HCS – ECONOMY :: TEST 9
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- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 100
1. Question
What is the base year for the calculation of all-India Index of Industrial Production (IIP) as of January, 2024?
(A) 2004-05
(B) 2005-06
(C) 2010-11
(D) 2011-12
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe CSO had revised the base year of the IIP from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in May 2017 to capture structural changes in economy and improves quality and representativeness of indices. The revised IIP (2011-12) reflects the changes in industrial sector and also aligns it with base year of other macroeconomic indicators like Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP). As of 2024, 2011-12 serves as base year for calculation of all-India Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
UnattemptedThe CSO had revised the base year of the IIP from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in May 2017 to capture structural changes in economy and improves quality and representativeness of indices. The revised IIP (2011-12) reflects the changes in industrial sector and also aligns it with base year of other macroeconomic indicators like Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP). As of 2024, 2011-12 serves as base year for calculation of all-India Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
- Question 2 of 100
2. Question
In context with the macroeconomics , Philips Curve is a relationship between the rates of ___?
(A) Unemployment & Exim trade
(B) Unemployment and Inflation
(C) Unemployment and Demand
(D) Unemployment and Poverty
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectPhillips curve developed by A. W. Phillips says that the inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship; which means that higher inflation is associated with lower unemployment and vice versa. However, later it was proved that this curve is applicable only in the short-run, and in long-run, inflationary policies would not decrease unemployment.
UnattemptedPhillips curve developed by A. W. Phillips says that the inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship; which means that higher inflation is associated with lower unemployment and vice versa. However, later it was proved that this curve is applicable only in the short-run, and in long-run, inflationary policies would not decrease unemployment.
- Question 3 of 100
3. Question
Till the mid-1960s, the seeds used in cultivation were traditional ones with relatively low yields. In context of this, consider the following statements :
(1) Traditional seeds needed more irrigation.
(2) HYV seeds needed less water and also chemical fertilizers than traditional seeds.
(3) Farmers used cow-dung and other natural manure as fertilizers for traditional seeds.
(4) Compared to the traditional seeds, the HYV seeds promised to produce much greater amounts of grain on a single plant.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectTill the mid-1960s, the seeds used in cultivation were traditional ones with relatively low yields. Traditional seeds needed less irrigation. Farmers used cow-dung and other natural manure as fertilizers. All these were readily available with the farmers who did not have to buy them. The Green Revolution in the late 1960s introduced the Indian farmer to cultivation of wheat and rice using high yielding varieties (HYVs) of seeds. Compared to the traditional seeds, the HYV seeds promised to produce much greater amounts of grain on a single plant. As a result, the same piece of land would now produce far larger quantities of foodgrains than was possible earlier. HYV seeds, however, needed plenty of water and also chemical fertilizers and pesticides to produce best results. Higher yields were possible only from a combination of HYV seeds, irrigation, chemical fertilisers, pesticides, etc.
UnattemptedTill the mid-1960s, the seeds used in cultivation were traditional ones with relatively low yields. Traditional seeds needed less irrigation. Farmers used cow-dung and other natural manure as fertilizers. All these were readily available with the farmers who did not have to buy them. The Green Revolution in the late 1960s introduced the Indian farmer to cultivation of wheat and rice using high yielding varieties (HYVs) of seeds. Compared to the traditional seeds, the HYV seeds promised to produce much greater amounts of grain on a single plant. As a result, the same piece of land would now produce far larger quantities of foodgrains than was possible earlier. HYV seeds, however, needed plenty of water and also chemical fertilizers and pesticides to produce best results. Higher yields were possible only from a combination of HYV seeds, irrigation, chemical fertilisers, pesticides, etc.
- Question 4 of 100
4. Question
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion : Some time after the use of chemical fertilizers, the soil will be more fertile than ever before.
Reason : Chemical fertilizers can kill the bacteria
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectChemical fertilisers provide minerals which dissolve in water and are immediately available to plants. But these may not be retained in the soil for long. They may escape from the soil and pollute groundwater, rivers and lakes. Chemical fertilizers can also kill bacteria and other microorganisms in the soil. This means some time after their use, the soil will be less fertile than ever before. The consumption of chemical fertilizers in Punjab is highest in the country. The continuous use of chemical fertilizers has led to degradation of soil health. Punjab farmers are now forced to use more and more chemical fertilizers and other inputs to achieve the same production level. This means cost of cultivation is rising very fast.
UnattemptedChemical fertilisers provide minerals which dissolve in water and are immediately available to plants. But these may not be retained in the soil for long. They may escape from the soil and pollute groundwater, rivers and lakes. Chemical fertilizers can also kill bacteria and other microorganisms in the soil. This means some time after their use, the soil will be less fertile than ever before. The consumption of chemical fertilizers in Punjab is highest in the country. The continuous use of chemical fertilizers has led to degradation of soil health. Punjab farmers are now forced to use more and more chemical fertilizers and other inputs to achieve the same production level. This means cost of cultivation is rising very fast.
- Question 5 of 100
5. Question
Consider the following statements.
(1) Market activities involve remuneration to anyone who performs for pay or profit.
(2) Non-market activities are the production for self-consumption.
(3) Market activities include production of goods or services, including government service.
(4) Non market activities include consumption and processing of primary product and own account production of fixed assets.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 3 and 4 Only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectEconomic activities have two parts — market activities and non-market activities. Market activities involve remuneration to anyone who performs i.e., activity performed for pay or profit. These include production of goods or services, including government service. Non-market activities are the production for self-consumption. These can consumption and processing of primary product and own account production of fixed assets.
UnattemptedEconomic activities have two parts — market activities and non-market activities. Market activities involve remuneration to anyone who performs i.e., activity performed for pay or profit. These include production of goods or services, including government service. Non-market activities are the production for self-consumption. These can consumption and processing of primary product and own account production of fixed assets.
- Question 6 of 100
6. Question
Which of the following sectors are categorised as Tertiary sector?
(1) Fishing
(2) Mining and quarrying
(3) Tourism
(4) Manufacturing
(5) Transport
Choose from the following options.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(B) 3, 4 and 5 only
(C) 2, 3 and 5 only
(D) 3 and 5 only
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe various activities have been classified into three main sectors i.e., primary, secondary and tertiary. Primary sector includes agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, mining and quarrying. Manufacturing is included in the secondary sector. Trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism, services, insurance, etc. are included in the tertiary sector. The activities in this sector result in the production of goods and services. These activities add value to the national income. These activities are called economic activities.
UnattemptedThe various activities have been classified into three main sectors i.e., primary, secondary and tertiary. Primary sector includes agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, mining and quarrying. Manufacturing is included in the secondary sector. Trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism, services, insurance, etc. are included in the tertiary sector. The activities in this sector result in the production of goods and services. These activities add value to the national income. These activities are called economic activities.
- Question 7 of 100
7. Question
Arrange the following Schemes Chronologically based on their releasing year.
(1) Prime Minister Rozgar Yozana (PMRY)
(2) Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP)
(3) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana (PMGY)
(4) Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)
Choose from the following options.
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 1-2-4-3
(C) 3-4-1-2
(D) 4-3-2-1
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectPrime Minister Rozgar Yozana (PMRY) is another scheme which was started in 1993.
The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns. They are helped in setting up small business and industries. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) was launched in 1995. The aim of the programme is to create selfemployment opportunities in rural areas and small towns. A target for creating 25 lakh new jobs has been set for the programme under the Tenth Five Year plan. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) was launched in 1999. The programme aims at bringing the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organising them into self-help groups through a mix of bank credit and government subsidy. Under the Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana (PMGY) launched in 2000, additional central assistance is given to states for basic services such as primary health, primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water and rural electrification.UnattemptedPrime Minister Rozgar Yozana (PMRY) is another scheme which was started in 1993.
The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns. They are helped in setting up small business and industries. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) was launched in 1995. The aim of the programme is to create selfemployment opportunities in rural areas and small towns. A target for creating 25 lakh new jobs has been set for the programme under the Tenth Five Year plan. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) was launched in 1999. The programme aims at bringing the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organising them into self-help groups through a mix of bank credit and government subsidy. Under the Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana (PMGY) launched in 2000, additional central assistance is given to states for basic services such as primary health, primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water and rural electrification. - Question 8 of 100
8. Question
The minimum caloric energy per person per day is fixed for the entire country by combining rural and urban areas is –
(A)2100 calories
(B) 2400 calories
(C) 2250 calories
(D) 2200 calories
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe expert group formed to define the poverty line determined the per day availability of 2400 calories in rural areas and 2100 calories in urban areas from daily food, while jointly 2250 calories was determined.
UnattemptedThe expert group formed to define the poverty line determined the per day availability of 2400 calories in rural areas and 2100 calories in urban areas from daily food, while jointly 2250 calories was determined.
- Question 9 of 100
9. Question
Match the following sentences correctly –
SpiceTop Producing State
(1) Saffron(i)Rajasthan
(2) Black Pepper(ii) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Turmeric(iii) Kerala
(4) Cumin(iv) Kashmir
(A)1 – i, 2 – ii, 3 – iii, 4 – iv
(B)1 – iv, 2 – iii, 3 – ii, 4 – i
(C)1 – i, 2 – iii, 3 – ii, 4 – iv
(D)1 – iii, 2 – ii, 3 – iv, 4 – i
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIndia is the top country in spice production. The state of Kerala is called the Garden of Spices. Black pepper has been given the name of the king of spices and cardamom the queen of spices.
UnattemptedIndia is the top country in spice production. The state of Kerala is called the Garden of Spices. Black pepper has been given the name of the king of spices and cardamom the queen of spices.
- Question 10 of 100
10. Question
Which price is termed as 'insurance price' for the farmers?
(A)Market price
(B)Normal price
(C)Minimum Support Price
(D)Recovery Purchase Price
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectMinimum Support Price is a kind of insurance price for agricultural producers. It is done twice a year (Rabi and Kharif) by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices. The minimum support price is announced for 24 main crops.
UnattemptedMinimum Support Price is a kind of insurance price for agricultural producers. It is done twice a year (Rabi and Kharif) by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices. The minimum support price is announced for 24 main crops.
- Question 11 of 100
11. Question
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on the recommendation of which committee?
(A)Narasimhan Committee
(B)Verma Committee
(C)Shivraman Singh Committee
(D)Mukherjee Committee
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectUnattempted - Question 12 of 100
12. Question
Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below –
List – IList – II
(1) Green Revolution(i)Food grains
(2) Yellow Revolution(ii)Oilseeds
(3) White Revolution(iii)Milk
(4) Blue Revolution (iv)Fish
(5) Black Revolution(v)Petroleum
(A)1 – i, 2 – ii, 3 – iii, 4 – iv, 5 – v
(B)1 – v, 2– iv, 3 – iii, 4 – ii, 5 – i
(C)1 – i, 2 – ii, 3 – iii, 4 – v, 5 – iv
(D)1 – v, 2 – iv, 3 – I, 4 – ii, 5 – iii
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectUnattempted - Question 13 of 100
13. Question
With whose help Bhilai Steel Plant was established?
(A)Soviet Union
(B) Britain
(C) France
(D) Germany
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBhilai-Chhattisgarh (with the help of Soviet Union), Durgapur-West Bengal (with the help of Britain) and Rourkela-Orissa (with the help of West Germany) were established in the Second Five Year Plan (Mahalanobis Model).
UnattemptedBhilai-Chhattisgarh (with the help of Soviet Union), Durgapur-West Bengal (with the help of Britain) and Rourkela-Orissa (with the help of West Germany) were established in the Second Five Year Plan (Mahalanobis Model).
- Question 14 of 100
14. Question
By whom is the one rupee note issued in India?
(A) RBI
(B) Commercial Bank
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Ministry of Commerce
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectOne-rupee note is non-convertible paper currency, issued by the Ministry of Finance under the signature of the Union Finance Secretary. It was closed in 1994. It is being released again since 2015.
UnattemptedOne-rupee note is non-convertible paper currency, issued by the Ministry of Finance under the signature of the Union Finance Secretary. It was closed in 1994. It is being released again since 2015.
- Question 15 of 100
15. Question
Which of the following is not a close substitute for currency?
(A)Share
(B)Bond
(C)Government securities
(D)None of these
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBonds, government securities, debentures, time deposits of banks, shares of companies, etc. store value, so they are close substitutes for money. These are called adjacent currencies.
UnattemptedBonds, government securities, debentures, time deposits of banks, shares of companies, etc. store value, so they are close substitutes for money. These are called adjacent currencies.
- Question 16 of 100
16. Question
Which of the following is a measure of broad money also called soft money?
(A) M1
(B) M2
(C) M3
(D) M4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectM1 = Currency with public (Notes + Coin) + Demand deposits of banks + Other deposits with RBI
M2 = M1 + savings bank deposits with post offices M3 = M1 + fixed deposits of banks
M4 = M3 + Net deposits of post offices
In the above, M1 is called the narrow and M3 is called the measure of broad money group. Liquidity decreases from M1 to M3 while breadth increases.UnattemptedM1 = Currency with public (Notes + Coin) + Demand deposits of banks + Other deposits with RBI
M2 = M1 + savings bank deposits with post offices M3 = M1 + fixed deposits of banks
M4 = M3 + Net deposits of post offices
In the above, M1 is called the narrow and M3 is called the measure of broad money group. Liquidity decreases from M1 to M3 while breadth increases. - Question 17 of 100
17. Question
Which of the following is not included in credit money?
(A) Promissory note
(B) Cheque
(C) Bank note
(D) Bank draft
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBank notes are not credit money. All other credits are currency. Credit currency is a voluntary currency, which is not an obligation of a person to accept, that is, it is not a legal currency. This is issued by individuals or commercial banks.
UnattemptedBank notes are not credit money. All other credits are currency. Credit currency is a voluntary currency, which is not an obligation of a person to accept, that is, it is not a legal currency. This is issued by individuals or commercial banks.
- Question 18 of 100
18. Question
Which of the following statement is true about the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(1) It was formed under the RBI Act 1934.
(2) RBI was nationalized on 1 January 1949.
(3) RBI was established in Mumbai.
(4) First governor of RBI was Sir Osborne Smith.
(5) The authorized capital of RBI formed on 1st April 1935 was Rs.5 crores.
Choose answer from the codes given below-
(A) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectRBI was set up on the basis of the Hilton Young Commission recommendation in April 1935 in Calcutta, with the enactment of the RBI Act, 1934. Its head office was established in Mumbai in 1937, which is still there. Presently its governor is Shaktikanta Das.
The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised with effect from 1st January, 1949 on the basis of the Reserve Bank of India (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948.
Sir Osborne Smith was the first Governor of the Reserve Bank.
At the time of establishment, authorized capital of RBI was 5 crores.UnattemptedRBI was set up on the basis of the Hilton Young Commission recommendation in April 1935 in Calcutta, with the enactment of the RBI Act, 1934. Its head office was established in Mumbai in 1937, which is still there. Presently its governor is Shaktikanta Das.
The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised with effect from 1st January, 1949 on the basis of the Reserve Bank of India (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948.
Sir Osborne Smith was the first Governor of the Reserve Bank.
At the time of establishment, authorized capital of RBI was 5 crores. - Question 19 of 100
19. Question
Net earning for the country which may be
(1) Positive – if we have exported more in value terms than imported
(2) Negative – If imports exceeded exports in value terms
(3) Zero – If exports and imports were of the same value
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWe know that the total money value of all such goods and services produced in a country in a year is called its gross domestic product for that year. When we also consider what we pay for our imports and get from our exports we find that there is a net earning for the country which may be positive (if we have exported more in value terms than imported) or negative (if imports exceeded exports in value terms) or zero (if exports and imports were of the same value). When we add this earning (plus or minus) from foreign transactions, what we get is called the country’s gross national product for that year.
UnattemptedWe know that the total money value of all such goods and services produced in a country in a year is called its gross domestic product for that year. When we also consider what we pay for our imports and get from our exports we find that there is a net earning for the country which may be positive (if we have exported more in value terms than imported) or negative (if imports exceeded exports in value terms) or zero (if exports and imports were of the same value). When we add this earning (plus or minus) from foreign transactions, what we get is called the country’s gross national product for that year.
- Question 20 of 100
20. Question
Consider the following statements about the Worker-Population ratio:
(1) This ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country.
(2) If the ratio is higher, it means that the engagement of people is greater
(3) If the ratio for a country is medium, or low, it means that a very high proportion of its population is not involved directly in economic activities
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWorker-population ratio is an indicator which is used for analysing the employment situation in the country. This ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country. If the ratio is higher, it means that the engagement of people is greater; if the ratio for a country is medium, or low, it means that a very high proportion of its population is not involved directly in economic activities.
UnattemptedWorker-population ratio is an indicator which is used for analysing the employment situation in the country. This ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country. If the ratio is higher, it means that the engagement of people is greater; if the ratio for a country is medium, or low, it means that a very high proportion of its population is not involved directly in economic activities.
- Question 21 of 100
21. Question
Which of the following statements regarding Non- Performing Assets (NPAs) is true?
(1) Payment of interest to be withheld more than 365 times in a financial year
(2) Payment of principal is withheld for more than 180 days in a financial year
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 only
(C) Only 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectNPA is the biggest problem of banks. When the serviceable assets of banks are not repaid for two years, they are termed as 'substandard assets'. If there is a possibility of payment after two years, then it is recorded as a 'doubtful asset'.
UnattemptedNPA is the biggest problem of banks. When the serviceable assets of banks are not repaid for two years, they are termed as 'substandard assets'. If there is a possibility of payment after two years, then it is recorded as a 'doubtful asset'.
- Question 22 of 100
22. Question
Who is the apex body of cooperative banks?
(A) Central Cooperative Bank
(B) State Cooperative Bank
(C) District Cooperative Bank
(D) Primary Credit Society
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe formation of co-operative banks is of three levels. State co-operative bank is the apex institution. Central or district co-operative banks work at the district level and primary credit societies at the village level.
UnattemptedThe formation of co-operative banks is of three levels. State co-operative bank is the apex institution. Central or district co-operative banks work at the district level and primary credit societies at the village level.
- Question 23 of 100
23. Question
When was the National Stock Exchange (NSE) established?
(A) 1985
(B) 1990
(C) 1991
(D) 1992
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe National Stock Exchange was established in 1992 on the recommendation of the Pherwani Committee (1991), whose headquarters are located in Mumbai. The oldest stock exchange in Asia is the Mumbai Stock Exchange (BSE), established in 1875.
UnattemptedThe National Stock Exchange was established in 1992 on the recommendation of the Pherwani Committee (1991), whose headquarters are located in Mumbai. The oldest stock exchange in Asia is the Mumbai Stock Exchange (BSE), established in 1875.
- Question 24 of 100
24. Question
Narasimham Committee is related to reforms in which field?
(A) Industry
(B) Tax
(C) Banking
(D) Agriculture
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn 1991, the Committee for Banking Sector Reforms was constituted under the chairmanship of Narasimham. Again in 1997, the second Narisanham committee was also formed to improve the financial system, organization functions of banks.
UnattemptedIn 1991, the Committee for Banking Sector Reforms was constituted under the chairmanship of Narasimham. Again in 1997, the second Narisanham committee was also formed to improve the financial system, organization functions of banks.
- Question 25 of 100
25. Question
Which of the following statements regarding SEBI are correct?
(1) It was established on 12 April 1988.
(2) It got statutory status on 30 January 1992.
(3) Its headquarter is in Mumbai.
(4) It is the body controlling and regulating the stock market.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below-
(A) Only 1 and 3
(B) Only 2 and 4
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAll schemes raising more than Rs 100 crore from the public come under the purview of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
UnattemptedAll schemes raising more than Rs 100 crore from the public come under the purview of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
- Question 26 of 100
26. Question
The “Base Effect”, when measuring inflation, refers to the impact of
(A) Stock of domestic resources on inflation
(B) Technological breakthroughs on inflation
(C) The price level of last year on inflation measurement
(D) Revision of consumption basket on inflation
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe base effect refers to the impact of the rise in price level (i.e. last year’s inflation) in the previous year over the corresponding rise in price levels in the current year (i.e., current inflation).
