TEST 32 – (E)

FULL LENGTH TEST 7 – 2024

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1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 100

   1. Question

   Consider the following pairs:
   Island : Country
   (1) Assumption Island : Seychelles
   (2) Hulhule Island : Maldives
   (3) Coco Island : Myanmar
   How many of the above pairs is/are incorrect ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Assumption Island is a small island in the Outer Islands of Seychelles north of Madagascar.
   Hulhule is an island in the North Male Atoll of the Maldives.
   The Coco Islands are a small group of islands in the north-eastern Bay of Bengal. They are part of the Yangon Region of Myanmar.

   Unattempted
   

   Assumption Island is a small island in the Outer Islands of Seychelles north of Madagascar.
   Hulhule is an island in the North Male Atoll of the Maldives.
   The Coco Islands are a small group of islands in the north-eastern Bay of Bengal. They are part of the Yangon Region of Myanmar.
2. Question 2 of 100

   2. Question

   In the context of the economy, consider the following statements.
   (1) A recession means the contraction of an economy for at least the same quarters of two consecutive years, along with job losses and a reduction in overall demand.
   (2) When investors pull money out of long-term bonds and put it into short-term riskier assets is indicative of a recessive economy.
   In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
   (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
   (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
   (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
   (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   A recession typically involves the overall output in an economy contracting for at least two consecutive quarters, along with job losses and a reduction in overall demand.
   So statement 1 is incorrect.
   When investors feel buoyant about the economy, they pull money out of long-term bonds and put it into short-term riskier assets such as stock markets. It indicates an expansion of an economy.
   If investors suspect that the economy is heading for trouble, they will pull out money from short-term risky assets (such as stock markets) and put it in long-term bonds. This causes the prices of long-term bonds to rise and their yields to fall.
   This process first leads to flattening and eventually the inversion of the yield curve.
   Yield inversion has long been a reliable predictor of recession in the US.
   So statement 2 is also incorrect.
   

   Unattempted
   

   A recession typically involves the overall output in an economy contracting for at least two consecutive quarters, along with job losses and a reduction in overall demand.
   So statement 1 is incorrect.
   When investors feel buoyant about the economy, they pull money out of long-term bonds and put it into short-term riskier assets such as stock markets. It indicates an expansion of an economy.
   If investors suspect that the economy is heading for trouble, they will pull out money from short-term risky assets (such as stock markets) and put it in long-term bonds. This causes the prices of long-term bonds to rise and their yields to fall.
   This process first leads to flattening and eventually the inversion of the yield curve.
   Yield inversion has long been a reliable predictor of recession in the US.
   So statement 2 is also incorrect.
   
3. Question 3 of 100

   3. Question

   With reference to the cultivation of rice in India, consider the following statements:
   (1) In north-western states such as Punjab and Haryana, two to three crops of rice are cultivated in an agricultural year.
   (2) The yield of rice is very low in rain-fed areas of eastern India, whereas yield of this crop is higher in north-western part of the country.
   In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
   (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
   (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
   (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
   (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   In West Bengal and southern states, two or three crops of rice is cultivated in an agricultural year, whereas in north-western parts of the country, it is grown mainly during south-west monsoon season. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   The yield of rice is very low in rain-fed areas of eastern India such as eastern Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha, whereas the yield of this crop is higher in north-western parts such as Haryana and Punjab. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   In West Bengal and southern states, two or three crops of rice is cultivated in an agricultural year, whereas in north-western parts of the country, it is grown mainly during south-west monsoon season. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   The yield of rice is very low in rain-fed areas of eastern India such as eastern Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha, whereas the yield of this crop is higher in north-western parts such as Haryana and Punjab. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
4. Question 4 of 100

   4. Question

   Consider the following statements regarding Chilika Lake
   (1) Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon located in Andhra Pradesh on the east coast of India.
   (2) Chilika is Asia”s largest and world”s second largest lagoon.
   In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
   (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
   (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
   (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
   (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon, spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha state on the east coast of India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   About Chilika:
   Chilika is 64 kilometres long in the north-south direction and 13.5 km wide in the east-west direction.
   The sea connected with the lake near Satapada through a shallow and narrow channel.
   The connecting channel was obstructed by shoals, sand spits and sandbars, thus restricting the outflow of water and also checking the tidal flow into the lake.
   Chilika is Asia”s largest and world”s second largest lagoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
   It is the largest wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian subcontinent and is home to a number of threatened species of plants and animals.
   In 1981, Chilika Lake was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
   Major attraction at Chilika is Irrawaddy dolphins which are often spotted off Satpada Island.
   The large Nalabana Island (Forest of Reeds) covering about 16 sq km in the lagoon area was declared a bird sanctuary in 1987.
   Kalijai Temple – Located on an island in the Chilika Lake.

   Unattempted
   

   Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon, spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha state on the east coast of India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   About Chilika:
   Chilika is 64 kilometres long in the north-south direction and 13.5 km wide in the east-west direction.
   The sea connected with the lake near Satapada through a shallow and narrow channel.
   The connecting channel was obstructed by shoals, sand spits and sandbars, thus restricting the outflow of water and also checking the tidal flow into the lake.
   Chilika is Asia”s largest and world”s second largest lagoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
   It is the largest wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian subcontinent and is home to a number of threatened species of plants and animals.
   In 1981, Chilika Lake was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
   Major attraction at Chilika is Irrawaddy dolphins which are often spotted off Satpada Island.
   The large Nalabana Island (Forest of Reeds) covering about 16 sq km in the lagoon area was declared a bird sanctuary in 1987.
   Kalijai Temple – Located on an island in the Chilika Lake.
5. Question 5 of 100

   5. Question

   Consider the following statements regarding peatlands :
   (1) Peatlands occur only in tropical climatic region.
   (2) Peatlands covers about 3% of the Earth”s terrestrial surface.
   In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
   (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
   (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
   (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
   (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing. Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat. In cool climates, peatland vegetation is mostly made up of Sphagnum mosses, sedges and shrubs and are the primary builder of peat, whereas in warmer climates graminoids and woody vegetation provide most of the organic matter.
   Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million km2 , which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth”s terrestrial surface. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   Peatlands include landscapes that are still actively accumulating peat (mires), others that are no longer accumulating and do not support the principal peat forming plants (e.g. Sphagnum sp.), and peatlands used for economic uses such as agriculture, forestry and excavation for energy & heat generation, horticulture and a other uses. About 84% of the world”s peatlands are considered to be in natural, or near-natural state. Drained peatlands make up about 16% of the world”s peatlands, or 0.5% of the Earth”s terrestrial surface. Due to the process of peat accumulation, peatlands are carbon rich ecosystems that store and sequester more carbon than any other type of terrestrial ecosystem, exceeding thereby even the global above-ground carbon stock of forest ecosystems. When peatlands are drained, the carbon from organic matter contained in peat dries and oxidizes gradually to CO2, and is permanently lost from the system. Over time, this process also results in soil compaction and subsidence, making it difficult to restore proper hydrology without water table management.

   Unattempted
   

   Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing. Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat. In cool climates, peatland vegetation is mostly made up of Sphagnum mosses, sedges and shrubs and are the primary builder of peat, whereas in warmer climates graminoids and woody vegetation provide most of the organic matter.
   Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million km2 , which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth”s terrestrial surface. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   Peatlands include landscapes that are still actively accumulating peat (mires), others that are no longer accumulating and do not support the principal peat forming plants (e.g. Sphagnum sp.), and peatlands used for economic uses such as agriculture, forestry and excavation for energy & heat generation, horticulture and a other uses. About 84% of the world”s peatlands are considered to be in natural, or near-natural state. Drained peatlands make up about 16% of the world”s peatlands, or 0.5% of the Earth”s terrestrial surface. Due to the process of peat accumulation, peatlands are carbon rich ecosystems that store and sequester more carbon than any other type of terrestrial ecosystem, exceeding thereby even the global above-ground carbon stock of forest ecosystems. When peatlands are drained, the carbon from organic matter contained in peat dries and oxidizes gradually to CO2, and is permanently lost from the system. Over time, this process also results in soil compaction and subsidence, making it difficult to restore proper hydrology without water table management.
6. Question 6 of 100

   6. Question

   Which of the following is not an ex situ conservation measures?
   (A) Botanical garden
   (B) Aquariums
   (C) Sacred Groves
   (D) Seed banks

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   In situ and ex situ conservation focuses on the maintenance of species diversity within or away from their natural habitats, respectively.
   In situ conservation
   Reserved & Protected Forests
   Wildlife Sanctuaries or wildlife refuges
   National Park
   Biosphere Reserve
   Tiger Reserves
   Conservation Reserves
   Community Reserves
   Sacred Groves
   Ex Situ Conservation
   Botanical garden
   Zoo
   seed banks, botanical gardens, aquariums

   Unattempted
   

   In situ and ex situ conservation focuses on the maintenance of species diversity within or away from their natural habitats, respectively.
   In situ conservation
   Reserved & Protected Forests
   Wildlife Sanctuaries or wildlife refuges
   National Park
   Biosphere Reserve
   Tiger Reserves
   Conservation Reserves
   Community Reserves
   Sacred Groves
   Ex Situ Conservation
   Botanical garden
   Zoo
   seed banks, botanical gardens, aquariums
7. Question 7 of 100

   7. Question

   How many of the following is/are correct about river Kaveri?
   (1) It rises in the Brahmagri range of the Western Ghats.
   (2) Its tributaries comprise of Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini.
   (3) It passes through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu only.
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1 is correct.
   The Kaveri rises in the Brahmagri range of the Western Ghats and it reaches the Bay of Bengal in south of cuddalore, in Tamil Nadu. Total length of the river is about 760 km.
   Statement 2 is correct.
   Kaveri has many tributaries including Shimsha, Hemavati, Arkavathy, Kapila, Honnuhole, Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini, Lokapavani, Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravati.
   Statement 3 is correct.
   Kaveri passes through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. However, its basin drains parts of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1 is correct.
   The Kaveri rises in the Brahmagri range of the Western Ghats and it reaches the Bay of Bengal in south of cuddalore, in Tamil Nadu. Total length of the river is about 760 km.
   Statement 2 is correct.
   Kaveri has many tributaries including Shimsha, Hemavati, Arkavathy, Kapila, Honnuhole, Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini, Lokapavani, Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravati.
   Statement 3 is correct.
   Kaveri passes through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. However, its basin drains parts of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
8. Question 8 of 100

   8. Question

   Consider the following north-eastern hills of India:
   (1) Dafla hills
   (2) Mishmi hills
   (3) Abor hills
   (4) Miri hills
   Which of the following is the correct order of their occurrence from west to east?
   (A) 1-2-3-4
   (B) 2-1-3-4
   (C) 3-1-2-4
   (D) 1-4-3-2

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The correct order is: Dafla hills – Miri hills – Abor hills – Mishmi hills.
   

   Unattempted
   

   The correct order is: Dafla hills – Miri hills – Abor hills – Mishmi hills.
   
9. Question 9 of 100

   9. Question

   How many of the following is/are features of the Cool Temperate Western Margin climate?
   (1) Adequate rainfall throughout the year.
   (2) Presence of four distinct seasons.
   (3) Mild winters and cool summers.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below :
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   All the options are correct.
   The cool temperate western margins are under the permanent influence of the Westerliesall round the year. They are also regions of much cyclonic activity, typical of Britain and are thus said to experience the British type of climate.
   British Type Climate
   Moderately warm summers and fairly mild winters.
   Rainfall occurs throughout the year with winter maxima. Temperature
   The mean annual temperatures are usually between 5° C and 15° C.
   Winters are abnormally mild. This is because of the warming effect brought by warm North Atlantic Drift.
   Sometimes, unusual cold spells are caused by the invasion of cold polar continental air (Polar Vortex) from the interiors.
   Precipitation
   The British type of climate has adequate rainfall throughout the year with a tendency towards a slight winter maximum (due to frontal cyclones).
   Western margins have the heaviest rainfall due to westerlies
   Relief can make great differences in the annual amount. This is particularly significant in New Zealand where the western margins are subjected to heavy orographic rainfall whereas the eastern Canterbury plains receive comparatively less rainfall due to rain-shadow effect.
   The seasons
   As in other temperate regions there are four distinct seasons.
   Winter is the season of cloudy skies, foggy and misty mornings, and many rainy days from the passing depressions.
   Spring is the driest and the most refreshing season when people emerge from the depressing winter to see everything becoming green again.
   This is followed by the long, sunny summer.
   Next is the autumn with the roar of gusty winds; and the cycle repeats itself.
   This type of climate with its four distinct seasons is something that is conspicuously absent in the = tropics. [Rainforest- Only Rainy season, Tropical Monsoon- Summer, Winter and Rainy, Tropical Savanna- Summer (rains) and Winter.

   Unattempted
   

   All the options are correct.
   The cool temperate western margins are under the permanent influence of the Westerliesall round the year. They are also regions of much cyclonic activity, typical of Britain and are thus said to experience the British type of climate.
   British Type Climate
   Moderately warm summers and fairly mild winters.
   Rainfall occurs throughout the year with winter maxima. Temperature
   The mean annual temperatures are usually between 5° C and 15° C.
   Winters are abnormally mild. This is because of the warming effect brought by warm North Atlantic Drift.
   Sometimes, unusual cold spells are caused by the invasion of cold polar continental air (Polar Vortex) from the interiors.
   Precipitation
   The British type of climate has adequate rainfall throughout the year with a tendency towards a slight winter maximum (due to frontal cyclones).
   Western margins have the heaviest rainfall due to westerlies
   Relief can make great differences in the annual amount. This is particularly significant in New Zealand where the western margins are subjected to heavy orographic rainfall whereas the eastern Canterbury plains receive comparatively less rainfall due to rain-shadow effect.
   The seasons
   As in other temperate regions there are four distinct seasons.
   Winter is the season of cloudy skies, foggy and misty mornings, and many rainy days from the passing depressions.
   Spring is the driest and the most refreshing season when people emerge from the depressing winter to see everything becoming green again.
   This is followed by the long, sunny summer.
   Next is the autumn with the roar of gusty winds; and the cycle repeats itself.
   This type of climate with its four distinct seasons is something that is conspicuously absent in the = tropics. [Rainforest- Only Rainy season, Tropical Monsoon- Summer, Winter and Rainy, Tropical Savanna- Summer (rains) and Winter.
10. Question 10 of 100

    10. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Montreal Protocol :
    (1) The Montreal Protocol regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS).
    (2) The Protocol is to date the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified every country on Earth.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    All the above statements are correct.
    The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS). When released to the atmosphere, those chemicals damage the stratospheric ozone layer, Earth”s protective shield that protects humans and the environment from harmful levels of ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Adopted on 15 September 1987, the Protocol is to date the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified every country on Earth – all 198 UN Member States.
    The Montreal Protocol phases down the consumption and production of the different ODS in a step-wise manner, with different timetables for developed and developing countries (referred to as “Article 5 countries”). Under this treaty, all parties have specific responsibilities related to the phase out of the different groups of ODS, control of ODS trade, annual reporting of data, national licensing systems to control ODS imports and exports, and other matters. Developing and developed countries have equal but differentiated responsibilities, but most importantly, both groups of countries have binding, time-targeted and measurable commitments.

    Unattempted
    

    All the above statements are correct.
    The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS). When released to the atmosphere, those chemicals damage the stratospheric ozone layer, Earth”s protective shield that protects humans and the environment from harmful levels of ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Adopted on 15 September 1987, the Protocol is to date the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified every country on Earth – all 198 UN Member States.
    The Montreal Protocol phases down the consumption and production of the different ODS in a step-wise manner, with different timetables for developed and developing countries (referred to as “Article 5 countries”). Under this treaty, all parties have specific responsibilities related to the phase out of the different groups of ODS, control of ODS trade, annual reporting of data, national licensing systems to control ODS imports and exports, and other matters. Developing and developed countries have equal but differentiated responsibilities, but most importantly, both groups of countries have binding, time-targeted and measurable commitments.
11. Question 11 of 100

    11. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding eutrophication :
    (1) Eutrophication is characterized by excessive plant and algal growth due to the increased availability of one or more limiting growth factors needed for photosynthesis.
    (2) Eutrophication occurs naturally over centuries as lakes age and are filled in with sediments.
    (3) Harmful algal blooms, dead zones, and fish kills are the results of eutrophication.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Eutrophication is a big word that describes a big problem in the nation”s estuaries. Harmful algal blooms, dead zones, and fish kills are the results of a process called eutrophication — which occurs when the environment becomes enriched with nutrients, increasing the amount of plant and algae growth to estuaries and coastal waters.
    Eutrophication sets off a chain reaction in the ecosystem, starting with an overabundance of algae and plants. The excess algae and plant matter eventually decompose, producing large amounts of carbon dioxide. This lowers the pH of seawater, a process known as ocean acidification. Acidification slows the growth of fish and shellfish and can prevent shell formation in bivalve mollusks. This leads to a reduced catch for commercial and recreational fisheries, meaning smaller harvests and more expensive seafood.
    Eutrophication is characterized by excessive plant and algal growth due to the increased availability of one or more limiting growth factors needed for photosynthesis (Schindler 2006), such as sunlight, carbon dioxide, and nutrient fertilizers. Eutrophication occurs naturally over centuries as lakes age and are filled in with sediments (Carpenter 1981).
    However, human activities have accelerated the rate and extent of eutrophication through both point-source discharges and non-point loadings of limiting nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, into aquatic ecosystems (i.e., cultural eutrophication), with dramatic consequences for drinking water sources, fisheries, and recreational water bodies (Carpenter et al. 1998).
    For example, aquaculture scientists and pond managers often intentionally eutrophy water bodies by adding fertilizers to enhance primary productivity and increase the density and biomass of recreationally and economically important fishes via bottom-up effects on higher trophic levels (Boyd & Tucker 1998). However, during the 1960s and 1970s, scientists linked algal blooms to nutrient enrichment resulting from anthropogenic activities such as agriculture, industry, and sewage disposal (Schindler 1974). The known consequences of cultural eutrophication include blooms of blue-green algae, tainted drinking water supplies, degradation of recreational opportunities, and hypoxia.

    Unattempted
    

    Eutrophication is a big word that describes a big problem in the nation”s estuaries. Harmful algal blooms, dead zones, and fish kills are the results of a process called eutrophication — which occurs when the environment becomes enriched with nutrients, increasing the amount of plant and algae growth to estuaries and coastal waters.
    Eutrophication sets off a chain reaction in the ecosystem, starting with an overabundance of algae and plants. The excess algae and plant matter eventually decompose, producing large amounts of carbon dioxide. This lowers the pH of seawater, a process known as ocean acidification. Acidification slows the growth of fish and shellfish and can prevent shell formation in bivalve mollusks. This leads to a reduced catch for commercial and recreational fisheries, meaning smaller harvests and more expensive seafood.
    Eutrophication is characterized by excessive plant and algal growth due to the increased availability of one or more limiting growth factors needed for photosynthesis (Schindler 2006), such as sunlight, carbon dioxide, and nutrient fertilizers. Eutrophication occurs naturally over centuries as lakes age and are filled in with sediments (Carpenter 1981).
    However, human activities have accelerated the rate and extent of eutrophication through both point-source discharges and non-point loadings of limiting nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, into aquatic ecosystems (i.e., cultural eutrophication), with dramatic consequences for drinking water sources, fisheries, and recreational water bodies (Carpenter et al. 1998).
    For example, aquaculture scientists and pond managers often intentionally eutrophy water bodies by adding fertilizers to enhance primary productivity and increase the density and biomass of recreationally and economically important fishes via bottom-up effects on higher trophic levels (Boyd & Tucker 1998). However, during the 1960s and 1970s, scientists linked algal blooms to nutrient enrichment resulting from anthropogenic activities such as agriculture, industry, and sewage disposal (Schindler 1974). The known consequences of cultural eutrophication include blooms of blue-green algae, tainted drinking water supplies, degradation of recreational opportunities, and hypoxia.
12. Question 12 of 100

    12. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Global Warming :
    (1) Human activities are estimated to have caused approximately 1.0°C of global warming above pre-industrial levels.
    (2) Warming greater than the global annual average is being experienced in many land regions and seasons, including two to three times higher in the Arctic.
    (3) Warming is generally higher over ocean than over the land.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Special Report: Global Warming of 1.5 ºC
    Human activities are estimated to have caused approximately 1.0°C of global warming above pre-industrial levels, with a likely range of 0.8°C to 1.2°C. Global warming is likely to reach 1.5°C between 2030 and 2052 if it continues to increase at the current rate.
    Warming greater than the global annual average is being experienced in many land regions and seasons, including two to three times higher in the Arctic. Warming is generally higher over land than over the ocean. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Warming from anthropogenic emissions from the pre-industrial period to the present will persist for centuries to millennia and will continue to cause further long-term changes in the climate system, such as sea level rise, with associated impacts (high confidence), but these emissions alone are unlikely to cause global warming of 1.5°C (medium confidence).
    Climate-related risks for natural and human systems are higher for global warming of 1.5°C than at present, but lower than at 2°C (high confidence). These risks depend on the magnitude and rate of warming, geographic location, levels of development and vulnerability, and on the choices and implementation of adaptation and mitigation options.

