1st Plan 2025 (R) : (1) Polity 1

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1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 100

   1. Question

   With reference to Liberal-Principles of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements:
   (1) To encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
   (2) To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country.
   (3) To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
   How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Liberal–Intellectual Principles: The principles included in this category represent the ideology of liberalism. They direct the state:
   — To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country (Article 44).
   — To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45).
   — To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article 48).
   — To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A). To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49).
   — To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State (Article 50).
   — To promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration (Article 51).
   Hence, all statements are Correct.

   Unattempted
   

   Liberal–Intellectual Principles: The principles included in this category represent the ideology of liberalism. They direct the state:
   — To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country (Article 44).
   — To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45).
   — To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article 48).
   — To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A). To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49).
   — To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State (Article 50).
   — To promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration (Article 51).
   Hence, all statements are Correct.
2. Question 2 of 100

   2. Question

   The “Sovereignty” of India means
   (1) No external power can dictate the government of India.
   (2) Citizens cannot be discriminated against on any grounds.
   (3) There is absolute freedom of speech and expression for Indian citizens.
   (4) All citizens have equal economic rights.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All four
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Sovereignty simply implies that India is a state that takes its own decisions ultimately guided by the people. No external agency dictates terms to India. So, 1 is correct.
   Statement 2: However, the notion of sovereignty does not seep into the framework of all democratic rights. For e.g. a sovereign state might verywell discriminate between its citizens, for e.g. as Pakistan does with all non-Muslims.
   Statement 3: Same applies for freedom of speech and expression. A sovereign state may very well restrict freedom of speech, as it is not an absolute right, even though it is vital to a democracy.
   Statement 4: This is only possible in an economic democracy.

   Unattempted
   

   Sovereignty simply implies that India is a state that takes its own decisions ultimately guided by the people. No external agency dictates terms to India. So, 1 is correct.
   Statement 2: However, the notion of sovereignty does not seep into the framework of all democratic rights. For e.g. a sovereign state might verywell discriminate between its citizens, for e.g. as Pakistan does with all non-Muslims.
   Statement 3: Same applies for freedom of speech and expression. A sovereign state may very well restrict freedom of speech, as it is not an absolute right, even though it is vital to a democracy.
   Statement 4: This is only possible in an economic democracy.
3. Question 3 of 100

   3. Question

   How many of the following laws is/are exempted from being challenged and invalidated for the violation of the Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution?
   (1) Any law that seeks to implement the Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (B) or 39 (C).
   (2) Any state law extinguishing or modifying a mining lease.
   (3) All laws placed under the Ninth Schedule.
   Select the correct option:
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Article 31A saves 5 categories of laws from being challenged and invalidated onthe ground of contravention of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 and Article 19. It includes the following:
   Acquisition of estates and related rights by the state;
   Taking over the management of properties by the state;
   The amalgamation of corporations;
   Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors or shareholders of corporations; and
   Extinguishment or modification of mining leases.
   However, it does not immunize a state law from judicial review, unless it has been reserved for the President”s assent. Under Article 31B none of the Acts and regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule will be deemed to be void on the ground that such Act is inconsistent with, or takes away, or abridges any of the rights conferred under the Fundamental Rights.
   However, in I.R Coelho case, the Supreme Court ruled that there cannot be a blanket immunity for the laws placed under the Ninth Schedule. Hence, all laws placed after April 24, 1973, under the Ninth Schedule are open to judicial review.
   The Twenty-fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971, curtailed the right to property and permitted the acquisition of private property by the government for public use, on the payment of compensation, which would be determined by the Parliament and not the courts.
   The Amendment also exempted any law giving effect to Articles 39 (B) and (C) of the Directive Principles of State Policy from judicial review, even if it violated the Fundamental Rights. In the Kesavananda Bharati v/s the State of Kerala case, the Supreme Court observed that part of the 25th Constitution Amendment, which prevented judicial review of any law that gives effect to the Directive Principles, was declared unconstitutional. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   Article 31A saves 5 categories of laws from being challenged and invalidated onthe ground of contravention of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 and Article 19. It includes the following:
   Acquisition of estates and related rights by the state;
   Taking over the management of properties by the state;
   The amalgamation of corporations;
   Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors or shareholders of corporations; and
   Extinguishment or modification of mining leases.
   However, it does not immunize a state law from judicial review, unless it has been reserved for the President”s assent. Under Article 31B none of the Acts and regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule will be deemed to be void on the ground that such Act is inconsistent with, or takes away, or abridges any of the rights conferred under the Fundamental Rights.
   However, in I.R Coelho case, the Supreme Court ruled that there cannot be a blanket immunity for the laws placed under the Ninth Schedule. Hence, all laws placed after April 24, 1973, under the Ninth Schedule are open to judicial review.
   The Twenty-fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971, curtailed the right to property and permitted the acquisition of private property by the government for public use, on the payment of compensation, which would be determined by the Parliament and not the courts.
   The Amendment also exempted any law giving effect to Articles 39 (B) and (C) of the Directive Principles of State Policy from judicial review, even if it violated the Fundamental Rights. In the Kesavananda Bharati v/s the State of Kerala case, the Supreme Court observed that part of the 25th Constitution Amendment, which prevented judicial review of any law that gives effect to the Directive Principles, was declared unconstitutional. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
4. Question 4 of 100

   4. Question

   Which of the following functions are performed by a Constitution?
   (1) To provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
   (2) To enable the government to fulfill the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.
   (3) To specify who has the power to make decisions in a society.
   (4) To set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens.
   How many of the above statements are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only three
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   o A Constitution performs the following basic functions:
   To provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
   To specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted.
   To set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that the government may never trespass them.
   To enable the government to fulfill the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.
   o Hence, all the statements are correct.

   Unattempted
   

   o A Constitution performs the following basic functions:
   To provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
   To specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted.
   To set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that the government may never trespass them.
   To enable the government to fulfill the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.
   o Hence, all the statements are correct.
5. Question 5 of 100

   5. Question

   Consider the following statements:
   (1) Fundamental Rights are positive in nature while DPSPs are negative in nature.
   (2) Fundamental Rights are automatically enforced while DPSPs require legislation for their implementation.
   (3) Fundamental Rights promote welfare of the individual while DPSPs promote the welfare of community.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Distinction Between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles:
   Fundamental Rights are negative as they prohibit the State from doing certain things while, DPSPs are positive as they require the State to do certain things. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   Fundamental Rights promote the welfare of the individual. Hence, they are personal and individualistic while, DPSPs promote the welfare of the community. Hence, they are societarian and socialistic. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
   Fundamental Rights do not require any legislation for their implementation. They are auto- matically enforced while, DPSPs require legislation for their implementation. They are not automatically enforced. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   Distinction Between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles:
   Fundamental Rights are negative as they prohibit the State from doing certain things while, DPSPs are positive as they require the State to do certain things. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   Fundamental Rights promote the welfare of the individual. Hence, they are personal and individualistic while, DPSPs promote the welfare of the community. Hence, they are societarian and socialistic. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
   Fundamental Rights do not require any legislation for their implementation. They are auto- matically enforced while, DPSPs require legislation for their implementation. They are not automatically enforced. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
6. Question 6 of 100

   6. Question

   Article 17 of Indian Constitution provides for abolition of untouchability.
   Consider the following statements in this context:
   (1) It is the only fundamental right available against State as well as private individuals.
   (2) It has defined the term “untouchability”.
   (3) It provides for Constitutional remedies for social boycott.
   How many of the above statements is/are not correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   o Statement 1 is not correct: While most of the fundamental rights are available against the state, a number of them are also available against private citizens and private corporations -:
   Article 17 (against untouchability) and Article 23 (forced labor) are available against private individuals.
   Article 15 (no discrimination against Religion, race, caste, sex, place of descent only, so economic discrimination is present) and Article 24 (child labor) are available against private corporations.
   o Statement 2 is not correct: The constitution doesn”t define the term Untouchability”.
   o Statement 3 is not correct: Untouchability refers to the social disabilities imposed on certain castes.
   Thus, it doesn”t cover the social boycott of a few individuals or their exclusion from religious service, etc.
   Hence, the practice of social boycott of a family for not permitting a lower caste in its house will not amount to practicing untouchability.

   Unattempted
   

   o Statement 1 is not correct: While most of the fundamental rights are available against the state, a number of them are also available against private citizens and private corporations -:
   Article 17 (against untouchability) and Article 23 (forced labor) are available against private individuals.
   Article 15 (no discrimination against Religion, race, caste, sex, place of descent only, so economic discrimination is present) and Article 24 (child labor) are available against private corporations.
   o Statement 2 is not correct: The constitution doesn”t define the term Untouchability”.
   o Statement 3 is not correct: Untouchability refers to the social disabilities imposed on certain castes.
   Thus, it doesn”t cover the social boycott of a few individuals or their exclusion from religious service, etc.
   Hence, the practice of social boycott of a family for not permitting a lower caste in its house will not amount to practicing untouchability.
7. Question 7 of 100

   7. Question

   Which of the following are the unitary features of the Indian Constitution?
   (1) Integrated judiciary
   (2) Single citizenship
   (3) Supremacy of Constitution
   (4) Bicameralism
   How many of the above answers is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Constitution of India is described as quasi-federal. It establishes a federal system of government. Some of the features of a federal system of government are as follows – Rigidity of Constitution,Independent judiciary ,Bicameralism, A written Constitution and Supremacy of Constitution.
   However, the Indian Constitution also contains a large number of unitary or non-federal features, like – integrated judiciary, appointment of state governor by the Centre, all-India services, single citizenship, flexibility of Constitution, a strong Centre, single Constitution, emergency provisions, etc.
   ·Integrated Judiciary- It is a Unitary feature of the Constitution where supreme court is at the top below which there is a high court in state.This single system of courts enforces both central and state laws.
   ·Single Citizenship means a person is a citizen of India only and not of the respective states.it is one of the Unitary Features.
   ·Supremacy of Constitution- Constitution is the supreme law of the land; and all state organs including parliament, judiciary, states etc. are bound by it. They must act within the limits set by the Constitution. This is a feature of the Federal system of Government.
   ·Bicameralism-is the practice of having a legislature divided into two separate assemblies, chambers, or houses. In India it is divided in Lok sabha and Rajya Sabha.It is one of the features of the Federal system of Government.

   Unattempted
   

   The Constitution of India is described as quasi-federal. It establishes a federal system of government. Some of the features of a federal system of government are as follows – Rigidity of Constitution,Independent judiciary ,Bicameralism, A written Constitution and Supremacy of Constitution.
   However, the Indian Constitution also contains a large number of unitary or non-federal features, like – integrated judiciary, appointment of state governor by the Centre, all-India services, single citizenship, flexibility of Constitution, a strong Centre, single Constitution, emergency provisions, etc.
   ·Integrated Judiciary- It is a Unitary feature of the Constitution where supreme court is at the top below which there is a high court in state.This single system of courts enforces both central and state laws.
   ·Single Citizenship means a person is a citizen of India only and not of the respective states.it is one of the Unitary Features.
   ·Supremacy of Constitution- Constitution is the supreme law of the land; and all state organs including parliament, judiciary, states etc. are bound by it. They must act within the limits set by the Constitution. This is a feature of the Federal system of Government.
   ·Bicameralism-is the practice of having a legislature divided into two separate assemblies, chambers, or houses. In India it is divided in Lok sabha and Rajya Sabha.It is one of the features of the Federal system of Government.
8. Question 8 of 100

   8. Question

   Consider the following statements with reference to the term ‘Democratic’ mentioned in the Preamble:
   (1) The democratic polity as envisioned in the Preamble is based on the doctrine of Parliamentary sovereignty.
   (2) It envisages political as well as social and economic democracy.
   (3) Article 326 of the Constitution establishes political democracy in the country.
   How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1 is not correct : The democratic polity, as stipulated in the Preamble is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, i.e. possession of supreme power by the people.
   ·The term ‘democratic’ used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.
   · Statement 3 is correct : Article 326 provides that the elections to Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies be on the basis of adult suffrage. Thus, it establishes political democracy in the country.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1 is not correct : The democratic polity, as stipulated in the Preamble is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, i.e. possession of supreme power by the people.
   ·The term ‘democratic’ used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.
   · Statement 3 is correct : Article 326 provides that the elections to Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies be on the basis of adult suffrage. Thus, it establishes political democracy in the country.
9. Question 9 of 100

   9. Question

   Consider the following reasons for the creation of Union Territories :
   (1) Political and Administrative consideration.
   (2) Cultural distinctiveness
   (3) Strategic importance
   (4) Special treatment and care of backward and tribal people.
   How many of the above answer are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only three
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The union territories have been created for a variety of reasons.
   These are:
   (1) Political and administrative consideration—Delhi and Chandigarh.
   (2) Cultural distinctiveness—Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli Daman and Diu.
   (3) Strategic importance—Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
   (4) Special treatment and care of the backward and tribal people—Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh which later became states.

   Unattempted
   

   The union territories have been created for a variety of reasons.
   These are:
   (1) Political and administrative consideration—Delhi and Chandigarh.
   (2) Cultural distinctiveness—Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli Daman and Diu.
   (3) Strategic importance—Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
   (4) Special treatment and care of the backward and tribal people—Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh which later became states.
10. Question 10 of 100

    10. Question

    With reference to the Republican feature of Indian polity, consider the following statements:
    (1) India became a republic in 1947 immediately after passing of the the Indian Independence Act.
    (2) Republican feature is borrowed from the French Constitution.
    (3) Head of the Indian state is directly elected by the people.
    Which of the statement given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o Indian Independence Act was passed in 1947.
    o It ended the British rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15, 1947.
    o It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth. The Constitution as adopted on November 26, 1949, contained a Preamble, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules. Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, temporary and transitional provisions, and short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 came into force on November 26, 1949 itself.
    o India became a federal, democratic republic after its constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950. Hence statement 1 is not correct.The remaining provisions (the major part) of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. This day is referred to in the Constitution as the date of its commencement”, and celebrated as the Republic Day.
    o Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble are borrowed from French Constitution. Hence statement 2 is correct. In a republic, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period. In India President is head of the state and is indirectly elected while in the USA, he is directly elected. The term republic” in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    o Indian Independence Act was passed in 1947.
    o It ended the British rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15, 1947.
    o It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth. The Constitution as adopted on November 26, 1949, contained a Preamble, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules. Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, temporary and transitional provisions, and short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 came into force on November 26, 1949 itself.
    o India became a federal, democratic republic after its constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950. Hence statement 1 is not correct.The remaining provisions (the major part) of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. This day is referred to in the Constitution as the date of its commencement”, and celebrated as the Republic Day.
    o Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble are borrowed from French Constitution. Hence statement 2 is correct. In a republic, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period. In India President is head of the state and is indirectly elected while in the USA, he is directly elected. The term republic” in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
11. Question 11 of 100

    11. Question

    How many of the following is/are not the feature(s) of the Regulating Act of 1773?
    (1) It is provided for the establishment of Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774).
    (2) It created executive council for Governor General of Bengal.
    (3) It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the Governor General of Bengal.
    (4) It established Board of Control for managing Political Affairs.
    Choose answer :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In 1765, the East India Company, which till now had purely trading functions obtained the ‘Diwani’ (i.e., rights over revenue and civil justice) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
    Regulating Act of 1773 is of great constitutional importance as it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
    Also, it recognized, the political and administrative functions of the Company.
    And it laid the foundations of central administration in India.
    Features of the Act are –
    It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’. First Governor General was Lord Warren Hastings.
    It created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the Governor General of Bengal (earlier the 3 presidencies were independent of one another). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) having one chief justice and three other judges. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It prohibited any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’ for the servants of the Company.
    The Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) were to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India to the British Government, thus strengthening the control of the British Government over the Company.
    Later ‘Amending Act of 1781’ or the ‘Act of Settlement’ was passed by British Parliament to correct defects in 1773 Act.
    Pitts India Act (introduced by British PM William Pitt) was passed in 1784.
    Its features were –
    It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.
    It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs.
    It created a new body,‘Board of Control’ to manage the political affairs. Thus, establishing a system of double government.
    Board of Control was to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
    Significance of the Act is that, first, the Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the ‘British possessions in India’; and second, the British Government was given the complete control over Company’s affairs and its administration in India.

    Unattempted
    

    In 1765, the East India Company, which till now had purely trading functions obtained the ‘Diwani’ (i.e., rights over revenue and civil justice) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
    Regulating Act of 1773 is of great constitutional importance as it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
    Also, it recognized, the political and administrative functions of the Company.
    And it laid the foundations of central administration in India.
    Features of the Act are –
    It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’. First Governor General was Lord Warren Hastings.
    It created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the Governor General of Bengal (earlier the 3 presidencies were independent of one another). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) having one chief justice and three other judges. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It prohibited any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’ for the servants of the Company.
    The Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) were to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India to the British Government, thus strengthening the control of the British Government over the Company.
    Later ‘Amending Act of 1781’ or the ‘Act of Settlement’ was passed by British Parliament to correct defects in 1773 Act.
    Pitts India Act (introduced by British PM William Pitt) was passed in 1784.
    Its features were –
    It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.
    It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs.
    It created a new body,‘Board of Control’ to manage the political affairs. Thus, establishing a system of double government.
    Board of Control was to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
    Significance of the Act is that, first, the Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the ‘British possessions in India’; and second, the British Government was given the complete control over Company’s affairs and its administration in India.
12. Question 12 of 100

    12. Question

    With reference to the Constitutional Monarchy, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a system of government where the power of the monarch is limited by a constitution.
    (2) By being politically neutral, Monarch may provide political stability.
    (3) Japan is the only Asian nation having the constitutional monarchy.
    Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o Constitutional monarchy is a system of government in which a monarch (king/queen) shares power with a constitutionally organized government. Constitutional monarchy differs from absolute monarchy (in which a monarch holds absolute power), in that constitutional monarchs are bound to exercise theirpowers and authorities within the limits prescribed within an established legal framework. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    o While monarchy is unelected, unlike an elected presidency, constitutional monarchy allows for certain powers of the monarch to be limited and balanced by an elected body in the form of a Parliament of elected ministers. It is often seen that constitutional monarchy possesses two central positive features:
    While presidents may see themselves in terms of a limited term of office, with them often being “retired” from other posts into the presidency, constitutional monarchy tends to involve a professional life-long commitment.
    Monarchs often do not represent specific political views, and that they provide stability or act as a symbol of the state or nation. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    o Constitutional monarchies:
    o In Europe: United Kingdom, Netherlands, Belgium, Norway, Denmark, Spain, Luxembourg, Monaco, Liechtenstein, Sweden etc.
    o In Asia: Japan, Thailand, Bhutan etc Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
    o Hence option (A) is the correct answer.