If the price index had risen at a high rate in the corresponding period of the previous year leading to a high inflation rate, some of the potential rise is already factored in, therefore a similar absolute increase in the Price index in the current year will lead to a relatively lower inflation rates.
On the other hand, if the inflation rate was too low in the corresponding period of the previous year, even a relatively smaller rise in the Price Index will arithmetically give a high rate of current inflation.UnattemptedThe base effect refers to the impact of the rise in price level (i.e. last year’s inflation) in the previous year over the corresponding rise in price levels in the current year (i.e., current inflation).
If the price index had risen at a high rate in the corresponding period of the previous year leading to a high inflation rate, some of the potential rise is already factored in, therefore a similar absolute increase in the Price index in the current year will lead to a relatively lower inflation rates.
On the other hand, if the inflation rate was too low in the corresponding period of the previous year, even a relatively smaller rise in the Price Index will arithmetically give a high rate of current inflation. - Question 27 of 100
27. Question
Which of the following is/are the key challenges that horticulture sector faces in India?
(1) Post-harvest losses.
(2) Lack of quality planting material.
(3) Lack of market access for horticulture produce of small farmers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe key challenge that the horticulture sector faces in India are post-harvest losses, availability of quality planting material and lack of market access for horticultural produce of small farmers. The combined wastage (harvest and post-harvest) for horticulture crops between 5 to 15 per cent in the case of fruits and vegetables is very high, compared to the range of 5 to 6 percent in the case of cereals, around 6 to 8 per cent for pulses and 5 to 10 per cent for oilseeds.
Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) tries to address some of these challenges. The export growth of fresh fruits and vegetables in terms of value is around 14 per cent and of processed fruits and vegetables is around 16 per cent.UnattemptedThe key challenge that the horticulture sector faces in India are post-harvest losses, availability of quality planting material and lack of market access for horticultural produce of small farmers. The combined wastage (harvest and post-harvest) for horticulture crops between 5 to 15 per cent in the case of fruits and vegetables is very high, compared to the range of 5 to 6 percent in the case of cereals, around 6 to 8 per cent for pulses and 5 to 10 per cent for oilseeds.
Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) tries to address some of these challenges. The export growth of fresh fruits and vegetables in terms of value is around 14 per cent and of processed fruits and vegetables is around 16 per cent. - Question 28 of 100
28. Question
Which of the following is/are considered while calculating the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country?
(1) Purchase of vegetables by a restaurant
(2) Ice cream used by the households
(3) Plant and machinery
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectOnly final goods are used to count economic value of a nation.The intermediate goods are not final and the value of final goods already includes the value of intermediate goods. Therefore we do not include intermediate goods while counting economic value of a nation. Since the purchase of vegetables by a restaurant is an intermediate consumption. Hence will not be included while calculating economic value of a country.
Options 2 and 3 are correct : On the other hand, ice cream used by the households is example of final consumer good as it is not used in production of other goods and ready for use by their final users. Plant and machinery are also a part of final goods as they are fixed assets of the producers which are used in process of production for several years and are of high value.UnattemptedOnly final goods are used to count economic value of a nation.The intermediate goods are not final and the value of final goods already includes the value of intermediate goods. Therefore we do not include intermediate goods while counting economic value of a nation. Since the purchase of vegetables by a restaurant is an intermediate consumption. Hence will not be included while calculating economic value of a country.
Options 2 and 3 are correct : On the other hand, ice cream used by the households is example of final consumer good as it is not used in production of other goods and ready for use by their final users. Plant and machinery are also a part of final goods as they are fixed assets of the producers which are used in process of production for several years and are of high value. - Question 29 of 100
29. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRB) :
(1) RRB’s were setup on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group.
(2) The equity of RRB is held by Sponsor Bank and RBI
(3) RRB’s have not been included under the ambit of priority sector lending.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectRegional Rural Banks (RRBs) are financial institutions which ensure adequate credit for agriculture and other rural sectors. Regional Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975). Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government, concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:15:35. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
The RRB’s have also been brought under the ambit of priority sector lending on par with the commercial banks. Priority sector lending has been devised so that assistance from the banking system flowed in an increasing measure to the vital sectors of the economy and according tonational priorities. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.UnattemptedRegional Rural Banks (RRBs) are financial institutions which ensure adequate credit for agriculture and other rural sectors. Regional Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975). Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government, concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:15:35. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
The RRB’s have also been brought under the ambit of priority sector lending on par with the commercial banks. Priority sector lending has been devised so that assistance from the banking system flowed in an increasing measure to the vital sectors of the economy and according tonational priorities. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect. - Question 30 of 100
30. Question
Which of the following currencies form a Part of Special Drawing Rights (SDR)'s Basket of currencies ?
(1) US Dollar
(2) Japanese Yen
(3) Chinese Renminbi
(4) Indian Rupee
(5) Euro
(6) British Pound sterling
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(C) 1, 4, 5 and 6 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectAbout Special Drawing Rights: The SDR is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its member countries‘ official reserves. So far SDR 204.2 billion (equivalent to about US$291 billion) have been allocated to members.
Role of SDR:
o The SDR was created as a supplementary international reserve asset in the context of the Bretton Woods fixed exchange rate system. The collapse of Bretton Woods system in 1973 and the shift of major currencies to floating exchange rate regimes lessened the reliance on the SDR as a global reserve asset.
o The SDR serves as the unit of account of the IMF and some other international organizations.
o The SDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. SDRs can be exchanged for these currencies. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five currencies—the U.S. dollar, the Euro, the Chinese Renminbi, the Japanese Yen, and the British Pound sterling.UnattemptedAbout Special Drawing Rights: The SDR is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its member countries‘ official reserves. So far SDR 204.2 billion (equivalent to about US$291 billion) have been allocated to members.
Role of SDR:
o The SDR was created as a supplementary international reserve asset in the context of the Bretton Woods fixed exchange rate system. The collapse of Bretton Woods system in 1973 and the shift of major currencies to floating exchange rate regimes lessened the reliance on the SDR as a global reserve asset.
o The SDR serves as the unit of account of the IMF and some other international organizations.
o The SDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. SDRs can be exchanged for these currencies. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five currencies—the U.S. dollar, the Euro, the Chinese Renminbi, the Japanese Yen, and the British Pound sterling. - Question 31 of 100
31. Question
When is the beginning of fiscal policy in India considered?
(A) 1919
(B) 1935
(C) 1936
(D) 1950
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectFrom 1936, when Lord Keynes emphasized the role of public expenditure. Budget, taxes, public expenditure and debt are the tools of fiscal policy. Which is made by the Ministry of Finance.
UnattemptedFrom 1936, when Lord Keynes emphasized the role of public expenditure. Budget, taxes, public expenditure and debt are the tools of fiscal policy. Which is made by the Ministry of Finance.
- Question 32 of 100
32. Question
Which of the following items is not included in the revenue receipt?
(A) Direct Tax
(B) Indirect tax
(C) Aid received from abroad
(D) Loan taken by the government
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectRevenue receipt is that, due to which there is no burden on the government and there is no loss of property. While the debt taken by the government is a capital receipt, because capital receipt either increases the burden (liability) on the government or causes loss of property.
UnattemptedRevenue receipt is that, due to which there is no burden on the government and there is no loss of property. While the debt taken by the government is a capital receipt, because capital receipt either increases the burden (liability) on the government or causes loss of property.
- Question 33 of 100
33. Question
Which of the following items is included in capital expenditure?
(A) Salary Payment
(B) Pension Payment
(C) Transfer payment
(D) Debt payment
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectOut of the options provided, (D) Debt payment would typically be considered a capital expenditure. Capital expenditures are expenses incurred to acquire, upgrade, or maintain physical assets like property, equipment, or infrastructure that provide long-term benefits to a business. Payments towards debts, particularly if they're related to acquiring or improving such assets, can be classified as capital expenditures.
UnattemptedOut of the options provided, (D) Debt payment would typically be considered a capital expenditure. Capital expenditures are expenses incurred to acquire, upgrade, or maintain physical assets like property, equipment, or infrastructure that provide long-term benefits to a business. Payments towards debts, particularly if they're related to acquiring or improving such assets, can be classified as capital expenditures.
- Question 34 of 100
34. Question
Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the government to make the public budget?
(A) 110
(B) 265
(C) 112
(D) 266
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectUnder Article 112 of the Constitution, the government has the right to make the budget. Money bill is defined in article 110. In Article 265, new taxes cannot be imposed without legal provision, while in Article 266, there is a provision of ban on expenditure without parliamentary permission.
UnattemptedUnder Article 112 of the Constitution, the government has the right to make the budget. Money bill is defined in article 110. In Article 265, new taxes cannot be imposed without legal provision, while in Article 266, there is a provision of ban on expenditure without parliamentary permission.
- Question 35 of 100
35. Question
When was the World Trade Organization established?
(A) 1st January 1995
(B) 2nd March 1995
(C) 1st April 1995
(D) 1st February 1995
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe World Trade Organization (WTO) was established on 1 January 1995 in Geneva (Switzerland). Previous tariff and trade related agreements regulating international trade are done through this organization.
UnattemptedThe World Trade Organization (WTO) was established on 1 January 1995 in Geneva (Switzerland). Previous tariff and trade related agreements regulating international trade are done through this organization.
- Question 36 of 100
36. Question
“Entry port business” means –
(A)Export trade
(B)Import trade
(C)Coastal trade
(D)Goods imported for export
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWhen a good or service is imported from one country and exported to another country, it is called an entry port business.
UnattemptedWhen a good or service is imported from one country and exported to another country, it is called an entry port business.
- Question 37 of 100
37. Question
Foreign currency, which has a tendency of quick migration, is called –
(A) Hot currency
(B) Gold currency
(C) Soft money
(D) Hard money
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called Hot currency.
UnattemptedThe currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called Hot currency.
- Question 38 of 100
38. Question
R N Malhotra Committee is related to –
(A) Sick industries
(B) Tax reforms
(C) Insurance sector
(D) Banking sector
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn 1993, a committee was constituted under the chairmanship of former RBI governor to reform the insurance sector. Based on whose recommendations the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority (IRDA) was established in 1999.
UnattemptedIn 1993, a committee was constituted under the chairmanship of former RBI governor to reform the insurance sector. Based on whose recommendations the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority (IRDA) was established in 1999.
- Question 39 of 100
39. Question
Which one of the following problems is continuously associated with the Indian economy?
(1) Inflation
(2) Fiscal deficit
(3) Current Account Deficit
(4) Lack of Investment
Select the correct answer from the codes given below-
(A)Only 2 and 3
(B)Only 1, 2 and 3
(C)Only 1, 2 and 4
(D)1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAll of the above are problems of the Indian economy.
Inflation: India has encountered issues related to inflation, affecting consumer prices and the cost of living for its population.
Fiscal Deficit: Managing the fiscal deficit, the gap between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts, has been a persistent issue in India's economic landscape.
Current Account Deficit: This has been another area of concern, with India sometimes experiencing a current account deficit, indicating that the value of imports exceeds the value of exports.
Lack of Investment: Encouraging and sustaining investment, both domestic and foreign, has been a challenge for India, impacting its growth potential and economic development.
All these issues have been interconnected and have persisted over time, influencing the Indian economy in different ways. Therefore, the correct answer would be that all four of the problems are continuously associated with the Indian economy.UnattemptedAll of the above are problems of the Indian economy.
Inflation: India has encountered issues related to inflation, affecting consumer prices and the cost of living for its population.
Fiscal Deficit: Managing the fiscal deficit, the gap between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts, has been a persistent issue in India's economic landscape.
Current Account Deficit: This has been another area of concern, with India sometimes experiencing a current account deficit, indicating that the value of imports exceeds the value of exports.
Lack of Investment: Encouraging and sustaining investment, both domestic and foreign, has been a challenge for India, impacting its growth potential and economic development.
All these issues have been interconnected and have persisted over time, influencing the Indian economy in different ways. Therefore, the correct answer would be that all four of the problems are continuously associated with the Indian economy. - Question 40 of 100
40. Question
What are the Causes of Unemployment in India?
(1) Social Factors
(2) Rapid Growth of Population
(3) Dominance of Agriculture
(4) Fall of Cottage and Small industries
(5) Immobility of Labour
(6) Defects in Education System
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 Only
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5 Only
(C) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCauses of Unemployment in India:
Social Factors: In India the caste system is prevalent. The work is prohibited for specific castes in some areas.
In big joint families having big business, many such persons will be available who do not do any work and depend on the joint income of the family.
Rapid Growth of Population: Constant increase in population has been a big problem in India.
It is one of the main causes of unemployment.
Dominance of Agriculture: Still in India nearly half of the workforce is dependent on Agriculture.
However, Agriculture is underdeveloped in India.
Also, it provides seasonal employment.
Fall of Cottage and Small industries: The industrial development had adverse effects on cottage and small industries.
The production of cottage industries began to fall and many artisans became unemployed.
Immobility of Labour: Mobility of labour in India is low. Due to attachment to the family, people do not go to far off areas for jobs.
Factors like language, religion, and climate are also responsible for low mobility.
Defects in Education System: Jobs in the capitalist world have become highly specialised but India’s education system does not provide the right training and specialisation needed for these jobs.
Thus many people who are willing to work become unemployed due to lack of skills.UnattemptedCauses of Unemployment in India:
Social Factors: In India the caste system is prevalent. The work is prohibited for specific castes in some areas.
In big joint families having big business, many such persons will be available who do not do any work and depend on the joint income of the family.
Rapid Growth of Population: Constant increase in population has been a big problem in India.
It is one of the main causes of unemployment.
Dominance of Agriculture: Still in India nearly half of the workforce is dependent on Agriculture.
However, Agriculture is underdeveloped in India.
Also, it provides seasonal employment.
Fall of Cottage and Small industries: The industrial development had adverse effects on cottage and small industries.
The production of cottage industries began to fall and many artisans became unemployed.
Immobility of Labour: Mobility of labour in India is low. Due to attachment to the family, people do not go to far off areas for jobs.
Factors like language, religion, and climate are also responsible for low mobility.
Defects in Education System: Jobs in the capitalist world have become highly specialised but India’s education system does not provide the right training and specialisation needed for these jobs.
Thus many people who are willing to work become unemployed due to lack of skills. - Question 41 of 100
41. Question
In the context of the Indian economy, what is the purpose of performing Open Market Operations?
(A) Adjust the capitalization of banks.
(B) To contain current account deficit.
(C) To adjust liquidity conditions.
(D) To boost share markets.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectOpen market operations (OMO) refer to the buying and selling of government securities by the RBI in the open market in order to expand or contract the amount of money in the banking system, hence control liquidity of money.
UnattemptedOpen market operations (OMO) refer to the buying and selling of government securities by the RBI in the open market in order to expand or contract the amount of money in the banking system, hence control liquidity of money.
- Question 42 of 100
42. Question
Which of the following is/are ‘essential commodities’ under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955?
(1) Petroleum
(2) Edible oil and seeds
(3) Jute seeds
(4) Fertilizers
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1, 3 and 4 Only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Essential Commodities Act (ECA) was enacted by the Central Government in 1955 to control and regulate trade and prices of commodities declared essential under the Act. The Act empowers the Central and state governments concurrently to control production, supply and distribution of certain commodities in view of rising prices. The measures that can be taken under the provision of the Act include, among others, licensing, distribution and imposing stock limits.The government also have the power to fix price limits. At present, there are seven (7) commodities scheduled under the EC Act, 1955 as essential.
o Petroleum and its products, including petrol, diesel, kerosene, Naphtha, solvents etc
o Food stuff, including edible oil and seeds
o Jute and jute textiles
o Drugs
o Fertilizer, whether inorganic, organic or mixed.
o Hank yarn made wholly from cotton;
o seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits and vegetables;
o seeds of cattle fodder; and
o jute seeds;
o cotton seedUnattemptedThe Essential Commodities Act (ECA) was enacted by the Central Government in 1955 to control and regulate trade and prices of commodities declared essential under the Act. The Act empowers the Central and state governments concurrently to control production, supply and distribution of certain commodities in view of rising prices. The measures that can be taken under the provision of the Act include, among others, licensing, distribution and imposing stock limits.The government also have the power to fix price limits. At present, there are seven (7) commodities scheduled under the EC Act, 1955 as essential.
o Petroleum and its products, including petrol, diesel, kerosene, Naphtha, solvents etc
o Food stuff, including edible oil and seeds
o Jute and jute textiles
o Drugs
o Fertilizer, whether inorganic, organic or mixed.
o Hank yarn made wholly from cotton;
o seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits and vegetables;
o seeds of cattle fodder; and
o jute seeds;
o cotton seed - Question 43 of 100
43. Question
Which of the following is NOT an example of a trade barrier?
(A) Allowing only a fixed amount of commodities to be exported or imported irrespective of supply-demand situations
(B) Capping foreign direct investment in sensitive sectors
(C) Imposing unreasonable standards on quality of imports
(D) Tax on imports
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectOption D: A barrier to trade is a government-imposed restraint on the flow of international goods or services. The most common barrier to trade is a tariff—a tax on imports. Tariffs raise the price of imported goods relative to domestic goods (goods produced at home). So, D is correct.
Option A: An import quota is a type of protectionist trade restriction that sets a physical limit on the quantity of a good that can be imported into a country in a given period of time. So, A is correct.
Option B: FDI is related to the capital sector and overall investment policy of the nation. FDI is not considered a trade component. So, B is wrong.
Option C: Such standards can effectively clog imports from competitor nations, for e.g. China in case of India.UnattemptedOption D: A barrier to trade is a government-imposed restraint on the flow of international goods or services. The most common barrier to trade is a tariff—a tax on imports. Tariffs raise the price of imported goods relative to domestic goods (goods produced at home). So, D is correct.
Option A: An import quota is a type of protectionist trade restriction that sets a physical limit on the quantity of a good that can be imported into a country in a given period of time. So, A is correct.
Option B: FDI is related to the capital sector and overall investment policy of the nation. FDI is not considered a trade component. So, B is wrong.
Option C: Such standards can effectively clog imports from competitor nations, for e.g. China in case of India. - Question 44 of 100
44. Question
Statement I : The IMF is funded by a charge – known as a “quota” – paid by member nations – based on a country’s wealth.
Statement II : The IMF also acts as a lender of last resort, disbursing its foreign exchange reserves for short periods to any member in difficulties.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both statements I and II are correct.
(B) Both statements I and II are false.
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe IMF's primary purpose is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system—the system of exchange rates and international payments that enables countries (and their citizens) to transact with each other. The Fund's mandate was updated in 2012 to include all macroeconomic and financial sector issues that bear on global stability.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 189 countries, working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world.
Created in 1945, the IMF is governed by and accountable to the 189 countries that make up its near-global membership.UnattemptedThe IMF's primary purpose is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system—the system of exchange rates and international payments that enables countries (and their citizens) to transact with each other. The Fund's mandate was updated in 2012 to include all macroeconomic and financial sector issues that bear on global stability.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 189 countries, working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world.
Created in 1945, the IMF is governed by and accountable to the 189 countries that make up its near-global membership. - Question 45 of 100
45. Question
The States in India can borrow from which of the following source/sources?
(1) RBI
(2) Foreign agencies
(3) Centre
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectOption 1 is correct : All the State Governments are required to maintain a minimum balance with the Reserve Bank, which varies from state to state depending on the relative size of the state budget and economic activity. To tide over temporary mismatches in the cash flow of receipts and payments, the Reserve Bank provides Ways and Means Advances/ Overdraft to the State Governments.