    Unattempted
    

    Special Report: Global Warming of 1.5 ºC
    Human activities are estimated to have caused approximately 1.0°C of global warming above pre-industrial levels, with a likely range of 0.8°C to 1.2°C. Global warming is likely to reach 1.5°C between 2030 and 2052 if it continues to increase at the current rate.
    Warming greater than the global annual average is being experienced in many land regions and seasons, including two to three times higher in the Arctic. Warming is generally higher over land than over the ocean. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Warming from anthropogenic emissions from the pre-industrial period to the present will persist for centuries to millennia and will continue to cause further long-term changes in the climate system, such as sea level rise, with associated impacts (high confidence), but these emissions alone are unlikely to cause global warming of 1.5°C (medium confidence).
    Climate-related risks for natural and human systems are higher for global warming of 1.5°C than at present, but lower than at 2°C (high confidence). These risks depend on the magnitude and rate of warming, geographic location, levels of development and vulnerability, and on the choices and implementation of adaptation and mitigation options.
13. Question 13 of 100

    13. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) :
    (1) It is a statutory body under the Biological Diversity Act 2002.
    (2) The Chairperson of the Biodiversity Management Committee is Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    What are Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC)?
    As per the Biological Diversity Act 2002, BMCs are created for “promoting conservation, sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity” by local bodies across the country.
    Composition:
    It shall consist of a chair person and not more than six persons nominated by the local body, of whom not less than one third should be women and not less than 18% should belong to the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The Chairperson of the Biodiversity Management Committee shall be elected from amongst the members of the committee in a meeting to be chaired by the Chairperson of the local body.
    The chairperson of the local body shall have the casting votes in case of a tie.
    Functions:
    The main function of the BMC is to prepare People”s Biodiversity Register in consultation with the local people. The Register shall contain comprehensive information on availability and knowledge of local biological resources, their medicinal or any other use or any other.

    Unattempted
    

    What are Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC)?
    As per the Biological Diversity Act 2002, BMCs are created for “promoting conservation, sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity” by local bodies across the country.
    Composition:
    It shall consist of a chair person and not more than six persons nominated by the local body, of whom not less than one third should be women and not less than 18% should belong to the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The Chairperson of the Biodiversity Management Committee shall be elected from amongst the members of the committee in a meeting to be chaired by the Chairperson of the local body.
    The chairperson of the local body shall have the casting votes in case of a tie.
    Functions:
    The main function of the BMC is to prepare People”s Biodiversity Register in consultation with the local people. The Register shall contain comprehensive information on availability and knowledge of local biological resources, their medicinal or any other use or any other.
14. Question 14 of 100

    14. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Aichi Targets :
    (1) Strategic Goal A aims to reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity and promote sustainable use.
    (2) Strategic Goal C aims to improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, species and genetic diversity.
    (3) Strategic Goal D aims to enhance the benefits to all from biodiversity and ecosystem services.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The “Aichi Targets” were adopted by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) at its Nagoya conference. It is a short term plan provides a set of 20 ambitious yet achievable targets, collectively known as the Aichi Targets.
    They can be divided into:
    Strategic Goal A: Address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss by mainstreaming biodiversity across government and society. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Strategic Goal B: Reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity and promote sustainable use.
    Strategic Goal C: To improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, species and genetic diversity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Strategic Goal D: Enhance the benefits to all from biodiversity and ecosystem services. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Strategic Goal E: Enhance implementation through participatory planning, knowledge management and capacity building.

    Unattempted
    

    The “Aichi Targets” were adopted by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) at its Nagoya conference. It is a short term plan provides a set of 20 ambitious yet achievable targets, collectively known as the Aichi Targets.
    They can be divided into:
    Strategic Goal A: Address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss by mainstreaming biodiversity across government and society. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Strategic Goal B: Reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity and promote sustainable use.
    Strategic Goal C: To improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, species and genetic diversity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Strategic Goal D: Enhance the benefits to all from biodiversity and ecosystem services. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Strategic Goal E: Enhance implementation through participatory planning, knowledge management and capacity building.
15. Question 15 of 100

    15. Question

    How many of the following situations can lead to demand-pull inflation in an economy ?
    (1) Rising prices of crude oil
    (2) RBI cutting policy rates.
    (3) Government increasing house rent allowance for central government employees.
    (4) Universal Basic Income
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only two
    (B) Only three
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Demand-pull inflation is when the demand for a good or service is greater than supply, allowing producers to raise prices. Many individuals purchasing the same good will cause the price to increase, and when such an event happens to a whole economy for all types of goods, it is called demand-pull inflation.
    o Universal Basic Income will guarantee a fixed income to all the citizens irrespective of their employment condition, thus boosting their purchasing power.
    o A rate cut by RBI may enhance the money supply in the economy, thus increasing demand and similarly increasing the HRA components of the salary of government workers will boost demand.
    o Inflation due to rising prices of crude oil is an example of cost-push inflation. Cost-push inflation is a situation in which the overall price levels go up (inflation) due to increases in the cost of wages and raw materials. Crude oil is a basic raw material in all manufacturing process. Hence, only statement 1 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Demand-pull inflation is when the demand for a good or service is greater than supply, allowing producers to raise prices. Many individuals purchasing the same good will cause the price to increase, and when such an event happens to a whole economy for all types of goods, it is called demand-pull inflation.
    o Universal Basic Income will guarantee a fixed income to all the citizens irrespective of their employment condition, thus boosting their purchasing power.
    o A rate cut by RBI may enhance the money supply in the economy, thus increasing demand and similarly increasing the HRA components of the salary of government workers will boost demand.
    o Inflation due to rising prices of crude oil is an example of cost-push inflation. Cost-push inflation is a situation in which the overall price levels go up (inflation) due to increases in the cost of wages and raw materials. Crude oil is a basic raw material in all manufacturing process. Hence, only statement 1 is not correct.
16. Question 16 of 100

    16. Question

    The Balance of Payments deficit can be reduced by :
    (1) Sale of sovereign bonds in international markets
    (2) Demand Slowdown
    (3) Restrictions on non-essential imports
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Balance of Payments deficit can be reduced by:
    Statement 1 is correct : Sale of sovereign bonds in international markets will lead to increase in Capital account balance and thus reduce the BoP deficit.
    Statement 2 is correct : Demand slowdown can reduce the demand for imports and can thus reduce the BoP deficit.
    Statement 3 is correct : Restricting non-essential imports will lead to reduction in imports and thus reduce the BoP deficit.

    Unattempted
    

    The Balance of Payments deficit can be reduced by:
    Statement 1 is correct : Sale of sovereign bonds in international markets will lead to increase in Capital account balance and thus reduce the BoP deficit.
    Statement 2 is correct : Demand slowdown can reduce the demand for imports and can thus reduce the BoP deficit.
    Statement 3 is correct : Restricting non-essential imports will lead to reduction in imports and thus reduce the BoP deficit.
17. Question 17 of 100

    17. Question

    Which of the following is levied on imported goods to offset subsidies made to producers in the exporting country?
    (A) Import Duty
    (B) Export Duty
    (C) Excise Duty
    (D) Countervailing Duty

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Tariffs levied on imported goods to offset subsidies made to producers of these goods in the exporting country are known as Countervailing duties. CVD are meant to level the playing field between domestic producers of a product and foreign producers of the same product who can afford to sell it at a lower price because of subsidy they receive from their government.

    Unattempted
    

    Tariffs levied on imported goods to offset subsidies made to producers of these goods in the exporting country are known as Countervailing duties. CVD are meant to level the playing field between domestic producers of a product and foreign producers of the same product who can afford to sell it at a lower price because of subsidy they receive from their government.
18. Question 18 of 100

    18. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The tropical cyclones that influence South Asia are not part of the regional monsoon wind system.
    (2) The sea surface temperature in the Eastern Pacific Ocean is colder during La Nina when compared to El Nino.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : South Asia mostly refers to the Indian subcontinent which has a peculiar monsoonal pattern of the wind system. The tropical cyclones that occur in this region are mostly due to the monsoon winds in the Indian subcontinent. Thus, the tropical cyclones that influence South Asia is a part of the regional monsoon wind system.
    Statement 2 is correct : The La Nina phenomenon occurs when the easterly trade winds get stronger and blow more warm water towards west allowing cold water below the sea’s surface to push towards the top near the South American coast to replace the warm water. Thus, easterly trade winds are to be blamed for partly causing La Nina.
    During a La Nina period, the sea surface temperatures across the eastern and central Pacific Ocean tend to be lower than the normal temperatures (between 3-5 degrees Celsius).

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : South Asia mostly refers to the Indian subcontinent which has a peculiar monsoonal pattern of the wind system. The tropical cyclones that occur in this region are mostly due to the monsoon winds in the Indian subcontinent. Thus, the tropical cyclones that influence South Asia is a part of the regional monsoon wind system.
    Statement 2 is correct : The La Nina phenomenon occurs when the easterly trade winds get stronger and blow more warm water towards west allowing cold water below the sea’s surface to push towards the top near the South American coast to replace the warm water. Thus, easterly trade winds are to be blamed for partly causing La Nina.
    During a La Nina period, the sea surface temperatures across the eastern and central Pacific Ocean tend to be lower than the normal temperatures (between 3-5 degrees Celsius).
19. Question 19 of 100

    19. Question

    'This climate is characterised by warm moist summers and cool dry winters. The climate is modified strongly by maritime influence.
    There is rain every month. It is found in both Northern as well as Southern Hemisphere'.
    Which among the following is best described by the above passage?
    (A) China type climate
    (B) Siberian type climate
    (C) Laurentian type climate
    (D) Mediterranean type climate

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    China type climate:
    This type of climate is found on the eastern margin of continent in warm temperate latitudes, just outside the tropics & comparatively has more rainfall than the Mediterranean climate in the same latitudes, coming mainly in summers.
    Warm temperate eastern margin climate is typified by a warm, moist summer & a cool, dry winter strongly modified by maritime influence.
    Occasionally, the penetration of cold air from the continental interiors may bring down the temperature to the freezing point, but most of the time it is pleasantly warm.
    Rainfall is anything in-between 75 cm to 150 cm, fairly distributed throughout the year, with no dry month, except in the interiors of central China.
    Cool temperate continental (Siberian) climate is only experienced in northern hemisphere, where the continents within the high latitudes have a broad east west spread. Hence, option (B) is not correct.
    Laurentian type of climate is absent in the southern hemisphere. Hence, option (C) is not correct.
    Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of winter rain climate‘, and gives rise to the name Mediterranean Climate.
    Hence, option (D) is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    China type climate:
    This type of climate is found on the eastern margin of continent in warm temperate latitudes, just outside the tropics & comparatively has more rainfall than the Mediterranean climate in the same latitudes, coming mainly in summers.
    Warm temperate eastern margin climate is typified by a warm, moist summer & a cool, dry winter strongly modified by maritime influence.
    Occasionally, the penetration of cold air from the continental interiors may bring down the temperature to the freezing point, but most of the time it is pleasantly warm.
    Rainfall is anything in-between 75 cm to 150 cm, fairly distributed throughout the year, with no dry month, except in the interiors of central China.
    Cool temperate continental (Siberian) climate is only experienced in northern hemisphere, where the continents within the high latitudes have a broad east west spread. Hence, option (B) is not correct.
    Laurentian type of climate is absent in the southern hemisphere. Hence, option (C) is not correct.
    Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of winter rain climate‘, and gives rise to the name Mediterranean Climate.
    Hence, option (D) is not correct.
20. Question 20 of 100

    20. Question

    How many of the following provisions ensures the independence of the High Court?
    (1) Mode of appointment of judges
    (2) Ban on private practice by judges after retirement
    (3) Expenses charged on Consolidated Fund of India
    (4) Security of tenure of judges
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of a high court.
    Mode of Appointment: The judges of a high court are appointed by the president (which means the cabinet) in consultation with the members of the judiciary itself (i.e., chief justice of India and the chief justice of the high court). This provision curtails the absolute discretion of the executive as well as ensures that the judicial appointments are not based on any political or practical considerations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Ban on Practice after Retirement: The retired permanent judges of a high court are prohibited from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court and the other high courts. This ensures that they do not favour any one in the hope of future favour. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Expenses Charged on Consolidated Fund of State: The salaries and allowances of the judges, the salaries, allowances and pensions of the staff as well as the administrative expenses of a high court are charged on the consolidated fund of the state. Thus, they are non-votable by the state legislature (though they can be discussed by it). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    It should be noted here that the pension of a high court judge is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and not the state.
    Security of Tenure: The judges of a high court are provided with the security of tenure. They can be removed from office by the president only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the president, though they are appointed by him. This is obvious from the fact that no judge of a high court has been removed (or impeached) so far. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    Fixed Service Conditions: The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of a high court are determined from time to time by the Parliament. But, they cannot be changed to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency. Thus, the conditions of service of the judges of a high court remain same during their term of office.
    Conduct of Judges cannot be Discussed: The Constitution prohibits any discussion in Parliament or in a state legislature with respect to the conduct of the judges of a high court in the discharge of their duties, except when an impeachment motion is under consideration of the Parliament.
    Power to Punish for its Contempt: A high court can punish any person for its contempt. Thus, its actions and decisions cannot be ciriticised and opposed by anybody. This power is vested in a high court to maintain its authority, dignity and honour.
    Freedom to Appoint its Staff: The chief justice of a high court can appoint officers and servants of the high court without any inteference from the executive. He can also prescribe their conditions of service.
    Its Jurisdiction cannot be Curtailed: The jurisdiction and powers of a high court in so far as they are specified in the Constitution cannot be curtailed both by the Parliament and the state legislature. But, in other respects, the jurisdiction and powers of a high court can be changed both by the parliament and the state legislature.
    o Separation from Executive: The Constitution directs the state to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services. This means that the executive authorities should not possess the judicial powers.

    Unattempted
    

    The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of a high court.
    Mode of Appointment: The judges of a high court are appointed by the president (which means the cabinet) in consultation with the members of the judiciary itself (i.e., chief justice of India and the chief justice of the high court). This provision curtails the absolute discretion of the executive as well as ensures that the judicial appointments are not based on any political or practical considerations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Ban on Practice after Retirement: The retired permanent judges of a high court are prohibited from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court and the other high courts. This ensures that they do not favour any one in the hope of future favour. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Expenses Charged on Consolidated Fund of State: The salaries and allowances of the judges, the salaries, allowances and pensions of the staff as well as the administrative expenses of a high court are charged on the consolidated fund of the state. Thus, they are non-votable by the state legislature (though they can be discussed by it). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    It should be noted here that the pension of a high court judge is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and not the state.
    Security of Tenure: The judges of a high court are provided with the security of tenure. They can be removed from office by the president only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the president, though they are appointed by him. This is obvious from the fact that no judge of a high court has been removed (or impeached) so far. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    Fixed Service Conditions: The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of a high court are determined from time to time by the Parliament. But, they cannot be changed to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency. Thus, the conditions of service of the judges of a high court remain same during their term of office.
    Conduct of Judges cannot be Discussed: The Constitution prohibits any discussion in Parliament or in a state legislature with respect to the conduct of the judges of a high court in the discharge of their duties, except when an impeachment motion is under consideration of the Parliament.
    Power to Punish for its Contempt: A high court can punish any person for its contempt. Thus, its actions and decisions cannot be ciriticised and opposed by anybody. This power is vested in a high court to maintain its authority, dignity and honour.
    Freedom to Appoint its Staff: The chief justice of a high court can appoint officers and servants of the high court without any inteference from the executive. He can also prescribe their conditions of service.
    Its Jurisdiction cannot be Curtailed: The jurisdiction and powers of a high court in so far as they are specified in the Constitution cannot be curtailed both by the Parliament and the state legislature. But, in other respects, the jurisdiction and powers of a high court can be changed both by the parliament and the state legislature.
    o Separation from Executive: The Constitution directs the state to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services. This means that the executive authorities should not possess the judicial powers.
21. Question 21 of 100

    21. Question

    With reference to the Press Council of India, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a statutory body.
    (2) It is usually chaired by the retired judge of Supreme Court.
    (3) It has the powers to take penal action against the delinquent newspapers.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    PCI is a statutory body with the mandate to act as the watchdog to oversee the conduct of the print media. It derives its mandate from Press Council Act, 1978.
    It consists of Chairman (who has by convention, been a retired judge of Supreme Court) and 28 other members off whom 20 represent press, five are nominated from two Houses of Parliament and three represent cultural, literary and legal fields. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    Chairman is selected by a committee headed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Other members are the Speaker of Lok Sabha and a person elected by the members of the Council from among themselves.
    The term of the Chairman and the members of the Council is three years. A retiring member is eligible for renomination for not more than one term.
    It is a quasi-judicial body which acts as a watchdog of the press. It adjudicates the complaints against and by the press for violation of ethics and for violation of the freedom of the press respectively. However, It does not have any penal powers to punish delinquent newspapers & journalists. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    Regarding the penal powers, suggestions have been made to the Council that it should have penal powers to punish the delinquent newspapers/journalists. In response, the Council has consistently taken the view that the moral sanctions provided to it under the existing scheme of the Act are adequate. It has opined that in the prevalent conditions penal powers could tend to be misused by the authorities to curb the freedom of the Press.

    Unattempted
    

    PCI is a statutory body with the mandate to act as the watchdog to oversee the conduct of the print media. It derives its mandate from Press Council Act, 1978.
    It consists of Chairman (who has by convention, been a retired judge of Supreme Court) and 28 other members off whom 20 represent press, five are nominated from two Houses of Parliament and three represent cultural, literary and legal fields. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    Chairman is selected by a committee headed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Other members are the Speaker of Lok Sabha and a person elected by the members of the Council from among themselves.
    The term of the Chairman and the members of the Council is three years. A retiring member is eligible for renomination for not more than one term.
    It is a quasi-judicial body which acts as a watchdog of the press. It adjudicates the complaints against and by the press for violation of ethics and for violation of the freedom of the press respectively. However, It does not have any penal powers to punish delinquent newspapers & journalists. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    Regarding the penal powers, suggestions have been made to the Council that it should have penal powers to punish the delinquent newspapers/journalists. In response, the Council has consistently taken the view that the moral sanctions provided to it under the existing scheme of the Act are adequate. It has opined that in the prevalent conditions penal powers could tend to be misused by the authorities to curb the freedom of the Press.
22. Question 22 of 100

    22. Question

    With reference to the concept of 'equality', which of the following statements is correct?
    (A) Political equality is sufficient to build egalitarian and just society.
    (B) Equality implies eliminating all forms of differences among people.
    (C) Equality means all the person entitled same rights and opportunities to develop their skills and talents.
    (D) None of the above statements (A), (B) and (C) are correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The concept of equality implies that all people, as human beings, are entitled to the same rights and opportunities to develop their skills and talents, and to pursue their goals and ambitions. Hence, statement (C) is correct.
    The idea of equality does not imply the elimination of all forms of differences. It merely suggests that the treatment we receive and the opportunities we enjoy must not be pre-determined by birth or social circumstance. Hence, statement (B) is not correct.
    Political equality by itself is not sufficient to build egalitarian and just society. But it is certainly an important component of it. Hence, statement (A) is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The concept of equality implies that all people, as human beings, are entitled to the same rights and opportunities to develop their skills and talents, and to pursue their goals and ambitions. Hence, statement (C) is correct.
    The idea of equality does not imply the elimination of all forms of differences. It merely suggests that the treatment we receive and the opportunities we enjoy must not be pre-determined by birth or social circumstance. Hence, statement (B) is not correct.
    Political equality by itself is not sufficient to build egalitarian and just society. But it is certainly an important component of it. Hence, statement (A) is not correct.
23. Question 23 of 100

    23. Question

    How many of the following statements is/are correct in relation to the office of Prime Minister of India?
    (1) He is the head of the government.
    (2) He holds office under the pleasure of the President.
    (3) His salary and allowances are determined by President from time to time.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: In the scheme of parliamentary system of government provided by the Constitution, the President is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive) and Prime Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive). In other words, President is the head of the State while Prime Minister is the head of the government.
    Statement 2 is correct: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he mustresign or the President can dismiss him.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The salary and allowances of the Prime Minister are determined by the Parliament from time to time. He gets the salary and allowances that are payable to a member of Parliament. Additionally, he gets a sumptuary allowance, free accommodation, travelling allowance, medical facilities, etc.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: In the scheme of parliamentary system of government provided by the Constitution, the President is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive) and Prime Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive). In other words, President is the head of the State while Prime Minister is the head of the government.
    Statement 2 is correct: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he mustresign or the President can dismiss him.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The salary and allowances of the Prime Minister are determined by the Parliament from time to time. He gets the salary and allowances that are payable to a member of Parliament. Additionally, he gets a sumptuary allowance, free accommodation, travelling allowance, medical facilities, etc.
24. Question 24 of 100

    24. Question

    With reference to harvest festivals, consider the following pairs:
    Harvest festivals : State
    (1) Pongal : Tamil Nadu
    (2) MaghBihu : Odisha
    (3) Uttarayan : Sikkim
    (4) Baisakhi : Punjab
    How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pair 1 is correctly matched : The word Pongal means ‘overflow’ or ‘boiling over’. Also known as Thai Pongal, the four-day occasion is observed in the month of Thai, when crops such as rice are harvested and people show their gratitude to the almighty and the generosity of the land. Tamilians celebrate the occasion by making traditional designs known as kolams (kind of rangoli) in their homes with rice powder.
    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched : MaghBihu is celebrated when the annual harvest takes place in Assam. People celebrate Rongali/MaghBihu to mark the beginning of the Assamese new year.
    It is believed that the festival started from the time when people of the valley started tilling the land. Bihu is believed to be as old as riverBrahmaputra.
    Pair 3 is incorrectly matched : The festival of Uttarayan or Makar Sankranti is celebrated in Gujarat. It marks the day when winter begins to turn into summer, according to the Indian calendar. People fly kites to celebrate this festival. According to the Hindu scriptures, Uttarayan is the period when the Sun travels from South to North.
    Pair 4 is correctly matched : Baisakhi is the Sikh New Year's Day celebrated in Punjab as it is not just a Springtime harvest festival but also a day that is commemorative of the formation of the Khalsa Panth of warriors under Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.

