protest known as the Rampa Rebellion (1922-1924). This was against forest grievances in the Madras Presidency.
    Between August 1922 and May 1924, for close to 2 years, Sitarama Raju led one of the most intense uprisings against the British.
    The fact that the British government had to spend over ₹40 lakh in those days to defeat the rebellion speaks volumes about the success of the Rampa Rebellion. At 27 years, Sitarama Raju became a martyr falling to the British bullets.
63. Question 63 of 100

    63. Question

    Consider the following pairs with reference to Sher Shah’s Administration:
    Important minister – Department
    (1) Diwan –i-Wizarat – In charge of Revenue and Finance
    (2) Diwan-i-Ariz – In charge of Army
    (3) Diwan-i-Rasalat – Minister for Communications
    (4) Diwan-i-Insha – Foreign Minister
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one pair
    (B) Only two pairs
    (C) Only three pairs
    (D) All four pairs

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Sher Shah waged extensive wars with the Rajput and expanded his empire. His conquests include Punjab, Malwa, Sind, Multan and Bundelkhand. His empire consisted of the whole of North India except Assam, Nepal, Kashmir and Gujarat.
    Sher Shah’s Administration:
    Although his rule lasted for five years, he organized a brilliant administrative system.
    The central government consisted of several departments. The king was assisted by four important ministers:
    (1) Diwan –i-Wizarat – In charge of Revenue and Finance
    (2) Diwan-i-Ariz – In charge of Army
    (3) Diwan-i-Rasalat – Foreign Minister
    (4) Diwan-i-Insha – Minister for Communications
    Hence, pairs 1 and 2 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Sher Shah waged extensive wars with the Rajput and expanded his empire. His conquests include Punjab, Malwa, Sind, Multan and Bundelkhand. His empire consisted of the whole of North India except Assam, Nepal, Kashmir and Gujarat.
    Sher Shah’s Administration:
    Although his rule lasted for five years, he organized a brilliant administrative system.
    The central government consisted of several departments. The king was assisted by four important ministers:
    (1) Diwan –i-Wizarat – In charge of Revenue and Finance
    (2) Diwan-i-Ariz – In charge of Army
    (3) Diwan-i-Rasalat – Foreign Minister
    (4) Diwan-i-Insha – Minister for Communications
    Hence, pairs 1 and 2 are correct.
64. Question 64 of 100

    64. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Dahsala System:
    (1) It was the uniform system of land measurement.
    (2) Under this system revenue was fixed on the average yield of land assessed on the basis of past ten years.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Akbar made some experiments in the land revenue administration with the help of Raja Todar Mal. The land revenue system of Akbar was called Zabti or Bandobast system. It was further improved by Raja Todar Mal. It was known as Dahsala System which was completed in 1580. By this system, Todar Mal introduced a uniform system of land measurement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The revenue was fixed on the average yield of land assessed on the basis of past ten years. The land was also divided into four categories – Polaj (cultivated every year), Parauti (once in two years), Chachar (once in three or four years) and Banjar (once in five or more years). Payment of revenue was made generally in cash. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Akbar made some experiments in the land revenue administration with the help of Raja Todar Mal. The land revenue system of Akbar was called Zabti or Bandobast system. It was further improved by Raja Todar Mal. It was known as Dahsala System which was completed in 1580. By this system, Todar Mal introduced a uniform system of land measurement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The revenue was fixed on the average yield of land assessed on the basis of past ten years. The land was also divided into four categories – Polaj (cultivated every year), Parauti (once in two years), Chachar (once in three or four years) and Banjar (once in five or more years). Payment of revenue was made generally in cash. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
65. Question 65 of 100

    65. Question

    Consider the following statements about General Diary:
    (1) The Supreme Court ruled that a General Diary Entry may be treated as FIR in an appropriate case, where it discloses the commission of a cognisable offence.
    (2) Section 44 of the Police Act, 1861 empowers the State Government to prescribe the form of the General Diary and the manner in which it shall be maintained.
    (3) A General Diary is maintained in chronological order, with a new entry starting with number 1 each day.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A General Diary is a record of all the activities and incidents that take place in a police station on a daily basis.
    Section 44 of the Police Act, 1861 empowers the State Government to prescribe the form of the General Diary and the manner in which it shall be maintained. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The General Diary contains various details such as the:
    Arrival and departure of police officers
    Arrest of persons
    Seizure of property
    Receipt and disposal of complaints
    Any other information that the officer in charge of the police station may consider necessary to record.
    In CBI v. Tapan Kumar Singh (2003), the Supreme Court ruled that a General Diary Entry may be treated as FIR in an appropriate case, where it discloses the commission of a cognisable offence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    A General Diary is maintained in chronological order, with a new entry starting with number 1 each day. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A General Diary is a record of all the activities and incidents that take place in a police station on a daily basis.
    Section 44 of the Police Act, 1861 empowers the State Government to prescribe the form of the General Diary and the manner in which it shall be maintained. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The General Diary contains various details such as the:
    Arrival and departure of police officers
    Arrest of persons
    Seizure of property
    Receipt and disposal of complaints
    Any other information that the officer in charge of the police station may consider necessary to record.
    In CBI v. Tapan Kumar Singh (2003), the Supreme Court ruled that a General Diary Entry may be treated as FIR in an appropriate case, where it discloses the commission of a cognisable offence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    A General Diary is maintained in chronological order, with a new entry starting with number 1 each day. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
66. Question 66 of 100

    66. Question

    With reference to Thomas Munro, consider the following statements:
    (1) He officially enforced the Ryotwari System in Madras.
    (2) He emphasized the need for Indianization of the services.
    (3) He enacted Sati Abolition Act, 1829 to put an end to this practice.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Thomas Munro: Munro arrived Madras in 1780. In the first 12 years he was engaged in Mysore War as soldier. He worked in the Baramahal (Salem district) from 1792-1799 and Kanara from 1799- 1800. He was collector of Ceded Districts: Kadapa, Kurnool, Chittoor, Anantapur. It was during this period that he conceived the idea of Ryotwari Settlement. In 1820 he became Governor of Madras Presidency and served for seven years. In 1822 he officially enforced the Ryotwari System in Madras.
    During his governorship, he gave attention to education and regarded any expenditure on it as an investment.
    Statement 2 is correct: He also emphasized the need for Indianization of the services. He died of Cholera at Pattikonda (Karnool district) in July 1827.
    His statue was erected at Madras in 1839 by public subscription.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Bentinck showed great courage and humanity by his decision to abolish sati, the practice of burning widows alive with the corpses of their husbands. Previous governors general were reluctant to prohibit the custom as an interference in religion but Bentinck enacted a law (Sati Abolition Act, 1829) to put an end to this practice.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Thomas Munro: Munro arrived Madras in 1780. In the first 12 years he was engaged in Mysore War as soldier. He worked in the Baramahal (Salem district) from 1792-1799 and Kanara from 1799- 1800. He was collector of Ceded Districts: Kadapa, Kurnool, Chittoor, Anantapur. It was during this period that he conceived the idea of Ryotwari Settlement. In 1820 he became Governor of Madras Presidency and served for seven years. In 1822 he officially enforced the Ryotwari System in Madras.
    During his governorship, he gave attention to education and regarded any expenditure on it as an investment.
    Statement 2 is correct: He also emphasized the need for Indianization of the services. He died of Cholera at Pattikonda (Karnool district) in July 1827.
    His statue was erected at Madras in 1839 by public subscription.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Bentinck showed great courage and humanity by his decision to abolish sati, the practice of burning widows alive with the corpses of their husbands. Previous governors general were reluctant to prohibit the custom as an interference in religion but Bentinck enacted a law (Sati Abolition Act, 1829) to put an end to this practice.
67. Question 67 of 100