Option 2 is not correct : A state government can borrow within India (and not abroad) upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of the State or can give guarantees, but both within the limits fixed by the legislature of that state.
Option 3 is correct : The Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in respect of loans raised by any state. Any sums required for the purpose of making such loans are to be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.UnattemptedOption 1 is correct : All the State Governments are required to maintain a minimum balance with the Reserve Bank, which varies from state to state depending on the relative size of the state budget and economic activity. To tide over temporary mismatches in the cash flow of receipts and payments, the Reserve Bank provides Ways and Means Advances/ Overdraft to the State Governments.
Option 2 is not correct : A state government can borrow within India (and not abroad) upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of the State or can give guarantees, but both within the limits fixed by the legislature of that state.
Option 3 is correct : The Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in respect of loans raised by any state. Any sums required for the purpose of making such loans are to be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. - Question 46 of 100
46. Question
With reference to the ‘Cash Management Bills’, consider the following statements :
(1) They are the long term bills
(2) The bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of the government
(3) They are eligible as SLR securities for Banks.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCash Management Bills (CMBs) are short term bills issued by central government to meet its immediate cash needs. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of the government. Hence the CMBs are short-term money market instruments that help the government to meet its temporary cash flow mismatches. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
CMBs are eligible as SLR securities. Investment in CMBs is also recognized as an eligible investment in Government securities by banks for SLR purpose under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Hence, statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedCash Management Bills (CMBs) are short term bills issued by central government to meet its immediate cash needs. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of the government. Hence the CMBs are short-term money market instruments that help the government to meet its temporary cash flow mismatches. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
CMBs are eligible as SLR securities. Investment in CMBs is also recognized as an eligible investment in Government securities by banks for SLR purpose under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Hence, statement 3 is correct. - Question 47 of 100
47. Question
A nation’s Balance of Payments (BoP) is NOT affected by which of the following?
(A) Foreign Investment Received
(B) Demand for currency abroad
(C) Remittance received by the residents
(D) It is affected by all of the above
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectA country's balance of payments and its net international investment position together constitute its international accounts.
The balance of payments divides transactions in two accounts: the current account and the capital account (sometimes the capital account is called the financial account, with a separate, usually very small, capital account listed separately). The current account includes transactions in goods, services, investment income and current transfers.
The capital account, broadly defined, includes transactions in financial instruments and central bank reserves. Narrowly defined, it includes only transactions in financial instruments. The current account is included in calculations of national output, while the capital account is not.UnattemptedA country's balance of payments and its net international investment position together constitute its international accounts.
The balance of payments divides transactions in two accounts: the current account and the capital account (sometimes the capital account is called the financial account, with a separate, usually very small, capital account listed separately). The current account includes transactions in goods, services, investment income and current transfers.
The capital account, broadly defined, includes transactions in financial instruments and central bank reserves. Narrowly defined, it includes only transactions in financial instruments. The current account is included in calculations of national output, while the capital account is not. - Question 48 of 100
48. Question
Which of the following authorities in India notifies the ‘Exchange Rate of Foreign Currency Relating to Imported and Export Goods’?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)
(C) Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)
(D) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn exercise of the powers conferred by Section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962, CBIC hereby determines that the rate of exchange of conversion of each of the foreign currencies specified in its order into Indian currency or vice versa, relating to Imported and Export Goods.
CBEC was issuing these orders earlier, and then it was renamed to CBIC in 2018.
CBIC is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India) It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs & Central Excise duties and Service Tax, prevention of smuggling and administration of matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Service Tax and Narcotics to the extent under CBEC's purview.
The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Service Tax Commissionerates and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory.UnattemptedIn exercise of the powers conferred by Section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962, CBIC hereby determines that the rate of exchange of conversion of each of the foreign currencies specified in its order into Indian currency or vice versa, relating to Imported and Export Goods.
CBEC was issuing these orders earlier, and then it was renamed to CBIC in 2018.
CBIC is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India) It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs & Central Excise duties and Service Tax, prevention of smuggling and administration of matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Service Tax and Narcotics to the extent under CBEC's purview.
The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Service Tax Commissionerates and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory. - Question 49 of 100
49. Question
Which of the following is/are examples of durable consumer goods?
(1) Petrol
(2) Computers
(3) Gas
(4) Automobiles
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 4 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectDurable consumer goods are those goods which can be used for several years and are of relatively high value. These goods are used repeatedly before they are finished) For example TV, Computers, automobiles, radio, washing machines are some of durable consumer goods.
However, petrol and gas come in category of non- durable goods as these goods are in a single act of consumption and are of reletively low value.UnattemptedDurable consumer goods are those goods which can be used for several years and are of relatively high value. These goods are used repeatedly before they are finished) For example TV, Computers, automobiles, radio, washing machines are some of durable consumer goods.
However, petrol and gas come in category of non- durable goods as these goods are in a single act of consumption and are of reletively low value. - Question 50 of 100
50. Question
Which of the following is/are considered as part of formal sector in India?
(1) All public sector establishments
(2) All private sector establishments with at least 10 employees
(3) Self-employed workers with no hired employees
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectFormal sector of economy encompasses all jobs with normal hours and regular wages, and are recognized as income sources. It is composed of those firms and workers who are engaged in legalized economic activities. Those who are working in the formal sector enjoy social security benefits.
The formal sector includes:
o All the public sector establishments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Those private sector establishments which employ 10 hired workers or more. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
All other enterprises and workers working in those enterprises form the informal sector. Thus, the informal sector includes millions of farmers, agricultural labourers, owners of small enterprises and people working in those enterprises as also the self-employed who do not have any hired workers. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.UnattemptedFormal sector of economy encompasses all jobs with normal hours and regular wages, and are recognized as income sources. It is composed of those firms and workers who are engaged in legalized economic activities. Those who are working in the formal sector enjoy social security benefits.
The formal sector includes:
o All the public sector establishments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Those private sector establishments which employ 10 hired workers or more. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
All other enterprises and workers working in those enterprises form the informal sector. Thus, the informal sector includes millions of farmers, agricultural labourers, owners of small enterprises and people working in those enterprises as also the self-employed who do not have any hired workers. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. - Question 51 of 100
51. Question
Which of the following decides the Issue Price of Food Grains in India?
(A) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
(B) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
(C) Commission on Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
(D) Ministry of Food, Public Distribution and Consumer Affairs
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectA buffer stock is created by the government to distribute food grains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price also known as Issue Price.
FCI procures the food grains. It does not decide the issue price. So, B is wrong.
CACP only recommends prices to the CCEA. It is the CCEA which finally decides the issue price.
CACP is not authorized to fix them. So, C is wrong.
FCI plays a pivotal role in grain distribution and ensuring food security in India.
The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production.
The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops. This price is called Minimum Support Price.
The MSP is declared by the government every year before the sowing season to provide incentives to the farmers for raising the production of these crops.UnattemptedA buffer stock is created by the government to distribute food grains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price also known as Issue Price.
FCI procures the food grains. It does not decide the issue price. So, B is wrong.
CACP only recommends prices to the CCEA. It is the CCEA which finally decides the issue price.
CACP is not authorized to fix them. So, C is wrong.
FCI plays a pivotal role in grain distribution and ensuring food security in India.
The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production.
The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops. This price is called Minimum Support Price.
The MSP is declared by the government every year before the sowing season to provide incentives to the farmers for raising the production of these crops. - Question 52 of 100
52. Question
Food Corporation of India is responsible for:
(1) Procuring grains at the MSP from farmers.
(2) Allocating grains to states.
(3) Maintaining operational and buffer stocks of grains to ensure food security.
Which of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Food Corporation of India was setup under the Food Corporation Act 1964. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) is the nodal agency at the centre that is responsible for transporting food grains to the state godowns.
Specifically, FCI is responsible for:
o procuring grains at the MSP from farmers,
o maintaining operational and buffer stocks of grains to ensure food security,
o allocating grains to states,
o distributing and transporting grains to the state depots, and
o selling the grains to states at the central issue price to be eventually passed on to the beneficiaries.
o Distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for public distribution system.UnattemptedThe Food Corporation of India was setup under the Food Corporation Act 1964. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) is the nodal agency at the centre that is responsible for transporting food grains to the state godowns.
Specifically, FCI is responsible for:
o procuring grains at the MSP from farmers,
o maintaining operational and buffer stocks of grains to ensure food security,
o allocating grains to states,
o distributing and transporting grains to the state depots, and
o selling the grains to states at the central issue price to be eventually passed on to the beneficiaries.
o Distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for public distribution system. - Question 53 of 100
53. Question
Which of the following is an example of a direct tax?
(A) Sales tax
(B) Income tax
(C) Value added tax (VAT)
(D) Excise duty
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIncome tax is a direct tax levied directly on the income of individuals and organizations. Sales tax, VAT, and excise duty are all examples of indirect taxes levied on the sale or production of goods and services.
UnattemptedIncome tax is a direct tax levied directly on the income of individuals and organizations. Sales tax, VAT, and excise duty are all examples of indirect taxes levied on the sale or production of goods and services.
- Question 54 of 100
54. Question
Since the introduction of New Economic Policy of 1991, the growth in agriculture sector has been decelerating. What can be the possible reasons?
(1) Decrease in proportion of public investment in agriculture sector
(2) Reduction of fertiliser subsidy
(3) Lifting of quantitative restrictions on agricultural produces
Which of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectNew Economic Policy reforms have not been able to benefit agriculture, where the growth rate has been decelerating.
Option 1 is correct: Public investment in agriculture sector especially in infrastructure, which includes irrigation, power, roads, market linkages and research and extension (which played a crucial role in the Green Revolution), has fallen in the reform period.
Option 2 is correct: Further, the reduction of fertiliser subsidy has led to increase in the cost of production, which has severely affected the small and marginal farmers.
Option 3 is correct: This sector has been experiencing a number of policy changes such as reduction in import duties on agricultural products, removal of minimum support price and lifting of quantitative restrictions on agricultural products; these have adversely affected Indian farmers as they now have to face increased international competition.UnattemptedNew Economic Policy reforms have not been able to benefit agriculture, where the growth rate has been decelerating.
Option 1 is correct: Public investment in agriculture sector especially in infrastructure, which includes irrigation, power, roads, market linkages and research and extension (which played a crucial role in the Green Revolution), has fallen in the reform period.
Option 2 is correct: Further, the reduction of fertiliser subsidy has led to increase in the cost of production, which has severely affected the small and marginal farmers.
Option 3 is correct: This sector has been experiencing a number of policy changes such as reduction in import duties on agricultural products, removal of minimum support price and lifting of quantitative restrictions on agricultural products; these have adversely affected Indian farmers as they now have to face increased international competition. - Question 55 of 100
55. Question
The term “Fiscal capacity” often used by the policymakers refers to
(1) Openness of an economy
(2) Government’s tax and expenditure volumes
(3) Private sector savings
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectFiscal capacity is related to capacity of the government to tax and spend) India’s fiscal capacity can be assessed through tax-GDP and spending-GDP ratios
UnattemptedFiscal capacity is related to capacity of the government to tax and spend) India’s fiscal capacity can be assessed through tax-GDP and spending-GDP ratios
- Question 56 of 100
56. Question
With reference to the Gross Domestic Product of an economy, consider the following statements:
(1) It represents the monetary value of all goods and services produced within a nation's territorial boundaries.
(2) It does not account for the depreciation of capital goods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectGross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to and measures the domestic levels of production in a country. It represents the monetary value of all goods and services produced within a nation's geographic borders over a specified period of time. GDP is often used to indicate the health of a nation‘s economy. Investors use this figure to make decisions about investment in a particular nation, while governments use it for drafting policies. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Net Domestic Product (NDP) equals the gross domestic product (GDP) minus depreciation on a country's capital goods. Net domestic product accounts for capital that has been consumed over the year in the form of housing, vehicle, or machinery deterioration. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Gross National Product (GNP) measures the levels of production of all the citizens or corporations from a particular country working or producing in any country.UnattemptedGross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to and measures the domestic levels of production in a country. It represents the monetary value of all goods and services produced within a nation's geographic borders over a specified period of time. GDP is often used to indicate the health of a nation‘s economy. Investors use this figure to make decisions about investment in a particular nation, while governments use it for drafting policies. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Net Domestic Product (NDP) equals the gross domestic product (GDP) minus depreciation on a country's capital goods. Net domestic product accounts for capital that has been consumed over the year in the form of housing, vehicle, or machinery deterioration. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Gross National Product (GNP) measures the levels of production of all the citizens or corporations from a particular country working or producing in any country. - Question 57 of 100
57. Question
Which of the following is/are the quantitative methods of credit control in India?
(1) Regulation of consumer credit.
(2) Rationing Credit.
(3) Discount Rate Policy
(4) Open Market Operations
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 3 and 4 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectQuantitative methods aim at controlling the cost and quantity of credit. It does not discriminate between different sectors and end use of credit.
Quantitative methods are:
Discount Rate Policy
Open market operations
Variable Reserve Ratio
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
Marginal Standing Facility.
Regulation of Consumer Credit and Rationing of Credit are Qualitative credit control method.UnattemptedQuantitative methods aim at controlling the cost and quantity of credit. It does not discriminate between different sectors and end use of credit.
Quantitative methods are:
Discount Rate Policy
Open market operations
Variable Reserve Ratio
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
Marginal Standing Facility.
Regulation of Consumer Credit and Rationing of Credit are Qualitative credit control method. - Question 58 of 100
58. Question
Which of the following indexes used for measuring inflation is/are compiled and released by National Statistical Organisation (NSO)?
(1) Consumer Price Index (Rural)
(2) Consumer Price Index (Urban)
(3) Wholesale Price Index
(4) Consumer Price Index (Rural Labourers)
Which of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectA Consumer Price Index (CPI) is designed to measure the changes over time in general level of retail prices of selected goods and services that households purchase for the purpose of consumption.
Such changes affect the real purchasing power of consumers’ income and their welfare. The CPI measures price changes by comparing, through time, the cost of a fixed basket of commodities.
CPIs have been widely used as a macroeconomic indicator of inflation, and also as a tool by Government and Central Bank for targeting inflation and monitoring price stability. CPI is also used as deflators in the National Accounts.
In India, segment specific CPIs, namely CPI (IW) Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers, CPI (AL) Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers, CPI (RL) Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers are being compiled regularly, catering to the need of specific population group. CPI (UNME) Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees which has been discontinued w.e.f. December, 2010.
Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation started releasing Consumer Price Indices (CPI) on base 2010=100 for all-India and States/UTs separately for rural, urban and combined every month with effect from January, 2011. So, options 1 & 2 are correct.
WPI measures the average change in prices of goods at the wholesale level. The base year has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 by the Office of Economic Advisor(OEA), Department for promotion of industry and internal trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, GoI. So, option 3 is not correct.
CPI (Rural labourers) is released by Labour bureau under Ministry labour and employment. So, option 4 is not correct.UnattemptedA Consumer Price Index (CPI) is designed to measure the changes over time in general level of retail prices of selected goods and services that households purchase for the purpose of consumption.
Such changes affect the real purchasing power of consumers’ income and their welfare. The CPI measures price changes by comparing, through time, the cost of a fixed basket of commodities.
CPIs have been widely used as a macroeconomic indicator of inflation, and also as a tool by Government and Central Bank for targeting inflation and monitoring price stability. CPI is also used as deflators in the National Accounts.
In India, segment specific CPIs, namely CPI (IW) Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers, CPI (AL) Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers, CPI (RL) Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers are being compiled regularly, catering to the need of specific population group. CPI (UNME) Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees which has been discontinued w.e.f. December, 2010.
Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation started releasing Consumer Price Indices (CPI) on base 2010=100 for all-India and States/UTs separately for rural, urban and combined every month with effect from January, 2011. So, options 1 & 2 are correct.
WPI measures the average change in prices of goods at the wholesale level. The base year has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 by the Office of Economic Advisor(OEA), Department for promotion of industry and internal trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, GoI. So, option 3 is not correct.
CPI (Rural labourers) is released by Labour bureau under Ministry labour and employment. So, option 4 is not correct. - Question 59 of 100
59. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Fiscal deficit indicates the amount of money the government needs to borrow, excluding the interest component.
(2) Zero primary deficit indicates that the interest payment obligations of the government is zero.
(3) The concept of effective revenue deficit was introduced in the Union budget of 2011-12.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe excess of total expenditure over total receipts excluding borrowings is called Fiscal Deficit. In other words, the Fiscal Deficit gives the amount needed by the government to meet its expenses. Thus, a large Fiscal Deficit means a large amount of borrowings.
Fiscal Deficit includes Interest component, Only Primary deficit excludes Interest. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Primary deficit indicates the borrowing requirements of the govt. for meeting expenditure excluding interest payment. It is calculated by, Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments.
When the primary deficit is zero, the fiscal deficit becomes equal to the interest payment. Entire borrowings of the Government are used to make interest payments.
Therefore, Zero Primary deficit doesn’t indicate that the interest payment on the loans taken by the government is zero. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget of 2011-12. Effective Revenue Deficit is the difference between revenue deficit and grants for the creation of capital assets. So, Statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedThe excess of total expenditure over total receipts excluding borrowings is called Fiscal Deficit. In other words, the Fiscal Deficit gives the amount needed by the government to meet its expenses. Thus, a large Fiscal Deficit means a large amount of borrowings.
Fiscal Deficit includes Interest component, Only Primary deficit excludes Interest. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Primary deficit indicates the borrowing requirements of the govt. for meeting expenditure excluding interest payment. It is calculated by, Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments.
When the primary deficit is zero, the fiscal deficit becomes equal to the interest payment. Entire borrowings of the Government are used to make interest payments.
Therefore, Zero Primary deficit doesn’t indicate that the interest payment on the loans taken by the government is zero. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget of 2011-12. Effective Revenue Deficit is the difference between revenue deficit and grants for the creation of capital assets. So, Statement 3 is correct. - Question 60 of 100
60. Question
With reference to Inflation in india, consider the following statements:
(1) Increasing Inflation in the Economy benefits the creditors.
(2) Real Estate Investments can help against inflation.
(3) Very low inflation can lead to slow economic growth of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIncreasing Inflation in the Economy benefits the debtors/ borrowers in the economy. The borrowers benefit from unanticipated inflation because the money they pay back is worth less than the money they borrowed. They gain in real terms.High rates of inflation can make it easier to pay back outstanding debt. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
REITs provide natural protection against inflation.The real estate investments fare better than others in a highly inflationary economy.The real estate rents and values tend to increase during inflation. This supports REIT dividend growth and provides a reliable stream of income even during inflationary periods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Very low inflation usually signals demand for goods and services is lower than it should be, and this tends to slow economic growth and depress wages. This low demand can even lead to a recession with increases in unemployment – as we saw a decade ago during the Great Recession. Hence, statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedIncreasing Inflation in the Economy benefits the debtors/ borrowers in the economy. The borrowers benefit from unanticipated inflation because the money they pay back is worth less than the money they borrowed. They gain in real terms.High rates of inflation can make it easier to pay back outstanding debt. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
REITs provide natural protection against inflation.The real estate investments fare better than others in a highly inflationary economy.The real estate rents and values tend to increase during inflation. This supports REIT dividend growth and provides a reliable stream of income even during inflationary periods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Very low inflation usually signals demand for goods and services is lower than it should be, and this tends to slow economic growth and depress wages. This low demand can even lead to a recession with increases in unemployment – as we saw a decade ago during the Great Recession. Hence, statement 3 is correct. - Question 61 of 100
61. Question
Which of the following may be the possible consequences of “Deficit financing”?
(1) Increased inflation
(2) Decrease in public debt
(3) Lowers the savings rate in economy
Which of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectDeficit financing is the budgetary situation where expenditure is higher than the revenue. It is a practice adopted for financing the excess expenditure with outside resources. The expenditure revenue gap is financed by either printing of currency or through borrowing.