    Unattempted
    

    Pair 1 is correctly matched : The word Pongal means ‘overflow’ or ‘boiling over’. Also known as Thai Pongal, the four-day occasion is observed in the month of Thai, when crops such as rice are harvested and people show their gratitude to the almighty and the generosity of the land. Tamilians celebrate the occasion by making traditional designs known as kolams (kind of rangoli) in their homes with rice powder.
    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched : MaghBihu is celebrated when the annual harvest takes place in Assam. People celebrate Rongali/MaghBihu to mark the beginning of the Assamese new year.
    It is believed that the festival started from the time when people of the valley started tilling the land. Bihu is believed to be as old as riverBrahmaputra.
    Pair 3 is incorrectly matched : The festival of Uttarayan or Makar Sankranti is celebrated in Gujarat. It marks the day when winter begins to turn into summer, according to the Indian calendar. People fly kites to celebrate this festival. According to the Hindu scriptures, Uttarayan is the period when the Sun travels from South to North.
    Pair 4 is correctly matched : Baisakhi is the Sikh New Year's Day celebrated in Punjab as it is not just a Springtime harvest festival but also a day that is commemorative of the formation of the Khalsa Panth of warriors under Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.
25. Question 25 of 100

    25. Question

    The monetized fiscal deficit refers to :
    (A) that part of the fiscal deficit which is covered by external borrowing.
    (B) the increased fiscal deficit due to demonetisation.
    (C) the part of the fiscal deficit covered by borrowing from the RBI.
    (D) None of the above.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Monetized Fiscal Deficit is that part of the fiscal deficit covered by borrowing from the RBI. It is the extent to which the RBI helps the central government in its borrowing programme. In other words, monetised deficit means the increase in the net RBI credit to the central government, such that the monetary needs of the government could be met easily.
    The monetized deficit results in the increase in the net holdings of treasury bills by the RBI and also the RBI contribution towards the government’s market borrowings increases.

    Unattempted
    

    Monetized Fiscal Deficit is that part of the fiscal deficit covered by borrowing from the RBI. It is the extent to which the RBI helps the central government in its borrowing programme. In other words, monetised deficit means the increase in the net RBI credit to the central government, such that the monetary needs of the government could be met easily.
    The monetized deficit results in the increase in the net holdings of treasury bills by the RBI and also the RBI contribution towards the government’s market borrowings increases.
26. Question 26 of 100

    26. Question

    With reference to Cyclone, consider the following statements.
    (1) For a cyclone to become a bomb cyclone is rapidly the pressure drops in the low-pressure mass by at least 24 millibars in 24 hours.
    (2) Bomb Cyclones generally occur during summer with intense heating of the ocean surface.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    What defines a bomb cyclone is how rapidly the pressure drops in the low-pressure mass — by at least 24 millibars in 24 hours.
    This quickly increases the pressure difference, or gradient, between the two air masses, therefore making the winds stronger.
    This process of rapid intensification has an even more ferocious-sounding name “bombogenesis”
    So statement 1 is correct.
    Bomb cyclones generally occur during colder months because cyclones occur due to cold and warm air meetings.
    During the summer, there’s generally not much cold air across the atmosphere, which means a bomb cyclone is much less likely to occur.
    So statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    What defines a bomb cyclone is how rapidly the pressure drops in the low-pressure mass — by at least 24 millibars in 24 hours.
    This quickly increases the pressure difference, or gradient, between the two air masses, therefore making the winds stronger.
    This process of rapid intensification has an even more ferocious-sounding name “bombogenesis”
    So statement 1 is correct.
    Bomb cyclones generally occur during colder months because cyclones occur due to cold and warm air meetings.
    During the summer, there’s generally not much cold air across the atmosphere, which means a bomb cyclone is much less likely to occur.
    So statement 2 is incorrect.
27. Question 27 of 100

    27. Question

    Regarding the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), consider the following statements:
    (1) Minimum Support Price (MSP) is based on the recommendations of the CACP.
    (2) It is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
    (3) The CACP recommends MSPs for all the crops grown in India.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP):
    Minimum Support Price (MSP) is the guaranteed amount paid to farmers when the government buys their produce.
    MSP is based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which considers various factors such as cost of production, demand and supply, market price trends, inter-crop price parity, etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It came into existence in January 1965. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The CACP recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative prices (FRP) for sugarcane. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP):
    Minimum Support Price (MSP) is the guaranteed amount paid to farmers when the government buys their produce.
    MSP is based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which considers various factors such as cost of production, demand and supply, market price trends, inter-crop price parity, etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It came into existence in January 1965. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The CACP recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative prices (FRP) for sugarcane. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
28. Question 28 of 100

    28. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Grassland Name – Region/ country
    (1) Campos – North America
    (2) Pampas – Argentina
    (3) Steppe – Central Asia
    (4) Veld – Australia
    How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pair 1 is incorrectly matched : Campos are the tropical grasslands found in Brazil.
    Prairies are the temperate grasslands found in North America.
    Pair 2 is correctly matched : Pampas are the temperate grasslands found in Argentina.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched : Steppe are the temperate grasslands found in the Central Asia.
    Pair 4 is incorrectly matched : Veld are the temperate grasslands found in South Africa.
    Downs are the temperate grasslands found in Australia.
    Grasslands are known by different names in different regions –
    Tropical Grasslands
    East Africa – Savanna
    Brazil – Campos
    Venezuela – Llanos
    Temperate Grasslands
    Argentina – Pampas
    North America – Prairie
    South Africa – Veld
    Central Asia – Steppe
    Australia – Down

    Unattempted
    

    Pair 1 is incorrectly matched : Campos are the tropical grasslands found in Brazil.
    Prairies are the temperate grasslands found in North America.
    Pair 2 is correctly matched : Pampas are the temperate grasslands found in Argentina.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched : Steppe are the temperate grasslands found in the Central Asia.
    Pair 4 is incorrectly matched : Veld are the temperate grasslands found in South Africa.
    Downs are the temperate grasslands found in Australia.
    Grasslands are known by different names in different regions –
    Tropical Grasslands
    East Africa – Savanna
    Brazil – Campos
    Venezuela – Llanos
    Temperate Grasslands
    Argentina – Pampas
    North America – Prairie
    South Africa – Veld
    Central Asia – Steppe
    Australia – Down
29. Question 29 of 100

    29. Question

    With reference to environment, the term 'Green chemistry' refers to
    (A) A production process that would bring about minimum pollution or deterioration to the environment.
    (B) The study of photosynthetic activity in plants.
    (C) The science of producing climate resilient plants using artificial plant hormones.
    (D) Production of crop using inorganic fertilizers.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Green chemistry is a way of thinking and is about utilizing the existing knowledge and principles of chemistry and other sciences to reduce the adverse impact on the environment. Green chemistry is a production process that would bring about minimum pollution or deterioration to the environment.
    For example – Plastics being developed from eco-friendly renewable sources, plus some modern plastics are biodegradable.
    The combination of innovations reduces our dependence on petroleum products, protects humans and wildlife from undesirable chemicals in old plastics, and reduces waste and impact on the environment, Scientists makes food containers from a polymer called polylactic acid, made using microorganisms to convert cornstarch into a resin. The resulting polymer is used to replace rigid petroleum-based plastic used in yogurt containers and water bottles. Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.
    The byproducts generated during a process, if not used gainfully, add to the environmental pollution. Such processes are not only environmentally unfriendly but also cost-ineffective. The Waste generation and its disposal both are economically unsound.
    Utilization of existing knowledge base for reducing the chemical hazards along with the developmental activities is the foundation of green chemistry.

    Unattempted
    

    Green chemistry is a way of thinking and is about utilizing the existing knowledge and principles of chemistry and other sciences to reduce the adverse impact on the environment. Green chemistry is a production process that would bring about minimum pollution or deterioration to the environment.
    For example – Plastics being developed from eco-friendly renewable sources, plus some modern plastics are biodegradable.
    The combination of innovations reduces our dependence on petroleum products, protects humans and wildlife from undesirable chemicals in old plastics, and reduces waste and impact on the environment, Scientists makes food containers from a polymer called polylactic acid, made using microorganisms to convert cornstarch into a resin. The resulting polymer is used to replace rigid petroleum-based plastic used in yogurt containers and water bottles. Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.
    The byproducts generated during a process, if not used gainfully, add to the environmental pollution. Such processes are not only environmentally unfriendly but also cost-ineffective. The Waste generation and its disposal both are economically unsound.
    Utilization of existing knowledge base for reducing the chemical hazards along with the developmental activities is the foundation of green chemistry.
30. Question 30 of 100

    30. Question

    Regarding the Shipra (Khipra) River, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a tributary of the Chambal River in Madhya Pradesh and flows across the Malwa Plateau.
    (2) It originates in the Vindhya Range from a hill called Kakri-Tekdi.
    (3) Khan and Gambhir are its major tributaries.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Shipra (Khipra) River: It is a tributary of the Chambal River in Madhya Pradesh and flows across the Malwa Plateau. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It originates in the Vindhya Range from a hill called Kakri-Tekdi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Khan and Gambhir are its major tributaries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Shipra (Khipra) River: It is a tributary of the Chambal River in Madhya Pradesh and flows across the Malwa Plateau. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It originates in the Vindhya Range from a hill called Kakri-Tekdi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Khan and Gambhir are its major tributaries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
31. Question 31 of 100

    31. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    New Year Festival state
    (1) Losar festivalRajasthan
    (2) Jude SheetalBihar
    (3) VishuKerala
    How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
    (A) None of the pairs
    (B) Only one pair
    (C) Only two pairs
    (D) All three pairs

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Losar festival — Tibetan new year, celebrated in Ladakh
    Jude Sheetal — Maithili New Year, celebrated in Bihar
    Vishu— New year festival in Kerala

    Unattempted
    

    Losar festival — Tibetan new year, celebrated in Ladakh
    Jude Sheetal — Maithili New Year, celebrated in Bihar
    Vishu— New year festival in Kerala
32. Question 32 of 100

    32. Question

    Larger, ground markings, created on the earth's surface made usually by trenching or clearing away rocks and the top layer of soil, in patterns or lines that stand out from the natural surface are known as:
    (A) Pictographs
    (B) Geoglyphs
    (C) Aeolian carving
    (D) Petroglyphs

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Geoglyphs are handmade features created on the surface of the earth. These have been made by removing or clearing sand or stones or sometimes adding stones. This creates a contrast between the figure and the ground, enhancing visibility.
    Petroglyphs are made by scratching, rubbing, or chipping at rock surfaces.
    Pictographs are painted rock surfaces.

    Unattempted
    

    Geoglyphs are handmade features created on the surface of the earth. These have been made by removing or clearing sand or stones or sometimes adding stones. This creates a contrast between the figure and the ground, enhancing visibility.
    Petroglyphs are made by scratching, rubbing, or chipping at rock surfaces.
    Pictographs are painted rock surfaces.
33. Question 33 of 100

    33. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Green methanol may be bio-methanol produced from biomass produced from green hydrogen, captured CO2 and renewable electricity.
    (2) Methane is a more potent greenhouse gas than CO2.
    (3) Methanol produces more energy than ethanol when used as fuel.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Green methanol is a low-carbon fuel that can be made from either biomass gasification or renewable electricity and captured carbon dioxide (CO2).
    So statement 1 is correct.
    Methane traps ~36 times more heat in the atmosphere than CO2 over 100 years.
    So statement 2 is correct.
    Compared to ethanol, methanol has an even lower heating value of 20.0 MJ/kg.
    In other words, a gallon of ethanol has only two-thirds the energy of a gallon of gas, whereas methanol has less than half.
    So statement 3 is incorrect,

    Unattempted
    

    Green methanol is a low-carbon fuel that can be made from either biomass gasification or renewable electricity and captured carbon dioxide (CO2).
    So statement 1 is correct.
    Methane traps ~36 times more heat in the atmosphere than CO2 over 100 years.
    So statement 2 is correct.
    Compared to ethanol, methanol has an even lower heating value of 20.0 MJ/kg.
    In other words, a gallon of ethanol has only two-thirds the energy of a gallon of gas, whereas methanol has less than half.
    So statement 3 is incorrect,
34. Question 34 of 100

    34. Question

    Consider the following stages of soil erosion:
    (1) Sheet erosion
    (2) Gully erosion
    (3) Rill erosion
    (4) Splash erosion
    Select the correct code from below showing sequential stages of soil erosion:
    (A) 4-1-3-2
    (B) 3-2-4-1
    (C) 4-2-3-1
    (D) 3-4-1-2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Erosion is the action of surface processes that remove soil, rock or dissolved material from one location on the Earth's crust, and then transports it to another location. These occur in successive stages such as,
    Splash erosion is the first stage of the erosion process. It occurs when raindrops hit the bare soil.
    Sheet erosion is the uniform removal of soil in thin layers by the forces of raindrops and overland flow.
    Rill erosion is the removal of soil by concentrated water running through little streamlets or head-cuts.
    Gully erosion is the removal of soil along drainage lines by surface water runoff.

    Unattempted
    

    Erosion is the action of surface processes that remove soil, rock or dissolved material from one location on the Earth's crust, and then transports it to another location. These occur in successive stages such as,
    Splash erosion is the first stage of the erosion process. It occurs when raindrops hit the bare soil.
    Sheet erosion is the uniform removal of soil in thin layers by the forces of raindrops and overland flow.
    Rill erosion is the removal of soil by concentrated water running through little streamlets or head-cuts.
    Gully erosion is the removal of soil along drainage lines by surface water runoff.
35. Question 35 of 100

    35. Question

    With reference to acid rain, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is caused due to oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere.
    (2) It can lead to leaching of heavy metals into the supply of drinking water.
    (3) Its likelihood decreases with the presence of particulate matter in the air.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Acid rain refers to the ways in which acid from the atmosphere is deposited on the earth‘s surface. Acid rain is a byproduct of a variety of human activities that emit the oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Acid rain is harmful to agriculture, trees and plants as it dissolves and washes away the nutrients needed for their growth. It causes respiratory ailments in human beings and animals. When acid rain falls and flows as groundwater to reach rivers, lakes etc. it affects plants and animal life in the aquatic ecosystem. It corrodes water pipes resulting in the leaching of heavy metals such as iron, lead and copper into the drinking water. Acid rain damages buildings and other structures made of stone or metal. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The burning of fossil fuels (which contain sulphur and nitrogenous matter) such as coal and oil in power stations and furnaces or petrol and diesel in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.
    These gases after oxidation and reaction with water are major contributors to acid rain because polluted air usually contains particulate matter that catalyses the oxidation. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Acid rain refers to the ways in which acid from the atmosphere is deposited on the earth‘s surface. Acid rain is a byproduct of a variety of human activities that emit the oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Acid rain is harmful to agriculture, trees and plants as it dissolves and washes away the nutrients needed for their growth. It causes respiratory ailments in human beings and animals. When acid rain falls and flows as groundwater to reach rivers, lakes etc. it affects plants and animal life in the aquatic ecosystem. It corrodes water pipes resulting in the leaching of heavy metals such as iron, lead and copper into the drinking water. Acid rain damages buildings and other structures made of stone or metal. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The burning of fossil fuels (which contain sulphur and nitrogenous matter) such as coal and oil in power stations and furnaces or petrol and diesel in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.
    These gases after oxidation and reaction with water are major contributors to acid rain because polluted air usually contains particulate matter that catalyses the oxidation. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
36. Question 36 of 100

    36. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Personal disposable income of the households excludes both corporate and personal income tax from the National Income of a country.
    (2) National disposable income gives an idea about the maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has its disposal.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Personal Disposable Income excludes personal tax payments and Corporate tax from the National Income of a country.
    Personal Disposable Income (PDI) ≡ PI – Personal tax payments – Non-tax payments.
    Personal Income (PI) ≡ NI – Undistributed profits – Net interest payments made by households – Corporate tax + Transfer payments to the households from the government and firms.
    Personal Disposable Income is the part of the aggregate income which belongs to the households. They may decide to consume a part of it, and save the rest.
    Statement 2 is correct. The idea behind National Disposable Income is that it gives an idea of what is the maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has at its disposal.
    National Disposable Income = Net National Product at market prices + Other current transfers from the rest of the world Current transfers from the rest of the world include items such as gifts, aids, etc.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Personal Disposable Income excludes personal tax payments and Corporate tax from the National Income of a country.
    Personal Disposable Income (PDI) ≡ PI – Personal tax payments – Non-tax payments.
    Personal Income (PI) ≡ NI – Undistributed profits – Net interest payments made by households – Corporate tax + Transfer payments to the households from the government and firms.
    Personal Disposable Income is the part of the aggregate income which belongs to the households. They may decide to consume a part of it, and save the rest.
    Statement 2 is correct. The idea behind National Disposable Income is that it gives an idea of what is the maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has at its disposal.
    National Disposable Income = Net National Product at market prices + Other current transfers from the rest of the world Current transfers from the rest of the world include items such as gifts, aids, etc.
37. Question 37 of 100

    37. Question

    With reference to ‘Letter of Undertaking’, consider the following statements:
    (1) LoU is an undertaking provided by one bank to another bank domestically.
    (2) LoUs are used by a bank’s customer to avail long-term credit.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: LoU is an undertaking provided by one bank to another bank, in favour of or on behalf of a customer, to meet a liability on behalf of an importer, based on which foreign branches offer credit to buyers.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. LoUs are used by a bank’s customer to avail short-term credit in a foreign country.
    Letter of undertaking (LOU) is a form of bank guarantee under which a bank can allow its customer to raise money from another Indian bank's foreign branch in the form of a short term credit.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: LoU is an undertaking provided by one bank to another bank, in favour of or on behalf of a customer, to meet a liability on behalf of an importer, based on which foreign branches offer credit to buyers.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. LoUs are used by a bank’s customer to avail short-term credit in a foreign country.
    Letter of undertaking (LOU) is a form of bank guarantee under which a bank can allow its customer to raise money from another Indian bank's foreign branch in the form of a short term credit.
38. Question 38 of 100

    38. Question

    How many of the following is/are part of private income?
    (1) Net factor income from abroad
    (2) National debt interest
    (3) Current transfers from government
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Private income is the total of factor incomes and transfer incomes received from all sources by the private sector (private enterprise and households) within and outside the country.
    So Private Income = Factor income from net domestic product accruing to the private sector + National debt interest + Net factor income from abroad + Current transfers from government + Other net transfers from the rest of the world.
    It is different from personal income. Personal income is the sum of earned income and transfer income received by persons (households) from all sources within and outside the country. So Personal income (PI) ≡ NI – Undistributed profits – Net interest payments made by households – Corporate tax + Transferpayments to households from the government and firms.