    Unattempted
    

    o Constitutional monarchy is a system of government in which a monarch (king/queen) shares power with a constitutionally organized government. Constitutional monarchy differs from absolute monarchy (in which a monarch holds absolute power), in that constitutional monarchs are bound to exercise theirpowers and authorities within the limits prescribed within an established legal framework. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    o While monarchy is unelected, unlike an elected presidency, constitutional monarchy allows for certain powers of the monarch to be limited and balanced by an elected body in the form of a Parliament of elected ministers. It is often seen that constitutional monarchy possesses two central positive features:
    While presidents may see themselves in terms of a limited term of office, with them often being “retired” from other posts into the presidency, constitutional monarchy tends to involve a professional life-long commitment.
    Monarchs often do not represent specific political views, and that they provide stability or act as a symbol of the state or nation. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    o Constitutional monarchies:
    o In Europe: United Kingdom, Netherlands, Belgium, Norway, Denmark, Spain, Luxembourg, Monaco, Liechtenstein, Sweden etc.
    o In Asia: Japan, Thailand, Bhutan etc Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
    o Hence option (A) is the correct answer.
13. Question 13 of 100

    13. Question

    Which of the following features are prescribed in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
    (1) The form of Liberty and Equality
    (2) Source of power to the legislature
    (3) Nature of Indian State
    (4) Ideals of Justice
    (5) Objectives of the Constitution
    How many of the above answers is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only four
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Following are the features prescribed in the Preamble of the Constitution:
    ● Source of the authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.
    ● Nature of Indian State: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic and Republican polity.
    ● Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.
    ● Date of adoption of the Constitution: November 26, 1949, as the date.
    ● The form of Liberties: Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
    ● The form of equalities: Equality of status and of opportunity.
    ● Ideals of Justice: Social, Economic and Political
    However, two things should be noted:
    (1) The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature (Nothing is mentioned about any of the things in the Preamble). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    (2) It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

    Unattempted
    

    Following are the features prescribed in the Preamble of the Constitution:
    ● Source of the authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.
    ● Nature of Indian State: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic and Republican polity.
    ● Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.
    ● Date of adoption of the Constitution: November 26, 1949, as the date.
    ● The form of Liberties: Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
    ● The form of equalities: Equality of status and of opportunity.
    ● Ideals of Justice: Social, Economic and Political
    However, two things should be noted:
    (1) The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature (Nothing is mentioned about any of the things in the Preamble). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    (2) It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
14. Question 14 of 100

    14. Question

    Which of the following provisions compulsorily terminates the Indian Citizenship by the Central Government through deprivation?
    (1) If the citizenship has been obtained by fraud.
    (2) If the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution.
    (3) If the citizen has, within seven years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any country for two years.
    (4) If the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.
    Select the incorrect answer using the codes given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Citizenship Act 1955 describes the “deprivation” as one of the means of loss of Citizenship which is a compulsory termination of Indian Citizenship by the Central government, if:
    i) The citizens have obtained the citizenship by fraud; Thus, statement 1 is correct.
    ii) The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India; Thus, statement 2 is correct.
    iii) The citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;
    iv) The citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any country for two years; and Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
    v) The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously. Thus, statement 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Citizenship Act 1955 describes the “deprivation” as one of the means of loss of Citizenship which is a compulsory termination of Indian Citizenship by the Central government, if:
    i) The citizens have obtained the citizenship by fraud; Thus, statement 1 is correct.
    ii) The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India; Thus, statement 2 is correct.
    iii) The citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;
    iv) The citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any country for two years; and Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
    v) The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously. Thus, statement 4 is correct.
15. Question 15 of 100

    15. Question

    In the context of India”s political system, consider the following statements:
    (1) The death or resignation of the Prime Minister automatically brings about the dissolution of the Council of Ministers.
    (2) According to the Constitution, the Prime Minister is obligated to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In India, the Prime Minister enjoys a preeminent place in the government. The Council of Ministers cannot exist without the Prime Minister. The Council comes into existence only after the Prime Minister has taken the oath of office. The death or resignation of the Prime Minister automatically brings about the dissolution of the Council of Ministers, but the demise, dismissal or resignation of a minister only creates a ministerial vacancy. The Prime Minister acts as a link between the Council of Ministers on one hand and the President, as well as the Parliament, on the other. It is this role of the Prime Minister which led Pt. Nehru to describe him as “the Linchpin of Government”.
    It is also the constitutional obligation of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. The Prime Minister is involved in all crucial decisions of the government and decides on the policies of the government.

    Unattempted
    

    In India, the Prime Minister enjoys a preeminent place in the government. The Council of Ministers cannot exist without the Prime Minister. The Council comes into existence only after the Prime Minister has taken the oath of office. The death or resignation of the Prime Minister automatically brings about the dissolution of the Council of Ministers, but the demise, dismissal or resignation of a minister only creates a ministerial vacancy. The Prime Minister acts as a link between the Council of Ministers on one hand and the President, as well as the Parliament, on the other. It is this role of the Prime Minister which led Pt. Nehru to describe him as “the Linchpin of Government”.
    It is also the constitutional obligation of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. The Prime Minister is involved in all crucial decisions of the government and decides on the policies of the government.
16. Question 16 of 100

    16. Question

    A Presidential form of government is one where the :
    (1) Head of the state is popularly elected.
    (2) Head of the state is not part of the Cabinet
    (3) Executive is responsible to the legislature.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o A Presidential System is a form of government in which the president is the chief executive and is elected directly by the people.
    In this system, all three branches – executive, legislative, and judiciary – are constitutionally independent of each other, and no branch can dismiss or dissolve any other.
    o Features of the presidential system:
    Head of the state is popularly elected. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    The head of state is also the head of the government (cabinet). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    The executive is constitutionally independent of the legislature in respect to the duration of his or their tenure and responsible to it for his or their political policies. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
    During his tenure parliament can neither appoint nor remove the government except according to the impeachment process.The president is not a part of the legislature. The president is also not merely the titular executive but he is the real executive and actually exercises the power, which the constitution and the law confer upon him. Executive power is thus vested in an independently electedpresident who is not directly accountable to or removable by the parliament. This type is found in the USA and in many Latin American countries.

    Unattempted
    

    o A Presidential System is a form of government in which the president is the chief executive and is elected directly by the people.
    In this system, all three branches – executive, legislative, and judiciary – are constitutionally independent of each other, and no branch can dismiss or dissolve any other.
    o Features of the presidential system:
    Head of the state is popularly elected. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    The head of state is also the head of the government (cabinet). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    The executive is constitutionally independent of the legislature in respect to the duration of his or their tenure and responsible to it for his or their political policies. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
    During his tenure parliament can neither appoint nor remove the government except according to the impeachment process.The president is not a part of the legislature. The president is also not merely the titular executive but he is the real executive and actually exercises the power, which the constitution and the law confer upon him. Executive power is thus vested in an independently electedpresident who is not directly accountable to or removable by the parliament. This type is found in the USA and in many Latin American countries.
17. Question 17 of 100

    17. Question

    Which of the following Supreme Court cases is/are related to disputes/conflicts between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy?
    (1) IR Coehlo Case, 2007
    (2) Golaknath case, 1967
    (3) Maneka Gandhi case, 1978
    (4) Minerva Mill Case, 1980
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 4 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 3 and 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    IR Coelho case in 2007—popularly known as the Ninth Schedule case—the Supreme Court took this further and argued that if the purpose of inserting a law into the Ninth Schedule was to undo a judgment of the Supreme Court, this could be examined by the courts. Also, the Supreme Court held that the laws placed under IX schedule after Kesavananda Bharati's judgment (24th April 1973 ) cannot be exempt from Judicial review. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Golak Nath case, 1967 – In this case, Supreme Court held that Parliament can’t take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights, which are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature. Hence, the court held that Fundamental Rights can’t be amended for the implementation of DPSPs. This led to the enactment of the 24th Amendment Act and the 25 amendment Act which inserted a new Article 31C. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Maneka Gandhi case, 1978 – It deals with rights guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. Prior to this, there was ‘procedure prescribed by law’ which was replaced by ‘due process of law’ with respect to article 21 of the Constitution. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Minerva Mills case, 1980 – In this case, Supreme Court held the primacy of DPSPs over FRs as unconstitutional and invalid. It led to the subordination of DPSPs over FRs. However, FRs conferred by Articles 14 and 19 were accepted as subordinate to the DPSPs specified under Article 39(b) and (c). Hence, statement 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    IR Coelho case in 2007—popularly known as the Ninth Schedule case—the Supreme Court took this further and argued that if the purpose of inserting a law into the Ninth Schedule was to undo a judgment of the Supreme Court, this could be examined by the courts. Also, the Supreme Court held that the laws placed under IX schedule after Kesavananda Bharati's judgment (24th April 1973 ) cannot be exempt from Judicial review. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Golak Nath case, 1967 – In this case, Supreme Court held that Parliament can’t take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights, which are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature. Hence, the court held that Fundamental Rights can’t be amended for the implementation of DPSPs. This led to the enactment of the 24th Amendment Act and the 25 amendment Act which inserted a new Article 31C. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Maneka Gandhi case, 1978 – It deals with rights guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. Prior to this, there was ‘procedure prescribed by law’ which was replaced by ‘due process of law’ with respect to article 21 of the Constitution. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Minerva Mills case, 1980 – In this case, Supreme Court held the primacy of DPSPs over FRs as unconstitutional and invalid. It led to the subordination of DPSPs over FRs. However, FRs conferred by Articles 14 and 19 were accepted as subordinate to the DPSPs specified under Article 39(b) and (c). Hence, statement 4 is correct.
18. Question 18 of 100

    18. Question

    Consider the following pairs :
    Article —- Directive Principle
    (1) Article 47 : To raise the level of nutrition & standard of living of people and to improve public health.
    (2) Article 48 : Prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds.
    (3) Article 38 : Promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order through justice—social, economic and political—and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.
    (4) Article 45 : To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 38: Promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order through justice—social, economic and political—and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.
    Article 45: Provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. (Note: 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of this article and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A.)
    Article 47: Raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health.
    Article 48: Prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds.

    Unattempted
    

    Article 38: Promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order through justice—social, economic and political—and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.
    Article 45: Provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. (Note: 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of this article and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A.)
    Article 47: Raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health.
    Article 48: Prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds.
19. Question 19 of 100

    19. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the features of the parliamentary form of India:
    (1) Watertight separation of powers between the executive, legislature, and judiciary.
    (2) The executive is responsible to the legislature. There is a collective responsibility, that is, each minister’s responsibility is the responsibility of the whole Council.
    (3) A prerequisite of this form of government is that cabinet proceedings are secret and not meant to be divulged to the public.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In the parliamentary form of the government, there will not be a watertight separation of the powers. Here the executive will be part of the legislature. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
    Executive responsible to the legislature: It is the most defining feature of the parliamentary form of the government, where executive is answerable to the legislature, unlike the presidential form of the government, where the executive is not answerable to the legislature. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
    Secrecy of procedure: A prerequisite of this form of government is that cabinet proceedings are secret and not meant to be divulged to the public. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
    Close relationship between the legislature and the executive: Here, the Prime Minister along with the Council of Ministers form the executive and the Parliament is the legislature. The PM and the ministers are elected from the members of parliament, implying that the executive emerges out of the legislature.
    Dual executive: There are two executives – the real executive and the titular executive. The nominal executive is the head of state (president or monarch) while the real executive is the Prime Minister, who is the head of government.
    Leadership of the Prime Minister: The leader of this form of government is the Prime Minister. Generally, the leader of the party that wins a majority in the lower house is appointed as the PM.
    Bicameral Legislature: Most parliamentary democracies follow bicameral legislature.
    No fixed tenure: The term of the government depends on its majority support in the lower house. If the government does not win a vote of no confidence, the council of ministers has to resign. Elections will be held and a new government is formed.

    Unattempted
    

    In the parliamentary form of the government, there will not be a watertight separation of the powers. Here the executive will be part of the legislature. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
    Executive responsible to the legislature: It is the most defining feature of the parliamentary form of the government, where executive is answerable to the legislature, unlike the presidential form of the government, where the executive is not answerable to the legislature. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
    Secrecy of procedure: A prerequisite of this form of government is that cabinet proceedings are secret and not meant to be divulged to the public. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
    Close relationship between the legislature and the executive: Here, the Prime Minister along with the Council of Ministers form the executive and the Parliament is the legislature. The PM and the ministers are elected from the members of parliament, implying that the executive emerges out of the legislature.
    Dual executive: There are two executives – the real executive and the titular executive. The nominal executive is the head of state (president or monarch) while the real executive is the Prime Minister, who is the head of government.
    Leadership of the Prime Minister: The leader of this form of government is the Prime Minister. Generally, the leader of the party that wins a majority in the lower house is appointed as the PM.
    Bicameral Legislature: Most parliamentary democracies follow bicameral legislature.
    No fixed tenure: The term of the government depends on its majority support in the lower house. If the government does not win a vote of no confidence, the council of ministers has to resign. Elections will be held and a new government is formed.
20. Question 20 of 100

    20. Question

    The Indian Model of government is also called as the 'Westminster' model of government because
    (A) Indian Constitution was made with the assistance of the British
    (B) Indian Constitution was modelled very closely on the lines of the British Constitution
    (C) India follows parliamentary form of government
    (D) The popular parliamentary house is elected.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Westminster is a place in London where the British Parliament is located. It is often used as a symbol of the British Parliament.
    The Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union government. It occupies a pre-eminent and central position in the Indian democratic political system due to adoption of the parliamentary form of government, also known as 'Westminster' model of government.
    Indian Constitution departs on a number of principles from the British Constitution namely -federalism vs unitary government; monarchy vs republic ; judicial review etc.

    Unattempted
    

    Westminster is a place in London where the British Parliament is located. It is often used as a symbol of the British Parliament.
    The Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union government. It occupies a pre-eminent and central position in the Indian democratic political system due to adoption of the parliamentary form of government, also known as 'Westminster' model of government.
    Indian Constitution departs on a number of principles from the British Constitution namely -federalism vs unitary government; monarchy vs republic ; judicial review etc.
21. Question 21 of 100

    21. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
    (1) In Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law.
    (2) In Kesavananda Bharti case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.
    (3) In the case of Union of India vs. LIC of India, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Berubari Union Case: It was used as a reference under Article 143 of the Constitution which was on the implementation of the Indo-Pakistan Agreement related to the Berubari Union and in exchanging the enclaves which were decided for consideration by the bench consisting of eight judges. Through the Berubari case, the Court stated that 'the Preamble is the key to open the minds of the makers', but it cannot be considered a part of the Constitution. Hence, it is not enforceable in the court of law. Although the Preamble is not enforceable in any court, it has significant symbolic and guiding value.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Kesavanand Bharti case: In this case, for the first time a bench of 13 judges was called to hear a writ petition. The Court said that the Preamble of the Constitution will now be considered part of the Constitution. The Preamble is not the supreme power or source of any restriction or prohibition, but it plays an important role in the interpretation of laws and provisions of the Constitution. Therefore, it can be concluded that the Preamble is the introductory part of the Constitution.
    Statement 3 is correct: In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the Supreme Court again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. It has been amended only once, in 1976. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Berubari Union Case: It was used as a reference under Article 143 of the Constitution which was on the implementation of the Indo-Pakistan Agreement related to the Berubari Union and in exchanging the enclaves which were decided for consideration by the bench consisting of eight judges. Through the Berubari case, the Court stated that 'the Preamble is the key to open the minds of the makers', but it cannot be considered a part of the Constitution. Hence, it is not enforceable in the court of law. Although the Preamble is not enforceable in any court, it has significant symbolic and guiding value.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Kesavanand Bharti case: In this case, for the first time a bench of 13 judges was called to hear a writ petition. The Court said that the Preamble of the Constitution will now be considered part of the Constitution. The Preamble is not the supreme power or source of any restriction or prohibition, but it plays an important role in the interpretation of laws and provisions of the Constitution. Therefore, it can be concluded that the Preamble is the introductory part of the Constitution.
    Statement 3 is correct: In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the Supreme Court again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. It has been amended only once, in 1976. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
22. Question 22 of 100

    22. Question

    With reference to the Constituent Assembly, consider the following statements:
    (1) Manabendra Nath Roy was the first to put forward the idea of a Constituent Assembly.
    (2) It was based on the scheme formulated by the Wavell Plan.
    (3) The representatives of British provinces were indirectly elected.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by Manabendra Nath Roy, a pioneer of the communist movement in India. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    o The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    o Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the three principal communities— Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population.
    o The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, representatives of British provinces were indirectly elected. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    o It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by Manabendra Nath Roy, a pioneer of the communist movement in India. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    o The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    o Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the three principal communities— Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population.
    o The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, representatives of British provinces were indirectly elected. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
23. Question 23 of 100

    23. Question

    In the context of Indian Polity, Consider the following statements:
    (1) The Constitution is merely a maze of rules and procedures.
    (2) Basic principle is that the government must be democratic and committed to the welfare of the people.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Objective resolution moved by Nehru in 1946, encapsulated the aspirations and values behind the Constitution.
    Based on this resolution, our Constitution gave institutional expression to these fundamental commitments: equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and a cosmopolitan identity. Thus, our Constitution is not merely a maze of rules and procedures, but a moral commitment to establish a government that will fulfil the many promises that the nationalist movement held before the people.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: The basic principle is that the government must be democratic and committed to the welfare of the people. The Constituent Assembly spent a lot of time on evolving the right balance among the various institutions like the executive, the legislature and the judiciary.
    ● This led to the adoption of the parliamentary form and the federal arrangement, which would distribute governmental powers between the legislature and the executive on the one hand and between the States and the central government on the other hand.