It always leads to an inflationary rise in prices. Unless inflation is controlled, the benefits of deficit induced inflation would not fructify. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Deficit financing leads to inflation and inflation affects the habit of voluntary saving adversely. Infact, it is not possible for the people to maintain the previous rate of saving in the state of rising prices. Hence, option 3 is correct.
Deficit financing-led inflation helps producing classes and businessmen to flourish. But fixed-income earners suffer during inflation. This widens the distance between the two classes. In other words, income inequality increases.
Another important drawback of deficit financing is that it distorts investment pattern.
Deficit financing may not yield good result in the creation of employment opportunities.
This inflationary method of financing leads to a larger volume of the deficit in a country”s balance of payments. Following an inflationary rise in prices, export declines while the import bill rises, and resources get transferred from export industries to import-competing industries.
Deficit financed by borrowings will result into increase in public debt. That is why it is healthy for an economy to keep a low fiscal deficit. Hence, option 2 is not correct.UnattemptedDeficit financing is the budgetary situation where expenditure is higher than the revenue. It is a practice adopted for financing the excess expenditure with outside resources. The expenditure revenue gap is financed by either printing of currency or through borrowing.
It always leads to an inflationary rise in prices. Unless inflation is controlled, the benefits of deficit induced inflation would not fructify. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Deficit financing leads to inflation and inflation affects the habit of voluntary saving adversely. Infact, it is not possible for the people to maintain the previous rate of saving in the state of rising prices. Hence, option 3 is correct.
Deficit financing-led inflation helps producing classes and businessmen to flourish. But fixed-income earners suffer during inflation. This widens the distance between the two classes. In other words, income inequality increases.
Another important drawback of deficit financing is that it distorts investment pattern.
Deficit financing may not yield good result in the creation of employment opportunities.
This inflationary method of financing leads to a larger volume of the deficit in a country”s balance of payments. Following an inflationary rise in prices, export declines while the import bill rises, and resources get transferred from export industries to import-competing industries.
Deficit financed by borrowings will result into increase in public debt. That is why it is healthy for an economy to keep a low fiscal deficit. Hence, option 2 is not correct. - Question 62 of 100
62. Question
Consider the following statements :
(1) Unemployment occurs when a person who is Inactively searching for employment is unable to find work.
(2) The most frequent measure of unemployment is the unemployment rate.
(3) Unemployment tends to increase economic overload.
(4) Increase in unemployment is an indicator of a depressed economy
(5) In case of India, a large number of people represented with low income and productivity are counted as unemployed.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1, 3 and 5 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectUnemployment occurs when a person who is actively searching for employment is unable to find work. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Unemployment is often used as a measure of the health of the economy.
The most frequent measure of unemployment is the unemployment rate, which is the number of unemployed people divided by the number of people in the labour force. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Unemployment tends to increase economic overload:
Unemployment refers to the situation where individuals who are willing and able to work are unable to find suitable employment opportunities. When unemployment rates are high, it puts a strain on the economy. This is because unemployed individuals are not contributing to the production of goods and services, which leads to a decrease in overall economic output. Additionally, unemployed individuals may rely on government assistance or social welfare programs, which can put a burden on public finances. Therefore, unemployment tends to increase economic overload. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Increase in unemployment is an indicator of a depressed economy: High levels of unemployment are often seen as a sign of a depressed or struggling economy. When unemployment rates increase, it indicates that there is a lack of demand for labor in the economy. This can be due to various factors such as a slowdown in economic growth, lack of investment, or structural issues within the labor market. As a result, an increase in unemployment is often seen as a negative indicator of the overall health of the economy. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
In the case of India, a large number of people represented with low income and productivity are counted as unemployed: This statement is incorrect. In India, the definition of unemployment is based on the status of individuals in the labor force. According to the International Labour Organization (ILO), individuals are considered unemployed if they are currently not working, actively seeking work, and available for work. The income and productivity levels of individuals are not taken into account when determining unemployment. However, it is worth noting that in India, there is a significant portion of the workforce engaged in the informal sector, where income and productivity levels may be low. These individuals are not counted as unemployed but are considered underemployed. Hence, statement 5 is not correct.UnattemptedUnemployment occurs when a person who is actively searching for employment is unable to find work. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Unemployment is often used as a measure of the health of the economy.
The most frequent measure of unemployment is the unemployment rate, which is the number of unemployed people divided by the number of people in the labour force. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Unemployment tends to increase economic overload:
Unemployment refers to the situation where individuals who are willing and able to work are unable to find suitable employment opportunities. When unemployment rates are high, it puts a strain on the economy. This is because unemployed individuals are not contributing to the production of goods and services, which leads to a decrease in overall economic output. Additionally, unemployed individuals may rely on government assistance or social welfare programs, which can put a burden on public finances. Therefore, unemployment tends to increase economic overload. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Increase in unemployment is an indicator of a depressed economy: High levels of unemployment are often seen as a sign of a depressed or struggling economy. When unemployment rates increase, it indicates that there is a lack of demand for labor in the economy. This can be due to various factors such as a slowdown in economic growth, lack of investment, or structural issues within the labor market. As a result, an increase in unemployment is often seen as a negative indicator of the overall health of the economy. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
In the case of India, a large number of people represented with low income and productivity are counted as unemployed: This statement is incorrect. In India, the definition of unemployment is based on the status of individuals in the labor force. According to the International Labour Organization (ILO), individuals are considered unemployed if they are currently not working, actively seeking work, and available for work. The income and productivity levels of individuals are not taken into account when determining unemployment. However, it is worth noting that in India, there is a significant portion of the workforce engaged in the informal sector, where income and productivity levels may be low. These individuals are not counted as unemployed but are considered underemployed. Hence, statement 5 is not correct. - Question 63 of 100
63. Question
Consider the following statements :
(1) Disguised Unemployment: It is a phenomenon wherein more people are employed than actually needed.
(2) Seasonal Unemployment: It is an unemployment that occurs during certain seasons of the year.
(3) Structural Unemployment: It is a result of the business cycle, where unemployment rises during recession and declines with economic growth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectTypes of Unemployment:
Disguised Unemployment: It is a phenomenon wherein more people are employed than actually needed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It is primarily traced in the agricultural and the unorganised sectors of India.
Seasonal Unemployment: It is an unemployment that occurs during certain seasons of the year. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Agricultural labourers in India rarely have work throughout the year.
Structural Unemployment: It is a category of unemployment arising from the mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the skills of the available workers in the market. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Many people in India do not get jobs due to lack of requisite skills and due to poor education level, it becomes difficult to train them.
Cyclical Unemployment: It is a result of the business cycle, where unemployment rises during recessions and declines with economic growth.
Cyclical unemployment figures in India are negligible. It is a phenomenon that is mostly found in capitalist economies.
Technological Unemployment: It is the loss of jobs due to changes in technology.UnattemptedTypes of Unemployment:
Disguised Unemployment: It is a phenomenon wherein more people are employed than actually needed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It is primarily traced in the agricultural and the unorganised sectors of India.
Seasonal Unemployment: It is an unemployment that occurs during certain seasons of the year. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Agricultural labourers in India rarely have work throughout the year.
Structural Unemployment: It is a category of unemployment arising from the mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the skills of the available workers in the market. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Many people in India do not get jobs due to lack of requisite skills and due to poor education level, it becomes difficult to train them.
Cyclical Unemployment: It is a result of the business cycle, where unemployment rises during recessions and declines with economic growth.
Cyclical unemployment figures in India are negligible. It is a phenomenon that is mostly found in capitalist economies.
Technological Unemployment: It is the loss of jobs due to changes in technology. - Question 64 of 100
64. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of Payment Banks?
(1) Mobile telephone companies that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
(2) Payment Banks can issue credit cards.
(3) Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.
(4) Payment banks have lower or no minimum balance requirements.
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1, 2 and 4 Only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAirtel already has payment bank license. Thus, Mobile telephone companies that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Unlike a regular bank however, a payment bank can't loan money to people, or issue credit cards. Also, the payment banks are only allowed to invest the money customers deposit into government securities. While the payment banks can't issue credit cards, they can issue ATM and debit cards. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Payment Banks cannot lend and they are just a payment bank i.e. for remittance, transfers etc. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Payment banks have lower or no minimum balance requirements. Hence, statement 4 is correct.UnattemptedAirtel already has payment bank license. Thus, Mobile telephone companies that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Unlike a regular bank however, a payment bank can't loan money to people, or issue credit cards. Also, the payment banks are only allowed to invest the money customers deposit into government securities. While the payment banks can't issue credit cards, they can issue ATM and debit cards. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Payment Banks cannot lend and they are just a payment bank i.e. for remittance, transfers etc. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Payment banks have lower or no minimum balance requirements. Hence, statement 4 is correct. - Question 65 of 100
65. Question
Which of the following could be the possible effect of decreasing the tax rates?
(1) In the short term it may boost demand in an economy.
(2) In the long term it may slow economic growth by increasing deficits.
(3) Tax cuts might increase consumer and business confidence in the economy, encouraging spending and investment.
(4) Lower corporate taxes, for instance, can make a country more attractive for businesses, potentially attracting foreign investment and improving international competitiveness.
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1, 2 and 4 Only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBy influencing incentives, taxes can affect both supply and demand factors. Reducing marginal tax rates on wages and salaries, for example, can induce people to work more.
In the short term (the next one or two years), cutting taxes is an effective way to boost demand in an economy. This is because consumers have more disposable income and businesses have more money to hire employers and invest in their business. Tax cuts increase worker's take-home pay. Tax cuts also increase firms’ after-tax cash flow. Businesses can use this extra cash flow to pay dividends and expand activity, and it can make hiring and investing more attractive. Tax increases have the opposite effect. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In the long term, tax reductions can induce people to work more, bring more low-skilled workers into the labor force, encourage saving, cause companies to invest domestically (rather than internationally), and encourage the creation of new ideas through research. However, tax reductions in the long term can also slow economic growth by increasing deficits. In addition, if tax cuts increase workers’ after-tax income, they may choose to work less, and this can negatively impact supply. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Tax cuts might increase consumer and business confidence in the economy, encouraging spending and investment. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Lower corporate taxes, for instance, can make a country more attractive for businesses, potentially attracting foreign investment and improving international competitiveness. Hence, statement 4 is correct.UnattemptedBy influencing incentives, taxes can affect both supply and demand factors. Reducing marginal tax rates on wages and salaries, for example, can induce people to work more.
In the short term (the next one or two years), cutting taxes is an effective way to boost demand in an economy. This is because consumers have more disposable income and businesses have more money to hire employers and invest in their business. Tax cuts increase worker's take-home pay. Tax cuts also increase firms’ after-tax cash flow. Businesses can use this extra cash flow to pay dividends and expand activity, and it can make hiring and investing more attractive. Tax increases have the opposite effect. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In the long term, tax reductions can induce people to work more, bring more low-skilled workers into the labor force, encourage saving, cause companies to invest domestically (rather than internationally), and encourage the creation of new ideas through research. However, tax reductions in the long term can also slow economic growth by increasing deficits. In addition, if tax cuts increase workers’ after-tax income, they may choose to work less, and this can negatively impact supply. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Tax cuts might increase consumer and business confidence in the economy, encouraging spending and investment. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Lower corporate taxes, for instance, can make a country more attractive for businesses, potentially attracting foreign investment and improving international competitiveness. Hence, statement 4 is correct. - Question 66 of 100
66. Question
Consider the following statements about Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) :
(1) Returns in FPI are in the form of dividends and interest payments.
(2) FPI is the passive holding of securities and other financial assets by a foreign firm.
(3) SEBI has introduced the Foreign Portfolio Investors Regulations, 2019.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectForeign portfolio investment (FPI) is defined as an investment by individuals, firms, or a public body in foreign financial instruments, such as foreign stocks, government bonds, etc.
The returns in the case of FPI are generally in the form of non-voting dividends or interest payments. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) typically involves the passive holding of financial assets like stocks, bonds, and other securities by a foreign entity. Unlike Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), where an investor takes a significant ownership stake and often has a degree of control in a foreign company, FPI involves investing in financial instruments without active management or control over the company. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The new SEBI FPI Regulations, 2019 and Operational Guidelines primarily aim to ease the registration process, eliminate redundant regulatory conditions and lessen the compliance requirements for FPIs. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedForeign portfolio investment (FPI) is defined as an investment by individuals, firms, or a public body in foreign financial instruments, such as foreign stocks, government bonds, etc.
The returns in the case of FPI are generally in the form of non-voting dividends or interest payments. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) typically involves the passive holding of financial assets like stocks, bonds, and other securities by a foreign entity. Unlike Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), where an investor takes a significant ownership stake and often has a degree of control in a foreign company, FPI involves investing in financial instruments without active management or control over the company. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The new SEBI FPI Regulations, 2019 and Operational Guidelines primarily aim to ease the registration process, eliminate redundant regulatory conditions and lessen the compliance requirements for FPIs. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. - Question 67 of 100
67. Question
Which of the following factors may contribute to the fall in the value of Indian Rupee?
(1) Decrease in the outflow of remittances.
(2) Increase of the interest rates in the Federal Reserve Bank of United States.
(3) Increase in the domestic production of Oil.
(4) Successful implementation TAPI gas pipeline project.
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1 Only
(B) 2 Only
(C) 3 Only
(D) 4 Only
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIncrease of the interest rates in the Federal Reserve Bank of United States, will affect the Foreign Portfolio Investment in India. The investors will tend to pull out the money from Indian market and invest in US Federal in search of greater interest. This will result in the outflow of dollars from India and, hence, will decrease the value Indian Rupee against US dollar.
Rest all other statements will contribute to the rise in the value of Indian Rupee. Hence, only statement 2 is correct.UnattemptedIncrease of the interest rates in the Federal Reserve Bank of United States, will affect the Foreign Portfolio Investment in India. The investors will tend to pull out the money from Indian market and invest in US Federal in search of greater interest. This will result in the outflow of dollars from India and, hence, will decrease the value Indian Rupee against US dollar.
Rest all other statements will contribute to the rise in the value of Indian Rupee. Hence, only statement 2 is correct. - Question 68 of 100
68. Question
Consider the following statements regarding components of “double financial repression”:
(1) Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) and Priority sector lending (PSL) requirements are a repression on the asset side.
(2) Rising Non Performing Assets (NPAs) and reduction in households financial savings are a repression on the liability side.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectStatutory liquidity ratio and Priority Sector Lending requirements and Rising NonPerforming Assets are considered repression on asset side as the SLR is the government securities held by banks and Priority Sector Lending is the loans which ideally means interest payment to banks and hence is an asset.
Reduction in households financial savings is a repression on the liability side.UnattemptedStatutory liquidity ratio and Priority Sector Lending requirements and Rising NonPerforming Assets are considered repression on asset side as the SLR is the government securities held by banks and Priority Sector Lending is the loans which ideally means interest payment to banks and hence is an asset.
Reduction in households financial savings is a repression on the liability side. - Question 69 of 100
69. Question
Which of the following best describes ' Bracket Creep '?
(A) It is a situation where the tax obligation of a person increases as inflation pushes income into higher tax brackets.
(B) It is a reduction in taxable income for an individual or corporation achieved through claiming allowable deductions .
(C) It is the portion of earning of an individual that his/her employer sends directly to the government each pay period .
(D) It is the total tax payment of individual in time bracket of three years , previous , financial and assessment year.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn the tax world, bracket creep occurs when inflation drives income up and into higher tax brackets. It is a situation in which a person's tax obligation increases over time due to the gradual move from a lower tax bracket to a higher one. Hence option (A) is correct.
Jumping up to a new tax bracket can be a good problem to have — after all, it signifies that the taxpayer is earning more money. But actually inflation has eaten salary increases, the problem is that the tax code stayed the same during this time of inflation. Governments often solve this problem via tax indexing, whereby it adjusts the tax rates in lockstep with inflation so that bracket creep does not occur. In the real world, however, tax codes can take a very long time to change. Taxing authorities that wish to increase tax revenues, however, might refrain from tax indexing, thereby helping the government.UnattemptedIn the tax world, bracket creep occurs when inflation drives income up and into higher tax brackets. It is a situation in which a person's tax obligation increases over time due to the gradual move from a lower tax bracket to a higher one. Hence option (A) is correct.
Jumping up to a new tax bracket can be a good problem to have — after all, it signifies that the taxpayer is earning more money. But actually inflation has eaten salary increases, the problem is that the tax code stayed the same during this time of inflation. Governments often solve this problem via tax indexing, whereby it adjusts the tax rates in lockstep with inflation so that bracket creep does not occur. In the real world, however, tax codes can take a very long time to change. Taxing authorities that wish to increase tax revenues, however, might refrain from tax indexing, thereby helping the government. - Question 70 of 100
70. Question
In economics, which one of the following is not included in the 4 major types of capital?
(A) Trading capital
(B) Working Capital
(C) Infrastructure Capital
(D) Debt
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe capital of a business is the money it has available to pay for its day-to-day operations and to fund its future growth. The four major types of capital include working capital, debt, equity, and trading capital. Trading capital is used by brokerages and other financial institutions.
UnattemptedThe capital of a business is the money it has available to pay for its day-to-day operations and to fund its future growth. The four major types of capital include working capital, debt, equity, and trading capital. Trading capital is used by brokerages and other financial institutions.
- Question 71 of 100
71. Question
Which of the following best describes 'Disposable Income'?
(A) Net wages after deducting direct taxes.
(B) Net wages after deducting indirect taxes.
(C) Net wages after adjusting inflation.
(D) None of the above
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectOption (A) is correct. The Disposable Income refers to net wages free to use after deducting the direct taxes from real / nominal income.
Option (B) is incorrect. The indirect taxes are paid out of disposable income left after deducting direct taxes.
Option (C) is incorrect. Inflation is adjusted to arrive at the real income.UnattemptedOption (A) is correct. The Disposable Income refers to net wages free to use after deducting the direct taxes from real / nominal income.
Option (B) is incorrect. The indirect taxes are paid out of disposable income left after deducting direct taxes.
Option (C) is incorrect. Inflation is adjusted to arrive at the real income. - Question 72 of 100
72. Question
Which of these is/are equity market instruments?
(1) Bonds
(2) Shares
(3) Debentures
Select the correct answer :
(A) 2 Only
(B) 3 Only
(C) 1 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectShares are equity instruments, while bonds and debentures are debt instruments. Debt instruments are assets that require a fixed payment to the holder, usually with interest. Examples of debt instruments include bonds (government or corporate), debentures and mortgages. Equity financing allows a company to acquire funds (often for investment) without incurring debt, e.g. shares. Hence, only option 2 is correct.
UnattemptedShares are equity instruments, while bonds and debentures are debt instruments. Debt instruments are assets that require a fixed payment to the holder, usually with interest. Examples of debt instruments include bonds (government or corporate), debentures and mortgages. Equity financing allows a company to acquire funds (often for investment) without incurring debt, e.g. shares. Hence, only option 2 is correct.
- Question 73 of 100
73. Question
Which of the following is/are component(s) of Non-tax revenue receipts ?
(1) Payment for government services
(2) Dividends on investments made by the government
(3) Recoveries of Loans granted by the government
(4) Loans raised by the government from public
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectGovernment receipts can be divided in the following way:
Revenue receipts
● Tax revenues
Consists of the proceeds of taxes and other duties levied by the central government
● Non-tax revenues
Consists of interest receipts on account of loans by the central government, dividends and profits on investments made by the government, fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government.
In addition, Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organisations are also included under the category. Hence, only options 1 and 2 are correct.
Capital receipts
● Consists of the loans raised by the government from the public, borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank and commercial banks and other financial institutions through the sale of treasury bills, loans received from foreign governments and international organisations, and recoveries of loans granted by the central government.