    67. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Single-use plastic has among the highest shares of plastic manufactured and used.
    Statement-II: On the current trajectory of production, it has been projected that single-use plastic could account for 5-10% of greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
    (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
    (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
    (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Single-use plastic has among the highest shares of plastic manufactured and used. Hence, statement-I is correct.
    On the current trajectory of production, it has been projected that single-use plastic could account for 5-10% of greenhouse gas emissions by 2050. Hence, statement-II is correct.
    Statement-I refers to the peak single-use plastic production, while Statement-II addresses the projected share of greenhouse gas emissions from single-use plastics by 2050 due to specific circumstances. Both statements are accurate but focus on different aspects of the single-use plastic issue. Hence, option B is correct because both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

    Unattempted
    

    Single-use plastic has among the highest shares of plastic manufactured and used. Hence, statement-I is correct.
    On the current trajectory of production, it has been projected that single-use plastic could account for 5-10% of greenhouse gas emissions by 2050. Hence, statement-II is correct.
    Statement-I refers to the peak single-use plastic production, while Statement-II addresses the projected share of greenhouse gas emissions from single-use plastics by 2050 due to specific circumstances. Both statements are accurate but focus on different aspects of the single-use plastic issue. Hence, option B is correct because both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
68. Question 68 of 100

    68. Question

    Who among the following wrote the book ‘The War of Indian Independence’?
    (A) V. D. Savarkar
    (B) Dadabhai Naoroji
    (C) G.K. Gokhale
    (D) M. K. Gandhi

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Edward John Thompson described the revolt of 1857 ‘as largely a real war of independence’. V.D. Savarkar, in his ‘The War of Indian Independence’, published in 1909, argued that what the British had till then described as merely mutiny was, in fact, a war of independence, much like the American War of Independence. Despite the fact that the English-educated middle class played no role in the rebellion, nationalist historians championed this argument as the First War of Indian Independence.

    Unattempted
    

    Edward John Thompson described the revolt of 1857 ‘as largely a real war of independence’. V.D. Savarkar, in his ‘The War of Indian Independence’, published in 1909, argued that what the British had till then described as merely mutiny was, in fact, a war of independence, much like the American War of Independence. Despite the fact that the English-educated middle class played no role in the rebellion, nationalist historians championed this argument as the First War of Indian Independence.
69. Question 69 of 100

    69. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Raja Rammohan Roy :
    (1) He was a determined crusader against practice of Sati.
    (2) His long-term agenda was to purify Hinduism.
    (3) He emphasized human dignity but did not oppose idolatry.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Raja Rammohan Roy, was a man of versatile genius. He established the Brahmo Samaj in August, 1828. The Brahmo Samaj was committed to “the worship and adoration of the eternal, unsearchable, immutable Being who is the Author and Preserver of the Universe”.
    His long term agenda was to purify Hinduism and to preach monotheism for which he drew authority from the Vedas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    He emphasized human dignity, opposed idolatry and social evils such as sati. A retired servant of the East India Company, he was conversant in many languages including Persian and Sanskrit. His ideas and activities were aimed at the political uplift of society through social reform. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    He was a determined crusader against the inhuman practice of Sati. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Raja Rammohan Roy, was a man of versatile genius. He established the Brahmo Samaj in August, 1828. The Brahmo Samaj was committed to “the worship and adoration of the eternal, unsearchable, immutable Being who is the Author and Preserver of the Universe”.
    His long term agenda was to purify Hinduism and to preach monotheism for which he drew authority from the Vedas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    He emphasized human dignity, opposed idolatry and social evils such as sati. A retired servant of the East India Company, he was conversant in many languages including Persian and Sanskrit. His ideas and activities were aimed at the political uplift of society through social reform. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    He was a determined crusader against the inhuman practice of Sati. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
70. Question 70 of 100

    70. Question

    Who among the following sucessors of Aurangazeb was given the title of “Shah-i-Bekhabar”?
    (A) Jhahdar Shah
    (B) Bahadur Shah
    (C) Farukhsiyar
    (D) Muhammad Shah

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    After a nearly two-year-long war of succession, the 63-year-old Prince Muazzam, the eldest son of Aurangzeb, became the emperor, taking the title Bahadur Shah. He was later called Bahadur Shah I). He had killed his brothers Muhammad Azam and Kam Bakhsh in the war of succession. Khafi Khan gave the title of Shah-i-Bekhabar to Bahadur Shah.
    He adopted a pacific policy with the Marathas, the Rajputs and the Jats. Shahu, the Maratha prince, was released from Mughal captivity, and Rajput chiefs were confirmed in their respective states.

    Unattempted
    

    After a nearly two-year-long war of succession, the 63-year-old Prince Muazzam, the eldest son of Aurangzeb, became the emperor, taking the title Bahadur Shah. He was later called Bahadur Shah I). He had killed his brothers Muhammad Azam and Kam Bakhsh in the war of succession. Khafi Khan gave the title of Shah-i-Bekhabar to Bahadur Shah.
    He adopted a pacific policy with the Marathas, the Rajputs and the Jats. Shahu, the Maratha prince, was released from Mughal captivity, and Rajput chiefs were confirmed in their respective states.
71. Question 71 of 100

    71. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct about reforms regarding Swami Dayanand Saraswati?
    (1) He opposed the multiplicity of castes.
    (2) He stressed one God and rejected idol worship.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Swami Dayanand Saraswati opposed the multiplicity of castes. He also established Vedic schools for the education of girls and boys of all castes. The students of these schools were given free books, clothing, lodging and food, and were taught the Vedas and other ancient scriptures.
    Statement 2 is correct: Swami Dayanand Saraswati stressed on One God and rejected idol worship. He also advocated against the extolled position of priests in Hinduism.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Swami Dayanand Saraswati opposed the multiplicity of castes. He also established Vedic schools for the education of girls and boys of all castes. The students of these schools were given free books, clothing, lodging and food, and were taught the Vedas and other ancient scriptures.
    Statement 2 is correct: Swami Dayanand Saraswati stressed on One God and rejected idol worship. He also advocated against the extolled position of priests in Hinduism.
72. Question 72 of 100