    Unattempted
    

    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Objective resolution moved by Nehru in 1946, encapsulated the aspirations and values behind the Constitution.
    Based on this resolution, our Constitution gave institutional expression to these fundamental commitments: equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and a cosmopolitan identity. Thus, our Constitution is not merely a maze of rules and procedures, but a moral commitment to establish a government that will fulfil the many promises that the nationalist movement held before the people.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: The basic principle is that the government must be democratic and committed to the welfare of the people. The Constituent Assembly spent a lot of time on evolving the right balance among the various institutions like the executive, the legislature and the judiciary.
    ● This led to the adoption of the parliamentary form and the federal arrangement, which would distribute governmental powers between the legislature and the executive on the one hand and between the States and the central government on the other hand.
24. Question 24 of 100

    24. Question

    In the context of Indian polity, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
    (1) Liberty conceived by the Preamble or fundamental rights is not absolute but qualified.
    (2) Indian brand of socialism is a “state socialism”.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Statement 1 is correct: The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities. Liberty as elaborated in the Preamble is very essential for the successful functioning of the Indian democratic system.
    However, liberty does not mean ‘license’ to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself the liberty conceived by the Preamble or fundamental rights is not absolute but qualified.
    The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in our Preamble have been taken from the French Revolution (1789–1799).
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic socialism’ (also known as ‘state socialism’) which involves the nationalization of all means of production and distribution and the abolition of private property. Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a ‘mixed economy’ where both public and private sectors co-exist side by side. As the Supreme Court says, ‘Democratic socialism aims to end poverty, ignorance, disease and inequality of opportunity. Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily towards Gandhian socialism.

    Unattempted
    

    ● Statement 1 is correct: The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities. Liberty as elaborated in the Preamble is very essential for the successful functioning of the Indian democratic system.
    However, liberty does not mean ‘license’ to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself the liberty conceived by the Preamble or fundamental rights is not absolute but qualified.
    The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in our Preamble have been taken from the French Revolution (1789–1799).
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic socialism’ (also known as ‘state socialism’) which involves the nationalization of all means of production and distribution and the abolition of private property. Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a ‘mixed economy’ where both public and private sectors co-exist side by side. As the Supreme Court says, ‘Democratic socialism aims to end poverty, ignorance, disease and inequality of opportunity. Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily towards Gandhian socialism.
25. Question 25 of 100

    25. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act of 1858 :
    (1) It changed the designation of the Governor General of India to that of Viceroy of India.
    (2) It established a Council of India to assist the Secretary of State for India.
    (3) It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Government of India Act of 1858: Enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857, it abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown.
    Statement 1 is correct: It provided that India henceforth, was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning thus became the first Viceroy of India.
    Statement 2 is correct: It established a 15- member Council of India, to assist the secretary of state for India. The council was an advisory body. The secretary of state was made the chairman of the council.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Indian Councils Act of 1861 empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council.

    Unattempted
    

    Government of India Act of 1858: Enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857, it abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown.
    Statement 1 is correct: It provided that India henceforth, was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning thus became the first Viceroy of India.
    Statement 2 is correct: It established a 15- member Council of India, to assist the secretary of state for India. The council was an advisory body. The secretary of state was made the chairman of the council.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Indian Councils Act of 1861 empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council.
26. Question 26 of 100

    26. Question

    With reference to the India Independence Act, 1947, consider the following statements:
    (1) It provided that India can alter any law made by the British in relation to India, including the India Independence Act, 1947 itself.
    (2) It abolished the office of the GovernorGeneral in India.
    (3) Though it declared India as independent, it did not proclaim the lapse of British Paramountcy over Indian Princely states.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The British Crown had taken over the administration of India from the British East India Company after the Revolt of 1857. The reign of British rule in India was marked by oppression and discrimination of native Indians in the hands of the British. There was growing resentment against the British in India by the onset of the Second World War. The British, in turn, promised Indians to take measures towards self-rule for Indian support in the war.
    The following are the salient features of the Indian Independence Act 1947:
    The Act declared India as a sovereign and independent state.
    It also made provisions for the partition of the Indian state into two separate dominions of India and Pakistan on grounds of religious differences.
    The position of the Secretary of States for India was abolished.
    The office of the Viceroy was also abolished and the Act initiated for the providence of two separate Governor-Generals to be appointed for the dominions of India and Pakistan on the advice of the British Cabinet. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    The Constituent Assemblies of both the dominions were authorised to formulate their respective constitutions and also to repeal any law of the British Parliament formulated for the Indian state, including the Independence Act itself. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    The Constituent Assemblies were empowered to act as legislative bodies for their respective dominions till the time they could formulate a constitution for their state.
    It granted authority to the princely states to join either of the dominions or remain independent. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
    The governance of each dominion was to be done on the basis of the Government of India Act, of 1935.
    The British Monarch no longer had the authority to veto or ask for the bills of the Indian state.
    The Governor-General of each dominion had to act on the advice of the council.

    Unattempted
    

    The British Crown had taken over the administration of India from the British East India Company after the Revolt of 1857. The reign of British rule in India was marked by oppression and discrimination of native Indians in the hands of the British. There was growing resentment against the British in India by the onset of the Second World War. The British, in turn, promised Indians to take measures towards self-rule for Indian support in the war.
    The following are the salient features of the Indian Independence Act 1947:
    The Act declared India as a sovereign and independent state.
    It also made provisions for the partition of the Indian state into two separate dominions of India and Pakistan on grounds of religious differences.
    The position of the Secretary of States for India was abolished.
    The office of the Viceroy was also abolished and the Act initiated for the providence of two separate Governor-Generals to be appointed for the dominions of India and Pakistan on the advice of the British Cabinet. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    The Constituent Assemblies of both the dominions were authorised to formulate their respective constitutions and also to repeal any law of the British Parliament formulated for the Indian state, including the Independence Act itself. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    The Constituent Assemblies were empowered to act as legislative bodies for their respective dominions till the time they could formulate a constitution for their state.
    It granted authority to the princely states to join either of the dominions or remain independent. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
    The governance of each dominion was to be done on the basis of the Government of India Act, of 1935.
    The British Monarch no longer had the authority to veto or ask for the bills of the Indian state.
    The Governor-General of each dominion had to act on the advice of the council.
27. Question 27 of 100

    27. Question

    Consider the following statements about the Parliament's power to reorganise the States :
    (1) A State reorganisation bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
    (2) The Home Minister must send the bill to the Governor concerned for his ratification.
    (3) If a state legislature unanimously opposes reorganisation of the state concerned, the bill is sent to the Supreme Court for a review.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is Correct: It is mentioned as a condition in Article 3 of the constitution. Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard:
    A bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
    Before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
    The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time.
    Further, it is not necessary to make a fresh reference to the state legislature every time an amendment to the bill is moved and accepted in Parliament.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no such provision. The division of Andhra Pradesh took place despite the opposition of the state legislature.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is Correct: It is mentioned as a condition in Article 3 of the constitution. Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard:
    A bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
    Before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
    The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time.
    Further, it is not necessary to make a fresh reference to the state legislature every time an amendment to the bill is moved and accepted in Parliament.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no such provision. The division of Andhra Pradesh took place despite the opposition of the state legislature.
28. Question 28 of 100

    28. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) In the USA, a citizen by birth, as well as a naturalized citizen, is eligible for the office of President.
    (2) In India, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President.
    Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In India, both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President while in the USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President. Hence, both statements are incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    In India, both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President while in the USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President. Hence, both statements are incorrect.
29. Question 29 of 100

    29. Question

    Which of the following directive principles cannot be challenged for violating the right to equality under Article 14?
    (1) Equitable distribution of the community material resources
    (2) Equal pay for equal work for men and women.
    (3) Preventing the concentration of wealth.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1,2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Directives in Part IV of the Constitution were not enforceable in any manner under the original Constitution.
    However, in order to accord primacy to some of the directives over Fundamental rights, the 25th Amendment Act inserted a new Article 31C which contained the following two provisions:
    o No law which seeks to implement the socialistic Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c) shall be void on the ground of contravention of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 (equality before law and equal protection of laws) or Article 19 (protection of six rights in respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc).
    o Article 39 (b) – They direct the state to secure the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good.
    o Article 39 (c) – They direct the state to prevent the concentration of wealth and means of production
    ● No law containing a declaration for giving effect to such a policy shall be questioned in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy. However this provision was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case(1980).

    Unattempted
    

    ● Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Directives in Part IV of the Constitution were not enforceable in any manner under the original Constitution.
    However, in order to accord primacy to some of the directives over Fundamental rights, the 25th Amendment Act inserted a new Article 31C which contained the following two provisions:
    o No law which seeks to implement the socialistic Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c) shall be void on the ground of contravention of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 (equality before law and equal protection of laws) or Article 19 (protection of six rights in respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc).
    o Article 39 (b) – They direct the state to secure the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good.
    o Article 39 (c) – They direct the state to prevent the concentration of wealth and means of production
    ● No law containing a declaration for giving effect to such a policy shall be questioned in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy. However this provision was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case(1980).
30. Question 30 of 100

    30. Question

    With respect to Article 2, consider the following statements:
    (1) Article 2 is related to the admission or establishment of the new states into union of India.
    (2) Article 2 empowers parliament with respect to formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Article 2 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’.
    Thus, Article 2 grants two powers to the Parliament: (a) the power to admit into the Union of India new states; and (b) the power to establish new states. The first refers to the admission of states which are already in existence while the second refers to the establishment of states which were not in existence before.
    Notably, Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 3, on the other hand, relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other words, Article 3 deals with the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Article 2 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’.
    Thus, Article 2 grants two powers to the Parliament: (a) the power to admit into the Union of India new states; and (b) the power to establish new states. The first refers to the admission of states which are already in existence while the second refers to the establishment of states which were not in existence before.
    Notably, Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 3, on the other hand, relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other words, Article 3 deals with the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India.
31. Question 31 of 100

    31. Question

    As per Article 1 of the Constitution of India, India is a “Union of states”.
    Which of the following best describes this?
    (A) It includes both States as well as Union Territories.
    (B) India is a destructible Union of States.
    (C) The Union Territories are not included in the term Union of States.
    (D) India is a federation of states based on American Model of Federation.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The term “Territory of India” refers to both the Statesand the Union Territories, as well as any new territories that India may acquire. Hence, option A is incorrect.
    The Federation of the USAwas a political agreement between the different independent states where states can separate anytime while the federation of India is an indestructible Union of States. Hence, option B is incorrect.
    Notably, the ‘Territory of India’ is a broader expression than the ‘Union of India,’ because the latter includes only states, whereas the former includes not only states, but also union territories and territories that the Government of India may acquire at any time in the future. Hence, option C is correct.
    The Federation of India is not the result of a political agreement between the different independent states as the federation of the USA. Hence, option D is incorrect.
    These representatives played a crucial role in the constitutional discussions and the framing of the Indian Constitution, ensuring that the interests and concerns of the princely states were considered during the constitution-making process.

    Unattempted
    

    The term “Territory of India” refers to both the Statesand the Union Territories, as well as any new territories that India may acquire. Hence, option A is incorrect.
    The Federation of the USAwas a political agreement between the different independent states where states can separate anytime while the federation of India is an indestructible Union of States. Hence, option B is incorrect.
    Notably, the ‘Territory of India’ is a broader expression than the ‘Union of India,’ because the latter includes only states, whereas the former includes not only states, but also union territories and territories that the Government of India may acquire at any time in the future. Hence, option C is correct.
    The Federation of India is not the result of a political agreement between the different independent states as the federation of the USA. Hence, option D is incorrect.
    These representatives played a crucial role in the constitutional discussions and the framing of the Indian Constitution, ensuring that the interests and concerns of the princely states were considered during the constitution-making process.
32. Question 32 of 100

    32. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) Political equality involves granting equal citizenship to all the members of the state.
    (2) Social equality involves guaranteeing certain minimum conditions of life to all the members of the society.
    (3) Economic equality involves guaranteeing absolute equality of wealth or income to all the members of the state.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 2 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    While identifying different kinds of inequalities that exist in the society, various thinkers and ideologies have highlighted three main dimensions of equality, viz., political, social and economic. It is only by addressing each of these three different dimensions of equality can we move towards a more just and equal society.
    Political Equality – In democratic societies political equality would normally include granting equal citizenship to all the members of the state. Equal citizenship brings with it certain basic rights, such as the right to vote, the freedom of expression, movement and association and the freedom of belief.
    These are the rights which are considered necessary to enable the citizens to develop themselves and participate in the affairs of the state. But they are legal rights, guaranteed by the Constitution and laws.
    We know that considerable inequality can exist even in the countries which grant equal rights to all the citizens. These inequalities are often the result of differences in the resources and opportunities which are available to the citizens in the social and economic spheres. For this reason, a demand is often made for equal opportunities, or for “a level playing field”. But we should remember that, although political and legal equality by itself may not be sufficient to build a just and egalitarian society, it is certainly an important component of it.
    Social Equality – Political equality or equality before the law is an important first step in the pursuit of equality, but it often needs to be supplemented by the equality of opportunities. While the former is necessary to remove any legal hurdles which might exclude the people from a voice in the government and deny them access to the available social goods, the pursuit of equality requires that the people belonging to different groups and communities also have a fair and equal chance to compete for those goods and opportunities.
    For this, it is necessary to minimize the effects of social and economic inequalities and guarantee certain minimum conditions of life to all the members of the society — adequate health care, the opportunity for good education, adequate nourishment and a minimum wage, among other things. In the absence of such facilities, it is exceedingly difficult for all the members of the society to compete on equal terms. Where the equality of opportunity does not exist, a huge pool of potential talent tends to be wasted in the society. In India, a special problem regarding equal opportunities comes not just from the lack of facilities, but from some of the customs which may prevail in different parts of the country, or among different groups. Women, for instance, may not enjoy equal rights of inheritance in some groups, or there may be social prohibitions regarding their taking part in certain kinds of activities, or they may even be discouraged from obtaining higher education.
    The state has a significant role in such matters. It should make policies to prevent discrimination or harassment of the women in public places or employment, to provide incentives to open up education or certain professions to the women and other such measures. But, social groups and individuals also have a role to play in raising awareness and supporting those who want to exercise their rights.
    Economic Equality – At the simplest level, we would say that economic inequality exists in a society if there are significant differences in wealth, property or income between the individuals or the classes. One way of measuring the degree of economic inequality in a society would be to measure the relative difference between the richest and the poorest groups. Another way could be to estimatethe number of people who live below the poverty line. Of course, absolute equality of wealth or income has probably never existed in a society. Most democracies today try to make equal opportunities available to the people in the belief that this would at least give those who have talent and determination the chance to improve their condition. With equal opportunities, inequalities may continueto exist between the individuals, but there is the possibility of improving one”s position in the society with sufficient effort.
    Inequalities which are entrenched,
    i.e., which remain relatively untouched over generations, are more dangerous for a society. If, in a society, certain classes of people have enjoyed considerable wealth and the power which goes with it, over generations, the society would become divided between those classes and others, who have remained poor over generations.
    Over time, such class differences can give rise to resentment and violence. Because of the power of the wealthy classes, it might prove difficult to reform such a society to make it more open and egalitarian.