● Other items include small savings (Post-Office Savings Accounts, National Savings Certificates, etc), provident funds and net receipts obtained from the sale of shares in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).UnattemptedGovernment receipts can be divided in the following way:
Revenue receipts
● Tax revenues
Consists of the proceeds of taxes and other duties levied by the central government
● Non-tax revenues
Consists of interest receipts on account of loans by the central government, dividends and profits on investments made by the government, fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government.
In addition, Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organisations are also included under the category. Hence, only options 1 and 2 are correct.
Capital receipts
● Consists of the loans raised by the government from the public, borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank and commercial banks and other financial institutions through the sale of treasury bills, loans received from foreign governments and international organisations, and recoveries of loans granted by the central government.
● Other items include small savings (Post-Office Savings Accounts, National Savings Certificates, etc), provident funds and net receipts obtained from the sale of shares in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). - Question 74 of 100
74. Question
The 'plan holiday' during India's Five-Year planning period was declared due to which of the following reasons?
(A) To make a policy shift from five-year planning to shorter term planning
(B) Change of Government at the Centre
(C) Failure of Third Five Year Plan
(D) To mark a shift from socialist planning
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe main reason behind the plan holiday was the Indo-Pakistan war & failure of the third plan.
The duration of this plan was from 1966 to 1969. The duration of the third five-year plan was from 1961 to 1966.UnattemptedThe main reason behind the plan holiday was the Indo-Pakistan war & failure of the third plan.
The duration of this plan was from 1966 to 1969. The duration of the third five-year plan was from 1961 to 1966. - Question 75 of 100
75. Question
Which of the following best describes 'Care Economy'?
(A) It is an economic system in which deliberate attention is paid to good governance policies for the dependent population.
(B) It consists of the work done by women at home taking care of the household chores.
(C) It is an economic system in which genuine care for people and nature is the top priority.
(D) It refers to the philosophy of making investments in demographic dividend to ensure better economic results in future.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe care economy refers to the work done by women at home taking care of the children, aged, chores etc.
It is not included in GDP calculation. A caring economy is an economic system in which genuine care for people and nature is the top priority. Caring economies are currently found in Nordic nations like Finland, Norway and Sweden. There are governmentsupported child care programs, generous paid parental leave, funding for families caring for children or elders, universal healthcare, and devote high percentages of wealth to aid the poorer nations.UnattemptedThe care economy refers to the work done by women at home taking care of the children, aged, chores etc.
It is not included in GDP calculation. A caring economy is an economic system in which genuine care for people and nature is the top priority. Caring economies are currently found in Nordic nations like Finland, Norway and Sweden. There are governmentsupported child care programs, generous paid parental leave, funding for families caring for children or elders, universal healthcare, and devote high percentages of wealth to aid the poorer nations. - Question 76 of 100
76. Question
To finance its deficit, government prefers borrowing from public over RBI. What can be the best reason for this?
(A) Rate of interest charged by RBI is higher.
(B) Government has to return the sum to RBI within a fixed period of time.
(C) Public borrowing does not affect the money supply in the market.
(D) It increases the sale of government bonds.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectTo finance its expenditure, government likes to borrow from public rather than withdraw cash balances or borrow from RBI. The reason is found on the effects of money supply in the country. Borrowing from public has no effect on money supply in the country. When government borrows, money gets transferred from the public to the government. The net effect on total money supply in the country is nil.
On the other hand, withdrawals from cash balance held in RBI and borrowing from RBI leads to increase in money supply. This increase in money supply may lead to rise in prices and may create many problems in the economy. As such government will like to use this source only when it is forced to do so when no other option of financing is left.UnattemptedTo finance its expenditure, government likes to borrow from public rather than withdraw cash balances or borrow from RBI. The reason is found on the effects of money supply in the country. Borrowing from public has no effect on money supply in the country. When government borrows, money gets transferred from the public to the government. The net effect on total money supply in the country is nil.
On the other hand, withdrawals from cash balance held in RBI and borrowing from RBI leads to increase in money supply. This increase in money supply may lead to rise in prices and may create many problems in the economy. As such government will like to use this source only when it is forced to do so when no other option of financing is left. - Question 77 of 100
77. Question
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect with respect to types of economies?
(1) A command economy is a system where one sector of the economy dominates all other sectors.
(2) Unlike command economy, planned economy requires that a nation's central government own and control the means of production.
(3) The main alternative to a command economy is a planned economy.
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThere are four types of economies: traditional, command, market, and mixed (a combination of a market economy and a planned economy).
A command economy is a system where the central government makes key economic decisions and typically owns or controls the means of production. The emphasis is on centralized planning rather than one sector dominating all others. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The terms “command economy” and “planned economy” are often used interchangeably. Both involve significant government control over economic decisions, including ownership and control of the means of production. The distinction between them can be subtle, and the usage may vary, but broadly speaking, they share similarities. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
In common usage, the terms “command economy” and “planned economy” are often used interchangeably to describe an economic system where the government plays a central role in planning and decision-making. The main alternative to a command/planned economy is a market economy, where economic decisions are primarily determined by market forces such as supply and demand, and the government's role is limited to enforcing property rights and ensuring fair competition. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.UnattemptedThere are four types of economies: traditional, command, market, and mixed (a combination of a market economy and a planned economy).
A command economy is a system where the central government makes key economic decisions and typically owns or controls the means of production. The emphasis is on centralized planning rather than one sector dominating all others. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The terms “command economy” and “planned economy” are often used interchangeably. Both involve significant government control over economic decisions, including ownership and control of the means of production. The distinction between them can be subtle, and the usage may vary, but broadly speaking, they share similarities. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
In common usage, the terms “command economy” and “planned economy” are often used interchangeably to describe an economic system where the government plays a central role in planning and decision-making. The main alternative to a command/planned economy is a market economy, where economic decisions are primarily determined by market forces such as supply and demand, and the government's role is limited to enforcing property rights and ensuring fair competition. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. - Question 78 of 100
78. Question
Which of the following best describes the term ‘import cover’, sometimes seen in the news?
(A) It is the ratio of value of imports to the Gross Domestic Product of a country.
(B) It is the total value of imports of a country in a year.
(C) It is the ratio between the value of exports and that of imports between two countries.
(D) It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s international reserves.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCountries hold foreign-exchange reserves like (foreign banknotes, bank deposits, bonds, treasury bills and other government securities) partly to protect themselves against external crises. Foreign currency reserves are key to countries' defenses against shocks to their economy.
Import Cover measures the number of months of imports that can be covered with foreign exchange reserves available with the central bank of the country. Eight to ten months of import cover is essential for the stability of a currency. It is an important indicator of the stability of a currency.UnattemptedCountries hold foreign-exchange reserves like (foreign banknotes, bank deposits, bonds, treasury bills and other government securities) partly to protect themselves against external crises. Foreign currency reserves are key to countries' defenses against shocks to their economy.
Import Cover measures the number of months of imports that can be covered with foreign exchange reserves available with the central bank of the country. Eight to ten months of import cover is essential for the stability of a currency. It is an important indicator of the stability of a currency. - Question 79 of 100
79. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Repo Rate and Reverse repo rate :
(1) An increases in the repo rate by RBI, makes it costly for businesses and industry to borrow money.
(2) Repo rate is higher than reverse repo rate.
(3) Both rates play a role in influencing the overall money supply in the economy.
(4) The reverse repo rate is the rate at which the central bank borrows money from commercial banks, typically on a short-term basis.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectRepo rate is one of the components of the monetary policy of the RBI which is used to regulate the money supply, level of inflation and liquidity in the country. Additionally, the levels of repo rate have a direct relationship with the cost of borrowing for banks. The higher the repo rate, higher is the cost of borrowing for banks and vice-versa. During high levels of inflation, attempts are made to reduce the money supply in the economy. For this, RBI increases the repo rate, makes it costly for businesses and industry to borrow money. This, in turn, slows down investment and reduces the supply of money in the economy. As a result, the growth of the economy is negatively impacted. However, this also helps bring down inflation. On the other hand, when the RBI needs to pump funds into the system, it lowers repo rate which makes it cheaper for the businesses and industry to borrow money for different investment purposes. It also increases the overall supply of money in the economy. This ultimately boosts the growth rate of the economy.
A Reverse repo rate is a rate which the RBI offers to banks when they deposit their surplus cash with the RBI for shorter periods. In other words, it is the rate at which the RBI borrows from the commercialbanks. When banks have excess funds but don‟t have any other lending or investment options, they deposit/lend the surplus funds with the RBI and earn interest on the deposited funds. Repo rate is higher than the reverse repo rate.
During high levels of inflation in the economy, the RBI increases the reverse repo rate which encourages the banks to park more funds with the RBI to earn higher returns on idle cash. In this way, excess money is drained out of the banking system. Banks are left with lesser cash to extend loans which curbs the purchasing power of individuals.
RBI keeps changing the repo rate and reverse repo rate according to changing macroeconomic factors. Whenever RBI modifies the rates, it impacts every sector of the economy; although in different ways. Some segments gain as a result of the rate hike while others may suffer losses. In some instances, big loans like home loans might be impacted due to a change in the reverse repo rates. If the RBI cuts the repo rate, it need not necessarily mean that the home loan EMIs would get lesser or the interest rates would get reduced as well. The lending bank also needs to reduce its „Base Lending‟ rate for the EMIs to decrease. Home loan rates or fixed rate consumer loans aren‟t impacted by RBI‟s rate cut. The rate of interest is fixed with respect to fixed loans.
Both the repo rate and reverse repo rate play crucial roles in influencing the overall money supply in an economy. These rates are tools used by central banks to implement monetary policy and control liquidity in the financial system.
Hence, all statements are correct.UnattemptedRepo rate is one of the components of the monetary policy of the RBI which is used to regulate the money supply, level of inflation and liquidity in the country. Additionally, the levels of repo rate have a direct relationship with the cost of borrowing for banks. The higher the repo rate, higher is the cost of borrowing for banks and vice-versa. During high levels of inflation, attempts are made to reduce the money supply in the economy. For this, RBI increases the repo rate, makes it costly for businesses and industry to borrow money. This, in turn, slows down investment and reduces the supply of money in the economy. As a result, the growth of the economy is negatively impacted. However, this also helps bring down inflation. On the other hand, when the RBI needs to pump funds into the system, it lowers repo rate which makes it cheaper for the businesses and industry to borrow money for different investment purposes. It also increases the overall supply of money in the economy. This ultimately boosts the growth rate of the economy.
A Reverse repo rate is a rate which the RBI offers to banks when they deposit their surplus cash with the RBI for shorter periods. In other words, it is the rate at which the RBI borrows from the commercialbanks. When banks have excess funds but don‟t have any other lending or investment options, they deposit/lend the surplus funds with the RBI and earn interest on the deposited funds. Repo rate is higher than the reverse repo rate.
During high levels of inflation in the economy, the RBI increases the reverse repo rate which encourages the banks to park more funds with the RBI to earn higher returns on idle cash. In this way, excess money is drained out of the banking system. Banks are left with lesser cash to extend loans which curbs the purchasing power of individuals.
RBI keeps changing the repo rate and reverse repo rate according to changing macroeconomic factors. Whenever RBI modifies the rates, it impacts every sector of the economy; although in different ways. Some segments gain as a result of the rate hike while others may suffer losses. In some instances, big loans like home loans might be impacted due to a change in the reverse repo rates. If the RBI cuts the repo rate, it need not necessarily mean that the home loan EMIs would get lesser or the interest rates would get reduced as well. The lending bank also needs to reduce its „Base Lending‟ rate for the EMIs to decrease. Home loan rates or fixed rate consumer loans aren‟t impacted by RBI‟s rate cut. The rate of interest is fixed with respect to fixed loans.
Both the repo rate and reverse repo rate play crucial roles in influencing the overall money supply in an economy. These rates are tools used by central banks to implement monetary policy and control liquidity in the financial system.
Hence, all statements are correct. - Question 80 of 100
80. Question
An insurance premium is:
(A) an income for the insurance company
(B) both an income and a liability for the insurance company
(C) a liability for the insurance company
(D) neither an income nor a liability for the insurance company
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAn insurance premium is the amount of money an individual or business pays for an insurance policy. Insurance premiums are paid for policies that cover healthcare, auto, home, and life insurance. Once earned, the premium is income for the insurance company. It also represents a liability, as the insurer must provide coverage for claims being made against the policy. Failure to pay the premium on the individual or the business may result in the cancellation of the policy.
UnattemptedAn insurance premium is the amount of money an individual or business pays for an insurance policy. Insurance premiums are paid for policies that cover healthcare, auto, home, and life insurance. Once earned, the premium is income for the insurance company. It also represents a liability, as the insurer must provide coverage for claims being made against the policy. Failure to pay the premium on the individual or the business may result in the cancellation of the policy.
- Question 81 of 100
81. Question
In the context of the Angel Tax, consider the following statements:
(1) Angel tax is a tax that listed companies are liable to pay on the capital they raise through the issue of shares.
(2) The term “angel” in Angel Tax refers to individual investors or groups of investors who provide early-stage funding to startups.
(3) The scope of Angel Tax was expanded in the Budget to include non-resident investors, whereas previously it applied only to investments made by resident or local investors.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAngel tax is a tax that unlisted companies, usually startups, are liable to pay on the capital they raise through the issue of shares. Angel Tax does not apply to listed companies. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The term “angel” in Angel Tax refers to individual investors or groups of investors who provide early-stage funding to startups. The scope of Angel Tax was expanded in the Budget to include non-resident investors, whereas previously it applied only to investments made by resident or local investors. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.UnattemptedAngel tax is a tax that unlisted companies, usually startups, are liable to pay on the capital they raise through the issue of shares. Angel Tax does not apply to listed companies. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The term “angel” in Angel Tax refers to individual investors or groups of investors who provide early-stage funding to startups. The scope of Angel Tax was expanded in the Budget to include non-resident investors, whereas previously it applied only to investments made by resident or local investors. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct. - Question 82 of 100
82. Question
In order to convert GDP at market prices into factor cost:
(A) Adjust it to market inflation for the time.
(B) Subtract subsidies from it and add indirect taxes to it.
(C) Deduct indirect taxes from it and add subsidies to it.
(D) Deduct indirect taxes and subsidies from it.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBy adding Indirect tax to the factor cost, we get the market price. Since the factor cost is derived by deducting subsidies, so we need to add subsidies to the market price to reach the factor cost.
UnattemptedBy adding Indirect tax to the factor cost, we get the market price. Since the factor cost is derived by deducting subsidies, so we need to add subsidies to the market price to reach the factor cost.
- Question 83 of 100
83. Question
With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only.
(B) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation.
(C) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation.
(D) Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectRBI and government both play a role in controlling the inflation, often termed as ‘inflation targeting’ by the RBI. When RBI follows a dear money policy it sets high interest rates so that credit is not easily available to the banks and to the public. This decreases the real income and purchasing power of the people. Thus, controlling inflation as there is less amount of money to buy existing amount of goods in the economy. Therefore, decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation.
UnattemptedRBI and government both play a role in controlling the inflation, often termed as ‘inflation targeting’ by the RBI. When RBI follows a dear money policy it sets high interest rates so that credit is not easily available to the banks and to the public. This decreases the real income and purchasing power of the people. Thus, controlling inflation as there is less amount of money to buy existing amount of goods in the economy. Therefore, decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation.
- Question 84 of 100
84. Question
Consider the following statements with regard to public goods:
Statements I : They may be produced by the government or the private sector.
Statements II : Their benefits are restricted to one particular consumer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both statements I and II are correct.
(B) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct.
(E) Question not attempted.CorrectIncorrectStatement I is correct. Public goods may be produced by the government or the private sector. When goods are produced directly by the government it is called public production. Examples of such goods are national defence, roads, government administration etc) which are referred to as public goods.
Statement II is incorrect. The benefits of public goods are available to all and are not only restricted to one particular consumer.
E.g. – If a person eats a chocolate or wears a shirt, these will not be available to others. It is said that this person’s consumption stands in rival relationship to the consumption of others.
However, if we consider a public park or measures to reduce air pollution, the benefits will be available to all. One person’s consumption of a good does not reduce the amount available for consumption for others and so several people can enjoy the benefits, that is, the consumption of many people is not ‘rivalrous’.UnattemptedStatement I is correct. Public goods may be produced by the government or the private sector. When goods are produced directly by the government it is called public production. Examples of such goods are national defence, roads, government administration etc) which are referred to as public goods.
Statement II is incorrect. The benefits of public goods are available to all and are not only restricted to one particular consumer.
E.g. – If a person eats a chocolate or wears a shirt, these will not be available to others. It is said that this person’s consumption stands in rival relationship to the consumption of others.
However, if we consider a public park or measures to reduce air pollution, the benefits will be available to all. One person’s consumption of a good does not reduce the amount available for consumption for others and so several people can enjoy the benefits, that is, the consumption of many people is not ‘rivalrous’. - Question 85 of 100
85. Question
An economy exhibits a higher degree of openness if
(A) a country's domestic needs are only met by foreign trade.
(B) a country's economic policies are only governed by World Bank.
(C) there is a higher foreign trade as a proportion of GDP.
(D) trade is done only in terms of gold.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectForeign trade (exports + imports) as a proportion of GDP is a common measure of the degree of openness of an economy. Thus, a higher foreign trade as a proportion of GDP indicates a higher degree of openness of an economy.
UnattemptedForeign trade (exports + imports) as a proportion of GDP is a common measure of the degree of openness of an economy. Thus, a higher foreign trade as a proportion of GDP indicates a higher degree of openness of an economy.
- Question 86 of 100
86. Question
Which of the following form part of the assets of a commercial bank?
(1) Banks’ building and furniture
(2) Loans given to public
(3) Public deposits with the bank
(4) Bank’s deposits with the Central Bank
Select the correct option :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAssets of the banks: – Assets are things a firm owns or what a firm can claim from others.
In case of a bank, apart from buildings, furniture, etc., its assets are loans given to public) When the bank gives out loan of Rs 100 to a person, this is the bank’s claim on that person for Rs 100. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Another asset that a bank has is reserves. Reserves are deposits which commercial banks keep with the Central bank, Reserve Bank of India (RBI). These reserves are kept partly as cash and partly in the form of financial instruments (bonds and treasury bills) issued by the RBI.
Reserves are similar to deposits we keep with banks. We keep deposits and these deposits are our assets, they can be withdrawn by us. Similarly, commercial banks like State Bank of India (SBI) keep their deposits with RBI and these are called Reserves. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Assets = Reserves + Loans
Liabilities of the Banks: – Liabilities for any firm are its debts or what it owes to others. For a bank, the main liability is the deposits which people keep with it. Public deposits with the bank are liabilities of the bank, not its assets. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Liabilities = DepositsUnattemptedAssets of the banks: – Assets are things a firm owns or what a firm can claim from others.
In case of a bank, apart from buildings, furniture, etc., its assets are loans given to public) When the bank gives out loan of Rs 100 to a person, this is the bank’s claim on that person for Rs 100. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Another asset that a bank has is reserves. Reserves are deposits which commercial banks keep with the Central bank, Reserve Bank of India (RBI). These reserves are kept partly as cash and partly in the form of financial instruments (bonds and treasury bills) issued by the RBI.
Reserves are similar to deposits we keep with banks. We keep deposits and these deposits are our assets, they can be withdrawn by us. Similarly, commercial banks like State Bank of India (SBI) keep their deposits with RBI and these are called Reserves. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Assets = Reserves + Loans
Liabilities of the Banks: – Liabilities for any firm are its debts or what it owes to others. For a bank, the main liability is the deposits which people keep with it. Public deposits with the bank are liabilities of the bank, not its assets. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Liabilities = Deposits - Question 87 of 100
87. Question
When the Reserve Bank of India increases the repo rate by 50 basis points, which of the following likely to happen?
(A) India's GDP growth rate increases drastically
(B) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our country
(C) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking system.