    72. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Grishneshwar temple :
    (1) Grishneshwar Temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva that is referenced in the Shiva Purana.
    (2) It is an important pilgrimage site considered as the twelfth Jyotirlinga.
    (3) It is an illustration of the maratha temple architectural style and structure.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Grishneshwar Jyotirlinga Temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva that is referenced in the Shiva Purana.
    Statement 2 is correct: It is an important pilgrimage site in the Shaiva tradition of Hinduism, which considers it as the twelfth Jyotirlinga (linga of light).
    Statement 3 is correct: It is situated in the state of Maharashtra. This pilgrimage site is located in Ellora (also called Verul), less than a kilometer from Ellora Caves – a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
    The Grishneshwar temple is an illustration of maratha temple architectural style and structure.
    • It is built of red rocks and is composed of a five-tier shikara.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Grishneshwar Jyotirlinga Temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva that is referenced in the Shiva Purana.
    Statement 2 is correct: It is an important pilgrimage site in the Shaiva tradition of Hinduism, which considers it as the twelfth Jyotirlinga (linga of light).
    Statement 3 is correct: It is situated in the state of Maharashtra. This pilgrimage site is located in Ellora (also called Verul), less than a kilometer from Ellora Caves – a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
    The Grishneshwar temple is an illustration of maratha temple architectural style and structure.
    • It is built of red rocks and is composed of a five-tier shikara.
73. Question 73 of 100

    73. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Sursinagar is an instrument made of brass or bronze having 8 strings.
    (2) Karakattam is an ancient folk dance of Andhra Pradesh.
    (3) In Karakattam, performers wear saris and dance with a pot (karakam) on their head to invoke Mariamman, the goddess of rain.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: Sursingar is a stringed instrument made of ivory and wood. This traditional instrument is found in various parts of North India. The strings of the instrument are usually four in number and made of brass or bronze, and are plucked with a metal pick.
    Statement 2 is not correct: Karakattam is an ancient folk dance of Tamil Nadu.
    Statement 3 is correct: In Karakattam performers in colourful saris dance with a pot (karakam) on their head to invoke Mariamman, the goddess of rain.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: Sursingar is a stringed instrument made of ivory and wood. This traditional instrument is found in various parts of North India. The strings of the instrument are usually four in number and made of brass or bronze, and are plucked with a metal pick.
    Statement 2 is not correct: Karakattam is an ancient folk dance of Tamil Nadu.
    Statement 3 is correct: In Karakattam performers in colourful saris dance with a pot (karakam) on their head to invoke Mariamman, the goddess of rain.
74. Question 74 of 100

    74. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Khondalite stones were widely used in ancient temple complexes in India.
    (2) Archaeological Survey of India works as per the provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.
    (3) Khondalite is a type of metamorphic rock that is found in the Eastern Ghats region of India, particularly in the state of Odisha.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 3 is correct: Khondalite is a foliated metamorphic rock. In India, it is also called Bezwada Gneiss and Kailasa Gneiss. It was named after the Khond tribe of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh because well-formed examples of the rock were found in the inhabited hills of these regions of eastern India.
    Statement 1 is correct: Khondalite stones were widely used in ancient temple complexes, all the heritage projects in Puri will be developed by using the Khondalite stones to maintain the Kalinga architecture style.
    Statement 2 is correct: ASI is the premier organization for the archaeological researches and protection of the cultural heritage of the nation under the Ministry of Culture.
    It regulates all archaeological activities in the country as per the provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. It also regulates the Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, 1972.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 3 is correct: Khondalite is a foliated metamorphic rock. In India, it is also called Bezwada Gneiss and Kailasa Gneiss. It was named after the Khond tribe of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh because well-formed examples of the rock were found in the inhabited hills of these regions of eastern India.
    Statement 1 is correct: Khondalite stones were widely used in ancient temple complexes, all the heritage projects in Puri will be developed by using the Khondalite stones to maintain the Kalinga architecture style.
    Statement 2 is correct: ASI is the premier organization for the archaeological researches and protection of the cultural heritage of the nation under the Ministry of Culture.
    It regulates all archaeological activities in the country as per the provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. It also regulates the Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, 1972.
75. Question 75 of 100

    75. Question

    Famous temple town of shringeri is located on which of the following rivers?
    (A) Ghataprabha
    (B) Malaprabha
    (C) Tunga
    (D) Bhima

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Shringeri is in the Malnad Hills on the banks of River Tunga and is the first Matha established by Sri Adi Shankaracharya. The town also has many famous temples like vidyashankara and sharadamba.

    Unattempted
    

    Shringeri is in the Malnad Hills on the banks of River Tunga and is the first Matha established by Sri Adi Shankaracharya. The town also has many famous temples like vidyashankara and sharadamba.
76. Question 76 of 100

    76. Question

    With reference to the Report on the Status of Leopards in India 2022, consider the following statements:
    (1) India's leopard population has declined by 8% from 2018 to 2022.
    (2) Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of leopards followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
    (3) More than half of the leopard population is present outside protected areas in the Shivalik landscape.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    India's leopard population rose by 8% from 12,852 in 2018 to 13,874 in 2022. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of leopards (3,907), followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    About 65% of the leopard population is present outside protected areas in the Shivalik landscape. Only about a third of the leopards are within protected areas. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    India's leopard population rose by 8% from 12,852 in 2018 to 13,874 in 2022. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of leopards (3,907), followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    About 65% of the leopard population is present outside protected areas in the Shivalik landscape. Only about a third of the leopards are within protected areas. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
77. Question 77 of 100

    77. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Vijayanagara empire:
    (1) It was based in the Deccan, in peninsular and southern India.
    (2) It was founded by Harihara of the Tuluva dynasty.
    (3) The empire is generally considered to have reached its peak during the rule of Krishna Deva Raya of the Sangama Dynasty.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Salman Rushdie’s latest work, “Victory City” is a fictionalised telling of the story of Vijayanagara, one of the richest and most powerful kingdoms in medieval India.
    Statement is 1 correct: The Vijayanagara empire was based in the Deccan, in peninsular and southern India, from 1336 onwards.It is named after its capital city (now ruined) of Vijayanagara, in modern Karnataka, India.
    Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: Vijayanagara empire was founded by Harihara, also known as Hakka, and his brother Bukka Raya of the Sangama dynasty.
    • It lasted from about 1336 to perhaps about 1660, though throughout its last century it was in a slow decline due to a massive and catastrophic defeat at the hands of an alliance of the sultanates, and the capital was taken and brutally razed, and looted.
    • The empire is generally considered to have reached its peak during the rule of Krishna Deva Raya (1509-1529) of the Saluva Dynasty.
    • He conquered or subjugated territories on the east of the Deccan that belonged previously to Orissa.