    Unattempted
    

    While identifying different kinds of inequalities that exist in the society, various thinkers and ideologies have highlighted three main dimensions of equality, viz., political, social and economic. It is only by addressing each of these three different dimensions of equality can we move towards a more just and equal society.
    Political Equality – In democratic societies political equality would normally include granting equal citizenship to all the members of the state. Equal citizenship brings with it certain basic rights, such as the right to vote, the freedom of expression, movement and association and the freedom of belief.
    These are the rights which are considered necessary to enable the citizens to develop themselves and participate in the affairs of the state. But they are legal rights, guaranteed by the Constitution and laws.
    We know that considerable inequality can exist even in the countries which grant equal rights to all the citizens. These inequalities are often the result of differences in the resources and opportunities which are available to the citizens in the social and economic spheres. For this reason, a demand is often made for equal opportunities, or for “a level playing field”. But we should remember that, although political and legal equality by itself may not be sufficient to build a just and egalitarian society, it is certainly an important component of it.
    Social Equality – Political equality or equality before the law is an important first step in the pursuit of equality, but it often needs to be supplemented by the equality of opportunities. While the former is necessary to remove any legal hurdles which might exclude the people from a voice in the government and deny them access to the available social goods, the pursuit of equality requires that the people belonging to different groups and communities also have a fair and equal chance to compete for those goods and opportunities.
    For this, it is necessary to minimize the effects of social and economic inequalities and guarantee certain minimum conditions of life to all the members of the society — adequate health care, the opportunity for good education, adequate nourishment and a minimum wage, among other things. In the absence of such facilities, it is exceedingly difficult for all the members of the society to compete on equal terms. Where the equality of opportunity does not exist, a huge pool of potential talent tends to be wasted in the society. In India, a special problem regarding equal opportunities comes not just from the lack of facilities, but from some of the customs which may prevail in different parts of the country, or among different groups. Women, for instance, may not enjoy equal rights of inheritance in some groups, or there may be social prohibitions regarding their taking part in certain kinds of activities, or they may even be discouraged from obtaining higher education.
    The state has a significant role in such matters. It should make policies to prevent discrimination or harassment of the women in public places or employment, to provide incentives to open up education or certain professions to the women and other such measures. But, social groups and individuals also have a role to play in raising awareness and supporting those who want to exercise their rights.
    Economic Equality – At the simplest level, we would say that economic inequality exists in a society if there are significant differences in wealth, property or income between the individuals or the classes. One way of measuring the degree of economic inequality in a society would be to measure the relative difference between the richest and the poorest groups. Another way could be to estimatethe number of people who live below the poverty line. Of course, absolute equality of wealth or income has probably never existed in a society. Most democracies today try to make equal opportunities available to the people in the belief that this would at least give those who have talent and determination the chance to improve their condition. With equal opportunities, inequalities may continueto exist between the individuals, but there is the possibility of improving one”s position in the society with sufficient effort.
    Inequalities which are entrenched,
    i.e., which remain relatively untouched over generations, are more dangerous for a society. If, in a society, certain classes of people have enjoyed considerable wealth and the power which goes with it, over generations, the society would become divided between those classes and others, who have remained poor over generations.
    Over time, such class differences can give rise to resentment and violence. Because of the power of the wealthy classes, it might prove difficult to reform such a society to make it more open and egalitarian.
33. Question 33 of 100

    33. Question

    With reference to the Charter Act of 1833, consider the following statements :
    (1) The governor of Bombay was deprived of its legislative powers.
    (2) Governor of Madras was vested with all civil and military powers.
    (3) It made Warren Hastings the first GovernorGeneral of India.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Through this Act the governors of Bombay and Madras were deprived of their legislative powers and Governor-General of India was vested with the same for the entire India.
    Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: This Act made Governor-General of Bengal as the GovernorGeneral of India and vested in him all the civil and military powers. Lord William Bentick was the first Governor- General of India while Lord Warren Hastings was the first Governor-General of Bengal.
    Features of the Charter Act of 1833:
    Act made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India (Lord William Bentick) and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
    Act deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers and vested upon the Governor-General of India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
    Act ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Through this Act the governors of Bombay and Madras were deprived of their legislative powers and Governor-General of India was vested with the same for the entire India.
    Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: This Act made Governor-General of Bengal as the GovernorGeneral of India and vested in him all the civil and military powers. Lord William Bentick was the first Governor- General of India while Lord Warren Hastings was the first Governor-General of Bengal.
    Features of the Charter Act of 1833:
    Act made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India (Lord William Bentick) and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
    Act deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers and vested upon the Governor-General of India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
    Act ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
34. Question 34 of 100

    34. Question

    How many of the following was/were the major points of the Objectives Resolution, introduced in the Constituent Assembly?
    (1) Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government, except those assigned to the Union.
    (2) All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India shall flow from its Constitution.
    (3) All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured equality of status and opportunities along with equality before law.
    Select the correct answer :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Territories forming the Union, shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government, except those assigned to the Union. The states thus derive power directly from the constitution. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
    It shall flow from its people based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
    As per the resolution, all people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before law; and fundamental freedoms – of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action – subject to law and public morality. Hence, Statement 3 is correct,

    Unattempted
    

    Territories forming the Union, shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government, except those assigned to the Union. The states thus derive power directly from the constitution. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
    It shall flow from its people based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
    As per the resolution, all people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before law; and fundamental freedoms – of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action – subject to law and public morality. Hence, Statement 3 is correct,
35. Question 35 of 100

    35. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Backward Classes mentioned under Article 16 of Indian Constitution:
    (1) Backward classes of citizens are defined in the Constitution.
    (2) Identification of backward classes is subject to judicial review.
    (3) Though the backwardness contemplated by Article 16 is mainly social, it needs to be both social and educational.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. Backward classes of citizens are not defined in the Constitution. In the Indian context, lower castes are treated as backwards. A caste may by itself constitute a class.
    Statement 2 is correct. Identification of backward classes is subject to judicial review.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The backwardness contemplated by Article 16 is mainly social. It need not be both social and educational

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. Backward classes of citizens are not defined in the Constitution. In the Indian context, lower castes are treated as backwards. A caste may by itself constitute a class.
    Statement 2 is correct. Identification of backward classes is subject to judicial review.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The backwardness contemplated by Article 16 is mainly social. It need not be both social and educational
36. Question 36 of 100

    36. Question

    How many of the following rights fall under “Right to religion‟ category under part III of Indian constitution?
    (1) Protection of language and culture of minorities
    (2) Right to life and personal liberty
    (3) Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
    Choose the correct answer :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o The Constitution provides for categorization of fundamental rights as follows:
    Right to equality(Articles 14-18)
    Right to freedom(Articles19-22)
    i. Protection of six rights regarding freedom of : speech and expression; assembly; associations; movement;residence; and profession (Article 19)
    ii. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
    iii. Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21). Hence option 2 is not correct.
    iv. Right to elementary education (Artile 21A)
    v. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22)
    Right against exploitation (Articles 23 and 24)
    i. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour(Article 23)
    ii. Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.(Articled 24)
    Right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28)
    i. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25). Hence option 3 is correct.
    ii. Freedom to manage religious affairs. (Article 26)
    iii. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion (Article 27)
    iv. Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions (Article 28)
    Cultural and educational rights(Article 29 and 30)
    i. Protection of interests (culture and language) of minorities (Article 29). Hence option 1 is not correct.
    ii. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30)

    Unattempted
    

    o The Constitution provides for categorization of fundamental rights as follows:
    Right to equality(Articles 14-18)
    Right to freedom(Articles19-22)
    i. Protection of six rights regarding freedom of : speech and expression; assembly; associations; movement;residence; and profession (Article 19)
    ii. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
    iii. Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21). Hence option 2 is not correct.
    iv. Right to elementary education (Artile 21A)
    v. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22)
    Right against exploitation (Articles 23 and 24)
    i. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour(Article 23)
    ii. Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.(Articled 24)
    Right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28)
    i. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25). Hence option 3 is correct.
    ii. Freedom to manage religious affairs. (Article 26)
    iii. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion (Article 27)
    iv. Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions (Article 28)
    Cultural and educational rights(Article 29 and 30)
    i. Protection of interests (culture and language) of minorities (Article 29). Hence option 1 is not correct.
    ii. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30)
37. Question 37 of 100

    37. Question

    With reference to the Indian and British Parliamentary systems, which of the following statements is incorrect?
    (A) The Head of the State in Britain (King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position, while the Head of the State (President) in India is elected.
    (B) The Parliament is supreme in British system, while Indian Parliament has limited powers due to a written Constitution.
    (C) In Britain there is a system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such system.
    (D) Both British and Indian political systems have the concept of ‘Shadow Cabinet’

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The parliamentary system in India is largely based on the British parliamentary system. However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in several aspects.
    India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system. The Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position.
    The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights.
    Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such system. Unlike in Britain, the ministers in India are not required to countersign the official acts of the Head of the State.
    ‘Shadow cabinet’ is a unique institution of the British cabinet system. There is no such institution in India.

    Unattempted
    

    The parliamentary system in India is largely based on the British parliamentary system. However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in several aspects.
    India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system. The Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position.
    The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights.
    Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such system. Unlike in Britain, the ministers in India are not required to countersign the official acts of the Head of the State.
    ‘Shadow cabinet’ is a unique institution of the British cabinet system. There is no such institution in India.
38. Question 38 of 100

    38. Question

    Consider the statements regarding the term ‘democratic’ of the Preamble:
    (1) Direct democracy known as representative democracy
    (2) The term ‘democracy’ term in broader sense incorporates social and economic democracy also.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In indirect democracy, representatives elected by people exercise the supreme power and thus carry on the government and make the laws. This type of democracy, also known as representative democracy, is of two kinds—parliamentary and presidential.
    The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.

    Unattempted
    

    In indirect democracy, representatives elected by people exercise the supreme power and thus carry on the government and make the laws. This type of democracy, also known as representative democracy, is of two kinds—parliamentary and presidential.
    The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.
39. Question 39 of 100

    39. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Rule of law states that society is governed by law and this law applies equally to all persons.
    (2) Supremacy of the constitution cannot exist unless the supremacy of the rule of law is established.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o Rule of law refers to the supremacy of law: that society is governed by law and this law applies equally to all persons, including government and state officials.
    o Following basic principles of constitutionalism, common institutional provisions used to maintain the rule of law include the separation of powers, judicial review, the prohibition of retroactive legislation and habeas corpus. Genuine constitutionalism, therefore, provides a minimal guarantee of the justice of both the content and the form of law.
    o On the other hand, constitutionalism is safeguarded by the rule of law. Only when the supremacy of the rule of law is established, can supremacy of the Constitution exist. Constitutionalism additionally requires effective laws and their enforcement to provide structure to its framework. o Hence, both the statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    o Rule of law refers to the supremacy of law: that society is governed by law and this law applies equally to all persons, including government and state officials.
    o Following basic principles of constitutionalism, common institutional provisions used to maintain the rule of law include the separation of powers, judicial review, the prohibition of retroactive legislation and habeas corpus. Genuine constitutionalism, therefore, provides a minimal guarantee of the justice of both the content and the form of law.
    o On the other hand, constitutionalism is safeguarded by the rule of law. Only when the supremacy of the rule of law is established, can supremacy of the Constitution exist. Constitutionalism additionally requires effective laws and their enforcement to provide structure to its framework. o Hence, both the statements are correct.
40. Question 40 of 100

    40. Question

    Select the incorrect merits of the parliamentary system?
    (1) Responsible Government
    (2) Wide Representation
    (3) Continuity of Policies
    (4) Stable Government
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The parliamentary system of government has the following merits:
    Harmony Between Legislature and Executive – The executive is a part of the legislature and both are interdependent at work.
    Responsible Government – The ministers are responsible to the Parliament for all their acts of omission and commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Prevents Despotism-The Executive authority is vestine group Individuals(council ofministers)and not in a single person.
    Ready Alternative Government- Incase the ruling party loses its majority, the Head of the State can invite the opposition party to form the government.
    Wide Representation – In a parliamentary system, the executive consists of a group of individuals (i.e., ministers who are representatives of the people). Hence, it is possible to provide representation to all sections and regions in the government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Some of the demerits of the parliamentary system of government:
    No Continuity of Policies – The parliamentary system is not conductive for the formulation and implementation of long term policies. This is due to the uncertainty of the tenure of the government. A change in the ruling party is usually followed by changes in the policies of the government. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Unstable Government – The parliamentary system does not provide a stable government.
    There is no guarantee that a government can survive its tenure. The ministers depend on the mercy of the majority legislators for their continuity and survival in office. A no-confidence motion or political defection or evils of multiparty coalition can make the government unstable. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The parliamentary system of government has the following merits:
    Harmony Between Legislature and Executive – The executive is a part of the legislature and both are interdependent at work.
    Responsible Government – The ministers are responsible to the Parliament for all their acts of omission and commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Prevents Despotism-The Executive authority is vestine group Individuals(council ofministers)and not in a single person.
    Ready Alternative Government- Incase the ruling party loses its majority, the Head of the State can invite the opposition party to form the government.
    Wide Representation – In a parliamentary system, the executive consists of a group of individuals (i.e., ministers who are representatives of the people). Hence, it is possible to provide representation to all sections and regions in the government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Some of the demerits of the parliamentary system of government:
    No Continuity of Policies – The parliamentary system is not conductive for the formulation and implementation of long term policies. This is due to the uncertainty of the tenure of the government. A change in the ruling party is usually followed by changes in the policies of the government. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Unstable Government – The parliamentary system does not provide a stable government.
    There is no guarantee that a government can survive its tenure. The ministers depend on the mercy of the majority legislators for their continuity and survival in office. A no-confidence motion or political defection or evils of multiparty coalition can make the government unstable. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
41. Question 41 of 100

    41. Question

    List out the importance of “constitutional structure” choose the correct option.
    (1) It is the supreme law which determines the relationship among citizens living in a territory.
    (2) It limits the powers of government.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living together in a country. Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens) and also the relationship between the people and government. A constitution does many things:
    First, it generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kind of people to live together;
    Second, it specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions;
    Third, it lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of the citizens are; and
    Fourth, it expresses the aspirations of the people about creating a good society.

    Unattempted
    

    The constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living together in a country. Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens) and also the relationship between the people and government. A constitution does many things:
    First, it generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kind of people to live together;
    Second, it specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions;
    Third, it lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of the citizens are; and
    Fourth, it expresses the aspirations of the people about creating a good society.
42. Question 42 of 100

    42. Question

    Which of the following is/are Federal features of the Indian Constitution?
    (1) Dual polity
    (2) Strong centre
    (3) Bicameralism
    (4) Independent judiciary
    (5) All India services
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) 1, 2 and 5 only
    (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (C) 3, 4 and 5 only
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The federal features of the Constitution of India
    ● Dual Polity: The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union at the Center and the states at the periphery. Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.
    The Union government deals with matters of national importance like defense, foreign affairs, currency, communication and so on. The state governments, on the other hand, look after the matters of regional and local importance like public order, agriculture, health, local government and so on.
    ● Independent Judiciary: The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Center and the states or between the states.
    ● Bicameralism: The Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Rajya Sabha) and a Lower House (Lok Sabha). The Rajya Sabha represents the states of Indian Federation, while the Lok Sabha represents the people of India as a whole. The Rajya Sabha (even though a less powerful chamber) is required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of the states against the undue interference of the Center.
    ● Other features of the Federal system of the government: written constitution, Supremacy of the constitution, division of powers, rigid constitution.
    ● Strong center and all India services are not the feature of the federal system of government.

    Unattempted
    

    The federal features of the Constitution of India
    ● Dual Polity: The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union at the Center and the states at the periphery. Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.
    The Union government deals with matters of national importance like defense, foreign affairs, currency, communication and so on. The state governments, on the other hand, look after the matters of regional and local importance like public order, agriculture, health, local government and so on.
    ● Independent Judiciary: The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Center and the states or between the states.
    ● Bicameralism: The Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Rajya Sabha) and a Lower House (Lok Sabha). The Rajya Sabha represents the states of Indian Federation, while the Lok Sabha represents the people of India as a whole. The Rajya Sabha (even though a less powerful chamber) is required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of the states against the undue interference of the Center.
    ● Other features of the Federal system of the government: written constitution, Supremacy of the constitution, division of powers, rigid constitution.
    ● Strong center and all India services are not the feature of the federal system of government.
43. Question 43 of 100

    43. Question

    Which of the following are considered as the Federal features of the Indian Constitution?
    (1) Written Constitution
    (2) Integrated Judiciary
    (3) Division of powers
    (4) Single Constitution
    (5) Integrated Election machinery
    Select the correct code:
    (A) Only 1, 2,4 and 5
    (B) Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
    (C) Only 1 and 3
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Dual Polity, Written Constitution, Division of Powers, Independent Judiciary are some of the Federal features of the Indian Constitution.
    Integrated Judiciary, Single Constitution, Integrated Election machinery, Emergency Provisions are some of the unitary features of the Indian Constitution.

    Unattempted
    

    Dual Polity, Written Constitution, Division of Powers, Independent Judiciary are some of the Federal features of the Indian Constitution.
    Integrated Judiciary, Single Constitution, Integrated Election machinery, Emergency Provisions are some of the unitary features of the Indian Constitution.
44. Question 44 of 100

    44. Question

    The word “Political Justice” is mentioned in the Indian Constitution under
    (A) the Preamble only
    (B) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
    (C) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
    (D) the Preamble and Fundamental Rights

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o Article 38 (DPSP) in the Constitution Of India 1949 says: The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.
    o Preamble of our constitution reads as follows: WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, have solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
    o Even though the objective of fundamental rights is to ensure political justice, the word “political justice” does not find mention in this part.

    Unattempted
    

    o Article 38 (DPSP) in the Constitution Of India 1949 says: The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.
    o Preamble of our constitution reads as follows: WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, have solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
    o Even though the objective of fundamental rights is to ensure political justice, the word “political justice” does not find mention in this part.
45. Question 45 of 100

    45. Question

    Consider the following statements about features of Indian Constitution:
    (1) The Constitution contains the fundamental principles of Governance and also detailed administrative provisions to administer the nation.
    (2) The political part of the Constitution has been largely drawn from the Canadian Constitution.
    (3) Indian Constitution adopted universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and the state legislative Assemblies ever since the enactment of Constitution.
    Select the correct statement/s from the code given below:
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 3 only
    (D) 1 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Those matters which in other modern democratic countries have been left to ordinary legislation or established political conventions have also been included in the constitution itself in India. The Constitution of India thus not only contains the fundamental principles of governance but also detailed administrative provisions.
    The political part of the Constitution i.e the principle of Cabinet Government and the relations between the Executive and the Legislature have been largely drawn from the British Constitution. This was largely because of familiarity with the system prevailing during colonial times.
    The Indian Constitution adopted universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies ever since enactment of the Constitution. The voting age was fixed at 21 years when the constitution was enacted. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 provided that Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age got a right to vote without any discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth and so on.