(D) Scheduled Commercial Banks may increase their lending rates
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIncrease in repo rate by RBI would largely lead to increase in lending rates of banks.
UnattemptedIncrease in repo rate by RBI would largely lead to increase in lending rates of banks.
- Question 88 of 100
88. Question
Which of the following comes under the category of external debt in India?
(1) SDR allocations to India by the IMF
(2) External Commercial Borrowings
(3) NRI Deposits
(4) FII’s investment in Government Treasury-Bills
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectGross External Debt, is defined as the outstanding amount of those actual current liabilities, that require payment(s) of principal and/or interest by the debtor, in the future as per the terms laid out in the contract between the debtor and the creditor and that are owed to non-residents by the residents of the economy.
In India, (Gross) External Debt is classified primarily into the following heads:
Long-Term Debt is defined as debt with an Original Maturity‘ of more than one year. It includes (a) Multilateral Debt (b) Bilateral Debt (c) SDR allocations to India by the IMF (c) Export Credit (d) (External) Commercial Borrowings (e) NRI Deposits and (f) Rupee Debt.
Short-Term Debt is defined as debt repayments on demand or with an Original Maturity‘ of one year or less. Short-Term Debt includes (a) Trade Credits (of up to 6 months and above 6 months and up to 1 year) (b) Foreign Institutional Investors’ (FII) Investment in Government TreasuryBills and Corporate Securities (c) Investment in Treasury-bills by foreign Central Banks and International Institutions etc) and (iv) External Debt liabilities of the Central Bank and Commercial Banks.
Hence, all options are correct.UnattemptedGross External Debt, is defined as the outstanding amount of those actual current liabilities, that require payment(s) of principal and/or interest by the debtor, in the future as per the terms laid out in the contract between the debtor and the creditor and that are owed to non-residents by the residents of the economy.
In India, (Gross) External Debt is classified primarily into the following heads:
Long-Term Debt is defined as debt with an Original Maturity‘ of more than one year. It includes (a) Multilateral Debt (b) Bilateral Debt (c) SDR allocations to India by the IMF (c) Export Credit (d) (External) Commercial Borrowings (e) NRI Deposits and (f) Rupee Debt.
Short-Term Debt is defined as debt repayments on demand or with an Original Maturity‘ of one year or less. Short-Term Debt includes (a) Trade Credits (of up to 6 months and above 6 months and up to 1 year) (b) Foreign Institutional Investors’ (FII) Investment in Government TreasuryBills and Corporate Securities (c) Investment in Treasury-bills by foreign Central Banks and International Institutions etc) and (iv) External Debt liabilities of the Central Bank and Commercial Banks.
Hence, all options are correct. - Question 89 of 100
89. Question
Which one of the following is a apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system?
(A) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare
(B) National Housing Bank
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was set up in 1982 as an apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system. The Green Revolution was a harbinger of major changes in the credit system as it led to the diversification of the portfolio of rural credit towards production oriented lending.
UnattemptedThe National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was set up in 1982 as an apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system. The Green Revolution was a harbinger of major changes in the credit system as it led to the diversification of the portfolio of rural credit towards production oriented lending.
- Question 90 of 100
90. Question
Structural unemployment refers to the unemployment due to
(A) people changing from one job to another.
(B) non-availability of work throughout the year.
(C) cyclical nature of businesses.
(D) mismatch between the jobs available and the skill levels of the unemployed.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectStructural unemployment refers to a mismatch between the jobs available and the skill levels of the unemployed) It occurs when an underlying shift in the economy makes it difficult for some groups to find jobs.
UnattemptedStructural unemployment refers to a mismatch between the jobs available and the skill levels of the unemployed) It occurs when an underlying shift in the economy makes it difficult for some groups to find jobs.
- Question 91 of 100
91. Question
In context of the Indian economy, which of the following correctly defines the economic structure before 1991 reforms?
(A) Closed economy with high private sector participation.
(B) Closed economy with high public sector participation.
(C) Open economy with high private sector participation.
(D) Open economy with high public sector participation.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn the first seven plans, trade was characterised as an inward looking strategy. Technically, this strategy is called import substitution. This policy aimed at replacing or substituting imports with domestic production.
The economic structure discouraged imports making India a closed economy.
At the time of independence, Indian industrialists did not have the capital to undertake investment in industrial ventures required for the development of our economy; nor was the market big enough to encourage industrialists to undertake major projects even if they had the capital to do so. It is principally for these reasons that the state had to play an extensive role in promoting the industrial sector.UnattemptedIn the first seven plans, trade was characterised as an inward looking strategy. Technically, this strategy is called import substitution. This policy aimed at replacing or substituting imports with domestic production.
The economic structure discouraged imports making India a closed economy.
At the time of independence, Indian industrialists did not have the capital to undertake investment in industrial ventures required for the development of our economy; nor was the market big enough to encourage industrialists to undertake major projects even if they had the capital to do so. It is principally for these reasons that the state had to play an extensive role in promoting the industrial sector. - Question 92 of 100
92. Question
Which of the following measures can be adopted to promote the Fiscal Consolidation?
(1) Increasing subsidies
(2) Increasing the tax base
(3) Supporting export oriented industries
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectFiscal Consolidation refers to the policies undertaken by Governments (national and sub-national levels) to reduce their deficits and accumulation of debt stock.
Increasing the subsidies increases the expenditure of government. Thus, it will go against the principle of fiscal consolidation. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
Increasing the tax base increases the tax collection. Thus, it increases the revenue for the government and promotes the fiscal consolidation. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Supporting the export oriented industries help in increasing the forex reserves of the country. Thus, help in promoting the fiscal consolidation. Hence, option 3 is correct.UnattemptedFiscal Consolidation refers to the policies undertaken by Governments (national and sub-national levels) to reduce their deficits and accumulation of debt stock.
Increasing the subsidies increases the expenditure of government. Thus, it will go against the principle of fiscal consolidation. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
Increasing the tax base increases the tax collection. Thus, it increases the revenue for the government and promotes the fiscal consolidation. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Supporting the export oriented industries help in increasing the forex reserves of the country. Thus, help in promoting the fiscal consolidation. Hence, option 3 is correct. - Question 93 of 100
93. Question
Which of the following strategies can be used for improving the performance of Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India?
(1) Disinvestment
(2) Granting of Maharatna status
(3) Allowing PSEs to access global markets
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectOption 1 is correct: The process of selling off part of the equity of the public sector enterprises (PSEs) to the public is known as disinvestment. It helps in improving financial discipline and facilitate modernisation of PSEs. In addition, the private capital and managerial capabilities can be effectively utilised to improve the performance of the PSUs.
Option 2 is correct: The grant of status like Maharatnas, Navratnas and Miniratnas results in greater managerial and operational autonomy for PSEs. This enables them to run the company efficiently and thus increase their profits leading to improvement in the performance of PSEs.
Option 3 is correct: Allowing PSEs to access global markets will help PSEs to enhance the markets for their goods and services. This will aid in improving the performance of PSEs.UnattemptedOption 1 is correct: The process of selling off part of the equity of the public sector enterprises (PSEs) to the public is known as disinvestment. It helps in improving financial discipline and facilitate modernisation of PSEs. In addition, the private capital and managerial capabilities can be effectively utilised to improve the performance of the PSUs.
Option 2 is correct: The grant of status like Maharatnas, Navratnas and Miniratnas results in greater managerial and operational autonomy for PSEs. This enables them to run the company efficiently and thus increase their profits leading to improvement in the performance of PSEs.
Option 3 is correct: Allowing PSEs to access global markets will help PSEs to enhance the markets for their goods and services. This will aid in improving the performance of PSEs. - Question 94 of 100
94. Question
Which of the following measures is/are examples of expansionary fiscal policy?
(1) Increasing the subsidies
(2) Tax rebate to companies
(3) Providing loans at higher interest rates
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectExpansionary fiscal policy is a form of fiscal policy that involves decreasing taxes, increasing government expenditures or both, in order to fight recessionary pressures.
Increasing the subsidies decreases the out of pocket expenditure. Thus, increases the spending capacity. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Tax rebate to companies increase the profit to companies. This further helps in reducing the prices of goods and services. Thus, increase the demand in the economy. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Providing loans at higher interest rate decreases the demand for the loans. Thus, it decreases the liquidity in the market and leads to decreases the spending capacity. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.UnattemptedExpansionary fiscal policy is a form of fiscal policy that involves decreasing taxes, increasing government expenditures or both, in order to fight recessionary pressures.
Increasing the subsidies decreases the out of pocket expenditure. Thus, increases the spending capacity. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Tax rebate to companies increase the profit to companies. This further helps in reducing the prices of goods and services. Thus, increase the demand in the economy. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Providing loans at higher interest rate decreases the demand for the loans. Thus, it decreases the liquidity in the market and leads to decreases the spending capacity. Hence, option 3 is incorrect. - Question 95 of 100
95. Question
Statements I : It is a part of World Bank Group.
Statements II : It works exclusively on the private sector in developing countries.
In the light of the above statements with reference to International Finance Corporation (IFC), choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both statements I and II are correct.
(B) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect..
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAbout International finance corporation: IFC—a sister organization of the World Bank and a member of the World Bank Group—is the largest global development institution focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries. The World Bank Group has set two goals for the world to achieve by 2030: end extreme poverty and promote shared prosperity in every country. Hence, statement I is correct.
IFC leverage its products and services—as well as products and services of other institutions across the World Bank Group—to create markets that address the biggest development challenges of our time. IFC apply its financial resources, technical expertise, global experience, and innovative thinking to help its clients and partners overcome financial, operational, and other challenges. Hence, statement II is correct.
About the World Bank group:The World Bank Group is one of the world‘s largest sources of funding and knowledge for developing countries. Its five institutions share a commitment to reducing poverty, increasing shared prosperity, and promoting sustainable development.
o The international bank for Reconstruction and development (IBRD)
o International development association
o International Financial Corporation
o Multi lateral investment Gurantee Agency
o The International Centre for settlement of investment disputes.UnattemptedAbout International finance corporation: IFC—a sister organization of the World Bank and a member of the World Bank Group—is the largest global development institution focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries. The World Bank Group has set two goals for the world to achieve by 2030: end extreme poverty and promote shared prosperity in every country. Hence, statement I is correct.
IFC leverage its products and services—as well as products and services of other institutions across the World Bank Group—to create markets that address the biggest development challenges of our time. IFC apply its financial resources, technical expertise, global experience, and innovative thinking to help its clients and partners overcome financial, operational, and other challenges. Hence, statement II is correct.
About the World Bank group:The World Bank Group is one of the world‘s largest sources of funding and knowledge for developing countries. Its five institutions share a commitment to reducing poverty, increasing shared prosperity, and promoting sustainable development.
o The international bank for Reconstruction and development (IBRD)
o International development association
o International Financial Corporation
o Multi lateral investment Gurantee Agency
o The International Centre for settlement of investment disputes. - Question 96 of 100
96. Question
Which of the following industries are considered as a Secondary Sector Industry?
(1) Mining and Quarrying
(2) Construction
(3) Transport and Storage
(4) Gas and Water Supply
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1, 3 and 4 Only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAll the working persons engaged in these divisions can be clubbed into three major sectors :
(A) Primary Sector – Agriculture based
(B) Secondary Sector – Manufacturing Industries like – (i) Mining and quarrying (ii) Manufacturing (iii) Electricity, Gas and Water Supply and (iv) Construction. Hence, Options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
(C) Tertiary Sector – Service Sector Industries like – (i) Trade (ii) Transport and Storage and (iii) Services.
Hence, only option 3 is incorrect.UnattemptedAll the working persons engaged in these divisions can be clubbed into three major sectors :
(A) Primary Sector – Agriculture based
(B) Secondary Sector – Manufacturing Industries like – (i) Mining and quarrying (ii) Manufacturing (iii) Electricity, Gas and Water Supply and (iv) Construction. Hence, Options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
(C) Tertiary Sector – Service Sector Industries like – (i) Trade (ii) Transport and Storage and (iii) Services.
Hence, only option 3 is incorrect. - Question 97 of 100
97. Question
With reference to the World Trade Organization (WTO), consider the following statements:
(1) It was founded as the successor organization to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff.
(2) Its agreements cover trade in goods only.
(3) One of its purpose is to ensure optimum utilization of world resources and to protect the environment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct : The World Trade Organization (WTO) was founded in 1995 as the successor organization to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT).
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. It has 164 members and 24 observer governments at present. The headquarters of the WTO are situated in Geneva, Switzerland.
Statement 2 is incorrect : The WTO agreements cover trade in goods as well as services. They aim to facilitate international trade (bilateral and multilateral) through removal of tariff as well as non-tariff barriersand providing greater market access to all member countries.
Statement 3 is correct : WTO is expected to establish a rule-based trading regime in which nations cannot place arbitrary restrictions on trade. In addition, its purpose is also to enlarge production and trade of services, to ensure optimum utilization of world resources and to protect the environment.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct : The World Trade Organization (WTO) was founded in 1995 as the successor organization to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT).
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. It has 164 members and 24 observer governments at present. The headquarters of the WTO are situated in Geneva, Switzerland.
Statement 2 is incorrect : The WTO agreements cover trade in goods as well as services. They aim to facilitate international trade (bilateral and multilateral) through removal of tariff as well as non-tariff barriersand providing greater market access to all member countries.
Statement 3 is correct : WTO is expected to establish a rule-based trading regime in which nations cannot place arbitrary restrictions on trade. In addition, its purpose is also to enlarge production and trade of services, to ensure optimum utilization of world resources and to protect the environment. - Question 98 of 100
98. Question
Which of the following were features of Green revolution?
(1) Use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds
(2) Increase in use of chemical fertilizers
(3) Assured irrigation
(4) Promotion of horticulture crops
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Green Revolution refers to an agricultural revolution in Indian during the 1960s which led to increase in food production and made India self-sufficient in food grains. It was characterized by the following features:
o Introduction of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds
o Mechanization in agriculture
o Use of chemical pesticides, fertilizers etc.
o Assured irrigation
The green revolution was primarily aimed at increasing the productivity of food crops especially wheat and rice as opposed to horticultural crops.UnattemptedThe Green Revolution refers to an agricultural revolution in Indian during the 1960s which led to increase in food production and made India self-sufficient in food grains. It was characterized by the following features:
o Introduction of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds
o Mechanization in agriculture
o Use of chemical pesticides, fertilizers etc.
o Assured irrigation
The green revolution was primarily aimed at increasing the productivity of food crops especially wheat and rice as opposed to horticultural crops. - Question 99 of 100
99. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Factor cost does not include any tax.
(2) Basic prices include product taxes but not production taxes.
(3) Market prices include production taxes as well as product taxes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct. The actual cost incurred on goods and services produced by industries and firms is known as factor costs. Factor cost includes only the payment to factors of production, it does not include any tax.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Basic prices include the production taxes but not product taxes.
GVA at factor costs + Net production taxes = GVA at basic prices
The basic prices lie in between factor costs and market prices.
Statement 3 is correct. Market prices include both product and production taxes.
GVA at factor costs + Net production taxes + Net product taxes = GVA at market prices
In order to arrive at market prices, we have to add product taxes (less product subsidies) to the basic prices.
GVA at basic prices + Net product taxes = GVA at market pricesUnattemptedStatement 1 is correct. The actual cost incurred on goods and services produced by industries and firms is known as factor costs. Factor cost includes only the payment to factors of production, it does not include any tax.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Basic prices include the production taxes but not product taxes.
GVA at factor costs + Net production taxes = GVA at basic prices
The basic prices lie in between factor costs and market prices.
Statement 3 is correct. Market prices include both product and production taxes.
GVA at factor costs + Net production taxes + Net product taxes = GVA at market prices
In order to arrive at market prices, we have to add product taxes (less product subsidies) to the basic prices.
GVA at basic prices + Net product taxes = GVA at market prices - Question 100 of 100
100. Question
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is banker to government. Other than lending to the government, which of the following are the functions of the RBI?
(1) It introduces and upgrades safe and efficient modes of payment systems in the country to meet the requirements of the public.
(2) It manages foreign exchange reserve
(3) It performs a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectMain Functions of RBI :
Monetary Authority:
Formulates, implements and monitors the monetary policy.
Objective: maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
Regulator and supervisor of the financial system:
Prescribes broad parameters of banking operations within which the country's banking and financial system functions.
Objective: maintain public confidence in the system, protect depositors' interest and provide cost-effective banking services to the public.
Manager of Foreign Exchange
Manages the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
Objective: to facilitate external trade and payment and promote orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.
Issuer of currency:
Issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.
Objective: to give the public adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins and in good quality.
Developmental role
Performs a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives.UnattemptedMain Functions of RBI :
Monetary Authority:
Formulates, implements and monitors the monetary policy.
Objective: maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
Regulator and supervisor of the financial system:
Prescribes broad parameters of banking operations within which the country's banking and financial system functions.
Objective: maintain public confidence in the system, protect depositors' interest and provide cost-effective banking services to the public.
Manager of Foreign Exchange
Manages the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
Objective: to facilitate external trade and payment and promote orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.
Issuer of currency:
Issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.
Objective: to give the public adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins and in good quality.
Developmental role
Performs a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives.
HCS - SCIENCE 2 :: TEST 11
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- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 100
1. Question
Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket:
(1) A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion in space.
(2) A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form as a fuel.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn respect of a jet engine and a rocket, both the given statements are correct.
UnattemptedIn respect of a jet engine and a rocket, both the given statements are correct.
- Question 2 of 100
2. Question
Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Universe is expanding.
Reason (R): The result is based on red shift of spectra of galaxies.
Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectUnattempted - Question 3 of 100
3. Question
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
a. Wavelength 1. Hertz
b. Energy 2. Angstrom
c. Intensity of sound 3. Joule
d. Frequency 4. Decibel
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 2 1 3 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWavelength is the distance between two consecutive crests or troughs and 1 angstrom = 10–10m, joule is the unit of energy. Intensity of sound is measured in decibel. Frequency is measured in hertz (Hz).
UnattemptedWavelength is the distance between two consecutive crests or troughs and 1 angstrom = 10–10m, joule is the unit of energy. Intensity of sound is measured in decibel. Frequency is measured in hertz (Hz).
- Question 4 of 100
4. Question
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer with the help of codes given below:
List-I List-II
a. Temperature 1. Kelvin
b. Power 2. Watt
c. Pressure 3. Pascal
d. Force 4. Newton
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe unit of temperature is kelvin, power is measured in watt, pressure in pascal and force in newton.
UnattemptedThe unit of temperature is kelvin, power is measured in watt, pressure in pascal and force in newton.
- Question 5 of 100
5. Question
Consider the following statements and select the correct code:
Assertion (A): A piece of ice added to the drink cools it.
Reason (R): Ice takes latent heat from the drink for melting resulting in the cooling of the drink.
Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectA piece of ice added to the drink cool it because ice takes latent heat from the drink for melting resulting in the cooling of the drink.
UnattemptedA piece of ice added to the drink cool it because ice takes latent heat from the drink for melting resulting in the cooling of the drink.
- Question 6 of 100
6. Question
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): If ice collects on the freezer, the cooling in the refrigerator is affected adversely.
Reason (R): Ice is a poor conductor.
Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIf ice collects on the freezer, the cooling in the refrigerator is affected adversely because ice is a poor conductor of heat.
UnattemptedIf ice collects on the freezer, the cooling in the refrigerator is affected adversely because ice is a poor conductor of heat.
- Question 7 of 100
7. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Warm-blooded animals can remain active in cold environment in which cold-blooded animals can hardly move.
(2) Cold-blooded animals require much less energy to survive than warm-blooded animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCold-blooded animals require much less energy to survive than warm-blooded animals.
UnattemptedCold-blooded animals require much less energy to survive than warm-blooded animals.