    Unattempted
    

    Salman Rushdie’s latest work, “Victory City” is a fictionalised telling of the story of Vijayanagara, one of the richest and most powerful kingdoms in medieval India.
    Statement is 1 correct: The Vijayanagara empire was based in the Deccan, in peninsular and southern India, from 1336 onwards.It is named after its capital city (now ruined) of Vijayanagara, in modern Karnataka, India.
    Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: Vijayanagara empire was founded by Harihara, also known as Hakka, and his brother Bukka Raya of the Sangama dynasty.
    • It lasted from about 1336 to perhaps about 1660, though throughout its last century it was in a slow decline due to a massive and catastrophic defeat at the hands of an alliance of the sultanates, and the capital was taken and brutally razed, and looted.
    • The empire is generally considered to have reached its peak during the rule of Krishna Deva Raya (1509-1529) of the Saluva Dynasty.
    • He conquered or subjugated territories on the east of the Deccan that belonged previously to Orissa.
78. Question 78 of 100

    78. Question

    He was a mystic poet-saint of the Bhakti Movement from the 15th and 16th centuries. The Sikh scripture, Guru Granth Sahib, contains forty-one of his devotional songs and poems. Mirabai was his pupil. Chief Architect of our Constitution, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar embodied the Constitutional principles around the values expressed by him.
    He was
    (A) Sri Ramanujacharya
    (B) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
    (C) Sant Ravidas
    (D) Vallabhacharya

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The day commemorates the birth of the famous Bhakti Movement saint.
    This year marks the 646th anniversary.
    Sant Ravidas was a mystic poet-saint of the Bhakti Movement from the 15th and 16th centuries.
    His devotional songs and verses left an indelible mark on the Bhakti Movement.
    He was a disciple of Sant Kabir and the founder of the Ravidassia religion. Mirabai was his pupil.
    The Sikh scripture, Guru Granth Sahib, contains forty-one of his devotional songs and poems.
    The philosophy and values of Guru Ravidasji like social justice, equality, and fraternity have been imbued in our constitutional values.
    The Chief Architect of our Constitution, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar embodied the Constitutional principles around the values expressed by Guru Ravidasji.

    Unattempted
    

    The day commemorates the birth of the famous Bhakti Movement saint.
    This year marks the 646th anniversary.
    Sant Ravidas was a mystic poet-saint of the Bhakti Movement from the 15th and 16th centuries.
    His devotional songs and verses left an indelible mark on the Bhakti Movement.
    He was a disciple of Sant Kabir and the founder of the Ravidassia religion. Mirabai was his pupil.
    The Sikh scripture, Guru Granth Sahib, contains forty-one of his devotional songs and poems.
    The philosophy and values of Guru Ravidasji like social justice, equality, and fraternity have been imbued in our constitutional values.
    The Chief Architect of our Constitution, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar embodied the Constitutional principles around the values expressed by Guru Ravidasji.
79. Question 79 of 100

    79. Question

    “Theory of alienation” which describes the estrangement of people from aspects of their human nature as a consequence of the division of labor and living in a society of stratified social classes was given by which of the following?
    (A) Adam Smith
    (B) Sri Aurobindo
    (C) Karl Marx
    (D) Noam Chomsky

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Karl Marx's theory of alienation : It describes the estrangement of people from aspects of their human nature as a consequence of the division of labor and living in a society of stratified social classes.

    Unattempted
    

    Karl Marx's theory of alienation : It describes the estrangement of people from aspects of their human nature as a consequence of the division of labor and living in a society of stratified social classes.
80. Question 80 of 100

    80. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Marginal Cost of Funds Based Lending Rate (MCLR) :
    (1) It was instituted by RBI with effect from April 1, 2001.
    (2) It is the lowest interest rate that a bank or lender can offer.
    (3) It is a tenor-linked internal benchmark, which means the rate is determined internally by the bank depending on the period left for the repayment of a loan.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Marginal Cost of Funds Based Landing Rate (MCLR) was instituted by RBI with effect from April 1, 2016. It replaced the base rate structure, which had been in place since July 2010.
    Statement 2 is correct: It is the lowest interest rate that a bank or lender can offer. The final rate of lending also includes risk premium and spread charged by banks.
    Statement 3 is correct: It is a tenor-linked internal benchmark, which means the rate is determined internally by the bank depending on the period left for the repayment of a loan.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Marginal Cost of Funds Based Landing Rate (MCLR) was instituted by RBI with effect from April 1, 2016. It replaced the base rate structure, which had been in place since July 2010.
    Statement 2 is correct: It is the lowest interest rate that a bank or lender can offer. The final rate of lending also includes risk premium and spread charged by banks.
    Statement 3 is correct: It is a tenor-linked internal benchmark, which means the rate is determined internally by the bank depending on the period left for the repayment of a loan.
81. Question 81 of 100

    81. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Pass – Range
    (1) Qara Tag La – Great Himalayas
    (2) Banihal – Pir Panjal
    (3) Fotu La – Zaskar
    (4) Khardung La – Ladakh range
    How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Qara Tag La connects Indo-China border across the Karakoram Range.
    Pair 2 is correctly matched: Banihal Pass is a mountain pass across the Pir Panjal Range in India at a maximum elevation of 2,832 m (9,291 ft). It connects the Kashmir Valley in the Indian union territory of Jammu and Kashmir to the outer Himalaya and the plains to the south. In the Kashmiri language, “Banihāl” means blizzard.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched: Fotu La or Fatu La is a mountain pass on the Srinagar-Leh highway in the Himalayas zaskar Range in India. At an elevation of 4,108 metres, it is the highest point on the highway, surpassing the famed Zoji La.
    Pair 4 is correctly matched: Khardung La or Khardung Pass is a mountain pass in the Leh district of the Indian union territory of Ladakh. The pass is on the Ladakh Range, north of Leh, and connects the Indus river valley and the Shyok river valley. It also forms the gateway to the Nubra Valley, beyond which lies the Siachen Glacier. A motorable road through the pass was built in 1976, and opened to public motor vehicles in 1988. Maintained by the Border Roads Organisation, the pass is strategically important to India as it is used to carry supplies to the Siachen Glacier. The road is one of the world's highest motoroable roads.

    Unattempted
    

    Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Qara Tag La connects Indo-China border across the Karakoram Range.
    Pair 2 is correctly matched: Banihal Pass is a mountain pass across the Pir Panjal Range in India at a maximum elevation of 2,832 m (9,291 ft). It connects the Kashmir Valley in the Indian union territory of Jammu and Kashmir to the outer Himalaya and the plains to the south. In the Kashmiri language, “Banihāl” means blizzard.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched: Fotu La or Fatu La is a mountain pass on the Srinagar-Leh highway in the Himalayas zaskar Range in India. At an elevation of 4,108 metres, it is the highest point on the highway, surpassing the famed Zoji La.
    Pair 4 is correctly matched: Khardung La or Khardung Pass is a mountain pass in the Leh district of the Indian union territory of Ladakh. The pass is on the Ladakh Range, north of Leh, and connects the Indus river valley and the Shyok river valley. It also forms the gateway to the Nubra Valley, beyond which lies the Siachen Glacier. A motorable road through the pass was built in 1976, and opened to public motor vehicles in 1988. Maintained by the Border Roads Organisation, the pass is strategically important to India as it is used to carry supplies to the Siachen Glacier. The road is one of the world's highest motoroable roads.
82. Question 82 of 100

    82. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Dak Karmayogi Project’:
    (1) This is an e-learning platform to enhance the competencies of Gramin Dak Sevaks and Postal Department employees.
    (2) This portal has been developed 'In-House' under the vision of Mission Karmayogi.
    (3) Mission Karmayogi adopts a citizen-centric approach to civil service reforms.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Dak Karmayogi Project:
    This is an e-learning platform to enhance the competencies of Gramin Dak Sevaks and Postal Department employees. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Meghdoot Awards are a national-level award given by India Post to top-performing employees in the Department of Posts.
    The awards were introduced in 1984 to recognize outstanding performance and encourage postal employees.
    This portal has been developed 'In-House' under the vision of Mission Karmayogi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Mission Karmayogi adopts a citizen-centric approach to civil service reforms. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Dak Karmayogi Project:
    This is an e-learning platform to enhance the competencies of Gramin Dak Sevaks and Postal Department employees. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Meghdoot Awards are a national-level award given by India Post to top-performing employees in the Department of Posts.
    The awards were introduced in 1984 to recognize outstanding performance and encourage postal employees.
    This portal has been developed 'In-House' under the vision of Mission Karmayogi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Mission Karmayogi adopts a citizen-centric approach to civil service reforms. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
83. Question 83 of 100

    83. Question

    Bewar, mashan, penda and beera refers to which of the following?
    (A) Irrigation systems in India.
    (B) Shifting cultivation practiced in India.
    (C) Breeds of sheep found in India.
    (D) Tribes of India.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Shifting cultivation is an agricultural system in which plots of land are cultivated temporarily, then abandoned and allowed to revert to their natural vegetation while the cultivator moves on to another plot.
    Shifting cultivation in India is known as jhum in Assam; punamkrishi in Kerala; podu in Andhra Pradesh and Odisha; bewar, mashan, penda and beera in different parts of Madhya Pradesh.