    Unattempted
    

    Private income is the total of factor incomes and transfer incomes received from all sources by the private sector (private enterprise and households) within and outside the country.
    So Private Income = Factor income from net domestic product accruing to the private sector + National debt interest + Net factor income from abroad + Current transfers from government + Other net transfers from the rest of the world.
    It is different from personal income. Personal income is the sum of earned income and transfer income received by persons (households) from all sources within and outside the country. So Personal income (PI) ≡ NI – Undistributed profits – Net interest payments made by households – Corporate tax + Transferpayments to households from the government and firms.
39. Question 39 of 100

    39. Question

    London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) refers to the rate at which
    (A) European banks sell foreign currencies to its customers.
    (B) world’s leading banks lend money to Corporates.
    (C) British banks lend money to its international customers.
    (D) world’s leading banks charge each other for short-term loans.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    LIBOR or ICE LIBOR (previously BBA LIBOR) is a benchmark rate that world’s leading banks charge each other for short-term loans.
    It stands for Intercontinental Exchange London Interbank Offered Rate and serves as the first step to calculating interest rates on various loans throughout the world. LIBOR is administered by the ICE Benchmark Administration (IBA) and is based on five currencies: the U.S. dollar (USD), euro (EUR), pound sterling (GBP), Japanese yen (JPY), and Swiss franc (CHF).

    Unattempted
    

    LIBOR or ICE LIBOR (previously BBA LIBOR) is a benchmark rate that world’s leading banks charge each other for short-term loans.
    It stands for Intercontinental Exchange London Interbank Offered Rate and serves as the first step to calculating interest rates on various loans throughout the world. LIBOR is administered by the ICE Benchmark Administration (IBA) and is based on five currencies: the U.S. dollar (USD), euro (EUR), pound sterling (GBP), Japanese yen (JPY), and Swiss franc (CHF).
40. Question 40 of 100

    40. Question

    With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
    (1) Avalokiteshvara is a prominent Bodhisattva in the doctrine of Buddhism.
    (2) It is considered as the embodiment of the principle of compassion.
    (3) The female version of Avalokiteshvara is known as Maitreya.
    (4) Its mention is only found in Mahayana sect of Buddhism.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In Buddhism doctrine a Bodhisattva is an individual on the path to becoming a Buddha.
    Avalokiteshvara is possibly the most popular of all figures in Buddhist legends, he is the Bodhisattva of infinite compassion and mercy. It is beloved throughout the Buddhist world—not only in Mahayana Buddhism but also in Theravada (that largelydoes not recognize bodhisattvas), and in Vajrayana too. Thus statement 4 is incorrect.
    Avalokiteshvara’s female counterpart is better known as Padmapani, which is found in the famous painting of Padmapani in Cave No.1 of Ajanta Caves. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    In Buddhism doctrine a Bodhisattva is an individual on the path to becoming a Buddha.
    Avalokiteshvara is possibly the most popular of all figures in Buddhist legends, he is the Bodhisattva of infinite compassion and mercy. It is beloved throughout the Buddhist world—not only in Mahayana Buddhism but also in Theravada (that largelydoes not recognize bodhisattvas), and in Vajrayana too. Thus statement 4 is incorrect.
    Avalokiteshvara’s female counterpart is better known as Padmapani, which is found in the famous painting of Padmapani in Cave No.1 of Ajanta Caves. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
41. Question 41 of 100

    41. Question

    Consider the following statements about Currency Swap Facility:
    (1) It is a transaction in which two counties exchange an equivalent amount of money but in different currencies.
    (2) It can be used to borrow foreign exchange at lower interest rates.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: A currency swap is a transaction in which two parties exchange an equivalent amount of money with each other but in different currencies. It is an off-balance sheet transaction. It is also known as a Cross currency swap. Often the agreement consists of swapping principal and interest payments on a loan made in one currency for principal and interest payments of a loan of equal value in another currency.
    Statement 2 is correct: The purpose of the Currency Risk Facility is manifolds.This facility provides the flexibility to maintain an appropriate level of balance of payments or short-term liquidity. Swaps agreements between governments have supplementary objectives like the promotion of bilateral trade, maintaining the value of foreign exchange reserves with the central bank and ensuring financial stability. They are also used to obtain foreign currency loans at a better interest rate than could be obtained by borrowing directly in a foreign market. However, Countries are exposed to credit risk as either one or both the parties could default on interest and principal payments.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: A currency swap is a transaction in which two parties exchange an equivalent amount of money with each other but in different currencies. It is an off-balance sheet transaction. It is also known as a Cross currency swap. Often the agreement consists of swapping principal and interest payments on a loan made in one currency for principal and interest payments of a loan of equal value in another currency.
    Statement 2 is correct: The purpose of the Currency Risk Facility is manifolds.This facility provides the flexibility to maintain an appropriate level of balance of payments or short-term liquidity. Swaps agreements between governments have supplementary objectives like the promotion of bilateral trade, maintaining the value of foreign exchange reserves with the central bank and ensuring financial stability. They are also used to obtain foreign currency loans at a better interest rate than could be obtained by borrowing directly in a foreign market. However, Countries are exposed to credit risk as either one or both the parties could default on interest and principal payments.
42. Question 42 of 100

    42. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The Palghat Gap lies between the Nilgiri Hills and the Cardamom Hills.
    (2) The Sela Pass lies in Arunachal Pradesh.
    (3) The Banihal Pass helps connect Jammu city with the Kashmir valley.
    (4) The Shipki La Pass is located where the Indus River enters India.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Palghat Gap lies between the Nilgiri Hills and the Anaimalai Hills. It is the main route for connecting Kerala with Tamil Nadu.
    The Sela Pass lies in Arunachal Pradesh. The Banihal Pass lies in the Pir Panjal range. It is through this Pass that the main road and the rail lines connect Jammu with Kashmir.
    The Shipki La Pass is located at the site where the Sutlej river enters India.
    Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Palghat Gap lies between the Nilgiri Hills and the Anaimalai Hills. It is the main route for connecting Kerala with Tamil Nadu.
    The Sela Pass lies in Arunachal Pradesh. The Banihal Pass lies in the Pir Panjal range. It is through this Pass that the main road and the rail lines connect Jammu with Kashmir.
    The Shipki La Pass is located at the site where the Sutlej river enters India.
    Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
43. Question 43 of 100

    43. Question

    Consider the following statements about Climate Finance:
    (1) The UN Climate Change Conference (UNFCCC) established a Loss and Damage Fund for climate disaster recovery in developing nations during COP27.
    (2) The New Collective Quantitative Goal (NCQG) is a new annual financial target that developed countries must meet from 2025 onward to provide climate finance to developing countries.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The UN Climate Change Conference (UNFCCC COP 27) convened in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt established a Loss and Damage Fund for climate disaster recovery in developing nations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    As preparations for COP29 in Baku intensify, attention now turns to finance discussions, particularly the New Collective Quantitative Goal (NCQG).
    The NCQG is a new annual financial target that developed countries must meet from 2025 onward to provide climate finance to developing countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The UN Climate Change Conference (UNFCCC COP 27) convened in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt established a Loss and Damage Fund for climate disaster recovery in developing nations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    As preparations for COP29 in Baku intensify, attention now turns to finance discussions, particularly the New Collective Quantitative Goal (NCQG).
    The NCQG is a new annual financial target that developed countries must meet from 2025 onward to provide climate finance to developing countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
44. Question 44 of 100

    44. Question

    Consider the following statements about Kathputli:
    (1) It is a form of shadow puppetry.
    (2) It is native to the Indian state of Rajasthan.
    (3) It is accompanied by a highly dramatized version of the regional music.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The traditional marionettes of Rajasthan are known as Kathputli. Carved from a single piece of wood, these puppets are like large dolls that are colourfully dressed. Their costumes and headgears are designed in the medieval Rajasthani style of dress, which is prevalent even today. The Kathputli is accompanied by a highly dramatised version of the regional music. Oval faces, large eyes, arched eyebrows and large lips are some of the distinct facial features of these string puppets. These puppets wear long trailing skirts and do not have legs. Puppeteers manipulate them with two to five strings which are normally tied to their fingers and not to a prop or a support.
    Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The traditional marionettes of Rajasthan are known as Kathputli. Carved from a single piece of wood, these puppets are like large dolls that are colourfully dressed. Their costumes and headgears are designed in the medieval Rajasthani style of dress, which is prevalent even today. The Kathputli is accompanied by a highly dramatised version of the regional music. Oval faces, large eyes, arched eyebrows and large lips are some of the distinct facial features of these string puppets. These puppets wear long trailing skirts and do not have legs. Puppeteers manipulate them with two to five strings which are normally tied to their fingers and not to a prop or a support.
    Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
45. Question 45 of 100

    45. Question

    Feudalism of the Medieval period had how many of the following outcomes?
    (1) Weakened the position of ruler
    (2) Weakened the self-government in villages.
    (3) Increase in the land revenue of central authority
    (4) Encouraged self-sufficiency of villages
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The growth of feudal society in Medieval India had huge impact.
    1) Feudalism led to the decrease in land revenue for the central authority that weakened the position of the ruler. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect and statement 1 is correct.
    2) The tribals and the villagers who governed themselves on their own, were now subjected to the administration of feudal lords.
    3) Inward looking economic model increased the self-sufficiency of villages. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    Under feudalism, local lords exercised absolute authority within their domains. Communities owed loyalty to specific local lords, and this centralized control diminished the autonomy of self-governing villages. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The growth of feudal society in Medieval India had huge impact.
    1) Feudalism led to the decrease in land revenue for the central authority that weakened the position of the ruler. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect and statement 1 is correct.
    2) The tribals and the villagers who governed themselves on their own, were now subjected to the administration of feudal lords.
    3) Inward looking economic model increased the self-sufficiency of villages. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    Under feudalism, local lords exercised absolute authority within their domains. Communities owed loyalty to specific local lords, and this centralized control diminished the autonomy of self-governing villages. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
46. Question 46 of 100

    46. Question

    In the context of Himalayan physiography, the term 'Karewas' refers to
    (A) longitudinal valley lying between lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks.
    (B) thick deposits of glacial clay embedded with moraines.
    (C) floodplains and foothills of eastern Himalayas in the state of Assam and northern part of West Bengal.
    (D) seasonal streams that dissect the southern slopes of Shiwaliks.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations. Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. These are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron.

    Unattempted
    

    The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations. Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. These are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron.
47. Question 47 of 100

    47. Question

    How many of the following statements is/are correct about the Sutlej River?
    (1) The Sutlej River in Tibet is known as Langchen Khambab.
    (2) It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges.
    (3) It is a precedent river.
    (4) It feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal Project.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Sutlej originates in the ‘Raksas Tal’ near Mansarovar, at an altitude of 4,555m in Tibet, where it is known as Langchen Khambab. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering India and comes out of a gorge at Rupar.
    It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab plains. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It is an antecedent river. Hence, only statement 3 is incorrect.
    It is a very important tributary, as it feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal Project. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Sutlej originates in the ‘Raksas Tal’ near Mansarovar, at an altitude of 4,555m in Tibet, where it is known as Langchen Khambab. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering India and comes out of a gorge at Rupar.
    It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab plains. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It is an antecedent river. Hence, only statement 3 is incorrect.
    It is a very important tributary, as it feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal Project. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
48. Question 48 of 100

    48. Question

    How many of the following can lead to the formation of Continental islands?
    (1) A rise in sea level
    (2) Subsidence of some part of the land
    (3) Volcanic eruption
    Select the answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    There are two types of islands. They are Continental islands or Oceanic islands.
    Continental islands are formed due to the detachment of a small portion of land from the mainland due to:
    Separation by the Shallow lagoon or deep channel.
    Subsidence of some part of the land.
    Rise in sea level.
    Thus, options 1 and 2 are correct.
    Oceanic islands are formed either due to volcanic eruptions or coral activities. Thus, option 3 Is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    There are two types of islands. They are Continental islands or Oceanic islands.
    Continental islands are formed due to the detachment of a small portion of land from the mainland due to:
    Separation by the Shallow lagoon or deep channel.
    Subsidence of some part of the land.
    Rise in sea level.
    Thus, options 1 and 2 are correct.
    Oceanic islands are formed either due to volcanic eruptions or coral activities. Thus, option 3 Is incorrect.
49. Question 49 of 100

    49. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The mixing of warm and cold currents helps to replenish the oxygen in the ocean water.
    (2) The Kuroshio and Oyashio currents meet on the North-Eastern Coast of Japan.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Both the statements are correct.
    The mixing of warm and cold currents helps to replenish the oxygen and favor the growth of planktons, the primary food for the fish population. The best fishing grounds of the world exist mainly in these mixing zones. Example: Grand Banks around Newfoundland, Canada and the North-Eastern Coast of Japan.
    Oyashio/Oya Siwo/Okhotsk or the Kurile current is a cold subarctic ocean current that flows south and circulates counterclockwise in the western North Pacific Ocean.
    The Kuroshio is a warm northeasterly ocean current off the coast of Japan. It is also called the gulf stream of the Pacific or Japan Current.

    Unattempted
    

    Both the statements are correct.
    The mixing of warm and cold currents helps to replenish the oxygen and favor the growth of planktons, the primary food for the fish population. The best fishing grounds of the world exist mainly in these mixing zones. Example: Grand Banks around Newfoundland, Canada and the North-Eastern Coast of Japan.
    Oyashio/Oya Siwo/Okhotsk or the Kurile current is a cold subarctic ocean current that flows south and circulates counterclockwise in the western North Pacific Ocean.
    The Kuroshio is a warm northeasterly ocean current off the coast of Japan. It is also called the gulf stream of the Pacific or Japan Current.
50. Question 50 of 100

    50. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    (1) Lonar Lake : Maharashtra
    (2) Swabhiman Anchal : Chhattisgarh
    (3) Doklam River : Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir
    (4) Sahebganj Port : West Bengal
    How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Lonar Lake is located in Maharashtra. It is expected that the lake has been formed due to an impact of a meteor hitting the Earth. The lake water changes its colour, which gives it popularity. Hence, only pair 1 is correct.
    Swabhiman Anchal is a geographical region located in Odisha. The place has been a hot bed of the Naxal violence. However, it is returning to the mainstream development. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.
    The Doklam River is located in the UT of Ladakh. It has been in the news as China illegitimately claimed it as its own territory. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
    Sahebganj is a city in Jharkhand. It has been famous as an inland water port has been built on river Ganga here. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The Lonar Lake is located in Maharashtra. It is expected that the lake has been formed due to an impact of a meteor hitting the Earth. The lake water changes its colour, which gives it popularity. Hence, only pair 1 is correct.
    Swabhiman Anchal is a geographical region located in Odisha. The place has been a hot bed of the Naxal violence. However, it is returning to the mainstream development. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.
    The Doklam River is located in the UT of Ladakh. It has been in the news as China illegitimately claimed it as its own territory. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
    Sahebganj is a city in Jharkhand. It has been famous as an inland water port has been built on river Ganga here. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.
51. Question 51 of 100

    51. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Horse Latitudes is a region of ascending air currents and cyclones.
    (2) Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt is the only zone of wind convergence.
    (3) Direction of Trade winds gets impacted by the Coriolis Force.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : Near 30°N and 30°S occurs the Sub Tropical High-Pressure Belts or the Horse Latitudes. In this region the air is comparatively dry and the winds are calm and light. It is the region of descending air currents or wind divergence and anti-cyclones.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : Along with the Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt, the region around the latitudes 60°N. and S., called as Sub-Polar Low, are also zones of convergence with cyclonic activity.
    Along the equator and within 5 degrees north and south, is the Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt where there is intense heating, with expanding air and ascending convection currents. The Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt is also known as Doldrums.
    Statement 3 is correct : The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force. It has a great impact on the direction of wind movement. The trade winds are those blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure areas towards the equatorial low-pressure belt. Therefore, these are confined to a region between 30°N and 30°S throughout the earth's surface. They flow as the north-eastern trades in the northern hemisphere and the south-eastern trades in the southern hemisphere.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : Near 30°N and 30°S occurs the Sub Tropical High-Pressure Belts or the Horse Latitudes. In this region the air is comparatively dry and the winds are calm and light. It is the region of descending air currents or wind divergence and anti-cyclones.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : Along with the Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt, the region around the latitudes 60°N. and S., called as Sub-Polar Low, are also zones of convergence with cyclonic activity.
    Along the equator and within 5 degrees north and south, is the Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt where there is intense heating, with expanding air and ascending convection currents. The Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt is also known as Doldrums.
    Statement 3 is correct : The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force. It has a great impact on the direction of wind movement. The trade winds are those blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure areas towards the equatorial low-pressure belt. Therefore, these are confined to a region between 30°N and 30°S throughout the earth's surface. They flow as the north-eastern trades in the northern hemisphere and the south-eastern trades in the southern hemisphere.
52. Question 52 of 100

    52. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the higher judiciary in India:
    (1) Strength of both the Supreme Court and the High courts are decided by the Parliament.
    (2) A distinguished jurist in the opinion of President is qualified to be as a judge of both the Supreme Court and High Courts.
    (3) Both the Supreme court and the high courts can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : As the work of the Court increased and arrears of cases began to cumulate, Parliament increased the number of Judges from 8. Now, The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and 33 other Judges appointed by the President of India. The Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the president.
    Accordingly, the President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon its workload.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : It is only in case of Supreme Court that a distinguished jurist can be appointed as Judge. In case of High Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of High Court.
    Statement 3 is correct : There is also a difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and that of the high court. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for other purposes. It means that the writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. But, the Parliament can confer on the Supreme Court, the power to issue writs for other purposes also.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : As the work of the Court increased and arrears of cases began to cumulate, Parliament increased the number of Judges from 8. Now, The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and 33 other Judges appointed by the President of India. The Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the president.
    Accordingly, the President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon its workload.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : It is only in case of Supreme Court that a distinguished jurist can be appointed as Judge. In case of High Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of High Court.
    Statement 3 is correct : There is also a difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and that of the high court. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for other purposes. It means that the writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. But, the Parliament can confer on the Supreme Court, the power to issue writs for other purposes also.
53. Question 53 of 100

    53. Question

    Which of the following best defines Tax elasticity?
    (A) It refers to the changes in tax revenue growth in response to changes in inflation.
    (B) It refers to the changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rate.
    (C) It refers to the changes in tax revenue in response to changes in income of residents.
    (D) It refers to the changes in tax revenue in response to changes in costs of factors of production.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Tax elasticity refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rate. For example, how tax revenue changes if the government reduces corporate income tax from 30 per cent to 25 per cent indicate tax elasticity. Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.
    Tax buoyancy explains this relationship between the changes in government‘s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP. It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
    When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.

    Unattempted
    

    Tax elasticity refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rate. For example, how tax revenue changes if the government reduces corporate income tax from 30 per cent to 25 per cent indicate tax elasticity. Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.
    Tax buoyancy explains this relationship between the changes in government‘s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP. It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
    When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
54. Question 54 of 100

    54. Question

    “He was a Persian merchant who became the Prime Minister of the Bahmani kingdom. He was also a military genius and conquered Konkan and Goa. He made endowments to build a college at Bidar.
    The Deccani nobles plotted against him, and the Bahmani kingdom began to decline after his death.”
    Who among the following is being described in the passage given above?
    (A) Malik Kafur
    (B) Nizam -ul- Mulk
    (C) Muhammad Shah I
    (D) Mahmud Gawan

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Bahmani kingdom (1347-1526) reached its peak under the guidance of Mahmud Gawan. He was a Persian merchant. He came to India at the age of forty two and joined the services of Bahmani kingdom. Slowly he became the Prime Minister due to his personal qualities.
    He made endowments to build a college at Bidar which was built in the Persian style of architecture. He was also a military genius. He waged successful wars against Vijayanagar, Orissa and the sea pirates on the Arabian sea. His conquests include Konkan, Goa and Krishna-Godavari delta. Thus he expanded the Bahmani Empire through his conquests.
    His administrative reforms were also important. They were aimed to increase the control of Sultan over the nobles and provinces. Royal officers were appointed in each province for this purpose.
    Most of the forts were under the control of these officers. Allowances were reduced for the nobles who shirked their responsibility. This was disliked by the nobles.
    So, the Deccani nobles organised a plot against Gawan. They induced the Sultan to punish him with death sentence.
    So, he was persecuted and sentenced to death in 1481 by Muhammad Shah III.
    After the execution of Gawan, the Bahmani kingdom began to decline.