- Question 8 of 100
8. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
(2) Sex chromosome in human male is named XX.
(3) Chromosomes are best seen in metaphase.
Which of the statements given above are false about chromosomes?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None of these
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectHumans are diploid organisms by having two members or homologous chromosomes in a pair.
Total 23 pairs of chromosomes exist in each somatic cell of the body. Total 46 chromosomes occur. One particular pair individually in male and female determines their respective sex. This one pair is XX in females and XY in males. All the 46 chromosomes in pairs can be seen under microscope at metaphase stage in the cells which are undergoing mitosis.UnattemptedHumans are diploid organisms by having two members or homologous chromosomes in a pair.
Total 23 pairs of chromosomes exist in each somatic cell of the body. Total 46 chromosomes occur. One particular pair individually in male and female determines their respective sex. This one pair is XX in females and XY in males. All the 46 chromosomes in pairs can be seen under microscope at metaphase stage in the cells which are undergoing mitosis. - Question 9 of 100
9. Question
Which one of the following statements is correct about the human circulatory system?
(A) Blood transports only oxygen and not carbon dioxide.
(B) Human heart has five chambers.
(C) Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards.
(D) Both oxygen-rich and oxygen-deficient blood gets mixed in the heart.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe valves prevent the backward flow of blood. Valves are actually flaps (leaflets) that act as one-way inlets for blood coming into a ventricle and one-way outlets for blood leaving a ventricle.
A septum is a diving wall which is present between the the left side and the right side of the heart, which does not allow mixing of blood when oxygen-rich and carbon dioxide- rich blood reach the heart.
Our heart chambers are four hollow spaces within your heart. There are two atria (upper chambers) called your right atrium and left atrium. In addition, there are two ventricles (lower chambers) called right ventricle and left ventricle.UnattemptedThe valves prevent the backward flow of blood. Valves are actually flaps (leaflets) that act as one-way inlets for blood coming into a ventricle and one-way outlets for blood leaving a ventricle.
A septum is a diving wall which is present between the the left side and the right side of the heart, which does not allow mixing of blood when oxygen-rich and carbon dioxide- rich blood reach the heart.
Our heart chambers are four hollow spaces within your heart. There are two atria (upper chambers) called your right atrium and left atrium. In addition, there are two ventricles (lower chambers) called right ventricle and left ventricle. - Question 10 of 100
10. Question
Select one characteristic that holds true for respiratory structures of two different animals – a fish with gills and a human being with alveoli.
(A) Both are placed internally in the body of animal.
(B) Both have thin and moist surface for gaseous exchange.
(C) Both are poorly supplied with blood vessels to conserve energy
(D) In both the blood returns to the heart after being oxygenated.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe surface from where the gaseous exchange (oxygen and carbon dioxide) takes place with the surrounding is called respiratory surface. The features of respiratory surface are:
▪️ It is extremely thin and moist
▪️ It has a large surface area
▪️ It is richly supplied with blood capillaries.
▪️ It is permeable to gases.UnattemptedThe surface from where the gaseous exchange (oxygen and carbon dioxide) takes place with the surrounding is called respiratory surface. The features of respiratory surface are:
▪️ It is extremely thin and moist
▪️ It has a large surface area
▪️ It is richly supplied with blood capillaries.
▪️ It is permeable to gases. - Question 11 of 100
11. Question
Which of the following is/ are not applications of Ultrasonic Waves?
(1) For measuring the depth of Sea.
(2) In sterilizing of a liquid.
(3) In Ultrasonography
(4) In sterilizing a needle.
Choose :
(A) Both 1 and 2
(B) Only 4
(C) Both 3 and 4
(D) Only 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectApplications of Ultrasonic Waves are: sending signals, for measuring the depth of sea, for cleaning cloths, aeroplanes, machinery parts of clocks, for removing lamp-shoot from the chimney of factories, in sterilizing of liquid and in Ultrasonography.
UnattemptedApplications of Ultrasonic Waves are: sending signals, for measuring the depth of sea, for cleaning cloths, aeroplanes, machinery parts of clocks, for removing lamp-shoot from the chimney of factories, in sterilizing of liquid and in Ultrasonography.
- Question 12 of 100
12. Question
During respiration, the exchange of gases take place in:
(A) trachea and larynx
(B) alveoli of lungs
(C) alveoli and throat
(D) throat and larynx
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectDuring respiration exchange of gases take place in the alveoli of the lungs.
UnattemptedDuring respiration exchange of gases take place in the alveoli of the lungs.
- Question 13 of 100
13. Question
In which of the following vertebrate group/ groups, does heart not pump oxygenated blood to different parts of the body?
(A) Pisces and amphibians
(B) Amphibians and reptiles
(C) Amphibians only
(D) Pisces only
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectFishes have only two chambered heart and the blood is pumped to the gills, is oxygenated there, and passes directly to rest of the body. Thus, blood goes only once through the heart in the fish during one cycle of passage through the body. Fishes take in water through their mouths and force it past the gills where the dissolved oxygen is taken up by blood.
UnattemptedFishes have only two chambered heart and the blood is pumped to the gills, is oxygenated there, and passes directly to rest of the body. Thus, blood goes only once through the heart in the fish during one cycle of passage through the body. Fishes take in water through their mouths and force it past the gills where the dissolved oxygen is taken up by blood.
- Question 14 of 100
14. Question
Opening and closing of stomatal pore depends on:
(A) atmospheric temperature
(B) oxygen concentration around stomata
(C) carbon dioxide concentration around stomata
(D) water content in the guard cells
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe opening and closing of the stomatal pores are a function of the guard cells. The stomatal pore opens when the guard cells swell when water flows into them and closes if the guard cells shrink when water flows out of them.
UnattemptedThe opening and closing of the stomatal pores are a function of the guard cells. The stomatal pore opens when the guard cells swell when water flows into them and closes if the guard cells shrink when water flows out of them.
- Question 15 of 100
15. Question
The length of small intestine in the deer is more as compared to the length of small intestine of a tiger. The reason for this is:
(A) mode of intake of food
(B) type of food consumed
(C) presence or absence of villi in intestines
(D) presence enzymes
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectDeer is a herbivorous animal and eats grass which contains cellulose. It needs a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose present in the grass to be digested completely. On the other hand, tiger is carnivore and eats meat. It is easier to digest meat. So, the tiger which eat meat has a shorter 'small intestine.
UnattemptedDeer is a herbivorous animal and eats grass which contains cellulose. It needs a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose present in the grass to be digested completely. On the other hand, tiger is carnivore and eats meat. It is easier to digest meat. So, the tiger which eat meat has a shorter 'small intestine.
- Question 16 of 100
16. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Meningococcal meningitis is transmitted from person to person by mosquito bites.
(2) Vomiting and neck pain are two of the symptoms of meningococcal meningitis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectMeningococcal meningitis is transmitted from person to person through air via droplets of respiratory secretions and direct contact with an infected person like oral contact with shared items.
UnattemptedMeningococcal meningitis is transmitted from person to person through air via droplets of respiratory secretions and direct contact with an infected person like oral contact with shared items.
- Question 17 of 100
17. Question
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): If somebody stops taking green vegetables, he will suffer from night blindness.
Reason (R): He will suffer from vitamin A deficiency.
Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectVitamin A has a major role in photo-transduction. Its deficiency causes night blindness in humans. Xerophthalmia, keratomalacia can also occur with its deficiency. Green, yellow-orange-red (dark- coloured) fruits and vegetables, eggs, milk; fortified cereals are rich source of vitamin A. Their avoidance over a long period may cause the vit-A deficiency symptoms.
UnattemptedVitamin A has a major role in photo-transduction. Its deficiency causes night blindness in humans. Xerophthalmia, keratomalacia can also occur with its deficiency. Green, yellow-orange-red (dark- coloured) fruits and vegetables, eggs, milk; fortified cereals are rich source of vitamin A. Their avoidance over a long period may cause the vit-A deficiency symptoms.
- Question 18 of 100
18. Question
In which of the following groups of organisms, blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage through the body?
(A) Rabbit, Parrot, Turtle
(B) Frog, Crocodile, Pigeon
(C) Whale, Labeo (Rohu), Penguin
(D) Shark, Dog fish, Sting ray
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe blood goes through the heart of fishes only once during one cycle of passage through the body, whereas in other vertebrates it goes twice through the heart during each cycle.
UnattemptedThe blood goes through the heart of fishes only once during one cycle of passage through the body, whereas in other vertebrates it goes twice through the heart during each cycle.
- Question 19 of 100
19. Question
In the context of the different uses of the concave mirror, consider the following assertions—
(1) It is used by doctors to examine eyes, ears, nose and throat.
(2) It is used as side mirrors in automobiles.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectConcave mirrors are used for many purposes. Doctors use concave mirrors for examining eyes, ears, nose and throat. Concave mirrors are also used by dentists to see an enlarged image of the teeth. The reflectors of torches, headlights of cars and scooters are concave in shape. Convex mirror is used as side mirrors in automobiles. Convex mirrors can form images of objects spread over a large area. So, these help the drivers to see the traffic behind them.
UnattemptedConcave mirrors are used for many purposes. Doctors use concave mirrors for examining eyes, ears, nose and throat. Concave mirrors are also used by dentists to see an enlarged image of the teeth. The reflectors of torches, headlights of cars and scooters are concave in shape. Convex mirror is used as side mirrors in automobiles. Convex mirrors can form images of objects spread over a large area. So, these help the drivers to see the traffic behind them.
- Question 20 of 100
20. Question
Baking powder is a mixture of-
(A) sodium carbonate and acetic acid
(B) sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(C) sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
(D) sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIt is composed of a mixture of sodium hydrogen carbonate and mild acid like tartaric acid.
UnattemptedIt is composed of a mixture of sodium hydrogen carbonate and mild acid like tartaric acid.
- Question 21 of 100
21. Question
Calcium phosphate is present in tooth enamel. Its nature is:
(A) basic
(B) acidic
(C) neutral
(D) amphoteric
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCalcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2 is a basic salt, as it is formed by the combination of a weak acid (phosphoric acid) and a slightly stronger base (calcium hydroxide).
3Ca(OH)2 + 2H3PO4 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6H₂OUnattemptedCalcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2 is a basic salt, as it is formed by the combination of a weak acid (phosphoric acid) and a slightly stronger base (calcium hydroxide).
3Ca(OH)2 + 2H3PO4 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6H₂O - Question 22 of 100
22. Question
Consider the following:
(1) Refraction
(2) Reflection
(3) Diffraction
Which of the above is/are necessary for an image formation in a mirror?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWhen a ray of light approaches a smooth polished surface and the light ray bounces back, it is called the reflection of light. The incident light ray which lands upon the surface is said to be reflected off the surface. The ray that bounces back is called the reflected ray. If a perpendicular were to be drawn on reflecting surface, it would be called normal. The figure below shows the reflection of an incident beam on a plane mirror. Image formation on a mirror is caused by reflection.
Refraction and diffraction have no role to play in it.UnattemptedWhen a ray of light approaches a smooth polished surface and the light ray bounces back, it is called the reflection of light. The incident light ray which lands upon the surface is said to be reflected off the surface. The ray that bounces back is called the reflected ray. If a perpendicular were to be drawn on reflecting surface, it would be called normal. The figure below shows the reflection of an incident beam on a plane mirror. Image formation on a mirror is caused by reflection.
Refraction and diffraction have no role to play in it. - Question 23 of 100
23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding combustion and ignition temperature?
(1) Oxygen is required for the combustion of materials. Heat and light are given out in this process.
(2) The lowest temperature at which a substance (fuel) catches fire is called its ignition temperature.
(3) The combustion of phosphorus occurs at room temperature, in the presence of air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe way food is broken down in the human body, on reaction with oxygen, to give out energy; substances react with oxygen during combustion and give out heat and light.
The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is called its Ignition temperature. The ignition temperature of phosphorus is so low, that it catches fire in room temperature, in the presence of air.UnattemptedThe way food is broken down in the human body, on reaction with oxygen, to give out energy; substances react with oxygen during combustion and give out heat and light.
The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is called its Ignition temperature. The ignition temperature of phosphorus is so low, that it catches fire in room temperature, in the presence of air. - Question 24 of 100
24. Question
Which physical quantity is obtained in the ratio of momentum and velocity of matter?
(A) Velocity
(B) Acceleration
(C) Mass
(D) Force
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe ratio of momentum and velocity of a substance gives mass.
UnattemptedThe ratio of momentum and velocity of a substance gives mass.
- Question 25 of 100
25. Question
Which of the following is/ are correct definition of types of friction?
(1) Dry friction resists relative lateral motion of two solid surfaces in contact.
(2) Fluid friction describes the friction between layers of a viscous fluid that are moving relative to each other.
(3) Lubricated friction is a case of fluid friction where a lubricant fluid separates two solid surfaces.
Which is/are correct statement (s)?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) All
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectFriction is defined as the force that opposes the motion of a solid object over another.
There are mainly four types of friction: static friction, sliding friction, rolling friction, and fluid friction.
Friction and normal force are directly proportional to the contacting surfaces and it doesn’t depend on the hardness of the contacting surface. With the increase in relative speeds, the sliding friction reduces whereas fluid friction increases with the increase in the relative speed, also fluid friction is dependent on the viscosity of the fluid.
Types of Friction
Following are the friction types which depend on the types of motion:
(1) Static Friction: The frictional force that acts between the surfaces when they are at rest with respect to each other. The magnitude of the static force is equal in the opposite direction when a small amount of force is applied. When the force increases, at some point maximum static friction is reached.
(2) Sliding Friction: The resistance that is created between any two objects when they are sliding against each other.
(3) Rolling Friction: The force which resists the motion of a ball or wheel and is the weakest types of friction.
(4) Fluid Friction: The friction that exists between the layers of the fluid when they are moving relative to each other.UnattemptedFriction is defined as the force that opposes the motion of a solid object over another.
There are mainly four types of friction: static friction, sliding friction, rolling friction, and fluid friction.
Friction and normal force are directly proportional to the contacting surfaces and it doesn’t depend on the hardness of the contacting surface. With the increase in relative speeds, the sliding friction reduces whereas fluid friction increases with the increase in the relative speed, also fluid friction is dependent on the viscosity of the fluid.
Types of Friction
Following are the friction types which depend on the types of motion:
(1) Static Friction: The frictional force that acts between the surfaces when they are at rest with respect to each other. The magnitude of the static force is equal in the opposite direction when a small amount of force is applied. When the force increases, at some point maximum static friction is reached.
(2) Sliding Friction: The resistance that is created between any two objects when they are sliding against each other.
(3) Rolling Friction: The force which resists the motion of a ball or wheel and is the weakest types of friction.
(4) Fluid Friction: The friction that exists between the layers of the fluid when they are moving relative to each other. - Question 26 of 100
26. Question
Consider the following statements regarding lightning:
(1) Positive charge accumulated near the surface of the earth and the negative charge accumulated at the lower surface of the clouds combine to generate light and sound of lightning.
(2) The process of generation of lightning is called electric discharge. This can occur between two or more clouds; or between the clouds and earth.
(3) To protect the buildings from lightning, an object called lightning conductor is used.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectDuring the development of a thunderstorm, the air currents move upward while the water droplets move downward. These vigorous movements cause separation of charges. By a process, the positive charges collect near the upper edges of the clouds and the negative charges accumulate near the lower edges. There is accumulation of positive charges near the ground also.
When the magnitude of the accumulated charges becomes very large, the air which is normally a poor conductor of electricity, is no longer able to resist their flow. Negative and positive charges meet, producing streaks of bright light and sound. We see streaks as lightning. The process of generation of lightning is called electric discharge. This can occur between two or more clouds; or between the clouds and earth. Lightning Conductor is a device used to protect buildings from the effect of lightning. A metallic rod, taller than the building, is installed in the walls of the building during its construction. One end of the rod is kept out in the air and the other is buried deep in the ground.
The rod provides easy route for the transfer of electric charge to the ground.UnattemptedDuring the development of a thunderstorm, the air currents move upward while the water droplets move downward. These vigorous movements cause separation of charges. By a process, the positive charges collect near the upper edges of the clouds and the negative charges accumulate near the lower edges. There is accumulation of positive charges near the ground also.
When the magnitude of the accumulated charges becomes very large, the air which is normally a poor conductor of electricity, is no longer able to resist their flow. Negative and positive charges meet, producing streaks of bright light and sound. We see streaks as lightning. The process of generation of lightning is called electric discharge. This can occur between two or more clouds; or between the clouds and earth. Lightning Conductor is a device used to protect buildings from the effect of lightning. A metallic rod, taller than the building, is installed in the walls of the building during its construction. One end of the rod is kept out in the air and the other is buried deep in the ground.
The rod provides easy route for the transfer of electric charge to the ground. - Question 27 of 100
27. Question
Remains unchanged on changing the quantity of the commodity –
(A) Volume
(B) Weight
(C) Mass
(D) Density
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWhen the volume of an object changes, the volume, weight and mass of the object change, but the density remains the same.
UnattemptedWhen the volume of an object changes, the volume, weight and mass of the object change, but the density remains the same.
- Question 28 of 100
28. Question
Of the following statements, which of the following is/are correct regarding candle flames?
(1) Unburnt carbon particles are present in the luminous zone of the flame.
(2) The non-luminous zone of the flame has a highest temperature.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe substances which vapourise on combustion, produce flame. The flame produced during the combustion of candle has three parts: non luminous zone, luminous zone and non-combustible zone. Unburnt carbon particles are present in the luminous zone of the flame.
The non-luminous zone of the candle flame has the highest temperature. It is the outermost region of the flame, which is blue in colour.UnattemptedThe substances which vapourise on combustion, produce flame. The flame produced during the combustion of candle has three parts: non luminous zone, luminous zone and non-combustible zone. Unburnt carbon particles are present in the luminous zone of the flame.
The non-luminous zone of the candle flame has the highest temperature. It is the outermost region of the flame, which is blue in colour. - Question 29 of 100
29. Question
Cutting and peeling of onion bring tears to the eyes because of the presence of-
(A) Amino acid in the cell
(B) Carbon in the cell
(C) Fat in the cell
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWhen an onion is cut, certain (lachrymator) compounds are released causing the nerves around the eyes (lacrimal glands) to become irritated. These compounds consist of methionine and cystine that are part of the amino acid family.
UnattemptedWhen an onion is cut, certain (lachrymator) compounds are released causing the nerves around the eyes (lacrimal glands) to become irritated. These compounds consist of methionine and cystine that are part of the amino acid family.
- Question 30 of 100
30. Question
Which of the following joints can move in only one direction?
(A) Hinge joint
(B) Ball and Socket joint
(C) Gliding joint
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectHinge joints are found at the elbow and knee and they only allow movement in one direction or in only one plane. For instance, human fingers, toes, elbows, knees, and ankles contain hinge joints.
UnattemptedHinge joints are found at the elbow and knee and they only allow movement in one direction or in only one plane. For instance, human fingers, toes, elbows, knees, and ankles contain hinge joints.
- Question 31 of 100
31. Question
Small intestine receives secretions from the-
(1) Liver
(2) Secretory cells (islets) in the pancreas.
(3) Gastric glands in the stomach
Which of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectSmall intestine is the principal organ for absorption of nutrients. Various enzymes are secreted into the small intestine which breaks down complex molecules into more simple molecules. Small intestine receives secretions from the liver (bile) and pancreas (pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes).
UnattemptedSmall intestine is the principal organ for absorption of nutrients. Various enzymes are secreted into the small intestine which breaks down complex molecules into more simple molecules. Small intestine receives secretions from the liver (bile) and pancreas (pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes).
- Question 32 of 100
32. Question
Which of the following endocrine glands does not exist in pairs?
(A) Testes
(B) Adrenal
(C) Pituitary
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe pituitary gland does not occur in pairs, while the adrenal gland, testis (in male) and ovary (in female) do.