    Unattempted
    

    Shifting cultivation is an agricultural system in which plots of land are cultivated temporarily, then abandoned and allowed to revert to their natural vegetation while the cultivator moves on to another plot.
    Shifting cultivation in India is known as jhum in Assam; punamkrishi in Kerala; podu in Andhra Pradesh and Odisha; bewar, mashan, penda and beera in different parts of Madhya Pradesh.
84. Question 84 of 100

    84. Question

    Decreasing land holdings is one of the biggest challenge for Indian agriculture.
    How many of the following reasons can be attributed to this continuous decline in land holding size in India?
    (1) Farm mechanisation.
    (2) Increasing urbanisation.
    (3) Fall of joint family system.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The biggest challenge for Indian agriculture is the decreasing size of land holdings, which can potentially make the profession unfeasible.
    Indian agriculture is undergoing a heavy stress as average land holdings is decreasing day by day.
    Our acreage has remained at 140 million hectares since 40 years but the number of farmers has increased from 7 crore to 14 crore. We are adding one crore farmers every five years. With smaller land at disposal, there is a decrease in farmer’s capacity to invest in land. The number of operational holdings has been consistently increasing since the first Agriculture Census in 1970-71. The average size of holdings had shown a steady decline over all the census period. There are many factors, which can be considered as reasons for declining land holding size. With increasing urbanization and industrial demand, and subsequent pressure on the availability of cultivable land, the scope for expansion of the area available for cultivation is limited. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    In addition, core to the challenge is an increasing population, which leads to further fragmentation of land holdings. Increase in population is also leading to more number of members in a family, which at later stage results in fall-out of joint families, resulting in further fragmentation of the land holdings. Hence, option 3 is correct.
    This becomes another reason for division of land within a family.
    Farm mechanization is not considered as a reason for decreasing size of land holdings. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
    Rather Farm mechanization can be considered as a consequence of larger farm holdings.
    This is because when size of farm holdings is larger, it is always beneficial, profitable and sustainable for the farmer to use machinery in the field.

    Unattempted
    

    The biggest challenge for Indian agriculture is the decreasing size of land holdings, which can potentially make the profession unfeasible.
    Indian agriculture is undergoing a heavy stress as average land holdings is decreasing day by day.
    Our acreage has remained at 140 million hectares since 40 years but the number of farmers has increased from 7 crore to 14 crore. We are adding one crore farmers every five years. With smaller land at disposal, there is a decrease in farmer’s capacity to invest in land. The number of operational holdings has been consistently increasing since the first Agriculture Census in 1970-71. The average size of holdings had shown a steady decline over all the census period. There are many factors, which can be considered as reasons for declining land holding size. With increasing urbanization and industrial demand, and subsequent pressure on the availability of cultivable land, the scope for expansion of the area available for cultivation is limited. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    In addition, core to the challenge is an increasing population, which leads to further fragmentation of land holdings. Increase in population is also leading to more number of members in a family, which at later stage results in fall-out of joint families, resulting in further fragmentation of the land holdings. Hence, option 3 is correct.
    This becomes another reason for division of land within a family.
    Farm mechanization is not considered as a reason for decreasing size of land holdings. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
    Rather Farm mechanization can be considered as a consequence of larger farm holdings.
    This is because when size of farm holdings is larger, it is always beneficial, profitable and sustainable for the farmer to use machinery in the field.
85. Question 85 of 100

    85. Question

    With reference to Question Hour, consider the following statements:
    (1) A starred question requires a written answer and hence supplementary questions cannot follow.
    (2) An unstarred question requires oral answer.
    (3) Starred questions are printed in green while Unstarred questions are printed in white colour.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.
    Statement 2 is not correct: An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.
    Statement 3 is correct: The list of starred, unstarred, short notice questions and questions to private members are printed in green, white, light pink and yellow colour, respectively, to distinguish them from one another.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.
    Statement 2 is not correct: An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.
    Statement 3 is correct: The list of starred, unstarred, short notice questions and questions to private members are printed in green, white, light pink and yellow colour, respectively, to distinguish them from one another.
86. Question 86 of 100

    86. Question

    With reference to Advocate General of the State, consider the following statements:
    (1) Article 165 of the Constitution of India provides for the office of the Advocate General of the states.
    (2) The Advocate General of the state may be removed by the governor at any time.
    (3) The advocate general is entitled to appear before any court of law within the state.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the advocate general for the states. He is the highest law officer in the state. Thus he corresponds to the Attorney General of India.
    Statement 2 is correct: The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
    He holds office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the governor. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.
    Statement 3 is correct: In the performance of his official duties, the advocate general is entitled to appear before any court of law within the state. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the state legislature or any committee of the state legislature of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the advocate general for the states. He is the highest law officer in the state. Thus he corresponds to the Attorney General of India.
    Statement 2 is correct: The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
    He holds office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the governor. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.
    Statement 3 is correct: In the performance of his official duties, the advocate general is entitled to appear before any court of law within the state. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the state legislature or any committee of the state legislature of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature.
87. Question 87 of 100