    Unattempted
    

    The Bahmani kingdom (1347-1526) reached its peak under the guidance of Mahmud Gawan. He was a Persian merchant. He came to India at the age of forty two and joined the services of Bahmani kingdom. Slowly he became the Prime Minister due to his personal qualities.
    He made endowments to build a college at Bidar which was built in the Persian style of architecture. He was also a military genius. He waged successful wars against Vijayanagar, Orissa and the sea pirates on the Arabian sea. His conquests include Konkan, Goa and Krishna-Godavari delta. Thus he expanded the Bahmani Empire through his conquests.
    His administrative reforms were also important. They were aimed to increase the control of Sultan over the nobles and provinces. Royal officers were appointed in each province for this purpose.
    Most of the forts were under the control of these officers. Allowances were reduced for the nobles who shirked their responsibility. This was disliked by the nobles.
    So, the Deccani nobles organised a plot against Gawan. They induced the Sultan to punish him with death sentence.
    So, he was persecuted and sentenced to death in 1481 by Muhammad Shah III.
    After the execution of Gawan, the Bahmani kingdom began to decline.
55. Question 55 of 100

    55. Question

    With reference to the definition of state provided under the Article 36 of the Indian Constitution for the purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy, consider the following authorities:
    (1) Legislative and executive organs of central and state governments
    (2) All local authorities
    (3) Public Sector Companies
    How many of the authorities given above come under the definition of “State”?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to Article 36, the term State‘ in Part IV has the same meaning as in Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights. Therefore, Article 12 has defined the term “state” for the purposes of Part III.
    According to it, the State includes the following:
    Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
    Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.
    All local authorities, that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
    All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.

    Unattempted
    

    According to Article 36, the term State‘ in Part IV has the same meaning as in Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights. Therefore, Article 12 has defined the term “state” for the purposes of Part III.
    According to it, the State includes the following:
    Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
    Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.
    All local authorities, that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
    All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
56. Question 56 of 100

    56. Question

    Arrange the following hill ranges in the order of north to south :
    (1) Satpura Range
    (2) Palkonda Range
    (3) Aravali Range
    (4) Harishchandra Range
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 3-1-4-2
    (B) 3-2-4-1
    (C) 4-3-1-2
    (D) 1-4-3-2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Satpura Range is part of the Deccan plateau, western India. The hills stretch for some 900 km across the widest part of peninsular India, through Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh states. The range, the name of which means ―Seven Folds, forms the watershed between the Narmada (north) and Tapti (south) rivers. With peaks more than 1,200 metres high, the Satpura Range includes the Mahadeo Hills to the north, the Maikala Range to the east, and the Rajpipla Hills to the west.
    Palkonda Hills, series of ranges in southern Andhra Pradesh state, India. The hills trend northwest to southeast and form the central part of the Eastern Ghats.
    Aravalli Range, is hill system of northern India, running northeasterly for 560 km through Rajasthan state. Isolated rocky offshoots continue to just south of Delhi. The system is divided into two sections: the Sambhar-Sirohi ranges, taller and including Guru Peak on Mount Abu, the highest peak in the Aravalli Range 1,722 metres and the Sambhar-Khetri ranges, consisting of three ridges that are discontinuous.
    Harischandra Range, eastward-extending spur of the Western Ghats, in west-central India. The range lies between the Godavari and the Bhima rivers in the northwestern Deccan plateau. With an average elevation of about 2,000 feet (600 metres), its peaks decrease in elevation gradually to the southeast and comprise parts of Maharashtra state.

    Unattempted
    

    Satpura Range is part of the Deccan plateau, western India. The hills stretch for some 900 km across the widest part of peninsular India, through Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh states. The range, the name of which means ―Seven Folds, forms the watershed between the Narmada (north) and Tapti (south) rivers. With peaks more than 1,200 metres high, the Satpura Range includes the Mahadeo Hills to the north, the Maikala Range to the east, and the Rajpipla Hills to the west.
    Palkonda Hills, series of ranges in southern Andhra Pradesh state, India. The hills trend northwest to southeast and form the central part of the Eastern Ghats.
    Aravalli Range, is hill system of northern India, running northeasterly for 560 km through Rajasthan state. Isolated rocky offshoots continue to just south of Delhi. The system is divided into two sections: the Sambhar-Sirohi ranges, taller and including Guru Peak on Mount Abu, the highest peak in the Aravalli Range 1,722 metres and the Sambhar-Khetri ranges, consisting of three ridges that are discontinuous.
    Harischandra Range, eastward-extending spur of the Western Ghats, in west-central India. The range lies between the Godavari and the Bhima rivers in the northwestern Deccan plateau. With an average elevation of about 2,000 feet (600 metres), its peaks decrease in elevation gradually to the southeast and comprise parts of Maharashtra state.
57. Question 57 of 100

    57. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The World Economic Forum’s (WEF’s) Global Risks Perception Survey, ranks misinformation and disinformation among the top 10 risks.
    (2) Microtargeting is a marketing strategy that uses recent technological developments to reach out to specific segments of a larger audience based on detailed demographic, psychographic, behavioral, or other data.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The World Economic Forum’s (WEF’s) Global Risks Perception Survey, ranks misinformation and disinformation among the top 10 risks, with easy-to-use interfaces of largescale AI models enabling a boom in false information and “synthetic” content – from sophisticated voice cloning to fake websites. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Microtargeting is a marketing strategy that uses recent technological developments and reaching out to specific segments of a larger audience based on detailed demographic, psychographic, behavioral, or other data. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    AI can be used to inundate voters with highly personalised propaganda on a scale that could make the Cambridge Analytica scandal appear microscopic, as the persuasive ability of AI models would be far superior to the bots and automated social media accounts that are now baseline tools for spreading disinformation.
    The risks are compounded by social media companies such as Facebook and Twitter significantly cutting their fact-checking and election integrity teams.

    Unattempted
    

    The World Economic Forum’s (WEF’s) Global Risks Perception Survey, ranks misinformation and disinformation among the top 10 risks, with easy-to-use interfaces of largescale AI models enabling a boom in false information and “synthetic” content – from sophisticated voice cloning to fake websites. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Microtargeting is a marketing strategy that uses recent technological developments and reaching out to specific segments of a larger audience based on detailed demographic, psychographic, behavioral, or other data. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    AI can be used to inundate voters with highly personalised propaganda on a scale that could make the Cambridge Analytica scandal appear microscopic, as the persuasive ability of AI models would be far superior to the bots and automated social media accounts that are now baseline tools for spreading disinformation.
    The risks are compounded by social media companies such as Facebook and Twitter significantly cutting their fact-checking and election integrity teams.
58. Question 58 of 100

    58. Question

    With reference to the Earth's axial tilt or obliquity, consider the following statements:
    (1) Earth has the largest axial tilt of all the planets in the solar system.
    (2) Less tilt results in less severe seasons, which means cooler summers and milder winters.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Some planets, such as Mercury, Venus, and Jupiter, have axes that are almost completely perpendicular, or straight up-and-down. Earth's axis is not perpendicular. It has an axial tilt, or obliquity. Uranus has the largest axial tilt in the solar system. Its axis is tilted about 98 degrees, so its north pole is nearly on its equator.
    Statement 2 is correct: As the axial tilt increases, the seasonal contrast increases so that winters are colder and summers are warmer in both hemispheres. Today, the Earth's axis is tilted around 23.5 degrees from the plane of its orbit around the sun. But this tilt changes. During a cycle that averages about 40,000 years, the tilt of the axis varies between 22.1 and 24.5 degrees. Because this tilt changes, the seasons as we know them can become exaggerated.
    More tilt means more severe seasons—warmer summers and colder winters; less tilt means less severe seasons—cooler summers and milder winters. It's the cool summers that are thought to allow snow and ice to last from year-to-year in high latitudes, eventually building up into massive ice sheets. There are positive feedbacks in the climate system as well, because an Earth covered with more snow reflects more of the sun's energy into space, causing additional cooling.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Some planets, such as Mercury, Venus, and Jupiter, have axes that are almost completely perpendicular, or straight up-and-down. Earth's axis is not perpendicular. It has an axial tilt, or obliquity. Uranus has the largest axial tilt in the solar system. Its axis is tilted about 98 degrees, so its north pole is nearly on its equator.
    Statement 2 is correct: As the axial tilt increases, the seasonal contrast increases so that winters are colder and summers are warmer in both hemispheres. Today, the Earth's axis is tilted around 23.5 degrees from the plane of its orbit around the sun. But this tilt changes. During a cycle that averages about 40,000 years, the tilt of the axis varies between 22.1 and 24.5 degrees. Because this tilt changes, the seasons as we know them can become exaggerated.
    More tilt means more severe seasons—warmer summers and colder winters; less tilt means less severe seasons—cooler summers and milder winters. It's the cool summers that are thought to allow snow and ice to last from year-to-year in high latitudes, eventually building up into massive ice sheets. There are positive feedbacks in the climate system as well, because an Earth covered with more snow reflects more of the sun's energy into space, causing additional cooling.
59. Question 59 of 100

    59. Question

    Vachanas of Bhakti movement refers to the:
    (A) songs in Hindi composed by Mirabai.
    (B) poems in Awadhi composed by Kabir
    (C) poems in Kannada composed by Basavana.
    (D) hymns in Tamil composed by Andal

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Vachanas are the composition of poems in Kannada by Basavana.

    Unattempted
    

    Vachanas are the composition of poems in Kannada by Basavana.
60. Question 60 of 100

    60. Question

    With reference to administration during Delhi Sultanate period, which of the statements regarding 'bandagans' is/are correct?
    (A) They were special slaves purchased for military service.
    (B) They were trained to man some of the most important political offices in the kingdom.
    (C) They were trusted officers of Delhi sultans.
    (D) All the statements (A), (B) and (C) are correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The consolidation of a kingdom as vast as the Delhi Sultanate needed reliable governors and administrators. Rather than appointing aristocrats and landed chieftains as governors, the early Delhi Sultans, especially Iltutmish, favoured their special slaves purchased for military service, called bandagan in Persian. They were carefully trained to man some of the most important political offices in the kingdom. Since they were totally dependent upon their master, the Sultan could trust and rely upon them.

    Unattempted
    

    The consolidation of a kingdom as vast as the Delhi Sultanate needed reliable governors and administrators. Rather than appointing aristocrats and landed chieftains as governors, the early Delhi Sultans, especially Iltutmish, favoured their special slaves purchased for military service, called bandagan in Persian. They were carefully trained to man some of the most important political offices in the kingdom. Since they were totally dependent upon their master, the Sultan could trust and rely upon them.
61. Question 61 of 100

    61. Question

    With reference to Eco sensitive zone, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is the buffer area around the National parks and Wildlife sanctuaries.
    (2) It is declared under Environment (Protection) Act of 1986.
    (3) There is complete prohibition of any activity in the eco sensitive zone.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Eco sensitive zone is the buffer zone around the National parks and Wildlife sanctuaries. Eco sensitive zone acts as a transition zone from area of high protection to area of involving lesser protection.
    Statement 2 is correct: Eco sensitive zone is declared under the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: While some of the activities could be allowed in all eco sensitive areas (like rain water harvesting), others will need to be regulated or prohibited (like felling of trees regulated and commercial mining prohibited). Hence, there is no complete prohibition of any activity in the eco sensitive zone.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Eco sensitive zone is the buffer zone around the National parks and Wildlife sanctuaries. Eco sensitive zone acts as a transition zone from area of high protection to area of involving lesser protection.
    Statement 2 is correct: Eco sensitive zone is declared under the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: While some of the activities could be allowed in all eco sensitive areas (like rain water harvesting), others will need to be regulated or prohibited (like felling of trees regulated and commercial mining prohibited). Hence, there is no complete prohibition of any activity in the eco sensitive zone.
62. Question 62 of 100

    62. Question

    The guilds (Shrenis) of ancient India could perform functions related to –
    (1) lending and financing
    (2) administration and judiciary
    (3) domestic and foreign trade
    How many of the above options is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The guilds could act as banker, financer and trustee as well.
    Generally these functions were carried out by different category of merchants known as Sreshthin in North India and Chettyars in South India.
    Many guilds operated at local as well as on larger country level and undertook domestic trade. Certain guilds were also involved in foreign trade. 'Ayyavdle' a guild from South India operated at longer long distance trade. 'Manigramam', another guild composed of multiple nationalities under took foreign trade.
    The sealings from Vaishali show that artisans, merchants, and the head of the guild served on the same corporate body, and in this capacity they obviously conducted the affairs of the town. The administrative board of the district of Kotivarsha in north Bengal (Bangladesh) included the chief merchant, the chief trader, and the chief artisan. Their consent to land transactions was considered necessary. Artisans and bankers were organized into their own separate guilds.
    Over its own members, the guild had judicial rights, which were recognized by the state.The guild had not only economic power but also over social life e.g. it could expel a refractory member. It also acted as a guardian of the widows and orphans of their members and as their insurance against sickness.

    Unattempted
    

    The guilds could act as banker, financer and trustee as well.
    Generally these functions were carried out by different category of merchants known as Sreshthin in North India and Chettyars in South India.
    Many guilds operated at local as well as on larger country level and undertook domestic trade. Certain guilds were also involved in foreign trade. 'Ayyavdle' a guild from South India operated at longer long distance trade. 'Manigramam', another guild composed of multiple nationalities under took foreign trade.
    The sealings from Vaishali show that artisans, merchants, and the head of the guild served on the same corporate body, and in this capacity they obviously conducted the affairs of the town. The administrative board of the district of Kotivarsha in north Bengal (Bangladesh) included the chief merchant, the chief trader, and the chief artisan. Their consent to land transactions was considered necessary. Artisans and bankers were organized into their own separate guilds.
    Over its own members, the guild had judicial rights, which were recognized by the state.The guild had not only economic power but also over social life e.g. it could expel a refractory member. It also acted as a guardian of the widows and orphans of their members and as their insurance against sickness.
63. Question 63 of 100

    63. Question

    How many of the following can be the reasons for creating a strong central government by the Constituent Assembly?
    (1) To accommodate diversities
    (2) To better handle the socio-economic problems of the country.
    (3) To avoid disintegration of the Union.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    It is generally accepted that the Indian Constitution has created a strong central government. India is a country of continental dimensions with immense diversities and social problems. The framers of the Constitution believed that we required a federal constitution that would accommodate diversities. But they also wanted to create a strong centre to stem disintegration and bring about social and political change. It was necessary for the centre to have such powers because India at the time of independence was not only divided into provinces created by the British; but there were more than 500 princely states which had to be integrated into existing States or new States had to be created. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
    Besides the concern for unity, the makers of the Constitution also believed that the socio-economic problems of the country needed to be handled by a strong central government in cooperation with the States. Poverty, illiteracy and inequalities of wealth were some of the problems that required planning and coordination. Thus, the concerns for unity and development prompted the makers of the Constitution to create a strong central government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    It is generally accepted that the Indian Constitution has created a strong central government. India is a country of continental dimensions with immense diversities and social problems. The framers of the Constitution believed that we required a federal constitution that would accommodate diversities. But they also wanted to create a strong centre to stem disintegration and bring about social and political change. It was necessary for the centre to have such powers because India at the time of independence was not only divided into provinces created by the British; but there were more than 500 princely states which had to be integrated into existing States or new States had to be created. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
    Besides the concern for unity, the makers of the Constitution also believed that the socio-economic problems of the country needed to be handled by a strong central government in cooperation with the States. Poverty, illiteracy and inequalities of wealth were some of the problems that required planning and coordination. Thus, the concerns for unity and development prompted the makers of the Constitution to create a strong central government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
64. Question 64 of 100

    64. Question

    How many of the following is/are the functions of the Election Commission ?
    (1) To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country.
    (2) To register all the eligible voters.
    (3) To allot election symbols to electoral parties.
    (4) To ensure inner party democracy.
    (5) To settle disputes between the splinter groups of recognized political parties.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only four
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    All of the statements are correct.
    The powers and functions of the Election Commission are as follows:
    (1) To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country.

    (2) To prepare and periodically revise electoral rolls and to register all eligible voters.

    (3) To notify the dates and schedules of elections and to scrutinize nomination papers.

    (4) To grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them.

    (5) To act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them and to settle disputes between the splinter groups of recognized political parties.

    (6) To ensure inner party democracy.
    (7) To appoint officers for inquiring into disputes relating to electoral arrangements.
    (8) To determine the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of elections.
    (9) To prepare a roster for publicity of the policies of the political parties on radio and TV in times of elections.
    (10) To advise the president on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament.
    (11) To advise the governor on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of state legislature.
    (12) To cancel polls in the event of rigging, booth capturing, violence and other irregularities.
    (13) To request the president or the governor for requisitioning the staff necessary for conducting elections.
    (14) To supervise the machinery of elections throughout the country to ensure free and fair elections.
    (15) To advise the president whether elections can be held in a state under president’s rule in order to extend the period of emergency after one year.
    (16) To register political parties for the purpose of elections and grant them the status of national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance.

    Unattempted
    

    All of the statements are correct.
    The powers and functions of the Election Commission are as follows:
    (1) To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country.

    (2) To prepare and periodically revise electoral rolls and to register all eligible voters.

    (3) To notify the dates and schedules of elections and to scrutinize nomination papers.

    (4) To grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them.

    (5) To act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them and to settle disputes between the splinter groups of recognized political parties.