    Unattempted
    

    Those matters which in other modern democratic countries have been left to ordinary legislation or established political conventions have also been included in the constitution itself in India. The Constitution of India thus not only contains the fundamental principles of governance but also detailed administrative provisions.
    The political part of the Constitution i.e the principle of Cabinet Government and the relations between the Executive and the Legislature have been largely drawn from the British Constitution. This was largely because of familiarity with the system prevailing during colonial times.
    The Indian Constitution adopted universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies ever since enactment of the Constitution. The voting age was fixed at 21 years when the constitution was enacted. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 provided that Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age got a right to vote without any discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth and so on.
46. Question 46 of 100

    46. Question

    India is a Republic. What does this statement mean?
    (1) India can either acquire a foreign territory.
    (2) vesting of political sovereignty in the people
    (3) the absence of any privileged class.
    Select the correct answer from the code given below
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1and3only
    (D) 2 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The word sovereign implies that India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation, but an independent state. There is no authority or state above it, and it is free to conduct its own affairs (both internal and external). Being a sovereign state, India can also acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favour of a foreign state.
    The term Republic in our Preamble indicates that India has a president as an elected head. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years. A republic also means vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king·
    Moreover, it also implies the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.

    Unattempted
    

    The word sovereign implies that India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation, but an independent state. There is no authority or state above it, and it is free to conduct its own affairs (both internal and external). Being a sovereign state, India can also acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favour of a foreign state.
    The term Republic in our Preamble indicates that India has a president as an elected head. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years. A republic also means vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king·
    Moreover, it also implies the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.
47. Question 47 of 100

    47. Question

    Which among the following is not a device of direct democracy?
    (1) Referendum
    (2) Initiative
    (3) Recall
    (4) Plebiscite
    Select the correct code:
    (A) Only 1, 2 and 3
    (B) Only 1, 3 and 4
    (C) Only 1 and 3
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Democracy is of two types: direct and indirect. In direct democracy, the people exercise their supreme power directly as is the case in Switzerland.
    •There are four devices of direct democracy, namely, Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite.
    •In indirect democracy, on the other hand, the representatives elected by the people exercise the supreme power and thus carry on the government and make the laws.
    •This type of democracy, also known as representative democracy, is of two kinds: parliamentary and presidential.
    •The Indian Constitution provides for representative parliamentary democracy under which the executive is responsible to the legislature for all its policies and actions.
    •Universal adult franchise, periodic elections, rule of law, independence of judiciary, and absence of discrimination on certain grounds are the manifestations of the democratic character of the Indian polity.

    Unattempted
    

    Democracy is of two types: direct and indirect. In direct democracy, the people exercise their supreme power directly as is the case in Switzerland.
    •There are four devices of direct democracy, namely, Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite.
    •In indirect democracy, on the other hand, the representatives elected by the people exercise the supreme power and thus carry on the government and make the laws.
    •This type of democracy, also known as representative democracy, is of two kinds: parliamentary and presidential.
    •The Indian Constitution provides for representative parliamentary democracy under which the executive is responsible to the legislature for all its policies and actions.
    •Universal adult franchise, periodic elections, rule of law, independence of judiciary, and absence of discrimination on certain grounds are the manifestations of the democratic character of the Indian polity.
48. Question 48 of 100

    48. Question

    Choose the correct option out of the following features for federal government :
    (1) The Central Government can pass an order to the provincial governments.
    (2) The Central Government cannot order the State Government.
    (3) State Government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the Central Government.
    (A) Only 2
    (B) Only 1 and 3
    (C) Only 2 and 3
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Federalism in India is different from a typical federal system. It is inclined towards Central Government. It is also flexible in nature.
    Features of a federal government:
    There are two levels of government: at central and at provincial level. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    The jurisdictions and powers of both governments are specified in the constitution. State Governments are independent in their own spheres. They are answerable only to the courts of law in the country in accordance with constitution. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    Supremacy of the Constitution: Federal Government is based on the supremacy of the constitution. The constitution can not be changed unilaterally by the Central Government.
    In case of any conflict, courts act as the umpire by interpreting the constitution and powers of both governments.
    Central Government alone can not pass an order to State Government on its own. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Federalism in India is different from a typical federal system. It is inclined towards Central Government. It is also flexible in nature.
    Features of a federal government:
    There are two levels of government: at central and at provincial level. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    The jurisdictions and powers of both governments are specified in the constitution. State Governments are independent in their own spheres. They are answerable only to the courts of law in the country in accordance with constitution. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    Supremacy of the Constitution: Federal Government is based on the supremacy of the constitution. The constitution can not be changed unilaterally by the Central Government.
    In case of any conflict, courts act as the umpire by interpreting the constitution and powers of both governments.
    Central Government alone can not pass an order to State Government on its own. Hence statement 2 is correct.
49. Question 49 of 100

    49. Question

    The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. In this regard, the framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from which of the following?
    (1) The Irish Constitution
    (2) Instrument of Instructions enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
    (3) Freedom struggle of India
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 3 only
    (C) 1 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Directive Principles of State Policy are spelled out in Articles 36 to 51 in Part IV of the Constitution. The constitutional framers borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937. The provisions under the Directive Principles received inspiration from many other sources such as:
    'Instruments of instructions' were enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
    Gandhian ideology was inspired by the program of reconstruction advocated by Gandhi during the national movement.
    Great ideals inspired the national struggle for freedom.

    Unattempted
    

    The Directive Principles of State Policy are spelled out in Articles 36 to 51 in Part IV of the Constitution. The constitutional framers borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937. The provisions under the Directive Principles received inspiration from many other sources such as:
    'Instruments of instructions' were enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
    Gandhian ideology was inspired by the program of reconstruction advocated by Gandhi during the national movement.
    Great ideals inspired the national struggle for freedom.
50. Question 50 of 100

    50. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    1)In a monarchy, the head of the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a hereditary position
    2)In a republic, the head of the state is always elected directly for a fixed period
    3)The term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 1 and 2
    (C) Only 1 and 3
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A democratic polity can be classified into two categories– monarchy and republic. In a monarchy, the head of the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a hereditary position, that is, he comes into office through succession, e.g., Britain. In a republic, on the other hand, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period, e.g., USA.
    Therefore, the term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years.
    A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.

    Unattempted
    

    A democratic polity can be classified into two categories– monarchy and republic. In a monarchy, the head of the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a hereditary position, that is, he comes into office through succession, e.g., Britain. In a republic, on the other hand, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period, e.g., USA.
    Therefore, the term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years.
    A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.
51. Question 51 of 100

    51. Question

    In which of the circumstances, the judicial activism can be said in action?
    (1) The legislature and executive wings of the Government fail to discharge their duties under the Constitution and Supreme Court intervenes.
    (2) A higher court intervenes through appeals against the judgments of the lower court.
    (3) A court monitors the development in a case during the trial period and issues necessary directions.
    (4) It encourages the Public Interest Litigation and liberalizes the principle of ‘Locus Standi’.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only 1 only
    (B) Only 2 and 3 only
    (C) Only 1, 3 and 4
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The legislature and executive wings of the Government fail to discharge their duties under the Constitution and Supreme Court intervenes. – This describes a scenario where the judiciary intervenes due to the failure of other branches of government. It reflects judicial activism.
    A higher court intervenes through appeals against the judgments of the lower court. – This is a regular judicial function and does not necessarily indicate judicial activism.
    A court monitors the development in a case during the trial period and issues necessary directions. – This indicates judicial oversight and management of legal proceedings, which can be a part of judicial activism.
    It encourages Public Interest Litigation and liberalizes the principle of ‘Locus Standi’. – This reflects a proactive approach by the judiciary to allow broader access to justice and address public interest issues. It aligns with judicial activism.
    So, the correct answer is (C) Only 1, 3, and 4.

    Unattempted
    

    The legislature and executive wings of the Government fail to discharge their duties under the Constitution and Supreme Court intervenes. – This describes a scenario where the judiciary intervenes due to the failure of other branches of government. It reflects judicial activism.
    A higher court intervenes through appeals against the judgments of the lower court. – This is a regular judicial function and does not necessarily indicate judicial activism.
    A court monitors the development in a case during the trial period and issues necessary directions. – This indicates judicial oversight and management of legal proceedings, which can be a part of judicial activism.
    It encourages Public Interest Litigation and liberalizes the principle of ‘Locus Standi’. – This reflects a proactive approach by the judiciary to allow broader access to justice and address public interest issues. It aligns with judicial activism.
    So, the correct answer is (C) Only 1, 3, and 4.
52. Question 52 of 100

    52. Question

    With the reference to the Directive Principles of State policy part IV of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
    (1) To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines.
    (2) To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
    (3) To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement.
    (4) To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
    Which of the directive principles given above are based on Socialistic ideology ?
    (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 3 and 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Socialistic Principles
    ● These principles reflect the ideology of socialism.
    They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards a welfare state They direct the state:
    ● To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
    ● To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
    ● To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
    ● To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
    ● To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
    ● To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47). Etc

    Unattempted
    

    Socialistic Principles
    ● These principles reflect the ideology of socialism.
    They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards a welfare state They direct the state:
    ● To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
    ● To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
    ● To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
    ● To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
    ● To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
    ● To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47). Etc
53. Question 53 of 100

    53. Question

    Consider the following statements
    (1) It provided for the first time, for the association of Indians with the executive councils of the Viceroy and Governors.
    (2) It introduced the system of communal representation for Muslims.
    (3) It allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.
    The above mentioned provisions belongs to which of the below mentioned Acts?
    (A) Charter Act of 1833
    (B) Indian Councils Act of 1861
    (C) Indian Councils Act of 1892
    (D) Indian Councils Act of 1909

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •Indian Councils Act of 1909 is also known as Morley-Minto Reforms.
    •It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.
    •It retained official majority in the Central legislative council, but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have nonofficial majority.
    •It provided for the first time, for the association of Indians with the executive councils of the Viceroy and Governors. Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s executive council. He was appointed as the Law Member.
    •It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

    Unattempted
    

    •Indian Councils Act of 1909 is also known as Morley-Minto Reforms.
    •It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.
    •It retained official majority in the Central legislative council, but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have nonofficial majority.
    •It provided for the first time, for the association of Indians with the executive councils of the Viceroy and Governors. Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s executive council. He was appointed as the Law Member.
    •It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.
54. Question 54 of 100

    54. Question

    Which among the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/are correct?
    (1) The Right to personal liberty under Article 21 as a fundamental right has been provided against the state only.
    (2) It is violated when accused dies in the police custody due to torture by the police.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o Article 21 (Protection Of Life And Personal Liberty) states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This article is available for both for citizen and non-citizen.
    o Recently, the Supreme Court has ruled that a fundamental right under Article 19/21 can be enforced even against persons other than the State or its instrumentalities.
    Grounds: SC relied on the 2017 verdict in Puttaswamy Case that upheld privacy as a fundamental right.
    SC also referred to the landmark New York Times vs. Sullivan case.
    In this case, the US Supreme Court found that defamation law, as applied by the State against The New York Times, was inconsistent with the Constitutional guarantee of the freedom of speech and expression.
    The SC also said that this was a shift in US law from a “purely vertical approach” to a “horizontal approach.”
    The court took this view while ruling that the right of free speech and expression guaranteed under the Article 19(1)(a) cannot be curbed by any additional grounds other than those already laid down in Article 19(2).
    o Supreme Court through various judgments declared the following rights as part of Article 21:
    The right to go abroad.
    The right to privacy.
    The right against solitary confinement.
    The right against hand cuffing.
    The right against delayed execution.
    The right to shelter.
    The right against custodial death.
    The right against public hanging.
    Doctors assistance
    Hence, both the statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    o Article 21 (Protection Of Life And Personal Liberty) states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This article is available for both for citizen and non-citizen.
    o Recently, the Supreme Court has ruled that a fundamental right under Article 19/21 can be enforced even against persons other than the State or its instrumentalities.
    Grounds: SC relied on the 2017 verdict in Puttaswamy Case that upheld privacy as a fundamental right.
    SC also referred to the landmark New York Times vs. Sullivan case.
    In this case, the US Supreme Court found that defamation law, as applied by the State against The New York Times, was inconsistent with the Constitutional guarantee of the freedom of speech and expression.
    The SC also said that this was a shift in US law from a “purely vertical approach” to a “horizontal approach.”
    The court took this view while ruling that the right of free speech and expression guaranteed under the Article 19(1)(a) cannot be curbed by any additional grounds other than those already laid down in Article 19(2).
    o Supreme Court through various judgments declared the following rights as part of Article 21:
    The right to go abroad.
    The right to privacy.
    The right against solitary confinement.
    The right against hand cuffing.
    The right against delayed execution.
    The right to shelter.
    The right against custodial death.
    The right against public hanging.
    Doctors assistance
    Hence, both the statements are correct.
55. Question 55 of 100

    55. Question

    Which among the following Parts of the Constitution of India, provides the provision for protection and improvement of the natural environment?
    (1) Fundamental Rights
    (2) Directive Principles of State Policy
    (3) Fundamental Duties
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Supreme Court in order to adopt the principle of “sustainable development” and to give effect to the fundamental duties as enshrined under Article 51 (A) (g) i.e. to protect and improve the natural environment, provided the provision under Article 21 of the Part III i.e. Fundamental Rights and Article 48A of the DPSP. The Supreme Court held the “Precautionary Principle” and “Polluter Pays Principle” as acceptable as a part of the law of the country and provisioned to be implemented by the court of law.

    Unattempted
    

    The Supreme Court in order to adopt the principle of “sustainable development” and to give effect to the fundamental duties as enshrined under Article 51 (A) (g) i.e. to protect and improve the natural environment, provided the provision under Article 21 of the Part III i.e. Fundamental Rights and Article 48A of the DPSP. The Supreme Court held the “Precautionary Principle” and “Polluter Pays Principle” as acceptable as a part of the law of the country and provisioned to be implemented by the court of law.
56. Question 56 of 100

    56. Question

    Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding the Constitution of India:
    (A) The Constitution is a document that provides for the accumulation of all power only in one institution.
    (B) Enjoyment of Fundamental rights is not subjected to the fulfilment of the duties in India.
    (C) Free and Fair elections provide for the unprecedented and direct role of the citizens in policy making and its administration.
    (D) Removal of Judges by the Parliament fixes judicial accountability to the Parliament.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Constitution does not favour the monopoly or the accumulation of power under one institution. It rather promotes fragmentation of power among the various organs of government like the Legislature, executive and the Judiciary. The Constitution favours the system of internal checks and balances amongst these institutions.
    The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Fundamental duties under Article 51A in Part IV-A of the Constitution. However, the Constitution is silent on the enforcement of these duties. Hence, it does not make the enjoyment of rights conditional upon the fulfilment of the duties.
    Conduction of free and fair elections is essential for the functioning of a democracy. However, in the Indian case, citizens have a limited role in making policy decisions as Indian Constitution envisages indirect democracy and not direct. It would be unsuitable to have direct democracy for a vast diverse country like India. Hence, elected representatives play an important role in day-to-day policy decisions and running of administration.
    Judges are removed by the special majority of the two houses of the Parliament on the grounds of proved misbehaviour and incapacity. However, to ensure the independence of the Judiciary they are not accountable to the Parliament but to the Constitution itself.

    Unattempted
    

    The Constitution does not favour the monopoly or the accumulation of power under one institution. It rather promotes fragmentation of power among the various organs of government like the Legislature, executive and the Judiciary. The Constitution favours the system of internal checks and balances amongst these institutions.
    The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Fundamental duties under Article 51A in Part IV-A of the Constitution. However, the Constitution is silent on the enforcement of these duties. Hence, it does not make the enjoyment of rights conditional upon the fulfilment of the duties.
    Conduction of free and fair elections is essential for the functioning of a democracy. However, in the Indian case, citizens have a limited role in making policy decisions as Indian Constitution envisages indirect democracy and not direct. It would be unsuitable to have direct democracy for a vast diverse country like India. Hence, elected representatives play an important role in day-to-day policy decisions and running of administration.
    Judges are removed by the special majority of the two houses of the Parliament on the grounds of proved misbehaviour and incapacity. However, to ensure the independence of the Judiciary they are not accountable to the Parliament but to the Constitution itself.
57. Question 57 of 100

    57. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Constituent Assembly:
    (1) The Constituent Assembly is directly elected by the people of India through adult franchise.
    (2) The representatives of princely states never joined the Constituent Assembly.
    (3) The Constituent Assembly is a fully sovereign body from November 1946.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2 and 3
    (C) None of the above
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •The representatives to Constituent Assembly are not directly elected by people of India.
    •The representatives (to Constituent Assembly) of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
    •The representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.
    •The representatives of the princely states, who had stayed away from the Constituent Assembly, gradually joined it. On April 28, 1947, representatives of the six states were part of the Assembly.
    •The Constituent Assembly was a made a fully sovereign body by the Indian Independence Act of 1947.

    Unattempted
    

    •The representatives to Constituent Assembly are not directly elected by people of India.
    •The representatives (to Constituent Assembly) of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
    •The representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.
    •The representatives of the princely states, who had stayed away from the Constituent Assembly, gradually joined it. On April 28, 1947, representatives of the six states were part of the Assembly.
    •The Constituent Assembly was a made a fully sovereign body by the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
58. Question 58 of 100

    58. Question

    How many of the following is/are the federal features of the Indian Constitution?
    (1) Written Constitution
    (2) Division of powers
    (3) All States having an equal number of seats in the Rajya Sabha
    (4) Strong Centre
    Select the correct option:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from state to state.
    Its federal features include a written constitution, rigid constitution, distribution of powers between Centre and states, Independent judiciary, bicameral legislature etc. However, it also includes features like single citizenship, the appointment of governors, emergency provision etc which are unitary features.