    87. Question

    How many of the following was/were the responsible factors for the Deccan Riots of 1875?
    (1) Exploitative tactics used by the moneylenders against ryots.
    (2) Abolition of zamindari rights of many small and large zamindars.
    (3) Increase in the land revenue demand by the British.
    (4) Crash in the cotton prices in global markets.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The Deccan Riots of 1875 were primarily targeted at the local moneylenders, whose used variety of exploitative tactics against the ryots.
    For example, the moneylenders resorted to practices like refusing to give receipts when loans were repaid, entering fictitious figures in loan bonds, acquiring the peasants’ harvest at low prices, and ultimately taking over the peasants’ property.
    Statement 2 is not correct: Abolition of zamindari was not an issue in Deccan, which was mostly under the Ryotwari System.
    Abolition of zamindari rights on non-payment of revenue was an issue in Bengal region.
    Statement 3 is correct: The revenue demand was increased in 1860s. In the new settlement, the demand was increased dramatically: from 50 to 100 per cent, causing immense hardships to the peasants.
    Statement 4 is correct: American Civil War of 1860s led to a cotton boom. Earlier America used to supply three-fourths of raw cotton requirements in Britain. Later the supply got disrupted because of the civil war which increased the demand for Indian cotton in global markets. This encouraged the export merchants and sahukars in Maharashtra to extend long-term credit to the peasants.
    However with the end of the American Civil War, cotton production in America revived and Indian cotton exports to Britain steadily declined. Export merchants and sahukars in Maharashtra were no longer keen on extending long-term credit. They could see the demand for Indian cotton fall and cotton prices slide downwards. So they decided to close down their operations, restrict their advances to peasants, and demand repayment of outstanding debts.
    All this added to the hardships of the peasants which ultimately led to the Deccan Riots.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The Deccan Riots of 1875 were primarily targeted at the local moneylenders, whose used variety of exploitative tactics against the ryots.
    For example, the moneylenders resorted to practices like refusing to give receipts when loans were repaid, entering fictitious figures in loan bonds, acquiring the peasants’ harvest at low prices, and ultimately taking over the peasants’ property.
    Statement 2 is not correct: Abolition of zamindari was not an issue in Deccan, which was mostly under the Ryotwari System.
    Abolition of zamindari rights on non-payment of revenue was an issue in Bengal region.
    Statement 3 is correct: The revenue demand was increased in 1860s. In the new settlement, the demand was increased dramatically: from 50 to 100 per cent, causing immense hardships to the peasants.
    Statement 4 is correct: American Civil War of 1860s led to a cotton boom. Earlier America used to supply three-fourths of raw cotton requirements in Britain. Later the supply got disrupted because of the civil war which increased the demand for Indian cotton in global markets. This encouraged the export merchants and sahukars in Maharashtra to extend long-term credit to the peasants.
    However with the end of the American Civil War, cotton production in America revived and Indian cotton exports to Britain steadily declined. Export merchants and sahukars in Maharashtra were no longer keen on extending long-term credit. They could see the demand for Indian cotton fall and cotton prices slide downwards. So they decided to close down their operations, restrict their advances to peasants, and demand repayment of outstanding debts.
    All this added to the hardships of the peasants which ultimately led to the Deccan Riots.
88. Question 88 of 100

    88. Question

    With reference to ‘Khuntkatti System’, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was a kind of joint ownership of land.
    (2) It was prominent in the Deccan region.
    (3) British recognized land rights under it in 1908.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Khunkhatti System is essentially a system of joint ownership of land held by a particular tribe in Chhotanagpur region. Munda and other tribes jointly own the land under Gram Sabha. The system is based on 'Tribal Lineage'. It provides ownership of land among all the families of the same killi (clan), who cleared the forest and made land cultivable.
    Statement 2 is not correct: The system was prominent in Chotanagpur.
    Statement 3 is correct: The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act of 1908 provided some very belated recognition to khuntkatti rights and banned beth begari (a kind of forced labor by landlords, prevalent in the region). Chotanagpur tribals won a degree of legal protection for their land rights.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Khunkhatti System is essentially a system of joint ownership of land held by a particular tribe in Chhotanagpur region. Munda and other tribes jointly own the land under Gram Sabha. The system is based on 'Tribal Lineage'. It provides ownership of land among all the families of the same killi (clan), who cleared the forest and made land cultivable.
    Statement 2 is not correct: The system was prominent in Chotanagpur.
    Statement 3 is correct: The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act of 1908 provided some very belated recognition to khuntkatti rights and banned beth begari (a kind of forced labor by landlords, prevalent in the region). Chotanagpur tribals won a degree of legal protection for their land rights.
89. Question 89 of 100

    89. Question

    Consider the following statements about Sudarshan Setu:
    (1) It is India's longest cable-stayed bridge situated in Gujarat.
    (2) It is also known as the Okha-Beyt Dwarka Signature Bridge.
    (3) The bridge aims to enhance transportation and reduce travel time for devotees visiting Dwarka and Beyt-Dwarka, replacing the reliance on boat transport.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Sudarshan Setu is also known as the Okha-Beyt Dwarka Signature Bridge. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It is India's longest cable-stayed bridge connecting the Okha mainland and the Beyt Dwarka island in Gujarat. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The bridge is technically a sea link, a first for Gujarat, with a total length of 4,772 meters, featuring a 900-meter-long cable-stayed section.
    It also has solar panels installed on the upper portions of the footpath, generating one megawatt of electricity.
    The bridge aims to enhance transportation and reduce travel time for devotees visiting Dwarka and Beyt-Dwarka, replacing the reliance on boat transport. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Sudarshan Setu is also known as the Okha-Beyt Dwarka Signature Bridge. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It is India's longest cable-stayed bridge connecting the Okha mainland and the Beyt Dwarka island in Gujarat. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The bridge is technically a sea link, a first for Gujarat, with a total length of 4,772 meters, featuring a 900-meter-long cable-stayed section.
    It also has solar panels installed on the upper portions of the footpath, generating one megawatt of electricity.
    The bridge aims to enhance transportation and reduce travel time for devotees visiting Dwarka and Beyt-Dwarka, replacing the reliance on boat transport. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
90. Question 90 of 100

    90. Question

    How many of the following revolutionary activities took place before First World War?
    (1) Barrah dacoity
    (2) Ramosi Peasant Force
    (3) Alipore conspiracy case
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Barrah Dacoity was organised by Pulin Behari Das in 1908 in Dhaka.
    Ramosi Peasant Force: Vasudev Balwant Phadke raised a Ramosi peasant force in Maharashtra during 1879, to get rid off the Britishers from the country by instigating an armed revolt.
    Alipore Conspiracy Case: Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case (1908). Kingsford was an unpopular British Chief Magistrate who was the target of the bomb thrown at Muzaffarpur (Bihar).
    Unfortunately, the carriage at which the bomb was targeted contained two English ladies and not Kingsford. The two British women died in the attack. Revolutionaries who threw the bomb were Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose.

    Unattempted
    

    Barrah Dacoity was organised by Pulin Behari Das in 1908 in Dhaka.
    Ramosi Peasant Force: Vasudev Balwant Phadke raised a Ramosi peasant force in Maharashtra during 1879, to get rid off the Britishers from the country by instigating an armed revolt.
    Alipore Conspiracy Case: Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case (1908). Kingsford was an unpopular British Chief Magistrate who was the target of the bomb thrown at Muzaffarpur (Bihar).
    Unfortunately, the carriage at which the bomb was targeted contained two English ladies and not Kingsford. The two British women died in the attack. Revolutionaries who threw the bomb were Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose.
91. Question 91 of 100

    91. Question

    Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s novel Anandmath is based on which of the following upris-ing/rebellion?
    (A) Bhil Uprising
    (B) Kol Uprising
    (C) Sanyasi Rebellion
    (D) The Mappila Uprising

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Anandamath (written in 1882) is based on the Sanyasi Rebellion’ against Mir Jafar, the ruler of Bengal and the British tax collectors.
    Displaced peasants and demobilized soldiers of Bengal led by religious monks and dispossessed zamindars rose up in the Sanyasi rebellion, made famous by this novel.