    (6) To ensure inner party democracy.
    (7) To appoint officers for inquiring into disputes relating to electoral arrangements.
    (8) To determine the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of elections.
    (9) To prepare a roster for publicity of the policies of the political parties on radio and TV in times of elections.
    (10) To advise the president on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament.
    (11) To advise the governor on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of state legislature.
    (12) To cancel polls in the event of rigging, booth capturing, violence and other irregularities.
    (13) To request the president or the governor for requisitioning the staff necessary for conducting elections.
    (14) To supervise the machinery of elections throughout the country to ensure free and fair elections.
    (15) To advise the president whether elections can be held in a state under president’s rule in order to extend the period of emergency after one year.
    (16) To register political parties for the purpose of elections and grant them the status of national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance.
65. Question 65 of 100

    65. Question

    How many of the following form part of Capital Receipts of the government?
    (1) Interest receipts on account of loans by the Central government
    (2) Market borrowings of the Central government
    (3) Profits on investments made by the government
    (4) Receipts from sale of government assets in Public Sector Undertakings
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Capital Receipts: They include the money the government receives by way of loans or from the sale of its assets.
    All those receipts of the government which create liability or reduce financial assets are termed as capital receipts.
    Loans will have to be returned to the agencies from which they have been borrowed. Market borrowings of the Central government are part of Capital Receipts as, they create liability. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Sale of government assets, like sale of shares in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) which is referred to as PSU disinvestment, reduce the total amount of financial assets of the government. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    Revenue Receipts: Revenue receipts are those receipts that do not lead to a claim on the government. They are therefore termed non-redeemable.
    They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues.
    Tax revenues, an important component of revenue receipts, have for long been divided into direct taxes (personal income tax) and firms (corporation tax), and indirect taxes like excise taxes (duties levied on goods produced within the country), customs duties (taxes imposed on goods imported into and exported out of India) and service tax.
    Non-tax revenue of the central government mainly consists of interest receipts on account of loans by the central government, dividends and profits on investments made by the government, fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government. Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organisations are also included. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Capital Receipts: They include the money the government receives by way of loans or from the sale of its assets.
    All those receipts of the government which create liability or reduce financial assets are termed as capital receipts.
    Loans will have to be returned to the agencies from which they have been borrowed. Market borrowings of the Central government are part of Capital Receipts as, they create liability. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Sale of government assets, like sale of shares in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) which is referred to as PSU disinvestment, reduce the total amount of financial assets of the government. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    Revenue Receipts: Revenue receipts are those receipts that do not lead to a claim on the government. They are therefore termed non-redeemable.
    They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues.
    Tax revenues, an important component of revenue receipts, have for long been divided into direct taxes (personal income tax) and firms (corporation tax), and indirect taxes like excise taxes (duties levied on goods produced within the country), customs duties (taxes imposed on goods imported into and exported out of India) and service tax.
    Non-tax revenue of the central government mainly consists of interest receipts on account of loans by the central government, dividends and profits on investments made by the government, fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government. Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organisations are also included. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
66. Question 66 of 100

    66. Question

    How many of the following statements is/are correct about the mural paintings of the Ajanta caves?
    (1) The paintings are based on themes from both Buddhism and Jainism.
    (2) The arrangement of figures in some paintings is delineated in the circular form to create three dimensionality.
    (3) Tempera technique is used in the paintings.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mural painting is the class of painting done on the walls and ceilings in rock-cut architecture and structural temples.
    Ajanta near Aurangabad is excellent for the study of Indian classical art of paintings, sculptures and architecture.
    The paintings and sculptures were crafted by Buddhist monks and artists between the second century BC and sixth century AD.
    The site has 29 caves (including the unfinished ones) of which four are finished chaitya halls (prayer halls) and one unfinished whereas rest are viharas (monastries) as well as chaitya-vihara combine.
    The subject matter of these paintings is almost exclusively Buddhist, excepting decorative patterns on the ceilings and the pillars. They are mostly associated with the Jatakas, collection of stories, recording the previous births of the Lord Buddha.
    For example, the chaitya Cave Nos. 19 and 26 are elaborately carved. Their facade is decorated with Buddha and, Boddhisattva images. Cave No. 26 is very big and the entire interior hall is carved with a variety of Buddha images, the biggest one being the Mahaparinibbana image.
    The paintings of Cave Nos. 1 and 2 are very orderly and naturalistic, well integrated with the sculptures in the caves.
    Architectural setting is simple and the arrangement of figures is delineated in the circular form to create three-dimensionality and special effects. Half-closed, elongated eyes are employed.
    The Ajanta painters used a tempera technique, applying their colours onto a thin layer of dry plaster rather than directly on to the walls themselves. The plaster was composed of organic material, including vegetable fibers and rice husks, mixed with fine sand. The paints themselves, in vivid chromatic colors, were derived from locally available minerals, though the blue is believed to have come from lapis lazuli imported from Central Asia.
    Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Mural painting is the class of painting done on the walls and ceilings in rock-cut architecture and structural temples.
    Ajanta near Aurangabad is excellent for the study of Indian classical art of paintings, sculptures and architecture.
    The paintings and sculptures were crafted by Buddhist monks and artists between the second century BC and sixth century AD.
    The site has 29 caves (including the unfinished ones) of which four are finished chaitya halls (prayer halls) and one unfinished whereas rest are viharas (monastries) as well as chaitya-vihara combine.
    The subject matter of these paintings is almost exclusively Buddhist, excepting decorative patterns on the ceilings and the pillars. They are mostly associated with the Jatakas, collection of stories, recording the previous births of the Lord Buddha.
    For example, the chaitya Cave Nos. 19 and 26 are elaborately carved. Their facade is decorated with Buddha and, Boddhisattva images. Cave No. 26 is very big and the entire interior hall is carved with a variety of Buddha images, the biggest one being the Mahaparinibbana image.
    The paintings of Cave Nos. 1 and 2 are very orderly and naturalistic, well integrated with the sculptures in the caves.
    Architectural setting is simple and the arrangement of figures is delineated in the circular form to create three-dimensionality and special effects. Half-closed, elongated eyes are employed.
    The Ajanta painters used a tempera technique, applying their colours onto a thin layer of dry plaster rather than directly on to the walls themselves. The plaster was composed of organic material, including vegetable fibers and rice husks, mixed with fine sand. The paints themselves, in vivid chromatic colors, were derived from locally available minerals, though the blue is believed to have come from lapis lazuli imported from Central Asia.
    Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
67. Question 67 of 100

    67. Question

    With reference to Nagara style of temple architecture in ancient India, how many of the following statements is/are correct ?
    (1) This style of temple architecture originated during the reign of Ashoka.
    (2) The temple is enclosed within a compound wall with an entrance gateway in its centre, known as gopuram.
    (3) The Lakshmana Temple of Khajuraho is one of the finest examples of this style.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    About the Nagara style of Temple architecture :
    The emergence of Hinduism under the Gupta dynasty (320-550 AD) responded in sacred forms of art and architecture built with permanent materials to protect the divine essence in monumental temples. The history of northern style of temple begins from the Guptas and their successors (5 th to 7th century). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    Gopuram is one of the distintive feature of Dravida style of temple architecture. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    Lakshmana temple (nagara style), dedicated to Lord Vishnu, was built from 930-950 AD during the reign of King Yasovarman of the Chandella kingdom. It houses a sacred image of Vaikuntha-Vishnu brought from Tibet. Though the temple is one of the oldest in the Khajuraho fields, it is also one of the most exquistely decorated, covered almost completely with images of over 600 gods in the Hindu Pantheon. The main shrine of the temple, which faces east, is flanked by four freestanding subsidiary shrines at the corners of the temple platform.Hence statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    About the Nagara style of Temple architecture :
    The emergence of Hinduism under the Gupta dynasty (320-550 AD) responded in sacred forms of art and architecture built with permanent materials to protect the divine essence in monumental temples. The history of northern style of temple begins from the Guptas and their successors (5 th to 7th century). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    Gopuram is one of the distintive feature of Dravida style of temple architecture. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    Lakshmana temple (nagara style), dedicated to Lord Vishnu, was built from 930-950 AD during the reign of King Yasovarman of the Chandella kingdom. It houses a sacred image of Vaikuntha-Vishnu brought from Tibet. Though the temple is one of the oldest in the Khajuraho fields, it is also one of the most exquistely decorated, covered almost completely with images of over 600 gods in the Hindu Pantheon. The main shrine of the temple, which faces east, is flanked by four freestanding subsidiary shrines at the corners of the temple platform.Hence statement 3 is correct.
68. Question 68 of 100

    68. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
    (1) RRBs were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975).
    (2) The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government and concerned State Government in the equal proportion.
    (3) RRBs are not mandated to follow the norms of priority sector lending.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are financial institutions which ensure adequate credit for agriculture and other rural sectors. Regional Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975), and after the legislations of the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.
    The first Regional Rural Bank “Prathama Grameen Bank” was set up on October 2, 1975.
    The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government, concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:15:35. The RRBs combine the characteristics of a cooperative in terms of the familiarity of the rural problems and a commercial bank in terms of its professionalism and ability to mobilise financial resources. Each RRB operates within the local limits as notified by Government. The main objectives of RRB‟s are to provide credit and other facilities‚ especially to the small and marginal farmers‚ agricultural labourers artisans and small entrepreneurs in rural areas with the objective of bridging the credit gap in rural areas, checking the outflow of rural deposits to urban areas and reduce regional imbalances and increase rural employment generation.
    The RRB’s have also been brought under the ambit of priority sector lending. Priority sector lending includes loans given to agriculture, micro, small and medium enterprises, education, housing, weaker sections, social infrastructure and renewable energy segments. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) revised Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) With effect from January 1, 2016.
    Under the revised target, 75 per cent of their total loans have to be given to the priority sector, against 60 per cent earlier. Commercial banks have priority sector lending target of 40 percent. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are financial institutions which ensure adequate credit for agriculture and other rural sectors. Regional Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975), and after the legislations of the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.
    The first Regional Rural Bank “Prathama Grameen Bank” was set up on October 2, 1975.
    The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government, concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:15:35. The RRBs combine the characteristics of a cooperative in terms of the familiarity of the rural problems and a commercial bank in terms of its professionalism and ability to mobilise financial resources. Each RRB operates within the local limits as notified by Government. The main objectives of RRB‟s are to provide credit and other facilities‚ especially to the small and marginal farmers‚ agricultural labourers artisans and small entrepreneurs in rural areas with the objective of bridging the credit gap in rural areas, checking the outflow of rural deposits to urban areas and reduce regional imbalances and increase rural employment generation.
    The RRB’s have also been brought under the ambit of priority sector lending. Priority sector lending includes loans given to agriculture, micro, small and medium enterprises, education, housing, weaker sections, social infrastructure and renewable energy segments. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) revised Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) With effect from January 1, 2016.
    Under the revised target, 75 per cent of their total loans have to be given to the priority sector, against 60 per cent earlier. Commercial banks have priority sector lending target of 40 percent. Hence only statement 1 is correct.
69. Question 69 of 100

    69. Question

    Which among the following statements is/are not correct about Proportional Representation?
    (1) It is an electoral system that seeks to create a representative body that reflects the overall distribution of public support for each party.
    (2) In this system, a candidate who secures a majority of votes is declared elected.
    Select the answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : It is an electoral system that seeks to create a representative body that reflects the overall distribution of public support for each party. Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of Rajya Sabha.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: In proportional representation, elections are held in a manner that ensures that the number of seats won by a party or group of candidates is proportionate to the number of votes received. This ensures a wider representation of diverse opinions in an elected assembly, reflecting a true democracy.
    The proportional representation system rarely results in one party holding an absolute majority. It requires political parties to compromise and build consensus. Whereas, the election of a candidate on the basis of the majority of votes he would get is a feature of territorial representation system.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : It is an electoral system that seeks to create a representative body that reflects the overall distribution of public support for each party. Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of Rajya Sabha.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: In proportional representation, elections are held in a manner that ensures that the number of seats won by a party or group of candidates is proportionate to the number of votes received. This ensures a wider representation of diverse opinions in an elected assembly, reflecting a true democracy.
    The proportional representation system rarely results in one party holding an absolute majority. It requires political parties to compromise and build consensus. Whereas, the election of a candidate on the basis of the majority of votes he would get is a feature of territorial representation system.
70. Question 70 of 100

    70. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The President can make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India or promulgate any ordinance only under Art 123.
    (2) Any Ordinance, order, by-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or Act comes under the ambit of law described in Art 13 of the constitution.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ●Under Article 77(3) of the Constitution, President can make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
    ●Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
    ●So statement 1 is incorrect.
    ●Article 13(3)(a) includes any law including ordinance, order, bye-laws, rule, regulations, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.
    ●So statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    ●Under Article 77(3) of the Constitution, President can make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
    ●Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
    ●So statement 1 is incorrect.
    ●Article 13(3)(a) includes any law including ordinance, order, bye-laws, rule, regulations, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.
    ●So statement 2 is correct.
71. Question 71 of 100

    71. Question

    Consider the following statements about the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI):
    (1) It is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament.
    (2) According to SIPRI's latest data, India emerged as the leading arms importer globally during the period from 2019 to 2023.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to the latest data on international arms transfers from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), India emerged as the leading arms importer globally during the period from 2019 to 2023. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    About SIPRI:
    It was established in 1966 in Stockholm (Sweden).
    It is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    According to the latest data on international arms transfers from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), India emerged as the leading arms importer globally during the period from 2019 to 2023. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    About SIPRI:
    It was established in 1966 in Stockholm (Sweden).
    It is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
72. Question 72 of 100

    72. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Directive Principles restrain the government from doing certain things while Fundamental rights exhort the government to do certain things.
    (2) Directive Principles of State Policy make provisions for certain non-justiciable rights to the citizens.
    (3) Only Fundamental Rights fall under the category of justiciable rights under the Indian Constitution.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : It is possible to see both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles as complementary to each other. Fundamental Rights restrain the government from doing certain things while Directive Principles exhort the government to do certain things. Fundamental Rights mainly protect the rights of individuals while directive principles ensure the well-being of the entire society.
    Statement 2 is correct :
    Directive Principles lists mainly three things:
    1) the goals and objectives that we as a society should adopt;
    2) certain rights that individuals should enjoy apart from the Fundamental Rights; and
    3) certain policies that the government should adopt.
    Directive principles of State policy are Non-justiciable rights.Difference between Justiciable and Non-Justiciable Rights–
    Justiciable rights are those rights which can be enforced by the courts, such as the Fundamental Rights, constitutional rights (like Right to Property) and other legal rights.
    Non-justiciable rights are those rights that cannot be enforced by the courts and hence a citizen cannot approach the court for their enforcement. These are certain rights that find mention in the Directive principles of State policy, directing the State to ensure that these are made available to the citizens through government policy.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : While Fundamental Rights are justiciable in nature, there are certain other rights provided in the Indian Constitution which are also justiciable in nature. Such rights are referred to as constitutional rights. For instance, Article 300-A of the Indian Constitution provides for Right to property.
    Similarly, Article 326 of the Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : It is possible to see both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles as complementary to each other. Fundamental Rights restrain the government from doing certain things while Directive Principles exhort the government to do certain things. Fundamental Rights mainly protect the rights of individuals while directive principles ensure the well-being of the entire society.
    Statement 2 is correct :
    Directive Principles lists mainly three things:
    1) the goals and objectives that we as a society should adopt;
    2) certain rights that individuals should enjoy apart from the Fundamental Rights; and
    3) certain policies that the government should adopt.
    Directive principles of State policy are Non-justiciable rights.Difference between Justiciable and Non-Justiciable Rights–
    Justiciable rights are those rights which can be enforced by the courts, such as the Fundamental Rights, constitutional rights (like Right to Property) and other legal rights.
    Non-justiciable rights are those rights that cannot be enforced by the courts and hence a citizen cannot approach the court for their enforcement. These are certain rights that find mention in the Directive principles of State policy, directing the State to ensure that these are made available to the citizens through government policy.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : While Fundamental Rights are justiciable in nature, there are certain other rights provided in the Indian Constitution which are also justiciable in nature. Such rights are referred to as constitutional rights. For instance, Article 300-A of the Indian Constitution provides for Right to property.
    Similarly, Article 326 of the Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18.
73. Question 73 of 100

    73. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver, characterised by irritation or swelling of the liver cells.
    Statement-II: Hepatitis is typically caused by hepatotropic viruses, including A, B, C, D, and E, although other viruses like the varicella virus can also lead to the disease.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
    (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
    (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
    (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver, characterised by irritation or swelling of the liver cells. Hence, statement I is correct.
    Hepatitis is typically caused by hepatotropic viruses, including A, B, C, D, and E, although other viruses like the varicella virus can also lead to the disease. Hence, statement II is correct.
    Hence, option A is correct, because both statement-I and statement-II are correct and statement-II is the correct explanation of statement-I.

    Unattempted
    

    Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver, characterised by irritation or swelling of the liver cells. Hence, statement I is correct.
    Hepatitis is typically caused by hepatotropic viruses, including A, B, C, D, and E, although other viruses like the varicella virus can also lead to the disease. Hence, statement II is correct.
    Hence, option A is correct, because both statement-I and statement-II are correct and statement-II is the correct explanation of statement-I.
74. Question 74 of 100

    74. Question

    Consider the following pairs of SI units and the basis of its definition:
    SI unit : Defined on the basis of
    (1) Meter : Based on speed of light
    (2) Kilogram : Based on Planck constant
    (3) Second : Based on radiation of Caesium-133 atom
    How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The meter is defined by taking the fixed numerical value of the speed of light in vacuum c to be 299,792,458 when expressed in the unit m s −1, where the second is defined in terms of ∆ν Cs.
    The kilogram, symbol kg, is the SI unit of mass. It is defined by taking the fixed numerical value of the Planck constant h to be 6.626 070 15 × 10 -34 when expressed in the unit J s, which is equal to kg m 2 s -1, where the meter and the second are defined in terms of c and ∆νCs.
    The second is the duration of 9,192,631,770 periods of the radiation corresponding to the transition between the two hyperfine levels of the ground state of the caesium-133 atom.

    Unattempted
    

    The meter is defined by taking the fixed numerical value of the speed of light in vacuum c to be 299,792,458 when expressed in the unit m s −1, where the second is defined in terms of ∆ν Cs.
    The kilogram, symbol kg, is the SI unit of mass. It is defined by taking the fixed numerical value of the Planck constant h to be 6.626 070 15 × 10 -34 when expressed in the unit J s, which is equal to kg m 2 s -1, where the meter and the second are defined in terms of c and ∆νCs.
    The second is the duration of 9,192,631,770 periods of the radiation corresponding to the transition between the two hyperfine levels of the ground state of the caesium-133 atom.
75. Question 75 of 100

    75. Question

    Accountability of civil servants in India is ensured through which of the following?
    (1) Code of conduct
    (2) Code of ethics
    (3) Vigilance Commissions
    How many of the above options is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Option 1 is correct: The Conduct Rules, contained in the Central Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964 and analogous rules applicable to members of the All India Services or employees of various State Governments. The code of behaviour as enunciated in the Conduct Rules, while containing some general norms like 'maintaining integrity and absolute devotion to duty' and not indulging in 'conduct unbecoming of a government servant' is generally directed towards cataloguing specific activities deemed undesirable for government servants. These conduct rules do not constitute a code of ethics.
    Option 2 is incorrect: There is no Code of Ethics prescribed for civil servants in India although such Codes exist in other countries.
    Option 3 is correct : The Central and State Vigilance Commission are examples of other oversight mechanisms that are autonomous but lie within the framework of the State. Analysts have categorized these accountability mechanisms into ―horizontal accountability mechanisms which refer to those located within the State as against 'vertical' accountability mechanisms which are those outside the State and include the media, civil society and citizen.

    Unattempted
    

    Option 1 is correct: The Conduct Rules, contained in the Central Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964 and analogous rules applicable to members of the All India Services or employees of various State Governments. The code of behaviour as enunciated in the Conduct Rules, while containing some general norms like 'maintaining integrity and absolute devotion to duty' and not indulging in 'conduct unbecoming of a government servant' is generally directed towards cataloguing specific activities deemed undesirable for government servants. These conduct rules do not constitute a code of ethics.
    Option 2 is incorrect: There is no Code of Ethics prescribed for civil servants in India although such Codes exist in other countries.
    Option 3 is correct : The Central and State Vigilance Commission are examples of other oversight mechanisms that are autonomous but lie within the framework of the State. Analysts have categorized these accountability mechanisms into ―horizontal accountability mechanisms which refer to those located within the State as against 'vertical' accountability mechanisms which are those outside the State and include the media, civil society and citizen.
76. Question 76 of 100

    76. Question

    With reference to the regional states during later Mughal era, how many of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
    Regional state : Founder
    (1) Hyderabad: Kilich Khan
    (2) Awadh: Burhan-ul-Mulk
    (3) Bengal: Murshid Kuli Khan
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pair 1 is correctly matched. Hyderabad: The founder of the Asaf-Jah house of Hyderabad was Kilich Khan in 1724, popularly known as Nizam-ul-Mulk. It was Zulfikar Khan who had first conceived the idea of an independent state in the Deccan.
    Pair 2 is correctly matched. Awadh: The founder of the independent principality of Awadh was Saadat Khan in 1722, popularly known as Burhan-ul-Mulk.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched. Bengal: Murshid Kuli Khan was the founder of the independent state of Bengal in 1717. He was a capable ruler and made Bengal a prosperous state. He was succeeded in 1727 by his son Shujaud- din.

    Unattempted
    

    Pair 1 is correctly matched. Hyderabad: The founder of the Asaf-Jah house of Hyderabad was Kilich Khan in 1724, popularly known as Nizam-ul-Mulk. It was Zulfikar Khan who had first conceived the idea of an independent state in the Deccan.
    Pair 2 is correctly matched. Awadh: The founder of the independent principality of Awadh was Saadat Khan in 1722, popularly known as Burhan-ul-Mulk.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched. Bengal: Murshid Kuli Khan was the founder of the independent state of Bengal in 1717. He was a capable ruler and made Bengal a prosperous state. He was succeeded in 1727 by his son Shujaud- din.
77. Question 77 of 100

    77. Question

    In order for bio-magnification to occur, how many of the following criterion must be fulfilled by pollutant?
    (1) It must be short-lived.
    (2) It must be mobile.
    (3) It must be soluble in fats.
    (4) It must be biologically active.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Bio-magnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
    Thus in bio-magnification there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.
    In order for magnification to occur, the pollutant must be: long lived, soluble in fats, biologically active.
    If a pollutant is short lived, it will be broken down before it can become dangerous. If it is not mobile, it will stay in one place and is unlikely to be taken up by the organisms.
    If the pollutant is soluble in water, it will be excreted by the organism. Pollutants that dissolve in fats, however, may be retained for a long time.
    Hence, statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct but only statement 1 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Bio-magnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
    Thus in bio-magnification there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.
    In order for magnification to occur, the pollutant must be: long lived, soluble in fats, biologically active.
    If a pollutant is short lived, it will be broken down before it can become dangerous. If it is not mobile, it will stay in one place and is unlikely to be taken up by the organisms.
    If the pollutant is soluble in water, it will be excreted by the organism. Pollutants that dissolve in fats, however, may be retained for a long time.
    Hence, statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct but only statement 1 is incorrect.
78. Question 78 of 100

    78. Question

    How many of these is/are constitutional provisions with regard to minorities?
    (1) State to endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities’ amongst individuals and groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.
    (2) Right of ‘any section of the citizens’ to ‘conserve’ its ‘distinct language, script or culture.
    (3) State to promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people.
    (4) Restriction on denial of admission to any citizen, to any educational institution maintained or aided by the State, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.
    Select the correct answer using the codes below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Constitution provides two sets of rights of minorities which can be placed in ‘common domain’ and ‘separate domain’. The rights which fall in the ‘common domain’ are those which are applicable to all the citizens of our country.
    The rights which fall in the ‘separate domain’ are those which are applicable to the minorities only and these are reserved to protect their identity. The distinction between ‘common domain’ and ‘separate domain’ and their combination have been well kept and protected in the Constitution.
    We are aware of the common rights or provisions, for e.g. S1 and S3.
    The Minority Rights provided in the Constitution which fall in the category of ‘Separate Domain’ are as under:-
    * right of ‘any section of the citizens’ to ‘conserve’ its ‘distinct language, script or culture’; [Article 29(1)]
    * restriction on denial of admission to any citizen, to any educational institution maintained or aided by the State, ‘on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them’; [Article 29(2)]
    * right of all Religious and Linguistic Minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice;[Article 30(1)]
    * freedom of Minority-managed educational institutions from discrimination in the matter of receiving aid from the State; [Article30(2)]
    * special provision relating to the language spoken by a section of the population of any State; [Article 347]
    * provision for facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage;[Article 350 A]
    * provision for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities and his duties; and [Article 350 B]
    Sikh community’s right of ‘wearing and carrying of kirpans.