    Unattempted
    

    The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from state to state.
    Its federal features include a written constitution, rigid constitution, distribution of powers between Centre and states, Independent judiciary, bicameral legislature etc. However, it also includes features like single citizenship, the appointment of governors, emergency provision etc which are unitary features.
59. Question 59 of 100

    59. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are incorrect with reference to Preamble of Indian Constitution?
    (1) Preamble is enforceable in a court of law.
    (2) This feature has been taken from the Constitution of United Kingdom.
    (3) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Ac, 1976 added two words to the Preamble – Socialist and Secular.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (A) Only1 and 2
    (B) Only2 and 3
    (C) Only1 and 3
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •Preamble of Indian Constitution is taken from American Constitution.
    •Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law.
    •It has been amended by the 42nd constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity.

    Unattempted
    

    •Preamble of Indian Constitution is taken from American Constitution.
    •Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law.
    •It has been amended by the 42nd constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity.
60. Question 60 of 100

    60. Question

    Consider the following statements
    (1) The ‘Union of India is a wider expression than ‘the ‘Territory of India’.
    (2) The names of states and union territories are mentioned in the Second schedule.
    (3) Dadra and Nagar Haveli; Goa, Daman and Diu were foreign territories before merging into India.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (A) Only 1 and 2
    (B) Only 2 and 3
    (C) Only 3
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ‘Territory of India’ is wider expression than ‘Union of India’ because latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time.
    The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the first schedule of the Constitution.
    India acquired several foreign territories such as Dadra and Nagar Haveli; Goa, Daman and Diu; Puducherry; and Sikkim since commencement of the Constitution.

    Unattempted
    

    ‘Territory of India’ is wider expression than ‘Union of India’ because latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time.
    The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the first schedule of the Constitution.
    India acquired several foreign territories such as Dadra and Nagar Haveli; Goa, Daman and Diu; Puducherry; and Sikkim since commencement of the Constitution.
61. Question 61 of 100

    61. Question

    How many one of the following statements is/are correct regarding constituent assembly?
    (1) Jawaharlal Nehru, MA Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were elected members of the Constituent Assembly of India.
    (2) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947.
    (3) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950.
    Select the correct answer using codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in 1946. Except Mahatma Gandhi and M.A. Jinnah the Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time.
    ● The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. The meeting was attended by 211 members. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly, following the French practice.
    ● Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Assembly. The Constituent Assembly held its final session on January 24, 1950. The Constitution of India was adopted on November 26,1949 and 284 members actually signed the constitution. The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950.

    Unattempted
    

    ● The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in 1946. Except Mahatma Gandhi and M.A. Jinnah the Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time.
    ● The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. The meeting was attended by 211 members. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly, following the French practice.
    ● Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Assembly. The Constituent Assembly held its final session on January 24, 1950. The Constitution of India was adopted on November 26,1949 and 284 members actually signed the constitution. The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950.
62. Question 62 of 100

    62. Question

    Which of the following statements about Article 19 of the Constitution is correct?
    (A) It originally contained seven rights.
    (B) It has been amended by first, forty-fourth and fifty-second Constitution Amendment Acts.
    (C) It is automatically suspended when a national emergency is declared on the ground of armed rebellion.
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 19 originally contained seven rights. But, the ‘right to acquire, hold and dispose of property’ was deleted by 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
    It has been amended by 1st, 16th, 44th and 97th Constitutional Amendment Acts. The 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 substituted Article 19(2) to provide reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression. 16th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963 included “the Sovereignty and integrity of India” as a restriction in exercise of rights provided under Article 19. 44th Constititonal Amendment Act, 1978 omitted Article 19(1)(f) which provided fundamental right to property. The 97th constitutional amendment act 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies.
    Under Article 358 of the Constitution, it is automatically suspended when national emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression not on armed rebellion.

    Unattempted
    

    Article 19 originally contained seven rights. But, the ‘right to acquire, hold and dispose of property’ was deleted by 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
    It has been amended by 1st, 16th, 44th and 97th Constitutional Amendment Acts. The 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 substituted Article 19(2) to provide reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression. 16th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963 included “the Sovereignty and integrity of India” as a restriction in exercise of rights provided under Article 19. 44th Constititonal Amendment Act, 1978 omitted Article 19(1)(f) which provided fundamental right to property. The 97th constitutional amendment act 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies.
    Under Article 358 of the Constitution, it is automatically suspended when national emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression not on armed rebellion.
63. Question 63 of 100

    63. Question

    Which of the following statements with reference to ‘Exceptions to Equality’ provided under Article 14 of the Constitution is correct?
    (A) The President or Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of powers and duties of his office till six months from the date of exercise of such powers and duties.
    (B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act has provided an immunity with respect to publication of substantially true reports of any proceeding of either house of Parliament.
    (C) A Member of Parliament enjoys immunity in respect of anything said in Parliament.
    (D) The President enjoys immunity in respect of any act done by him in his personal capacity, but this immunity is not provided to the Governor.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The rule of equality before law is not absolute and there are some exceptions to it.
    ·Article 361 provides following immunities to President and Governor:
    Option A is incorrect: They are not answerable to any court the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office. There is no time limit in this.
    No civil proceedings against the President or Governor shall be instituted during his term of office in any court in respect of any act done by him in his personal capacity, whether before or after he entered upon his office, until the expiration of two months after notice has been delivered to him.
    · 44th Constitutional Amendment Act has inserted Article 361A in the Constitution which provides protection to publication of substantially true reports of any proceedings of parliament and state legislatures.
    · Article 105 provides that “No member is liable to any proceeding in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in parliament or its committee”

    Unattempted
    

    The rule of equality before law is not absolute and there are some exceptions to it.
    ·Article 361 provides following immunities to President and Governor:
    Option A is incorrect: They are not answerable to any court the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office. There is no time limit in this.
    No civil proceedings against the President or Governor shall be instituted during his term of office in any court in respect of any act done by him in his personal capacity, whether before or after he entered upon his office, until the expiration of two months after notice has been delivered to him.
    · 44th Constitutional Amendment Act has inserted Article 361A in the Constitution which provides protection to publication of substantially true reports of any proceedings of parliament and state legislatures.
    · Article 105 provides that “No member is liable to any proceeding in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in parliament or its committee”
64. Question 64 of 100

    64. Question

    On which of the following grounds can an Indian lose his/her citizenship::
    (1) Conviction under terror charges
    (2) Renunciation
    (3) Termination
    (4) Deprivation
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only 1, 2 and 4
    (B) Only 2, 3 and 4
    (C) Only 1, 2 and 3
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Loss of Citizenship
    •By Renunciation Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian citizenship.
    •By Termination When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country,
    •By Deprivation It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government, if:
    othe citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud:
    othe citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India:
    othe citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with enemy during a war;
    othe citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned in any country for two years; and the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for 7years continuously.

    Unattempted
    

    Loss of Citizenship
    •By Renunciation Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian citizenship.
    •By Termination When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country,
    •By Deprivation It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government, if:
    othe citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud:
    othe citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India:
    othe citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with enemy during a war;
    othe citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned in any country for two years; and the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for 7years continuously.
65. Question 65 of 100

    65. Question

    With reference to Fundamental Rights, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) They are sacrosanct in nature and cannot be amended.
    (2) They are available against the actions of both the State and private individuals.
    (3) They act as checks against tyranny of both Legislature and Executive.
    Select the correct answer using code given below
    (A) Only 2
    (B) Only 1 and 3
    (C) Only 2 and 3
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •They are not sacrosanct and can be amended.
    •They are available against states and Private Individual also.
    •Fundamental rights put check and balances on Executive and legislature.

    Unattempted
    

    •They are not sacrosanct and can be amended.
    •They are available against states and Private Individual also.
    •Fundamental rights put check and balances on Executive and legislature.
66. Question 66 of 100

    66. Question

    How many of the following is/are features of Indian secularism as adopted in the Constitution?
    (1) Religion is a personal matter and there is no interference by the state.
    (2) Every religious denomination has the right to establish and maintain charitable institutions without any limitation.
    (3) No citizen can be denied entry into any educational institute of the state on the grounds of religion or caste.
    Select the correct answer :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the word “secular” was not initially added to the Preamble, the Indian Constitution has been secular since its inception. It has freedom of religion (Articles 25-28) and protection of the rights of minorities (Articles 29-30) as fundamental rights. However, Indian secularism is different from the Western concept of secularism, where religion is considered an individual matter and there is a strict separation between religion and the state. In India, the state may regulate economic, political and secular activities related to religious practices, for example—keeping Hindu religious institutions open to all classes.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Freedom of religion is not complete. The Constitution provides some limits on them. For example, each religious sect has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. But it is subject to restrictions of public order, morality and health.
    Statement 3 is correct: As per Art 29(2), no citizen can be denied entry into any educational institute maintained by the State only on the grounds of religion, race, caste, or any of them.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the word “secular” was not initially added to the Preamble, the Indian Constitution has been secular since its inception. It has freedom of religion (Articles 25-28) and protection of the rights of minorities (Articles 29-30) as fundamental rights. However, Indian secularism is different from the Western concept of secularism, where religion is considered an individual matter and there is a strict separation between religion and the state. In India, the state may regulate economic, political and secular activities related to religious practices, for example—keeping Hindu religious institutions open to all classes.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Freedom of religion is not complete. The Constitution provides some limits on them. For example, each religious sect has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. But it is subject to restrictions of public order, morality and health.
    Statement 3 is correct: As per Art 29(2), no citizen can be denied entry into any educational institute maintained by the State only on the grounds of religion, race, caste, or any of them.
67. Question 67 of 100

    67. Question

    The concept of Union Territories was introduced to the Indian Constitution by which of the following Acts?
    (A) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955
    (B) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
    (C) The Constitution (Eighth Amendment) Act, 1959
    (D) The Constitution (Eleventh Amendment) Act, 1961

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article-1 describes India as a ‘Union of States’. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said that the Indian federation was a “Union” because it was indissoluble, and no State had a right to separate from the Indian Union. The country is one integral unit beside the fact that it consists of different states for the convenience of administration.
    Article 1 (3) says the territory of India comprises the territories of the states, the union territories and other territories that may be acquired. The concept of union territories was not in the original version of the constitution, but was added by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956. Hence, option (B) is Correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Article-1 describes India as a ‘Union of States’. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said that the Indian federation was a “Union” because it was indissoluble, and no State had a right to separate from the Indian Union. The country is one integral unit beside the fact that it consists of different states for the convenience of administration.
    Article 1 (3) says the territory of India comprises the territories of the states, the union territories and other territories that may be acquired. The concept of union territories was not in the original version of the constitution, but was added by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956. Hence, option (B) is Correct.
68. Question 68 of 100

    68. Question

    With reference to the Indian Polity, consider the following statements :
    (1) Union of India is a wider expression than the Territory of India.
    (2) Union of India includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Statement 1 is Incorrect: According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories: 1. Territories of the states 2. Union territories 3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. The Territory of India is a wider expression than the Union of India as ‘Union of India’ includes only states.
    ● Statement 2 is Incorrect: Territory of India includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time and Union of India includes only states. The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre. The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by the Central government.

    Unattempted
    

    ● Statement 1 is Incorrect: According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories: 1. Territories of the states 2. Union territories 3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. The Territory of India is a wider expression than the Union of India as ‘Union of India’ includes only states.
    ● Statement 2 is Incorrect: Territory of India includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time and Union of India includes only states. The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre. The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by the Central government.
69. Question 69 of 100

    69. Question

    In the context of the constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) Article 2 relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India.
    (2) Article 3 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None of these

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Statement 1 is Incorrect: Article 2 deals with admission or establishment of new States:
    Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions, as it thinks fit . Article 2 grants two powers to the Parliament:
    (1) the power to admit into the Union of India new states; and
    (2) the power to establish new states.
    • The first refers to the admission of states which are already in existence while the second refers to the establishment of states which were not in existence before.
    • Also Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India. If there is any territory which is not a part of India, then that would be included into India under Article 2.. E.g. Sikkim.
    Sikkim was thus included in India under article 2.
    • Statement 2 is/are Incorrect: Article 3 provides for formation or changes into existing states of India. If there is any territory which is part of India, then that will come under article 3. Eg. Telangana .Notably, Article 3 relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India.

    Unattempted
    

    ● Statement 1 is Incorrect: Article 2 deals with admission or establishment of new States:
    Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions, as it thinks fit . Article 2 grants two powers to the Parliament:
    (1) the power to admit into the Union of India new states; and
    (2) the power to establish new states.
    • The first refers to the admission of states which are already in existence while the second refers to the establishment of states which were not in existence before.
    • Also Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India. If there is any territory which is not a part of India, then that would be included into India under Article 2.. E.g. Sikkim.
    Sikkim was thus included in India under article 2.
    • Statement 2 is/are Incorrect: Article 3 provides for formation or changes into existing states of India. If there is any territory which is part of India, then that will come under article 3. Eg. Telangana .Notably, Article 3 relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India.
70. Question 70 of 100

    70. Question

    Consider the following statements about Directive Principles of State Policy:
    (1) For determining the validity of any law, Directive Principles may be considered to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 and Article 19.
    (2) In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court has held that in case of question between fundamental rights and directive principles, fundamental rights should be given primacy.
    Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both1 and2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. The Supreme Court has ruled many a times that in determining the constitutional validity of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 or 19 and thus save such law from unconstitutionality.
    In Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. To give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution.

    Unattempted
    

    Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. The Supreme Court has ruled many a times that in determining the constitutional validity of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 or 19 and thus save such law from unconstitutionality.
    In Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. To give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution.
71. Question 71 of 100

    71. Question

    Consider the following events with reference to history of Indian Constitution:
    (1) Golaknath case
    (2) Insertion of Article 31C into the Constitution
    (3) Champakam Dorairajan case
    (4) Provisioning for Uniform Civil Code under the Constitution
    Which of the following is correct chronological order?
    (A) 3-1-2-4
    (B) 1-3-4-2
    (C) 3-4-2-1
    (D) 4-3-1-2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The provision for Uniform Civil Code has been provided under Article 44 of the Constitution which reads that “The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.”
    In the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court held that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy, the former would prevail.
    In the Golaknath case (1967), the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights.
    25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) inserted a new Article 31C – Saving of laws giving effect to certain Directive Principles.

    Unattempted
    

    The provision for Uniform Civil Code has been provided under Article 44 of the Constitution which reads that “The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.”
    In the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court held that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy, the former would prevail.
    In the Golaknath case (1967), the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights.
    25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) inserted a new Article 31C – Saving of laws giving effect to certain Directive Principles.
72. Question 72 of 100

    72. Question

    Which of the following statements about Preamble is correct?
    (A) The Preamble provides the source of authority of the Constitution.
    (B) The Preamble provides liberty of thought, expression, opportunity, belief and worship.
    (C) The Preamble has been amended only once by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
    (D) In the Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Preamble provides the source of authority of the Constitution as the people of India.
    The Preamble provides liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. ·
    The Preamble has been amended only once through 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 which added three new words— Socialist, Secular and Integrity— to the Preamble.
    In the Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. It is in the Kesavananda Bharati case that the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution.

    Unattempted
    

    The Preamble provides the source of authority of the Constitution as the people of India.
    The Preamble provides liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. ·
    The Preamble has been amended only once through 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 which added three new words— Socialist, Secular and Integrity— to the Preamble.
    In the Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. It is in the Kesavananda Bharati case that the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution.
73. Question 73 of 100

    73. Question

    Constitution of India ensures the protection of women”s rights and welfare through which of the following?
    (1) Article 14
    (2) Article 16
    (3) Article 39 (A)
    How many of the above answers is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o The provisions in the Indian Constitution which deals with women rights and their welfare are as follows:-
    Article 14 expresses that the State shall not deny to any person the equality before the law and equal protection of laws with in the territory of India.
    Article 15 (1) prohibits the State to discriminate against any citizen on the grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
    Article 15 (3) permits the State to make special provisions for women and children.
    Article 16 provides that there shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens and they shall not be discriminated on the basis of religion, race, caste and sex.
    Article 39 (A) of the Constitution provides that the state in particular direct its policy towards securing that citizen, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
    Article 39(E) of the Constitution provides that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength.
    Article 51 (A)(E) of the Constitution provides that it will be the duty of every citizen to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

    Unattempted
    

    o The provisions in the Indian Constitution which deals with women rights and their welfare are as follows:-
    Article 14 expresses that the State shall not deny to any person the equality before the law and equal protection of laws with in the territory of India.
    Article 15 (1) prohibits the State to discriminate against any citizen on the grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
    Article 15 (3) permits the State to make special provisions for women and children.
    Article 16 provides that there shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens and they shall not be discriminated on the basis of religion, race, caste and sex.
    Article 39 (A) of the Constitution provides that the state in particular direct its policy towards securing that citizen, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
    Article 39(E) of the Constitution provides that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength.
    Article 51 (A)(E) of the Constitution provides that it will be the duty of every citizen to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
74. Question 74 of 100

    74. Question

    Consider the following statements.
    Statement I: The single system of courts that enforces both central laws as well as the state laws has been adopted in India from the Government of India Act of 1935.
    Statement II: The Government of India Act of 1935 established the Federal Court of India with original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
    (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
    (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
    (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Federal Court of India was a judicial body, established in India in 1937 under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, with original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. It functioned until 1950, when the Supreme Court of India was established.
    The Federal Court had exclusive original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Central Government and the Provinces.
    Initially, it was empowered to hear appeals from the High Courts of the provinces in the cases which involved the interpretation of any Section of the Government of India Act 1935.