    Unattempted
    

    Anandamath (written in 1882) is based on the Sanyasi Rebellion’ against Mir Jafar, the ruler of Bengal and the British tax collectors.
    Displaced peasants and demobilized soldiers of Bengal led by religious monks and dispossessed zamindars rose up in the Sanyasi rebellion, made famous by this novel.
92. Question 92 of 100

    92. Question

    With reference to upliftment of dalits during pre-independence era, consider the following statements:
    (1) All India Harijan Sevak Sangh started numerous schools for the Harijan including residential vocational schools.
    (2) The first temple to openly welcome dalits was the Laxminarayan temple in Wardha.
    (3) Ramosi Revolt was launched to allow dalits to live in upper caste localities.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: All India Harijan Sevak Sangh founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1923 started numerous schools for the Harijan including residential vocational schools.
    Statement 2 is correct: The first temple to openly welcome Dalits was the Laxminarayan Temple in Wardha.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The Ramosi revolt was of the Ramosi tribe in western Ghats who raised against British rule and plundered the country around Satara.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: All India Harijan Sevak Sangh founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1923 started numerous schools for the Harijan including residential vocational schools.
    Statement 2 is correct: The first temple to openly welcome Dalits was the Laxminarayan Temple in Wardha.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The Ramosi revolt was of the Ramosi tribe in western Ghats who raised against British rule and plundered the country around Satara.
93. Question 93 of 100

    93. Question

    With reference to “Dubash” in Indian History, consider the following statements:
    (1) They were Europeans who could speak two languages – the local language and English
    (2) They worked as agents and merchants, acting as intermediaries between Indian society and the British.
    (3) They used their privileged position in government to acquire wealth.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Madras developed by incorporating innumerable surrounding villages and by creating opportunities and spaces for a variety of communities. Several different communities came and settled in Madras, performing a range of economic functions.
    Statement 1 is not correct: The dubashes were able to speak two languages but they were not Europeans but Indians.
    Statement 2 is correct: As they were able to communicate in both local and English language, they worked as agents and intermediaries between Indian society and the British.
    Statement 3 is correct: Dubashes were in touch with Britishers so they utilised this opportunity to acquire wealth. Their powerful position in society was established by their charitable works and patronage of temples in the Black Town.

    Unattempted
    

    Madras developed by incorporating innumerable surrounding villages and by creating opportunities and spaces for a variety of communities. Several different communities came and settled in Madras, performing a range of economic functions.
    Statement 1 is not correct: The dubashes were able to speak two languages but they were not Europeans but Indians.
    Statement 2 is correct: As they were able to communicate in both local and English language, they worked as agents and intermediaries between Indian society and the British.
    Statement 3 is correct: Dubashes were in touch with Britishers so they utilised this opportunity to acquire wealth. Their powerful position in society was established by their charitable works and patronage of temples in the Black Town.
94. Question 94 of 100

    94. Question

    With reference to agriculture during colonial period, consider the following statements:
    (1) 'Nij' and 'Ryoti' were systems of cotton cultivation.
    (2) 'Blue rebellion' was a rebellion of Indian peasants in Bengal against the local government.
    (3) Munro system of land settlement was prevalent in the southern parts of India.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: 'Nij' and 'Ryoti' were systems of indigo cultivation. Within the system of nij cultivation, the planter produced indigo in lands that he directly controlled.
    Under the ryoti system, the planters forced the ryots to sign a contract, an agreement (satta).;
    Statement 2 is not correct: The Blue Rebellion was a rebel movement of Bengali peasants against British planters and not the local government. In March 1859 thousands of ryots in Bengal refused to grow indigo. As the rebellion spread, ryots refused to pay rents to the planters, and attacked indigo factories.
    Statement 3 is correct: In the British territories in the south there was a move away from the idea of Permanent Settlement. The new system that was devised came to be known as the ryotwar (or ryotwari). It was tried on a small scale by Captain Alexander Read in some of the areas that were taken over by the Company after the wars with Tipu Sultan. Subsequently developed by Thomas Munro, this system was gradually extended all over south India.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: 'Nij' and 'Ryoti' were systems of indigo cultivation. Within the system of nij cultivation, the planter produced indigo in lands that he directly controlled.
    Under the ryoti system, the planters forced the ryots to sign a contract, an agreement (satta).;
    Statement 2 is not correct: The Blue Rebellion was a rebel movement of Bengali peasants against British planters and not the local government. In March 1859 thousands of ryots in Bengal refused to grow indigo. As the rebellion spread, ryots refused to pay rents to the planters, and attacked indigo factories.
    Statement 3 is correct: In the British territories in the south there was a move away from the idea of Permanent Settlement. The new system that was devised came to be known as the ryotwar (or ryotwari). It was tried on a small scale by Captain Alexander Read in some of the areas that were taken over by the Company after the wars with Tipu Sultan. Subsequently developed by Thomas Munro, this system was gradually extended all over south India.
95. Question 95 of 100

    95. Question

    Arrange the following events in hronological order:
    (1) Cripps Mission
    (2) Quit India Movement
    (3) Cabinet Mission
    Select the correct option using the codes given below:
    (A) 1-2 -3
    (B) 2-1-3
    (C) 3-1-2
    (D) 2-3-1

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Cripps Mission was sent by the British government to India in March 1942 to obtain Indian cooperation for the British war efforts in the 2nd World War.
    The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement, was a movement launched at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on 9 August 1942, during World War II, demanding an end to British rule in India.
    The Cabinet Mission Plan was a statement made by the Cabinet Mission and the Viceroy, Lord Wavell, on May 16, 1946, that contained proposals regarding the constitutional future of India in the wake of Indian political parties and representatives not coming to an agreement.

    Unattempted
    

    The Cripps Mission was sent by the British government to India in March 1942 to obtain Indian cooperation for the British war efforts in the 2nd World War.
    The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement, was a movement launched at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on 9 August 1942, during World War II, demanding an end to British rule in India.
    The Cabinet Mission Plan was a statement made by the Cabinet Mission and the Viceroy, Lord Wavell, on May 16, 1946, that contained proposals regarding the constitutional future of India in the wake of Indian political parties and representatives not coming to an agreement.
96. Question 96 of 100

    96. Question

    Consider the following statements about International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD):
    (1) It is an international financial institution and specialized United Nations agency working in the field of poverty eradication in the rural areas of developing countries.
    (2) It has 177 member countries and India is not a member country.
    (3) It was created in 1977, which is the outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD):IFAD is an international financial institution and specialized United Nations agency working in the field of poverty eradication in the rural areas of developing countries providing grants and loans with low interest for allied projects. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It was created in 1977, which is the outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974.
    It has 177 member countries. India is also a member country. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    It was created in 1977, which is the outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD):IFAD is an international financial institution and specialized United Nations agency working in the field of poverty eradication in the rural areas of developing countries providing grants and loans with low interest for allied projects. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It was created in 1977, which is the outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974.
    It has 177 member countries. India is also a member country. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    It was created in 1977, which is the outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
97. Question 97 of 100