    Unattempted
    

    The Constitution provides two sets of rights of minorities which can be placed in ‘common domain’ and ‘separate domain’. The rights which fall in the ‘common domain’ are those which are applicable to all the citizens of our country.
    The rights which fall in the ‘separate domain’ are those which are applicable to the minorities only and these are reserved to protect their identity. The distinction between ‘common domain’ and ‘separate domain’ and their combination have been well kept and protected in the Constitution.
    We are aware of the common rights or provisions, for e.g. S1 and S3.
    The Minority Rights provided in the Constitution which fall in the category of ‘Separate Domain’ are as under:-
    * right of ‘any section of the citizens’ to ‘conserve’ its ‘distinct language, script or culture’; [Article 29(1)]
    * restriction on denial of admission to any citizen, to any educational institution maintained or aided by the State, ‘on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them’; [Article 29(2)]
    * right of all Religious and Linguistic Minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice;[Article 30(1)]
    * freedom of Minority-managed educational institutions from discrimination in the matter of receiving aid from the State; [Article30(2)]
    * special provision relating to the language spoken by a section of the population of any State; [Article 347]
    * provision for facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage;[Article 350 A]
    * provision for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities and his duties; and [Article 350 B]
    Sikh community’s right of ‘wearing and carrying of kirpans.
79. Question 79 of 100

    79. Question

    With reference to Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC), how many of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) A JSPSC is a constitutional body.
    (2) The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the President.
    (3) A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to the Parliament.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states.
    While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.
    The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the President. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. They can be suspended or removed by the President. They can also resign from their offices at any time by submitting their resignation letters to the President.
    The number of members of a JSPSC and their conditions of service are determined by the President.
    A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to each of the concerned state Governors. Each Governor places the report before the state legislature. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states.
    While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.
    The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the President. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. They can be suspended or removed by the President. They can also resign from their offices at any time by submitting their resignation letters to the President.
    The number of members of a JSPSC and their conditions of service are determined by the President.
    A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to each of the concerned state Governors. Each Governor places the report before the state legislature. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
80. Question 80 of 100

    80. Question

    Consider the following statements :
    (1) A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha been passed by Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
    (2) If the President has notified about his intention to summon a joint sitting on a Bill, the bill does not lapse even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the notification.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse on the dissolution of Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse on the dissolution of Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
81. Question 81 of 100

    81. Question

    The Wood's Despatch of 1854 is regarded as the 'Magna Carta of English Education in India'. How many of the following was/were favoured by it?
    (1) Downward filtration theory
    (2) Female and vocational training
    (3) Secular education
    (4) Private entrepreneurship in education
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the “Magna Carta of English Education in India”, this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India.
    It asked the Government of India to assume responsibility for education of the masses, thus repudiating the 'downward filtration theory', at least on paper. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
    It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
    It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.
    It laid stress on female and vocational, education, and on teachers' training. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular. Hence, option 3 is correct.
    It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise. Hence, option 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the “Magna Carta of English Education in India”, this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India.
    It asked the Government of India to assume responsibility for education of the masses, thus repudiating the 'downward filtration theory', at least on paper. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
    It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
    It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.
    It laid stress on female and vocational, education, and on teachers' training. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular. Hence, option 3 is correct.
    It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise. Hence, option 4 is correct.
82. Question 82 of 100

    82. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Cord blood:
    (1) It is the blood found in the nervous tissues of the spinal cord.
    (2) It can be collected to extract hematopoietic stem cells that can be used to treat certain diseases.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : Cord blood is the blood that is left in the umbilical cord and placenta after the birth of a child. This blood is collected and sent to a cord blood bank, where the stem cells are separated, tested, processed, and preserved in liquid nitrogen. Stem cells taken from umbilical cord blood are like those taken from bone marrow, capable of producing all blood cells: red cells, platelets and immune system cells. When used, stem cells are first concentrated, then injected into the patient. Once transfused, they produce new cells of every kind.
    Statement 2 is correct : Cord blood contains special type of cells called hematopoietic stem cells that can be used to treat certain diseases. Cord blood can be collected, and stem cells can be extracted and stored for potential future medical use. This process is known as Cord blood banking. Cord blood banking is recommended as a source of hematopoietic stem cell (derived from bone marrow, peripheral blood, or umbilical cord blood) transplantation for haematological cancers and disorders where its use is recommended.
    The stem cells can treat around 70 blood related disorders and genetic disorders including thalassemia, sickle cell anaemia, leukaemia, and immune related disorders.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : Cord blood is the blood that is left in the umbilical cord and placenta after the birth of a child. This blood is collected and sent to a cord blood bank, where the stem cells are separated, tested, processed, and preserved in liquid nitrogen. Stem cells taken from umbilical cord blood are like those taken from bone marrow, capable of producing all blood cells: red cells, platelets and immune system cells. When used, stem cells are first concentrated, then injected into the patient. Once transfused, they produce new cells of every kind.
    Statement 2 is correct : Cord blood contains special type of cells called hematopoietic stem cells that can be used to treat certain diseases. Cord blood can be collected, and stem cells can be extracted and stored for potential future medical use. This process is known as Cord blood banking. Cord blood banking is recommended as a source of hematopoietic stem cell (derived from bone marrow, peripheral blood, or umbilical cord blood) transplantation for haematological cancers and disorders where its use is recommended.
    The stem cells can treat around 70 blood related disorders and genetic disorders including thalassemia, sickle cell anaemia, leukaemia, and immune related disorders.
83. Question 83 of 100

    83. Question

    What would happen if the concentration of black carbon in the atmosphere increases for some reason?
    (1) Reduction in the atmospheric concentration of short-lived climate pollutants.
    (2) Reduction in the albedo of the Earth’s surface.
    (3) Causes ocean acidification.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. Black carbon results from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass. It is a short-lived climate pollutant and thus the concentration of short-lived climate pollutants increases if the concentration of black carbon increases.
    Statement 2 is correct. Black carbon absorbs solar energy and warms the atmosphere. When it falls to earth with precipitation, it darkens the surface of snow and ice thus reducing the albedo of the surface.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Increase in the concentration of CO2 causes Ocean acidification.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. Black carbon results from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass. It is a short-lived climate pollutant and thus the concentration of short-lived climate pollutants increases if the concentration of black carbon increases.
    Statement 2 is correct. Black carbon absorbs solar energy and warms the atmosphere. When it falls to earth with precipitation, it darkens the surface of snow and ice thus reducing the albedo of the surface.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Increase in the concentration of CO2 causes Ocean acidification.
84. Question 84 of 100

    84. Question

    Despite his short ruling period, Sher Shah Suri has a great significance in the history of India. Consider the following statements :
    (1) He instituted a new land revenue system called Dahshala which inspired Akbar’s land revenue policy.
    (2) He issued silver (coins) Rupee which remained in circulation upto British times.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Although, Sher Shah Suri started a new land revenue system which inspired the land revenue policy of Akbar but it was not ‘Dahashala system’. Dahashala system was instituted by Akbar.
    Statement 2 is correct: The first “rupee” in form of silver coin had been introduced by Afghan king Sher Shah Suri. At that time, 40 copper pieces were equal to one rupee. Even during the British rule, the silver rupee continued.
    During the reign of Akbar and his successors four main systems of revenue assessment were prevalent:
    (A) zabti or dahsala system;
    (B) batai, ghallabakshi or bhaoli;
    (C) kankut and
    (D) nasaq.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Although, Sher Shah Suri started a new land revenue system which inspired the land revenue policy of Akbar but it was not ‘Dahashala system’. Dahashala system was instituted by Akbar.
    Statement 2 is correct: The first “rupee” in form of silver coin had been introduced by Afghan king Sher Shah Suri. At that time, 40 copper pieces were equal to one rupee. Even during the British rule, the silver rupee continued.
    During the reign of Akbar and his successors four main systems of revenue assessment were prevalent:
    (A) zabti or dahsala system;
    (B) batai, ghallabakshi or bhaoli;
    (C) kankut and
    (D) nasaq.
85. Question 85 of 100

    85. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the agroforestry :
    (1) It is a part of social forestry in which trees are integrated with both positive and negative interactions between trees and crops.
    (2) It provides for both economical as well as ecological resource management.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Agroforestry is an integrated social forestry approach of using the interactive benefits from combining trees and shrubs with crops and livestock. Thus it involves agrisilvicultural, silvopastoral as well as agrosilvopastoral systems. It combines agricultural and forestry technologies to create more diverse, productive, profitable, healthy and sustainable land-use systems. In agroforestry systems there are both ecological and economical interactions between the different components. Agroforestry can also be defined as a dynamic, ecologically based, natural resource management system that, through the integration of trees on farms and in the agricultural landscape, diversifies and sustains production for increased social, economic and environmental benefits for land users at all levels. In particular, agroforestry is crucial to smallholder farmers and other rural people because it can enhance their food supply, income and health.Agroforestry systems are multifunctional systems that can provide a wide range of economic, sociocultural, and environmental benefits.

    Unattempted
    

    Agroforestry is an integrated social forestry approach of using the interactive benefits from combining trees and shrubs with crops and livestock. Thus it involves agrisilvicultural, silvopastoral as well as agrosilvopastoral systems. It combines agricultural and forestry technologies to create more diverse, productive, profitable, healthy and sustainable land-use systems. In agroforestry systems there are both ecological and economical interactions between the different components. Agroforestry can also be defined as a dynamic, ecologically based, natural resource management system that, through the integration of trees on farms and in the agricultural landscape, diversifies and sustains production for increased social, economic and environmental benefits for land users at all levels. In particular, agroforestry is crucial to smallholder farmers and other rural people because it can enhance their food supply, income and health.Agroforestry systems are multifunctional systems that can provide a wide range of economic, sociocultural, and environmental benefits.
86. Question 86 of 100

    86. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Black Carbon:
    (1) It disrupts the cloudiness and monsoon rainfall.
    (2) It accelerates melting of mountain glaciers.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Black Carbon (BC) is a solid particle or aerosol (though not a gas), which contributes to the warming of atmosphere.
    ● It is commonly known as soot and is a form of particulate air pollutant, produced from incomplete combustion.
    ● It consists of pure carbon in several linked forms.
    ● Black carbon warms the Earth by absorbing heat in the atmosphere and by reducing albedo, (the ability to reflect sunlight) when deposited on snow and ice.
    ● BC is the strongest absorber of sunlight and heats the air directly. In addition, it darkens snow packs and glaciers through deposition and leads to melting of ice and snow.
    ● Regionally, BC disrupts cloudiness and monsoon rainfall and accelerates melting of mountain glaciers such as the Hindu Kush-Himalayan glaciers. Thus, both the statements are correct.
    ● Black carbon stays in the atmosphere for only several days to weeks.
    ● Thus the effects of BC on the atmospheric warming and glacier retreat disappear within months of reducing emissions.
    Sources of Black Carbon (BC): Biomass burning, cooking with solid fuels, and Diesel exhaust, etc.
    How far India contributes to globe?
    ● According to estimates, between 25 and 35 percent of black carbon in the global atmosphere comes from China and India, emitted from the burning of wood and cow dung in household cooking and through the use of coal to heat homes.
    ● Project Surya has been launched to reduce black carbon in atmosphere by introducing efficient stove technologies, solar cookers, solar lamps and biogas plants.

    Unattempted
    

    Black Carbon (BC) is a solid particle or aerosol (though not a gas), which contributes to the warming of atmosphere.
    ● It is commonly known as soot and is a form of particulate air pollutant, produced from incomplete combustion.
    ● It consists of pure carbon in several linked forms.
    ● Black carbon warms the Earth by absorbing heat in the atmosphere and by reducing albedo, (the ability to reflect sunlight) when deposited on snow and ice.
    ● BC is the strongest absorber of sunlight and heats the air directly. In addition, it darkens snow packs and glaciers through deposition and leads to melting of ice and snow.
    ● Regionally, BC disrupts cloudiness and monsoon rainfall and accelerates melting of mountain glaciers such as the Hindu Kush-Himalayan glaciers. Thus, both the statements are correct.
    ● Black carbon stays in the atmosphere for only several days to weeks.
    ● Thus the effects of BC on the atmospheric warming and glacier retreat disappear within months of reducing emissions.
    Sources of Black Carbon (BC): Biomass burning, cooking with solid fuels, and Diesel exhaust, etc.
    How far India contributes to globe?
    ● According to estimates, between 25 and 35 percent of black carbon in the global atmosphere comes from China and India, emitted from the burning of wood and cow dung in household cooking and through the use of coal to heat homes.
    ● Project Surya has been launched to reduce black carbon in atmosphere by introducing efficient stove technologies, solar cookers, solar lamps and biogas plants.
87. Question 87 of 100

    87. Question

    Which among the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched?
    (1) Amylase: Breakdown starch
    (2) Pepsin: Breaking down of emulsified fats
    (3) Lipase: Digest Protein
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    These are the three enzymes produced during the nutrition cycle in Human body. Pepsin is responsible for breaking down and digesting protein and is secreted in stomach.
    Lipase is responsible for absorbing fat and is secreted in intestine of the human body.

    Unattempted
    

    These are the three enzymes produced during the nutrition cycle in Human body. Pepsin is responsible for breaking down and digesting protein and is secreted in stomach.
    Lipase is responsible for absorbing fat and is secreted in intestine of the human body.
88. Question 88 of 100

    88. Question

    In the context of active and passive immunity in human beings, consider the following statements:
    (1) When ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents, it is called active immunity.
    (2) Transfer of mother’s antibodies to foetus during pregnancy is an example of passive immunity.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    When a host is exposed to antigens, which may be in the form of living or dead microbes or other proteins, antibodies are produced in the host body. This type of immunity is called active immunity.
    Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response. Injecting the microbes deliberately during immunisation or infectious organisms gaining access into body during natural infection induce active immunity.
    When ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents, it is called passive immunity. Mother‘s milk is considered very essential for the newborn infant. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. The foetus also receives some antibodies from their mother, through the placenta during pregnancy. These are some examples of passive immunity.

    Unattempted
    

    When a host is exposed to antigens, which may be in the form of living or dead microbes or other proteins, antibodies are produced in the host body. This type of immunity is called active immunity.
    Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response. Injecting the microbes deliberately during immunisation or infectious organisms gaining access into body during natural infection induce active immunity.
    When ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents, it is called passive immunity. Mother‘s milk is considered very essential for the newborn infant. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. The foetus also receives some antibodies from their mother, through the placenta during pregnancy. These are some examples of passive immunity.
89. Question 89 of 100

    89. Question

    Kaveri river is known to have less fluctuations than other peninsular rivers in context of water flow. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for it?
    (A) Presence of less number of dams.
    (B) The gain of water from aquifers due to higher levels of groundwater.
    (C) Rocky terrain limiting water seepage.
    (D) Catchment area receiving rainfall during the southwest monsoon as well as northeast monsoon season.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Kaveri rises in Brahmagiri hills of Kogadu district in Karnataka.
    Since the upper catchment area receives rainfall during the southwest monsoon season (summer) and the lower part during the northeast monsoon season (winter), the river carries water throughout the year with comparatively less fluctuation than other Peninsular rivers.
    Its important tributaries are the Kabini, the Bhavani, and the Amravati.

    Unattempted
    

    The Kaveri rises in Brahmagiri hills of Kogadu district in Karnataka.
    Since the upper catchment area receives rainfall during the southwest monsoon season (summer) and the lower part during the northeast monsoon season (winter), the river carries water throughout the year with comparatively less fluctuation than other Peninsular rivers.
    Its important tributaries are the Kabini, the Bhavani, and the Amravati.
90. Question 90 of 100

    90. Question

    With reference to effect of ocean currents, consider the following statements:
    (1) Presence of cold currents is unfit for formation of tropical cyclones.
    (2) The region where warm and cold currents meet is not suitable for navigation.
    (3) Cold currents contributes to formation of hot deserts on the western side of the continents.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Ocean currents have a number of direct and indirect influences on coastal climate and human activities.
    Statement 1 is correct:
    The large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C is the favourable condition for the formation and intensification of tropical storms. Because this supplies enough moisture to the storm. But the cold currents lower the surface temperatures of the tropical oceans and make them unfit for the formation of cyclonic storms.
    Statement 2 is correct: The region where warm and cold currents meet is marked by foggy climate which is not suitable for navigation. But this region are considered as the best fishing grounds of the world. Because the mixing of warm and cold currents help to replenish the oxygen and favour the growth of planktons, the primary food for fish population.
    Statement 3 is correct: Cold ocean currents have a direct effect on desert formation in west coast regions of the tropical and subtropical continents. There is fog and most of the areas are arid due to desiccating effect (loss of moisture). For example Californian current which is a cold current brings a dry and desert type of climate to the Mojave region.