    Unattempted
    

    The Federal Court of India was a judicial body, established in India in 1937 under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, with original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. It functioned until 1950, when the Supreme Court of India was established.
    The Federal Court had exclusive original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Central Government and the Provinces.
    Initially, it was empowered to hear appeals from the High Courts of the provinces in the cases which involved the interpretation of any Section of the Government of India Act 1935.
75. Question 75 of 100

    75. Question

    Consider the following statements with regarding to Preamble.
    (1) American Constitution was the 1st to begin with preamble.
    (2) Preamble has been Amended only once by 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
    (3) Preamble is neither a source of power to the legislature nor a prohibition on powers of legislature.
    Choose the correct statements
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2
    (C) 1 and 3
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    American Constitution: 1st to begin with preamble.
    •Preamble of Indian Constitution is based upon Objective Resolution drafted & moved by Pandit Nehru on 13 December 1946 and adopted by Constituent Assembly on 22 January 1947.
    •Amended only once by 42 nd Amendment 1976: added 3 new words- Socialist, Secular & Integrity.
    •The preamble embodies the basic philosophy and fundamental values- political, moral and religious on which constitution is based.
    •Contains the grand and noble vision of the Constituent Assembly, and reflects the dreams and aspirations of the founding fathers of the Constitution.
    •Preamble is neither a source of power to the legislature nor a prohibition on powers of legislature.
    •It is non-justiciable – non enforceable in courts of law.
    •Preamble resembles the Declaration of Independence of the United States of America – M. Hidayatullah.
    •Preamble was enacted by the Constituent Assembly after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted to ensure its conformity with the Constitution.
    •“We the people of India” – Emphasizes that the constitution is made by and for the Indian people. It emphasizes the “concept of popular sovereignty”.

    Unattempted
    

    American Constitution: 1st to begin with preamble.
    •Preamble of Indian Constitution is based upon Objective Resolution drafted & moved by Pandit Nehru on 13 December 1946 and adopted by Constituent Assembly on 22 January 1947.
    •Amended only once by 42 nd Amendment 1976: added 3 new words- Socialist, Secular & Integrity.
    •The preamble embodies the basic philosophy and fundamental values- political, moral and religious on which constitution is based.
    •Contains the grand and noble vision of the Constituent Assembly, and reflects the dreams and aspirations of the founding fathers of the Constitution.
    •Preamble is neither a source of power to the legislature nor a prohibition on powers of legislature.
    •It is non-justiciable – non enforceable in courts of law.
    •Preamble resembles the Declaration of Independence of the United States of America – M. Hidayatullah.
    •Preamble was enacted by the Constituent Assembly after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted to ensure its conformity with the Constitution.
    •“We the people of India” – Emphasizes that the constitution is made by and for the Indian people. It emphasizes the “concept of popular sovereignty”.
76. Question 76 of 100

    76. Question

    With reference to Directive Principles, consider the following statements:
    (1) DPSPs are positive obligations on the State.
    (2) The courts can declare a law violative of any DPSPs as unconstitutional and invalid.
    (3) The concept of DPSP has been borrowed from the British Constitution.
    (4) They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) Only 1 and 4
    (B) Only 1, 3 and 4
    (C) Only 2 and 3
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    DPSPs are positive obligations on the State. The courts can’t declare a law violative of any DPSPs as unconstitutional and invalid. The concept of DPSP has been borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
    The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
    The Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.

    Unattempted
    

    DPSPs are positive obligations on the State. The courts can’t declare a law violative of any DPSPs as unconstitutional and invalid. The concept of DPSP has been borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
    The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
    The Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.
77. Question 77 of 100

    77. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the freedom of assembly under article 19 of the Constitution:
    (1) It does not include the right to strike.
    (2) It can be exercised only on public land.
    (3) It is not subject to imposition of reasonable restrictions.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The freedom of assembly under article 19 of the Constitution does not include the right to strike. Also, the assembly must be peaceful and unarmed.
    This provision does not protect violent, disorderly, riotous assemblies, or one that causes breach of public peace or one that involves arms.
    Statement 2 is correct. Every citizen has the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. It includes the rightto hold public meetings, demonstrations and take out processions. This freedom can be exercised only onpublic land.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right of assemblyon two grounds, namely, sovereignty and integrity of India and public order including the maintenance of traffic in the area concerned.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The freedom of assembly under article 19 of the Constitution does not include the right to strike. Also, the assembly must be peaceful and unarmed.
    This provision does not protect violent, disorderly, riotous assemblies, or one that causes breach of public peace or one that involves arms.
    Statement 2 is correct. Every citizen has the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. It includes the rightto hold public meetings, demonstrations and take out processions. This freedom can be exercised only onpublic land.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right of assemblyon two grounds, namely, sovereignty and integrity of India and public order including the maintenance of traffic in the area concerned.
78. Question 78 of 100

    78. Question

    Consider the following statements in context of Fundamental right of protection in respect of conviction of offenses:
    (1) It is covered under Article 22 of the Constitution.
    (2) Ex Facto law can be imposed on tax laws.
    (3) Protection against double jeopardy is available only proceeding before a court of law or a judicial tribunal.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 20 of the Constitution grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person, whether citizen or foreigner or legal person like a company or corporation.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Article 20 contains three provisions-
    i) ex-facto law
    ii) No double jeopardy
    iii) No self incrimination
    ● An ex-facto law is one that imposes a penalty retrospectively. The enactment of such a law is prohibited by first provision of Article 20.
    However this limitation is imposed only on criminal laws and not on civil laws or tax laws.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: The protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal. It is not available in proceedings before departmental or administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 20 of the Constitution grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person, whether citizen or foreigner or legal person like a company or corporation.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Article 20 contains three provisions-
    i) ex-facto law
    ii) No double jeopardy
    iii) No self incrimination
    ● An ex-facto law is one that imposes a penalty retrospectively. The enactment of such a law is prohibited by first provision of Article 20.
    However this limitation is imposed only on criminal laws and not on civil laws or tax laws.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: The protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal. It is not available in proceedings before departmental or administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature.
79. Question 79 of 100

    79. Question

    How many of the following statements is/are correct in context of enforcement of Article 32 under the Indian Constitution?
    (1) The power of the Supreme Court is original and exclusive for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
    (2) President can empower any court to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds.
    (3) It cannot be invoked to determine the constitutionality of a legislation unless it directly infringes any of Fundamental Rights.
    Select the incorrect answer using the codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In case of enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme court is original but not exclusive. It is concurrent with the jurisdiction of the high court under article 226.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Parliament can empower any other court to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds. However this can be done without prejudice to the powers conferred on the Supreme and high court.
    Statement 3 is correct: The violation of a fundamental right is the sine qua non for the exercise of the right conferred by article 32. In other words, the Supreme Court under Article 32 cannot determine a question that does not invoke Fundamental rights.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In case of enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme court is original but not exclusive. It is concurrent with the jurisdiction of the high court under article 226.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Parliament can empower any other court to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds. However this can be done without prejudice to the powers conferred on the Supreme and high court.
    Statement 3 is correct: The violation of a fundamental right is the sine qua non for the exercise of the right conferred by article 32. In other words, the Supreme Court under Article 32 cannot determine a question that does not invoke Fundamental rights.
80. Question 80 of 100

    80. Question

    The Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution have often been referred to as the “conscience” of the Indian Constitution. They help guard
    (1) Against the misuse of State power
    (2) The rights of minorities against the majority
    Which of the above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1: Fundamental Rights protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State. For e.g. the right to free speech also includes the right to criticize the government; the right to life and liberty means the state cannot take away one life without a valid law.
    Statement 2: For e.g. Articles 29-30 provide minorities with a right to conserve their religion and cultural heritage. In Niyamgiri hills Odisha (a tribal region), SC declared Vendant mining as ultra vires the constitution since it polluted the hill which was considered as sacred by the tribals. So, 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1: Fundamental Rights protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State. For e.g. the right to free speech also includes the right to criticize the government; the right to life and liberty means the state cannot take away one life without a valid law.
    Statement 2: For e.g. Articles 29-30 provide minorities with a right to conserve their religion and cultural heritage. In Niyamgiri hills Odisha (a tribal region), SC declared Vendant mining as ultra vires the constitution since it polluted the hill which was considered as sacred by the tribals. So, 2 is correct.
81. Question 81 of 100

    81. Question

    Consider the statements which is/are true regarding the princely state of Hyderabad?
    (1) It was the largest of the Princely States surrounded entirely by the Indian territory.
    (2) It was acceded to the Indian union by way of police action.
    (3) It was the first part of India to hold an election based on universal adult franchise.
    Select the answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 and 2only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3only
    (D) 1,2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Before 15 August 1947, peaceful negotiations had brought almost all stateswhose territories were contiguous to the new boundaries of India, into the Indian Union.The rulers of most of the states signed a document called the “Instrument of Accession” which meant that their state agreed to become a part of the Union of India. Accession of the Princely States of Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur proved more difficult than the rest. The issue of Junagarh was resolved after a plebiscite confirmed people”s desire to join India.
    Statement 1 is correct. Hyderabad, the largest of the Princely States was surrounded entirely by Indian territory. Some parts of the old Hyderabad state are today parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
    Statement 2 is correct. Operation Polo was the code name of the Hyderabad “police action” in September 1948, by the then newly independent Dominion of India against Hyderabad State. It was a military operation in which the Indian Armed Forces invaded the Nizam-ruled princely state, annexing it into the Indian Union.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on universal adult franchise.

    Unattempted
    

    Before 15 August 1947, peaceful negotiations had brought almost all stateswhose territories were contiguous to the new boundaries of India, into the Indian Union.The rulers of most of the states signed a document called the “Instrument of Accession” which meant that their state agreed to become a part of the Union of India. Accession of the Princely States of Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur proved more difficult than the rest. The issue of Junagarh was resolved after a plebiscite confirmed people”s desire to join India.
    Statement 1 is correct. Hyderabad, the largest of the Princely States was surrounded entirely by Indian territory. Some parts of the old Hyderabad state are today parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
    Statement 2 is correct. Operation Polo was the code name of the Hyderabad “police action” in September 1948, by the then newly independent Dominion of India against Hyderabad State. It was a military operation in which the Indian Armed Forces invaded the Nizam-ruled princely state, annexing it into the Indian Union.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on universal adult franchise.
82. Question 82 of 100

    82. Question

    How many of the following is/are the feature/s of the federal system of government?
    (1) Residuary powers left with the Center Government.
    (2) The power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies only with the Center.
    (3) Power of governor to reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President.
    (4) Power of Supreme Court for Judicial Review.
    Select the incorrect answer using the codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: The division of powers is in favor of the Center and highly inequitable from the federal angle:
    o Firstly, the Union List contains more subjects than the State List.
    o Secondly, the more important subjects have been included in the Union List.
    o Thirdly, the Center has overriding authority over the Concurrent List.
    o Finally, the residuary powers have also been left with the Center.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The process of constitutional amendment is less rigid than what is found in other federations. The bulk of the Constitution can be amended by the unilateral action of the Parliament, either by simple majority or by special majority. Further, the power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies only with the Center.
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: The governor, who is the head of the state, is appointed by the President. He holds office during the pleasure of the President. He also acts as an agent of the Centre. Through him, the Centre exercises control over the states. The governor is empowered to reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President.
    ● Statement 4 is correct: The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states. The Constitution contains various measures like security of tenure to judges, fixed service conditions and so on to make the judiciary independent of the government.

    Unattempted
    

    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: The division of powers is in favor of the Center and highly inequitable from the federal angle:
    o Firstly, the Union List contains more subjects than the State List.
    o Secondly, the more important subjects have been included in the Union List.
    o Thirdly, the Center has overriding authority over the Concurrent List.
    o Finally, the residuary powers have also been left with the Center.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The process of constitutional amendment is less rigid than what is found in other federations. The bulk of the Constitution can be amended by the unilateral action of the Parliament, either by simple majority or by special majority. Further, the power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies only with the Center.
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: The governor, who is the head of the state, is appointed by the President. He holds office during the pleasure of the President. He also acts as an agent of the Centre. Through him, the Centre exercises control over the states. The governor is empowered to reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President.
    ● Statement 4 is correct: The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states. The Constitution contains various measures like security of tenure to judges, fixed service conditions and so on to make the judiciary independent of the government.
83. Question 83 of 100

    83. Question

    Which of the following strengthens the practice of “Federalism” in India?
    (1) An independent judiciary
    (2) Principle of Subsidiarity
    Which of the above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1: To prevent conflicts between the centre and the State, there is an independent judiciary to settle disputes. The more independent the judiciary is, the more effectively it will be able to settle the disputes and enforce rule of law rather than the domination of the Centre.
    The judiciary has the powers to resolve disputes between the central government and the States on legal matters about the division of power.
    Statement 2: Certain subjects, which concern the nation as a whole, for example, defence or currency, are the responsibility of the union or central government.
    Regional or local matters are the responsibility of the regional or State government.
    Appropriate division of responsibility at the appropriate level (for e.g. local sanitationat the PRIs level and national defence at the Central level) is called principle of subsidiarity.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1: To prevent conflicts between the centre and the State, there is an independent judiciary to settle disputes. The more independent the judiciary is, the more effectively it will be able to settle the disputes and enforce rule of law rather than the domination of the Centre.
    The judiciary has the powers to resolve disputes between the central government and the States on legal matters about the division of power.
    Statement 2: Certain subjects, which concern the nation as a whole, for example, defence or currency, are the responsibility of the union or central government.
    Regional or local matters are the responsibility of the regional or State government.
    Appropriate division of responsibility at the appropriate level (for e.g. local sanitationat the PRIs level and national defence at the Central level) is called principle of subsidiarity.
84. Question 84 of 100

    84. Question

    The Central government has a constitutional duty to protect states against
    (1) External aggression and internal disturbance
    (2) Failure of Constitutional machinery
    Which of the above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1: This is a provision under A355 of the constitution. It says, “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.”
    Statement 2: President”s Rule is applied under this case under Article A356 of the Constitution.
    It can also be applied when the state government has wilfully disobeyed the directions of the Central government and disturbed the constitutional distribution of executive power.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1: This is a provision under A355 of the constitution. It says, “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.”
    Statement 2: President”s Rule is applied under this case under Article A356 of the Constitution.
    It can also be applied when the state government has wilfully disobeyed the directions of the Central government and disturbed the constitutional distribution of executive power.
85. Question 85 of 100

    85. Question

    Consider the functions of the constitution-
    (1) To provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
    (2) To provide for the manner in which the government will be constituted.
    (3) To enable the government to fulfil the aspirations of a society.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1and2only
    (C) 2and3only
    (D) 1,2and3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    All statements are correct.
    Functions of a Constitution are –
    1) The first function of a constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
    2) The second function of a constitution is to specify who has the power to makedecisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted.
    3) The third function of a constitution is to set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass them.
    4) The fourth function of a constitution is to enable the government to fulfil theaspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.

    Unattempted
    

    All statements are correct.
    Functions of a Constitution are –
    1) The first function of a constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
    2) The second function of a constitution is to specify who has the power to makedecisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted.
    3) The third function of a constitution is to set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass them.
    4) The fourth function of a constitution is to enable the government to fulfil theaspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.
86. Question 86 of 100

    86. Question

    Which of the following Acts are associated with the communal representation?
    (1) Indian Council Act, 1909
    (2) Government of India Act, 1919
    (3) Government of India Act, 1935
    (4) Rowlatt Act, 1919
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 3 and 4 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Indian Council Act, 1909 introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate.
    The Government of India Act, 1919 extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
    The Government of India Act, 1935 further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers). Hence, Option 1, 2 and 3 is Correct.
    The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government to increase their grip on power over the common folk. This law was passed in March 1919 by the Imperial Legislative Council which gave them the power to arrest any person without any trial. To abolish this act, Gandhi and the other leaders called for a Hartal (suspension of work) to show Indians’ objection to this rule, called the Rowlatt Satyagraha.

    Unattempted
    

    The Indian Council Act, 1909 introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate.
    The Government of India Act, 1919 extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
    The Government of India Act, 1935 further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers). Hence, Option 1, 2 and 3 is Correct.
    The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government to increase their grip on power over the common folk. This law was passed in March 1919 by the Imperial Legislative Council which gave them the power to arrest any person without any trial. To abolish this act, Gandhi and the other leaders called for a Hartal (suspension of work) to show Indians’ objection to this rule, called the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
87. Question 87 of 100

    87. Question

    The Constituent Assembly deliberated on a number of important issues, with many differences among the members in their views and ideas. Continuation of separate electorates for Muslims was one such issue. Consider the following statements related to it:
    (1) All the Muslim members of the Constituent Assembly supported the demand for separate electorates which was rejected by others.
    (2) It was Begum Qudsia Aizaz Rasul, the lone Muslim woman member of the Constituent Assembly, who made a powerful plea for continuing separate electorates.
    Which of the above is/are correct?
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    On 27 August 1947, B. Pocker Bahadur from Madras, made a powerful plea for continuing separate electorates.
    Not all Muslims supported the demand for separate electorates. Begum Aizaz Rasul, for instance, felt that separate electorates were selfdestructive since they isolated the minorities from the majority. Hence, both Statements are incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    On 27 August 1947, B. Pocker Bahadur from Madras, made a powerful plea for continuing separate electorates.
    Not all Muslims supported the demand for separate electorates. Begum Aizaz Rasul, for instance, felt that separate electorates were selfdestructive since they isolated the minorities from the majority. Hence, both Statements are incorrect.
88. Question 88 of 100

    88. Question

    Consider the following statements about ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ under Article 32 of the Constitution :
    (1) It provides for the right to move the Supreme Court and High Courts for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
    (2) The right to move Supreme Court cannot be suspended in any circumstance, however this can be done with respect to High Courts.
    Select the Incorrect answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both1and2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 32 provides remedies for enforcement of fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.
    Article 32(1) provides that the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by this Part. A person can move to High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution. ·
    Article 32(4) provides that the right to move the Supreme Court shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by this Constitution. This suspension is provided under Article 358 and 359 of the Constitution.