    97. Question

    With reference to pre-independence police system, consider the following statements:
    (1) Mughal police system was under the control of the faujdar.
    (2) Cornwallis Code vested the supervision of village police in the Collector.
    (3) The Police Commission of 1902 provided for the appointment of Indians as officers in the police force.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The Mughal police system was under the control of the faujdars, who were in charge of their sarkars or rural districts; the kouoals were in charge of the towns, while the village watchmen were paid and controlled by the zamindars.
    Statement 2 is not correct: Lord Cornwallis in 1793 divested the zamindars of their policing duties, and instead divided the districts into thanas or units of police jurisdiction of twenty to thirty square miles, each placed under a new officer called daroga who was to be appointed and supervised by the magistrates.
    The Cornwallis Daroga system was formally abolished in 1812, and the supervision of the village police was vested in the collector, who was now responsible for revenue, police and magisterial functions at the same time.
    Statement 3 is correct: The Police Commission of 1902 allowed appointment of educated Indians as officers in the police force; but they stopped in rank where the European officer began.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The Mughal police system was under the control of the faujdars, who were in charge of their sarkars or rural districts; the kouoals were in charge of the towns, while the village watchmen were paid and controlled by the zamindars.
    Statement 2 is not correct: Lord Cornwallis in 1793 divested the zamindars of their policing duties, and instead divided the districts into thanas or units of police jurisdiction of twenty to thirty square miles, each placed under a new officer called daroga who was to be appointed and supervised by the magistrates.
    The Cornwallis Daroga system was formally abolished in 1812, and the supervision of the village police was vested in the collector, who was now responsible for revenue, police and magisterial functions at the same time.
    Statement 3 is correct: The Police Commission of 1902 allowed appointment of educated Indians as officers in the police force; but they stopped in rank where the European officer began.
98. Question 98 of 100

    98. Question

    How many of the following was/were the items of export during the 18th century India?
    (1) Honey
    (2) Saltpetre
    (3) Hardware
    (4) Woollen Cloth
    (5) Tea
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only two
    (B) Only three
    (C) Only four
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Extensive trade within the country and between India and other countries of Asia and Europe was carried on under the Mughals.
    India's most important article of export was cotton textiles which were famous all over the world for their excellence and were in demand everywhere. India also exported raw silk and silk fabrics, hardware, indigo, saltpetre, opium, rice, wheat, sugar, pepper and other spices, precious stones, and drugs, Hence, options 2 and 3 are correct.
    India imported pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried fruits, and rose water from the Persian Gulf region; coffee, gold, drugs, and honey from Arabia; tea, sugar, porcelain, and silk from China; goid, musk and woollen cloth from Tibet; tin from Singapore; spices, perfumes, arrack, and sugar from the Indonesian islands; ivory and drugs from Africa; and woollen cloth, metals such as copper, iron, and lead, and paper from Europe.

    Unattempted
    

    Extensive trade within the country and between India and other countries of Asia and Europe was carried on under the Mughals.
    India's most important article of export was cotton textiles which were famous all over the world for their excellence and were in demand everywhere. India also exported raw silk and silk fabrics, hardware, indigo, saltpetre, opium, rice, wheat, sugar, pepper and other spices, precious stones, and drugs, Hence, options 2 and 3 are correct.
    India imported pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried fruits, and rose water from the Persian Gulf region; coffee, gold, drugs, and honey from Arabia; tea, sugar, porcelain, and silk from China; goid, musk and woollen cloth from Tibet; tin from Singapore; spices, perfumes, arrack, and sugar from the Indonesian islands; ivory and drugs from Africa; and woollen cloth, metals such as copper, iron, and lead, and paper from Europe.
99. Question 99 of 100

    99. Question

    Consider the following rebellions during colonial times and arrange them in chronological manner:
    (1) Kol Rebellions
    (2) Santhal Rebellion
    (3) Munda Rebellion
    (4) Sanyasi Rebellion
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1-2-3-4
    (B) 1-3-4-2
    (C) 4-1-2-3
    (D) 3-1-4-2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1: The Kols of Chota Nagpur rebelled from 1820 to 1837.
    Statement 2: The Santhal Revolt took place in 1855-56. Santhals are a tribal group concentrated in the state of Jharkhand. This was the first peasant revolt that occurred in India.
    The revolt can be attributed to the introduction of the Permanent Land Settlement of 1793. It was decided to raise the banner of revolt, get rid of the outsiders and their colonial masters once and for all. The rebellion continued till 1866.
    Statement 3: The rebellion of the Munda tribesmen, led by Birsa Munda, occurred during 1899-1919.
    Statement 4: Sanyasi rebellion, made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand Math, lasted from 1763 to 1800.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1: The Kols of Chota Nagpur rebelled from 1820 to 1837.
    Statement 2: The Santhal Revolt took place in 1855-56. Santhals are a tribal group concentrated in the state of Jharkhand. This was the first peasant revolt that occurred in India.
    The revolt can be attributed to the introduction of the Permanent Land Settlement of 1793. It was decided to raise the banner of revolt, get rid of the outsiders and their colonial masters once and for all. The rebellion continued till 1866.
    Statement 3: The rebellion of the Munda tribesmen, led by Birsa Munda, occurred during 1899-1919.
    Statement 4: Sanyasi rebellion, made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand Math, lasted from 1763 to 1800.
100. Question 100 of 100

     100. Question

     With reference to Ramosi Uprising, consider the following statements:
     (1) It was led by Vasudev Balwant Phadke.
     (2) The Ramosi peasants of Bengal aimed to get rid of zamindars and pay direct allegiance to the British crown.
     (3) Ramosis were hill tribes of the western ghats.
     How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
     (A) Only one
     (B) Only two
     (C) All
     (D) None

     • A
     • B
     • C
     • D
     Correct
     

     Incorrect
     

     Statement 1 is correct: The first of the revolutionary activities in Maharashtra was the organisation of the Ramosi Peasant Force by Vasudev Balwant Phadke in 1879.
     Statement 2 is not correct: It aimed to rid the country of the British by instigating an armed revolt by disrupting communication lines. It hoped to raise funds for its activities through dacoities. It was suppressed prematurely.
     Further, Ramosi peasants belonged to Maharashtra and not Bengal.
     Statement 3 is correct: The hill tribes of the Western Ghats known as Ramosis had not accepted British authority. They worked in the lower levels of the Maratha army and police prior to the collapse of the Maratha Empire. Ramosis who had previously worked for the Maratha government lost their source of income after the British seized the Maratha territories in 1818. In the middle of the famine, the Brits imposed taxes on these unemployed families. These tribal people felt that the new British government structure was extremely unfair to them, which sparked the infamous Ramosi revolt.

     Unattempted
     

     Statement 1 is correct: The first of the revolutionary activities in Maharashtra was the organisation of the Ramosi Peasant Force by Vasudev Balwant Phadke in 1879.
     Statement 2 is not correct: It aimed to rid the country of the British by instigating an armed revolt by disrupting communication lines. It hoped to raise funds for its activities through dacoities. It was suppressed prematurely.
     Further, Ramosi peasants belonged to Maharashtra and not Bengal.
     Statement 3 is correct: The hill tribes of the Western Ghats known as Ramosis had not accepted British authority. They worked in the lower levels of the Maratha army and police prior to the collapse of the Maratha Empire. Ramosis who had previously worked for the Maratha government lost their source of income after the British seized the Maratha territories in 1818. In the middle of the famine, the Brits imposed taxes on these unemployed families. These tribal people felt that the new British government structure was extremely unfair to them, which sparked the infamous Ramosi revolt.