    Unattempted
    

    Ocean currents have a number of direct and indirect influences on coastal climate and human activities.
    Statement 1 is correct:
    The large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C is the favourable condition for the formation and intensification of tropical storms. Because this supplies enough moisture to the storm. But the cold currents lower the surface temperatures of the tropical oceans and make them unfit for the formation of cyclonic storms.
    Statement 2 is correct: The region where warm and cold currents meet is marked by foggy climate which is not suitable for navigation. But this region are considered as the best fishing grounds of the world. Because the mixing of warm and cold currents help to replenish the oxygen and favour the growth of planktons, the primary food for fish population.
    Statement 3 is correct: Cold ocean currents have a direct effect on desert formation in west coast regions of the tropical and subtropical continents. There is fog and most of the areas are arid due to desiccating effect (loss of moisture). For example Californian current which is a cold current brings a dry and desert type of climate to the Mojave region.
91. Question 91 of 100

    91. Question

    With reference to “Achintya Bheda Abheda” philosophy, consider the following statements :
    (1) It propounds that the soul is distinct and non-distinct from God.
    (2) It lays emphasis on the eternality and infallibility of Vedas.
    (3) It is a sub-school of Vedanta philosophy.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Achintya Bheda Abheda philosophy: It combines monism and dualism by stating that the soul is both distinct and non-distinct from Krishna or God. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The simultaneous existence of oneness and many-ness is called Acintya in Sanskrit, which means
    ―inconceivable. Inconceivability implies that this aspect of reality is inconceivable to the human and finite mind. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu a medieval bhakti saint was associated with this Philosophy.
    It does not give emphasis on the eternality and infallibility of Vedas. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    It is a sub-school of Vedanta philosophy (which in turn is based on Upanishadic principals and hence the name Vedanta). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Achintya Bheda Abheda philosophy: It combines monism and dualism by stating that the soul is both distinct and non-distinct from Krishna or God. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The simultaneous existence of oneness and many-ness is called Acintya in Sanskrit, which means
    ―inconceivable. Inconceivability implies that this aspect of reality is inconceivable to the human and finite mind. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu a medieval bhakti saint was associated with this Philosophy.
    It does not give emphasis on the eternality and infallibility of Vedas. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    It is a sub-school of Vedanta philosophy (which in turn is based on Upanishadic principals and hence the name Vedanta). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
92. Question 92 of 100

    92. Question

    With reference to the Bone Grafting, consider the following statements:
    (1) Bone grafting involves a surgical technique where transplanted bone is utilized to repair and reconstruct bones affected by disease or injury.
    (2) Nano Hydroxyapatite-based Porous Composite Scaffolds are biodegradable and have osteoinductive and osteopromotive properties for bone repairing.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Bone grafting involves a surgical technique where transplanted bone is utilized to repair and reconstruct bones affected by disease or injury. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The primary objective of the invention is to overcome the drawbacks of the existing remedies.
    Other alternatives have been associated with infection and immune related complications.
    Nano Hydroxyapatite-based Porous Composite Scaffolds are biodegradable and have osteoinductive and osteopromotive properties for bone repairing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Bone grafting involves a surgical technique where transplanted bone is utilized to repair and reconstruct bones affected by disease or injury. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The primary objective of the invention is to overcome the drawbacks of the existing remedies.
    Other alternatives have been associated with infection and immune related complications.
    Nano Hydroxyapatite-based Porous Composite Scaffolds are biodegradable and have osteoinductive and osteopromotive properties for bone repairing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
93. Question 93 of 100

    93. Question

    Consider the following statements about Heavy water :
    (1) Heavy water is radio active in nature.
    (2) Heavy Water is used as a primary coolant to transport heat generated by the fission reaction to secondary coolant, light water.
    (3) Small quantities of heavy water have been used in clinical studies and treatment of infants, lactating women and adults.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Heavy water is not radioactive. It is an oxide of deuterium (D2O) which is a stable isotope of hydrogen.
    Statement 2 is correct:
    Heat energy produced in the fission reactor will be removed by coolant. Water is an excellent coolant that can remove the heat from the feed. Heavy Water is used as a primary coolant to transport heat generated by the fission reaction to secondary coolant, light water.
    In Gas cooled reactors carbon dioxide gas is used as coolant. Coolant transports heat to secondary coolant, i.e. water for generation of steam at an appropriate pressure for running steam turbines. Steam turbines drive generators to generate Electricity.
    Statement 3 is correct:
    A small quantity of heavy water is not harmful to human health. In fact, human body contains few grams of heavy water as natural abundance. Small quantities of heavy water have been used in clinical studies and treatment in infants, lactating women and adults without any reported adverse effect.
    Toxic effects of heavy water begin to appear only when deuterium content of body fluids exceeds 20%, which is most unlikely event. Extremely large intake of heavy water is required for causing any noticeable harmful effect.

    Unattempted
    

    Heavy water is not radioactive. It is an oxide of deuterium (D2O) which is a stable isotope of hydrogen.
    Statement 2 is correct:
    Heat energy produced in the fission reactor will be removed by coolant. Water is an excellent coolant that can remove the heat from the feed. Heavy Water is used as a primary coolant to transport heat generated by the fission reaction to secondary coolant, light water.
    In Gas cooled reactors carbon dioxide gas is used as coolant. Coolant transports heat to secondary coolant, i.e. water for generation of steam at an appropriate pressure for running steam turbines. Steam turbines drive generators to generate Electricity.
    Statement 3 is correct:
    A small quantity of heavy water is not harmful to human health. In fact, human body contains few grams of heavy water as natural abundance. Small quantities of heavy water have been used in clinical studies and treatment in infants, lactating women and adults without any reported adverse effect.
    Toxic effects of heavy water begin to appear only when deuterium content of body fluids exceeds 20%, which is most unlikely event. Extremely large intake of heavy water is required for causing any noticeable harmful effect.
94. Question 94 of 100

    94. Question

    How many of the following situations may be observed in an economy if it has high fiscal deficit?
    (1) Crowding out of private investment
    (2) Weaker domestic currency
    (3) High Inflation
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    High fiscal deficit due to increased government borrowings pushes up interest rates. This results in crowding out of private investment.
    There is surplus of domestic currency, resulting in weakening of it.
    High fiscal deficit leading to high inflation is consequent of weaker currency. As too much money chases too few goods. Fiscal deficits arise whenever a government spends more money than it brings in during the fiscal year. Sometimes, it can cause inflation as government borrow from the RBI by the way of printing more notes. Hence it increases the circulation of money in the economy.

    Unattempted
    

    High fiscal deficit due to increased government borrowings pushes up interest rates. This results in crowding out of private investment.
    There is surplus of domestic currency, resulting in weakening of it.
    High fiscal deficit leading to high inflation is consequent of weaker currency. As too much money chases too few goods. Fiscal deficits arise whenever a government spends more money than it brings in during the fiscal year. Sometimes, it can cause inflation as government borrow from the RBI by the way of printing more notes. Hence it increases the circulation of money in the economy.
95. Question 95 of 100

    95. Question

    How many of the following components is/are looked into during the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) process?
    (1) Estimation of quantities of air emissions from the proposed project.
    (2) Identification of impacts due to any anticipated rise in noise levels on the surrounding environment.
    (3) Existing ground and surface water resources, their quality and quantity within the zone.
    (4) Impact on historical monuments and heritage site.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Depending on nature, location and scale of the project EIA report should contain all or some of the following components.
    Air Environment
    Determination of impact zone (through a screening model) and developing a monitoring network
    Monitoring the existing status of ambient air quality within the impacted region (7-10 km from the periphery) of the proposed project site
    Monitoring the site-specific meteorological data, viz. wind speed and direction, humidity, ambient temperature and environmental lapse rate
    Estimation of quantities of air emissions including fugitive emissions from the proposed project
    Identification, quantification and evaluation of other potential emissions (including those of vehicular traffic) within the impact zone and estimation of cumulative of all the emissions/impacts
    Prediction of changes in the ambient air quality due to point, line and areas source emissions through appropriate air quality models
    Evaluation of the adequacy of the proposed pollution control devices to meet gaseous emission and ambient air quality standards
    Delineation of mitigation measures at source, path ways and receptor Noise Environment
    Monitoring the present status of noise levels within the impact zone, and prediction of future noise levels resulting from the proposed project and related activities including increase in vehicular movement
    Identification of impacts due to any anticipated rise in noise levels on the surrounding environment
    Recommendations on mitigation measures for noise pollutionWater Environment
    Study of existing ground and surface water resources with respect to quantity and quality within the impact zone of the proposed project
    Prediction of impacts on water resources due to the proposed water use/pumping on account of the project
    Quantification and characterisation of waste water including toxic organic, from the proposed activity
    Evaluation of the proposed pollution prevention and wastewater treatment system and suggestions on modification, if required
    Prediction of impacts of effluent discharge on the quality of the receiving water body using appropriate mathematical/simulation models
    Assessment of the feasibility of water recycling and reuse and delineation of detailed plan in this regard
    Biological Environment
    Survey of flora and fauna clearly delineating season and duration.
    Assessment of flora and fauna present within the impact zone of the project
    Assessment of potential damage to terrestrial and aquatic flora and fauna due to discharge of effluents and gaseous emissions from the project
    Assessment of damage to terrestrial flora and fauna due to air pollution, and land use and landscape changes
    Assessment of damage to aquatic and marine flora and fauna (including commercial fishing) due to physical disturbances and alterations
    Prediction of biological stresses within the impact zone of the proposed project
    Delineation of mitigation measures to prevent and / or reduce the damage.
    Land Environment
    Studies on soil characteristics, existing land use and topography, landscape and drainage patterns within the impact zone
    Estimation of impacts of project on land use, landscape, topography, drainage and hydrology
    Identification of potential utility of treated effluent in land application and subsequent impacts
    Estimation and Characterisation of solid wastes and delineation of management options for minimisation of waste and environmentally compatible disposal
    Socio-economic and Health Environment
    Collection of demographic and related socio-economic data
    Collection of epidemiological data, including studies on prominent endemic diseases (e.g. fluorosis, malaria, fileria, malnutrition) and morbidity rates among the population within the impact zone
    Projection of anticipated changes in the socio-economic and health due to the project and related activities including traffic congestion and delineation of measures to minimise adverse impacts
    Assessment of impact on significant historical, cultural and archaeological sites/places in the area
    Assessment of economic benefits arising out of the project
    Assessment of rehabilitation requirements with special emphasis on scheduled areas, if any.
    Risk Assessment
    Hazard identification taking recourse to hazard indices, inventory analysis, dam break probability, Natural Hazard Probability etc.
    Maximum Credible Accident (MCA) analysis to identify potential hazardous scenarios
    Consequence analysis of failures and accidents resulting in fire, explosion, hazardous releases and dam breaks etc.
    Hazard & Operability (HAZOP) studies Assessment of risk on the basis of the above evaluations
    Preparation of an onsite and off-site (project affected area) Disaster Management Plan
    Environment Management Plan
    Delineation of mitigation measures including prevention and control for each environmental component and rehabilitation and resettlement plan.
    Delineation of monitoring scheme for compliance of conditions
    Delineation of implementation plan including scheduling and resource allocation.

    Unattempted
    

    Depending on nature, location and scale of the project EIA report should contain all or some of the following components.
    Air Environment
    Determination of impact zone (through a screening model) and developing a monitoring network
    Monitoring the existing status of ambient air quality within the impacted region (7-10 km from the periphery) of the proposed project site
    Monitoring the site-specific meteorological data, viz. wind speed and direction, humidity, ambient temperature and environmental lapse rate
    Estimation of quantities of air emissions including fugitive emissions from the proposed project
    Identification, quantification and evaluation of other potential emissions (including those of vehicular traffic) within the impact zone and estimation of cumulative of all the emissions/impacts
    Prediction of changes in the ambient air quality due to point, line and areas source emissions through appropriate air quality models
    Evaluation of the adequacy of the proposed pollution control devices to meet gaseous emission and ambient air quality standards
    Delineation of mitigation measures at source, path ways and receptor Noise Environment
    Monitoring the present status of noise levels within the impact zone, and prediction of future noise levels resulting from the proposed project and related activities including increase in vehicular movement
    Identification of impacts due to any anticipated rise in noise levels on the surrounding environment
    Recommendations on mitigation measures for noise pollutionWater Environment
    Study of existing ground and surface water resources with respect to quantity and quality within the impact zone of the proposed project
    Prediction of impacts on water resources due to the proposed water use/pumping on account of the project
    Quantification and characterisation of waste water including toxic organic, from the proposed activity
    Evaluation of the proposed pollution prevention and wastewater treatment system and suggestions on modification, if required
    Prediction of impacts of effluent discharge on the quality of the receiving water body using appropriate mathematical/simulation models
    Assessment of the feasibility of water recycling and reuse and delineation of detailed plan in this regard
    Biological Environment
    Survey of flora and fauna clearly delineating season and duration.
    Assessment of flora and fauna present within the impact zone of the project
    Assessment of potential damage to terrestrial and aquatic flora and fauna due to discharge of effluents and gaseous emissions from the project
    Assessment of damage to terrestrial flora and fauna due to air pollution, and land use and landscape changes
    Assessment of damage to aquatic and marine flora and fauna (including commercial fishing) due to physical disturbances and alterations
    Prediction of biological stresses within the impact zone of the proposed project
    Delineation of mitigation measures to prevent and / or reduce the damage.
    Land Environment
    Studies on soil characteristics, existing land use and topography, landscape and drainage patterns within the impact zone
    Estimation of impacts of project on land use, landscape, topography, drainage and hydrology
    Identification of potential utility of treated effluent in land application and subsequent impacts
    Estimation and Characterisation of solid wastes and delineation of management options for minimisation of waste and environmentally compatible disposal
    Socio-economic and Health Environment
    Collection of demographic and related socio-economic data
    Collection of epidemiological data, including studies on prominent endemic diseases (e.g. fluorosis, malaria, fileria, malnutrition) and morbidity rates among the population within the impact zone
    Projection of anticipated changes in the socio-economic and health due to the project and related activities including traffic congestion and delineation of measures to minimise adverse impacts
    Assessment of impact on significant historical, cultural and archaeological sites/places in the area
    Assessment of economic benefits arising out of the project
    Assessment of rehabilitation requirements with special emphasis on scheduled areas, if any.
    Risk Assessment
    Hazard identification taking recourse to hazard indices, inventory analysis, dam break probability, Natural Hazard Probability etc.
    Maximum Credible Accident (MCA) analysis to identify potential hazardous scenarios
    Consequence analysis of failures and accidents resulting in fire, explosion, hazardous releases and dam breaks etc.
    Hazard & Operability (HAZOP) studies Assessment of risk on the basis of the above evaluations
    Preparation of an onsite and off-site (project affected area) Disaster Management Plan
    Environment Management Plan
    Delineation of mitigation measures including prevention and control for each environmental component and rehabilitation and resettlement plan.
    Delineation of monitoring scheme for compliance of conditions
    Delineation of implementation plan including scheduling and resource allocation.
96. Question 96 of 100

    96. Question

    With reference to different zones of an ocean ecosystem, consider the following statements:
    (1) Littoral zone is the seashore area between the highest high tide and lowest low tide levels.
    (2) Neritic zone is rich in phytoplankton and zooplankton.
    (3) Benthic zone has limited production due to low nutrient supply.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Ocean ecosystem is a type of Marine Ecosystem. The Ocean ecosystem is divided into following major zones:
    o Littoral: This is the seashore area between the highest high tide and lowest low tide levels. Waves and tides have maximum effect on this zone. Different type of species such as algae, starfish, crustaceans are found in this zone. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    o Neritic: This is a region shallow enough (up to 200 m depth) to support plants rooted in the seafloor.
    This constitutes the edge of the continental shelf. This area is rich in the density and diversity of organism due to the penetration of light to this depth of the sea and owing to the presence of nutrients washed down from land. Due to this reason, the Neritic zone is rich in phytoplankton and zooplankton. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    o Pelagic: This is the open area below the Neritic region. On the surface of this zone, various types of phytoplankton are found. In addition, there are zooplankton along with shrimp, jellyfish etc.
    o Benthic: This forms the floor of the ocean. Production, in this zone, is limited by low nutrient supply. Most of the organisms found here are luminescent. Rooted organisms are sea lilies, sea fan, sponges etc. Snails and clams are embedded in the mud while starfish and sea urchins move on the surface. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Ocean ecosystem is a type of Marine Ecosystem. The Ocean ecosystem is divided into following major zones:
    o Littoral: This is the seashore area between the highest high tide and lowest low tide levels. Waves and tides have maximum effect on this zone. Different type of species such as algae, starfish, crustaceans are found in this zone. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    o Neritic: This is a region shallow enough (up to 200 m depth) to support plants rooted in the seafloor.
    This constitutes the edge of the continental shelf. This area is rich in the density and diversity of organism due to the penetration of light to this depth of the sea and owing to the presence of nutrients washed down from land. Due to this reason, the Neritic zone is rich in phytoplankton and zooplankton. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    o Pelagic: This is the open area below the Neritic region. On the surface of this zone, various types of phytoplankton are found. In addition, there are zooplankton along with shrimp, jellyfish etc.
    o Benthic: This forms the floor of the ocean. Production, in this zone, is limited by low nutrient supply. Most of the organisms found here are luminescent. Rooted organisms are sea lilies, sea fan, sponges etc. Snails and clams are embedded in the mud while starfish and sea urchins move on the surface. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
97. Question 97 of 100

    97. Question

    Consider the following information about a Tiger Reserve :
    (1) It is an important Tiger reserve in the Vindhyan Range.
    (2) River Ken flows through it.
    Which tiger reserve is being referred to here?
    (A) Pench Tiger Reserve
    (B) Kanha Tiger Reserve
    (C) Panna Tiger Reserve
    (D) Sariska Tiger Reserve

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Panna Tiger Reserve is a prime tiger-land Located in Vindhyan Hills in northern Madhya Pradesh. It is characterised by extensive plateaus and gorges and is a land of mesmerising waterfalls. It is the land of the Ken river, which lends it unparalleled beauty.
    It is the most important protected area in the north-central highlands.

    Unattempted
    

    Panna Tiger Reserve is a prime tiger-land Located in Vindhyan Hills in northern Madhya Pradesh. It is characterised by extensive plateaus and gorges and is a land of mesmerising waterfalls. It is the land of the Ken river, which lends it unparalleled beauty.
    It is the most important protected area in the north-central highlands.
98. Question 98 of 100

    98. Question

    Consider the following statements about medicine in Ancient India:
    (1) Jivaka was present during the times of Buddha.
    (2) Charaka is considered as the Father of Surgery.
    (3) Sushruta is considered to be the pioneer of Ayurveda.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Charaka is considered to be the principal contributor of Ayurveda. He authored the text Charaka Samhita.
    Sushruta is considered to be the Father of Surgery. He authored Sushruta Samhita.
    Jivaka was a physician in ancient India. He is believed to be the personal physician of Gautam Buddha. He gave service to the king Bimbisara.

    Unattempted
    

    Charaka is considered to be the principal contributor of Ayurveda. He authored the text Charaka Samhita.
    Sushruta is considered to be the Father of Surgery. He authored Sushruta Samhita.
    Jivaka was a physician in ancient India. He is believed to be the personal physician of Gautam Buddha. He gave service to the king Bimbisara.
99. Question 99 of 100

    99. Question

    Consider the following statements about the Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD):
    (1) The Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) represents the amount of oxygen consumed by bacteria and other microorganisms, while they decompose organic matter under anaerobic conditions.
    (2) The lower the BOD, the lower will be the amount of dissolved oxygen available for the higher animals, such as fish.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) represents the amount of oxygen consumed by bacteria and other micro-organisms, while they decompose organic matter under aerobic (oxygen is present) conditions at a specified temperature.
    The more organic matter there is (e.g., in sewage and polluted bodies of water), the greater the BOD; and the greater the BOD, the lower the amount of dissolved oxygen available for the higher animals, such as fish. The BOD is, therefore, a reliable gauge of the organic pollution of a body of water. One of the main reasons for treating waste-water, prior to its discharge into a water resource, is to lower its BOD, i.e., reduce its need of oxygen and thereby lessen its demand from the streams, lakes, rivers or estuaries into which it is released.

    Unattempted
    

    The Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) represents the amount of oxygen consumed by bacteria and other micro-organisms, while they decompose organic matter under aerobic (oxygen is present) conditions at a specified temperature.
    The more organic matter there is (e.g., in sewage and polluted bodies of water), the greater the BOD; and the greater the BOD, the lower the amount of dissolved oxygen available for the higher animals, such as fish. The BOD is, therefore, a reliable gauge of the organic pollution of a body of water. One of the main reasons for treating waste-water, prior to its discharge into a water resource, is to lower its BOD, i.e., reduce its need of oxygen and thereby lessen its demand from the streams, lakes, rivers or estuaries into which it is released.
100. Question 100 of 100

     100. Question

     Nanda Devi National Park, which was included in the list of World Heritage Sites in 1988, is in the state:
     (A) Jammu & Kashmir
     (B) Himachal Pradesh
     (C) Uttarakhand
     (D) Arunachal Pradesh

     • A
     • B
     • C
     • D
     Correct
     

     Incorrect
     

     Nanda Devi National Park is a beautiful place, located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand. The park is situated around the peak of Nanda Devi (7816). Nanda Devi National Park is a part of Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve. It was declared as a National Park in the year of 1982. Total area of the park is about 624.60 Km2. The adjoining Valley of Flowers National park and this park were recognized as World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1988. The park was further notified as World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO in 2004. Nanda Devi National Park is protected by a buffer zone covering more than 5,000 Km2.
     The Nanda Devi National Park which is characterized by a unique mix of flora and fauna is a noted spectacular wilderness areas in the Himalayas. The national park is host to more than 300 varieties of flowering species including rhododendron and juniper. Because of the altitude and weather conditions, Nanda Devi is almost devoid of vegetation.

     Unattempted
     

     Nanda Devi National Park is a beautiful place, located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand. The park is situated around the peak of Nanda Devi (7816). Nanda Devi National Park is a part of Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve. It was declared as a National Park in the year of 1982. Total area of the park is about 624.60 Km2. The adjoining Valley of Flowers National park and this park were recognized as World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1988. The park was further notified as World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO in 2004. Nanda Devi National Park is protected by a buffer zone covering more than 5,000 Km2.
     The Nanda Devi National Park which is characterized by a unique mix of flora and fauna is a noted spectacular wilderness areas in the Himalayas. The national park is host to more than 300 varieties of flowering species including rhododendron and juniper. Because of the altitude and weather conditions, Nanda Devi is almost devoid of vegetation.