    Unattempted
    

    Article 32 provides remedies for enforcement of fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.
    Article 32(1) provides that the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by this Part. A person can move to High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution. ·
    Article 32(4) provides that the right to move the Supreme Court shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by this Constitution. This suspension is provided under Article 358 and 359 of the Constitution.
89. Question 89 of 100

    89. Question

    Consider the following statements about Directive Principles of State Policy:
    (1) They are fundamental in the governance of the country.
    (2) The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act has made them non-enforceable by any court.
    (3) They explicitly direct for separation of Judiciary from the executives.
    Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
    (A) 2and3only
    (B) 1 only
    (C) 1and3only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 37 provides that “The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.” Thus, Article 37 (included originally into the Constitution) makes it clear that DPSPs are non-enforceable by any court.
    Article 50 provides that “The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.”

    Unattempted
    

    Article 37 provides that “The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.” Thus, Article 37 (included originally into the Constitution) makes it clear that DPSPs are non-enforceable by any court.
    Article 50 provides that “The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.”
90. Question 90 of 100

    90. Question

    With reference to Composition of Constituent assembly, Consider the following statements:
    (1) The members of the constituent assembly come from British India and Governors province, No member come from Chief Commissioners province.
    (2) Seat divided among three principal communities, that is Hindu, Muslims and Sikhs.
    (3) Members from Princely state were nominated by the head of the Princely state.
    How many of the following statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were to be allotted to British India and 93 seats to the Princely States. Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the eleven governors’ provinces and four from the four chief commissioners’ provinces, one from each.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population. Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million people. Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the three principal communities— Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population.
    ● The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states. It is thus clear that the Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body. Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise.

    Unattempted
    

    ● The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were to be allotted to British India and 93 seats to the Princely States. Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the eleven governors’ provinces and four from the four chief commissioners’ provinces, one from each.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population. Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million people. Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the three principal communities— Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population.
    ● The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states. It is thus clear that the Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body. Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise.
91. Question 91 of 100

    91. Question

    With reference to Delimitation in India, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body.
    (2) This exercise is carried out by a Delimitation Commission, whose orders cannot be questioned before any court.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Delimitation is the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body to represent changes in population over time. The objective is to provide equal representation for equal population segments and a fair division of geographical areas so that no Political Party has an advantage.
    In India, the Delimitation exercise is carried out by a Delimitation Commission, whose orders have the force of law and cannot be questioned before any court. These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India on this behalf. The copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them.

    Unattempted
    

    Delimitation is the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body to represent changes in population over time. The objective is to provide equal representation for equal population segments and a fair division of geographical areas so that no Political Party has an advantage.
    In India, the Delimitation exercise is carried out by a Delimitation Commission, whose orders have the force of law and cannot be questioned before any court. These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India on this behalf. The copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them.
92. Question 92 of 100

    92. Question

    Which of the following provisions compulsorily terminates the Indian Citizenship by the Central Government by the means of deprivation?
    (1) If the citizenship has been obtained by fraud.
    (2) If the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution.
    (3) If the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, beenimprisoned in any country for two years.
    (4) If the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Citizenship Act 1955 describes the deprivation as one of the means of loss of Citizenship which is a compulsory termination of Indian Citizenship by the Central government, if:
    the citizens has obtained the citizenship by fraud;
    the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India;
    the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;
    the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any country for two years; and
    the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.

    Unattempted
    

    The Citizenship Act 1955 describes the deprivation as one of the means of loss of Citizenship which is a compulsory termination of Indian Citizenship by the Central government, if:
    the citizens has obtained the citizenship by fraud;
    the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India;
    the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;
    the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any country for two years; and
    the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.
93. Question 93 of 100

    93. Question

    Which one of the following statements correctly describes the directive principles of state policy in the Indian Constitution?
    (A) They are principles that lay down that the goal of Indian polity is politicaldemocracy.
    (B) They are the steps needed to prepare the masses for a communist struggle.
    (C) They are moral precepts for the authorities of the state.
    (D) They are recommendations for the application of ancient Indian wisdom tosolve the problems of the modern world.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o The phrase Directive Principles of State Policy” denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters.
    o Although these directives are non-justiciable, they are fundamental to the governance of the country. Dr. B R Ambedkar had pointed out that the Directives have great value because they lay down that the goal of Indian polity is economic democracy” as distinguished from political democracy”.Sir B N Rau, the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly, stated that the Directive Principles are intended as moral precepts for the authorities of the state. They have at least an educative value.” The Constitution does not aim at preparing the masses for a communist struggle. While some directive principles draw on Indian traditions (eg: organization of village panchayats), as a category they do not rely on ancient Indian wisdom to solve the problems of the modern world (eg: organization of agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines).

    Unattempted
    

    o The phrase Directive Principles of State Policy” denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters.
    o Although these directives are non-justiciable, they are fundamental to the governance of the country. Dr. B R Ambedkar had pointed out that the Directives have great value because they lay down that the goal of Indian polity is economic democracy” as distinguished from political democracy”.Sir B N Rau, the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly, stated that the Directive Principles are intended as moral precepts for the authorities of the state. They have at least an educative value.” The Constitution does not aim at preparing the masses for a communist struggle. While some directive principles draw on Indian traditions (eg: organization of village panchayats), as a category they do not rely on ancient Indian wisdom to solve the problems of the modern world (eg: organization of agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines).
94. Question 94 of 100

    94. Question

    How many of the following are considered as parts of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution ?
    (1) Republication and democratic form of Government
    (2) Secular character of the Constitution
    (3) Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
    (4) Federal character of the Constitution
    Select the correct answer :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All four

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    It was the Kesavananda Bharati case that brought this doctrine into the limelight. It held that the “basic structure of the Indian Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment”. The judgement listed some basic structures of the constitution as:
    Supremacy of the Constitution,
    Unity and sovereignty of India
    Democratic and republican form of government
    Federal character of the Constitution
    Secular character of the Constitution
    Separation of power
    Individual freedomOver time, many other features have also been added to this list of basic structural features. Some of them are:
    Rule of law
    Judicial review
    Parliamentary system
    Rule of equality
    Harmony and balance between the Fundamental Rights and DPSP
    Free and fair elections
    Limited power of the parliament to amend the Constitution
    Power of the Supreme Court of India under Articles 32, 136, 142 and 147
    Power of the High Court under Articles 226 and 227
    Any law or amendment that violates these principles can be struck down by the SC on the grounds that they distort the basic structure of the Constitution.
    Hence, options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    It was the Kesavananda Bharati case that brought this doctrine into the limelight. It held that the “basic structure of the Indian Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment”. The judgement listed some basic structures of the constitution as:
    Supremacy of the Constitution,
    Unity and sovereignty of India
    Democratic and republican form of government
    Federal character of the Constitution
    Secular character of the Constitution
    Separation of power
    Individual freedomOver time, many other features have also been added to this list of basic structural features. Some of them are:
    Rule of law
    Judicial review
    Parliamentary system
    Rule of equality
    Harmony and balance between the Fundamental Rights and DPSP
    Free and fair elections
    Limited power of the parliament to amend the Constitution
    Power of the Supreme Court of India under Articles 32, 136, 142 and 147
    Power of the High Court under Articles 226 and 227
    Any law or amendment that violates these principles can be struck down by the SC on the grounds that they distort the basic structure of the Constitution.
    Hence, options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
95. Question 95 of 100

    95. Question

    Under the effect of National Emergency, which of the following Fundamental Rights is affected?
    (1) Right to equality
    (2) Right To Freedom Of Religion
    (3) Right to protection in respect of conviction for offences
    (4) Right to life and personal liberty
    (5) Right against exploitation
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1,2 and 5 only
    (B) 2,3 and 4 only
    (C) 1,2 and 3 only
    (D) 1,2,3,4 and 5

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).
    According to Article 358, when a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. No separate order for their suspension is required.
    During a national emergency, the right to move the Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights other than the right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) can be suspended.
    The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359 in two ways:
    (i) The President cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21 i.e., the right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable even during emergency.
    (ii) Only those laws which are related with the emergency are protected from being challenged and not other laws. Also, the executive action taken only under such a law is protected.

    Unattempted
    

    Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).
    According to Article 358, when a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. No separate order for their suspension is required.
    During a national emergency, the right to move the Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights other than the right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) can be suspended.
    The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359 in two ways:
    (i) The President cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21 i.e., the right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable even during emergency.
    (ii) Only those laws which are related with the emergency are protected from being challenged and not other laws. Also, the executive action taken only under such a law is protected.
96. Question 96 of 100

    96. Question

    Reason for choosing bicameral legislature at the center-
    (1) It gives representation to all geographical regions or parts of the country.
    (2) As a member of Commonwealth of Nations, India was supposed to follow the British parliamentary scheme.
    (3) It allows for reconsideration of decision taken by one house by the other house.
    Select the incorrect answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Parliament in India has two houses. When there are two houses of the legislature, it is called a bicameral legislature. The two Houses of the Indian Parliament are the Council of States or the Rajya Sabha and the House of the People or the Lok Sabha.
    Statement 1 is correct. Countries with large size and much diversity usually prefer tohave two houses of the national legislature to give representation to all sections in the society and to give representation to all geographical regions or parts of the country.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. There was no such condition of becoming a member ofCommonwealth of Nations.
    Statement 3 is correct. A bicameral legislature makes it possible to have every decision reconsidered. Every decision taken by one house goes to the other house for its decision. This means that every bill and policy would be discussed twice. This ensures a double check on every matter. Even if one house takes a decision in haste, that decision will come for discussion in the other house and reconsideration will be possible.

    Unattempted
    

    The Parliament in India has two houses. When there are two houses of the legislature, it is called a bicameral legislature. The two Houses of the Indian Parliament are the Council of States or the Rajya Sabha and the House of the People or the Lok Sabha.
    Statement 1 is correct. Countries with large size and much diversity usually prefer tohave two houses of the national legislature to give representation to all sections in the society and to give representation to all geographical regions or parts of the country.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. There was no such condition of becoming a member ofCommonwealth of Nations.
    Statement 3 is correct. A bicameral legislature makes it possible to have every decision reconsidered. Every decision taken by one house goes to the other house for its decision. This means that every bill and policy would be discussed twice. This ensures a double check on every matter. Even if one house takes a decision in haste, that decision will come for discussion in the other house and reconsideration will be possible.
97. Question 97 of 100

    97. Question

    Select the correct statements about the liberty:
    (1) Negative Liberty is concerned with the recognition of a minimum area in which the individual can act unobstructed by others.
    (2) Positive Liberty recognizes that an individual can be free only in society and notoutside of it.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both1and2
    (D) Neither 1 nor

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. “Negative liberty” seeks to define and defend an areain which the individual would be inviolable, in which he or she could “do, be or become” whatever he or she wished to “do, be or become”. This is an area in which no external authority can interfere. It is a minimum area that is sacred and in which whatever the individual does, is not to be interfered with.
    The existence of the “minimum area of non-interference” is the recognition that human nature and human dignity need an area where the person can act unobstructed by others.
    Statement 2 is correct. Positive liberty recognizes that an individual can be free only in society (not outside it) and hence tries to make that society such that it enables the development of the individual whereas negative liberty is only concerned with the inviolable area of non-interference and not with the conditions in society, outside this area, as such.
    Positive Liberty is concerned with looking at the conditions and nature of the relationship between the individual and society and of improving these conditions such that there are fewer constraints to the development of the individual personality.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. “Negative liberty” seeks to define and defend an areain which the individual would be inviolable, in which he or she could “do, be or become” whatever he or she wished to “do, be or become”. This is an area in which no external authority can interfere. It is a minimum area that is sacred and in which whatever the individual does, is not to be interfered with.
    The existence of the “minimum area of non-interference” is the recognition that human nature and human dignity need an area where the person can act unobstructed by others.
    Statement 2 is correct. Positive liberty recognizes that an individual can be free only in society (not outside it) and hence tries to make that society such that it enables the development of the individual whereas negative liberty is only concerned with the inviolable area of non-interference and not with the conditions in society, outside this area, as such.
    Positive Liberty is concerned with looking at the conditions and nature of the relationship between the individual and society and of improving these conditions such that there are fewer constraints to the development of the individual personality.
98. Question 98 of 100

    98. Question

    Which of the following statements shows that the federal structure of a polity is maintained?
    (1) Constitution cannot be amended completely fundamentally by any one level of government.
    (2) There is an independent judiciary which resolves disputes between the federal organs.
    Which of the above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1: The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterallychanged by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government. For e.g. Central govt. In India cannot usurp all powers of the states in the state list of the 7th schedule.
    Statement 2: Suppose, if any one government resolved the disputes between federalconstituents, there will be a violation of natural justice. So, an independent judiciary is needed.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1: The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterallychanged by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government. For e.g. Central govt. In India cannot usurp all powers of the states in the state list of the 7th schedule.
    Statement 2: Suppose, if any one government resolved the disputes between federalconstituents, there will be a violation of natural justice. So, an independent judiciary is needed.
99. Question 99 of 100

    99. Question

    Directive Principles of State Policy were made non-justiciable in nature because of:
    (1) lack of financial resources for implementation.
    (2) the belief of the Constitution-makers on public opinion as the ultimate sanction for the fulfilment of these principles.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o Directive principles of state policy (DPSPs) are non-justiciable in nature as per Article 37 of Indian constitution. Hence, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Following were the reasons for keeping them non-justiciable –
    o Statement 1 is correct: DPSPs are aimed at establishing socio-economic democracy which requires huge resources for their implementation. However, the country didn”t possess sufficient financial resources at the time of framing to implement them.
    o Also, at the time of framing India was marked by the presence of vast diversity and backwardness. Framers of the constitution held that these would stand in the way of implementation of DPSPs. It must be noted that cultural diversity as such was not the reason which continues to be an integral component of Indian society. It was the vast diversity w.r.t problems, priorities etc. and the backwardness of people w.r.teducation, health, skills etc. which stood in the way of implementation of DPSPs.
    o Constitution framers thought that newly born independent Indian state with its many pre-occupations might be crushed under the burden unless it was free to decide the order, the time, the place and the mode of fulfilling them.
    o Statement 2 is correct: Constitution framers also believed more in awakened public opinion rather in-court procedures as the ultimate sanction for the fulfillment of these principles.

    Unattempted
    

    o Directive principles of state policy (DPSPs) are non-justiciable in nature as per Article 37 of Indian constitution. Hence, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Following were the reasons for keeping them non-justiciable –
    o Statement 1 is correct: DPSPs are aimed at establishing socio-economic democracy which requires huge resources for their implementation. However, the country didn”t possess sufficient financial resources at the time of framing to implement them.
    o Also, at the time of framing India was marked by the presence of vast diversity and backwardness. Framers of the constitution held that these would stand in the way of implementation of DPSPs. It must be noted that cultural diversity as such was not the reason which continues to be an integral component of Indian society. It was the vast diversity w.r.t problems, priorities etc. and the backwardness of people w.r.teducation, health, skills etc. which stood in the way of implementation of DPSPs.
    o Constitution framers thought that newly born independent Indian state with its many pre-occupations might be crushed under the burden unless it was free to decide the order, the time, the place and the mode of fulfilling them.
    o Statement 2 is correct: Constitution framers also believed more in awakened public opinion rather in-court procedures as the ultimate sanction for the fulfillment of these principles.
100. Question 100 of 100

     100. Question

     Which of the following rights are not provided for the Minorities in the Constitution of India?
     (1) A right of any section of the citizens to conserve its distinct language, script or culture.
     (2) Provision for facilities for instruction in mother tongue at the primary stage.
     (3) Provision for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities and his duties.
     Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
     (A) 1 and 3 only
     (B) 2 and 3 only
     (C) 1, 2 and 3
     (D) None of the above

     • A
     • B
     • C
     • D
     Correct
     

     Incorrect
     

     The Minority Rights provided in the Constitution provides for
     ● Right of any section of the citizens” to “conserve” its “distinct language, script or culture (Article 29 (1) )
     ● Right of all Religious and Linguistic Minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Article 30 (1) )
     ● Freedom of Minority-managed educational institutions from discrimination in the matter of receiving aid from the State (Article30(2) )
     ● Special provision relating to the language spoken by a section of the population of any State (Article 347)
     ● Provision for facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage (Article 350 A)
     ● Provision for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities and his duties (Article 350 B)

     Unattempted
     

     The Minority Rights provided in the Constitution provides for
     ● Right of any section of the citizens” to “conserve” its “distinct language, script or culture (Article 29 (1) )
     ● Right of all Religious and Linguistic Minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Article 30 (1) )
     ● Freedom of Minority-managed educational institutions from discrimination in the matter of receiving aid from the State (Article30(2) )
     ● Special provision relating to the language spoken by a section of the population of any State (Article 347)
     ● Provision for facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage (Article 350 A)
     ● Provision for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities and his duties (Article 350 B)