UnattemptedThe pituitary gland does not occur in pairs, while the adrenal gland, testis (in male) and ovary (in female) do.
- Question 33 of 100
33. Question
Vegetative propagation refers to formation of new plants from-
(A) stem, flowers and fruits
(B) stem, roots and leaves
(C) stem, roots and flowers
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAsexual propagation, sometimes referred to as vegetative propagation, involves taking vegetative parts of a plant (stems, roots, and/or leaves) and causing them to regenerate into a new plant or, in some cases, several plants. With few exceptions, the resulting plant is genetically identical to the parent plant.
UnattemptedAsexual propagation, sometimes referred to as vegetative propagation, involves taking vegetative parts of a plant (stems, roots, and/or leaves) and causing them to regenerate into a new plant or, in some cases, several plants. With few exceptions, the resulting plant is genetically identical to the parent plant.
- Question 34 of 100
34. Question
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) For every hormone there is a gene.
(B) For every protein there is a gene.
(C) For every molecule of fat there is a gene
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectProteins make up hormones and enzymes. The formation of any particular protein is also controlled by a specific gene. Genes contain instructions for making proteins in a cell. The proteins that are produced could be enzymes that catalyze biochemical reactions. The enzyme is also in charge of the hormone production process. However, fat formation is not genetically determined.
UnattemptedProteins make up hormones and enzymes. The formation of any particular protein is also controlled by a specific gene. Genes contain instructions for making proteins in a cell. The proteins that are produced could be enzymes that catalyze biochemical reactions. The enzyme is also in charge of the hormone production process. However, fat formation is not genetically determined.
- Question 35 of 100
35. Question
Regarding plants, consider the following sentences:
(1) All plants synthesize their food themselves.
(2) Plants obtain nitrogen through roots present in the soil.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThere are some plants which do not have chlorophyll. They cannot synthesise food.
Like humans and animals such plants depend on the food produced by other plants. They use the heterotrophic mode of nutrition. For example: Cuscuta (Amarbel).Plants cannot absorb nitrogen in gaseous form. Soil has certain bacteria that convert gaseous nitrogen into a usable form and release it into the soil. This is absorbed by the plants along with water.UnattemptedThere are some plants which do not have chlorophyll. They cannot synthesise food.
Like humans and animals such plants depend on the food produced by other plants. They use the heterotrophic mode of nutrition. For example: Cuscuta (Amarbel).Plants cannot absorb nitrogen in gaseous form. Soil has certain bacteria that convert gaseous nitrogen into a usable form and release it into the soil. This is absorbed by the plants along with water. - Question 36 of 100
36. Question
The pH of water at 25°C is 7. When it is heated to 100°C, the pH of water-
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains Same
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectUnattempted - Question 37 of 100
37. Question
What does the airbag, used for safety of car driver, contain?
(A) Sodium Bicarbonate
(B) Sodium Azide
(C) Sodium Nitrite
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectSodium Azide is best known as the chemical found in automobile airbags. An electrical charge triggered by automobile impact causes sodium azide to explode and convert to nitrogen gas inside the airbag. Sodium azide is used as a chemical preservative in hospitals and laboratories.
UnattemptedSodium Azide is best known as the chemical found in automobile airbags. An electrical charge triggered by automobile impact causes sodium azide to explode and convert to nitrogen gas inside the airbag. Sodium azide is used as a chemical preservative in hospitals and laboratories.
- Question 38 of 100
38. Question
Which one among the following elements/ions is essential in small quantities for development of healthy teeth but causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher quantities?
(A) Fluoride
(B) Iron
(C) Chloride
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectFluoride is essential in small quantities for the development of healthy teeth but causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher quantities.
UnattemptedFluoride is essential in small quantities for the development of healthy teeth but causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher quantities.
- Question 39 of 100
39. Question
Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?
(A) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
(B) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCarbon, hydrogen and nitrogen were primarily responsible for the origin of life on the earth. It is believed that organic molecules could be formed by inorganic process under primitive earth conditions.
UnattemptedCarbon, hydrogen and nitrogen were primarily responsible for the origin of life on the earth. It is believed that organic molecules could be formed by inorganic process under primitive earth conditions.
- Question 40 of 100
40. Question
Which of the following properties is not possible in the case of X-rays?
(1) Interference
(2) Diffraction
(3) Polarization
Code :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectDue to high penetrating power, the properties of interference, diffraction and polarization are not possible in X-ray.
UnattemptedDue to high penetrating power, the properties of interference, diffraction and polarization are not possible in X-ray.
- Question 41 of 100
41. Question
A man inside a moving train tosses a coin, the coin falls behind him. The train is moving-
(A) forward with a uniform speed
(B) forward with acceleration
(C) forward with deceleration
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectA passenger in a moving train tosses a coin upward which falls behind him. It implies that the motion of the train is accelerated. It happens because by the time the coin remains in the air, its velocity reduces and it falls behind the passenger.
UnattemptedA passenger in a moving train tosses a coin upward which falls behind him. It implies that the motion of the train is accelerated. It happens because by the time the coin remains in the air, its velocity reduces and it falls behind the passenger.
- Question 42 of 100
42. Question
Which one of the following statements is not true for a person suffering from hypermetropia?
(A) The person can see far objects distinctly.
(B) The image of the close object is focused behind the retina.
(C) A concave lens is used to correct this defect.
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectHypermetropia (Hyperopia) means far-sighted and it is where the image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina. This could be because the eye is too short or the cornea/crystalline lens does not refract light enough when trying to view an image. Concave lens is used to correct myopia and convex lens is used to correct hypermetropia.
UnattemptedHypermetropia (Hyperopia) means far-sighted and it is where the image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina. This could be because the eye is too short or the cornea/crystalline lens does not refract light enough when trying to view an image. Concave lens is used to correct myopia and convex lens is used to correct hypermetropia.
- Question 43 of 100
43. Question
Which of the following are exothermic processes?
(1) Reaction of water with quick lime
(2) Dilution of an acid
(3) Evaporation of water
(4) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectExothermic reactions are reactions or processes that release energy, usually in the form of heat or light. In an exothermic reaction, energy is released because the total energy of the products is less than the total energy of the reactants. For this reason, the change in enthalpy, for an exothermic reaction will always be negative. In the presence of water, a strong acid will dissociate quickly and release heat, so it is an exothermic reaction. Endothermic reactions are reactions that require external energy, usually in the form of heat, for the reaction to proceed.
Since endothermic reactions draw in heat from their surroundings, they tend to cause their environments to cool down. They are also generally non-spontaneous, since endothermic reactions yield products that are higher in energy than the reactants. As such, the change in enthalpy for an endothermic reaction is always positive. In order to melt the ice cube, heat is required, so the process is endothermic.UnattemptedExothermic reactions are reactions or processes that release energy, usually in the form of heat or light. In an exothermic reaction, energy is released because the total energy of the products is less than the total energy of the reactants. For this reason, the change in enthalpy, for an exothermic reaction will always be negative. In the presence of water, a strong acid will dissociate quickly and release heat, so it is an exothermic reaction. Endothermic reactions are reactions that require external energy, usually in the form of heat, for the reaction to proceed.
Since endothermic reactions draw in heat from their surroundings, they tend to cause their environments to cool down. They are also generally non-spontaneous, since endothermic reactions yield products that are higher in energy than the reactants. As such, the change in enthalpy for an endothermic reaction is always positive. In order to melt the ice cube, heat is required, so the process is endothermic. - Question 44 of 100
44. Question
The minimum height of a plane mirror to see the full-size image of a person is equal to-
(A) the height of the person
(B) half the height of the person
(C) one-fourth the height of the person
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn order to see full image of a person, the minimum size of the mirror should be one half the person's height. This is so because, in reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection. So, to see the image of a 6 ft tall person, a 3 ft long mirror is required.
UnattemptedIn order to see full image of a person, the minimum size of the mirror should be one half the person's height. This is so because, in reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection. So, to see the image of a 6 ft tall person, a 3 ft long mirror is required.
- Question 45 of 100
45. Question
Match the following:
Phylum Example
a. Porifera 1. Roundworms
b. Coelenterata 2. Sponge
c. Platyhelminthes 3. Jelly Fish
d. Nematoda 4. Flatworms
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectPorifera – Sponges
Coelenterata – Hydra, Jelly Fish
Platyhelminthes – Flat worm, Tape worm
Nematoda – Roundworms, hookwormUnattemptedPorifera – Sponges
Coelenterata – Hydra, Jelly Fish
Platyhelminthes – Flat worm, Tape worm
Nematoda – Roundworms, hookworm - Question 46 of 100
46. Question
Which part of the human body controls body temperature?
(A) Heart
(B) Lung
(C) liver
(D) kidney
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectLung is a major respiratory organ which regulates body temperature. During respiration, where one more energy is generated by the oxidation of food in the tissues of the body, on the other hand water vapour and gas are removed from the body through exhalation, as a result of which the body temperature is also controlled.
UnattemptedLung is a major respiratory organ which regulates body temperature. During respiration, where one more energy is generated by the oxidation of food in the tissues of the body, on the other hand water vapour and gas are removed from the body through exhalation, as a result of which the body temperature is also controlled.
- Question 47 of 100
47. Question
Consider the following statements in context of safety matches:
(1) A mixture of Antimony Trisulphide and Potassium Chlorate is applied on the heads of matchsticks.
(2) The rubbing surface has powdered glass and a little white phosphorus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectA mixture of Antimony Trisulphide and Potassium Chlorate is applied on the heads of matchsticks. Earlier, white phosphorus was also used along with these two chemicals, but due to its harmful effects, its use was discontinued in the manufacture of safety matches. The rubbing surface has powdered glass and a little red phosphorus. When the match is struck against the rubbing surface, some red phosphorus gets converted into white phosphorus. This immediately reacts with Potassium Chlorate in the matchstick head to produce enough heat to ignite Antimony Trisulphide and start the combustion.
UnattemptedA mixture of Antimony Trisulphide and Potassium Chlorate is applied on the heads of matchsticks. Earlier, white phosphorus was also used along with these two chemicals, but due to its harmful effects, its use was discontinued in the manufacture of safety matches. The rubbing surface has powdered glass and a little red phosphorus. When the match is struck against the rubbing surface, some red phosphorus gets converted into white phosphorus. This immediately reacts with Potassium Chlorate in the matchstick head to produce enough heat to ignite Antimony Trisulphide and start the combustion.
- Question 48 of 100
48. Question
Kidney stones are mainly formed by which of the following?
(A) Calcium Sulphate
(B) calcium carbonate
(C) Potassium carbonate
(D) calcium oxalate
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectKidney stones are formed due to calcium oxalate. Mineral salts often collect in the pelvis of the kidney in the form of a mass, causing obstruction in the passage of urine.
UnattemptedKidney stones are formed due to calcium oxalate. Mineral salts often collect in the pelvis of the kidney in the form of a mass, causing obstruction in the passage of urine.
- Question 49 of 100
49. Question
An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the following solution would reverse the change?
(1) Baking powder
(2) Lime
(3) Ammonium hydroxide solution
(4) Hydrochloric acid
Code:
(A) Only 1, 3 and 4
(B) Only 4
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe solution should be basic if it causes the red litmus test to turn blue. By adding an acid, its effects can be reversed. All are examples of base except hydrochloric acid (HCl).
UnattemptedThe solution should be basic if it causes the red litmus test to turn blue. By adding an acid, its effects can be reversed. All are examples of base except hydrochloric acid (HCl).
- Question 50 of 100
50. Question
Match List-I (animals) with List-II (class/phylum) and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
a. Octopus 1. Pisces
b. Jellyfish 2. Arthropoda
c. Silver fish 3. Mollusca
d. Bombay duck 4. Coelenterata
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 2 1 3 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectOctopus belongs to Mollusca. Jellyfish belongs to Coelenterata. Silver fish belongs to Arthropoda. Bombay Duck belongs to Pisces.
UnattemptedOctopus belongs to Mollusca. Jellyfish belongs to Coelenterata. Silver fish belongs to Arthropoda. Bombay Duck belongs to Pisces.
- Question 51 of 100
51. Question
Which of the following professionals are more likely to run the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA?
(1) Researchers from carbon-14 isotope
(2) X-ray technician
(3) Coal miner
(4) Dyer and painter
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCarbon-14 is radioactive isotope of carbon, which can mutate the DNA by getting incorporated into it. X-rays are high energy and ionizing rays.
These can cause mutation at genetic level though they generally damage the bio-molecules by altering their function. Coal miners have the risk to develop certain types of cancers.UnattemptedCarbon-14 is radioactive isotope of carbon, which can mutate the DNA by getting incorporated into it. X-rays are high energy and ionizing rays.
These can cause mutation at genetic level though they generally damage the bio-molecules by altering their function. Coal miners have the risk to develop certain types of cancers. - Question 52 of 100
52. Question
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I : List-II
a. Ptyalin 1. Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin
b. Pepsin 2. Digests starch
c. Renin 3. Digests proteins
d. Oxytocin 4. Induces contraction of smooth muscles
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 3 4 2 5
(C) 2 3 5 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectPtyalin digests the starch in the mouth. Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme which breaks down the proteins into simple peptides. Renin is responsible for converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin.
Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates the contraction of smooth muscles of the body.UnattemptedPtyalin digests the starch in the mouth. Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme which breaks down the proteins into simple peptides. Renin is responsible for converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin.
Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates the contraction of smooth muscles of the body. - Question 53 of 100
53. Question
Which of the following is/are the main functions of Lymphocytes?
(1) Produce antibodies
(2) Produce antigens
(3) Produce White Blood Cells
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectGlobulins are secreted by Lymphocytes and are known as antibodies. These antibodies help to fight against pathogens that attack the body.
UnattemptedGlobulins are secreted by Lymphocytes and are known as antibodies. These antibodies help to fight against pathogens that attack the body.
- Question 54 of 100
54. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Insulin is a fat-storage hormone that is released by the pancreas and regulates metabolic processes.
(2) Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland in the brain which controls sleep and wake cycles.
Choose the correct answer
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectInsulin is a fat-storage hormone that is released by the pancreas and regulates metabolic processes. Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland in the brain which controls sleep and wake cycles.
UnattemptedInsulin is a fat-storage hormone that is released by the pancreas and regulates metabolic processes. Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland in the brain which controls sleep and wake cycles.
- Question 55 of 100
55. Question
Which one of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation?
(A) Blue vitriol
(B) Baking soda
(C) Washing soda
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWashing soda – Na2CO3. 10H2O
Blue vitriol – CuSO4·5H2O
Baking Soda – NaHCO₃UnattemptedWashing soda – Na2CO3. 10H2O
Blue vitriol – CuSO4·5H2O
Baking Soda – NaHCO₃ - Question 56 of 100
56. Question
Which statement is correct regarding acids?
(1) Acid is a molecule which donate proton or accept electron pair in reactions.
(2) Acid increases the concentration of hydrogen atoms or hydronium atoms in water.
(3) Acids have pH value less than 7.
(4) Acid in the stomach helps in the digestion of food.
Use correct statements:
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 2 and 4
(C) Both 3 and 4
(D) All the above
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAcid, any substance that in water solution tastes sour, changes the colour of certain indicators (e.g., reddens blue litmus paper), reacts with some metals (e.g., iron) toliberate hydrogen, reacts with bases to form salts, and promotes certain chemical reactions (acid catalysis). Examples of acids include the inorganic substances known as the mineral acids—sulfuric, nitric, hydrochloric, and phosphoric acids—and the organic compounds belonging to the carboxylic acid, sulfonic acid, and phenol groups. Acids may be identified as either strong or weak acids based on how completely they dissociate into their ions in water. A strong acid, such as hydrochloric acid, completely dissociates into its ions in water. A weak acid only partly dissociates into its ions, so the solution contains water, ions, and the acid (e.g., acetic acid).
UnattemptedAcid, any substance that in water solution tastes sour, changes the colour of certain indicators (e.g., reddens blue litmus paper), reacts with some metals (e.g., iron) toliberate hydrogen, reacts with bases to form salts, and promotes certain chemical reactions (acid catalysis). Examples of acids include the inorganic substances known as the mineral acids—sulfuric, nitric, hydrochloric, and phosphoric acids—and the organic compounds belonging to the carboxylic acid, sulfonic acid, and phenol groups. Acids may be identified as either strong or weak acids based on how completely they dissociate into their ions in water. A strong acid, such as hydrochloric acid, completely dissociates into its ions in water. A weak acid only partly dissociates into its ions, so the solution contains water, ions, and the acid (e.g., acetic acid).
- Question 57 of 100
57. Question
Rusting of iron and steel cannot be prevented by –
(A) Chromium Plating
(B) Oiling and greasing
(C) Plastic Coating
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe rusting of iron and steel can be prevented by various methods. Let's evaluate the options:
(A) Chromium Plating – Chromium plating can provide a protective layer that helps prevent rusting.
(B) Oiling and greasing – Applying oil or grease can create a barrier, preventing moisture and oxygen from reaching the metal surface, thereby inhibiting rusting.
(C) Plastic Coating – Plastic coating can act as a protective barrier, preventing direct contact between the metal and environmental factors that cause rust.
Therefore, the correct answer is (D). All three methods – Chromium plating, oiling and greasing, and plastic coating – can be effective in preventing rusting.UnattemptedThe rusting of iron and steel can be prevented by various methods. Let's evaluate the options:
(A) Chromium Plating – Chromium plating can provide a protective layer that helps prevent rusting.
(B) Oiling and greasing – Applying oil or grease can create a barrier, preventing moisture and oxygen from reaching the metal surface, thereby inhibiting rusting.
(C) Plastic Coating – Plastic coating can act as a protective barrier, preventing direct contact between the metal and environmental factors that cause rust.
Therefore, the correct answer is (D). All three methods – Chromium plating, oiling and greasing, and plastic coating – can be effective in preventing rusting. - Question 58 of 100
58. Question
In the context of pollination in plants, consider the following assertions:
(1) Pollination of pollen grains is done on the stigma of flowers from the pollinators.
(2) If the pollen lands on the stigma of the same flower or another flower of the same plant, it is called cross-pollination. When the pollen of a flower lands on the stigma of a flower of a different plant of the same kind, it is called self-pollination.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectSince pollen grains are light, they can be carried by wind or water. Insects visit flowers and carry away pollen on their bodies. Some of the pollen lands on the stigma of a flower of the same kind. The transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called pollination. If the pollen lands on the stigma of the same flower or another flower of the same plant, it is called self-pollination. When the pollen of a flower lands on the stigma of a flower of a different plant of the same kind, it is called cross-pollination.
UnattemptedSince pollen grains are light, they can be carried by wind or water. Insects visit flowers and carry away pollen on their bodies. Some of the pollen lands on the stigma of a flower of the same kind. The transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called pollination. If the pollen lands on the stigma of the same flower or another flower of the same plant, it is called self-pollination. When the pollen of a flower lands on the stigma of a flower of a different plant of the same kind, it is called cross-pollination.
- Question 59 of 100
59. Question
In the context of magnetic and heating effects of the electric current, consider the following assertions:
(1) The wire gets hot when an electric current passes through it.
(2) When electric current passes through a wire, it behaves like a magnet.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe wire gets hot when an electric current passes through it. This is the heating effect of the electric current. Oersted observed the deflection of compass needle every time the current was passed through the wire. So, when electric current passes through a wire, it behaves like a magnet. This is the magnetic effect of the electric current.
UnattemptedThe wire gets hot when an electric current passes through it. This is the heating effect of the electric current. Oersted observed the deflection of compass needle every time the current was passed through the wire. So, when electric current passes through a wire, it behaves like a magnet. This is the magnetic effect of the electric current.
- Question 60 of 100
60. Question
Which beam is used in CT scan?
(A) infrared light
(B) X-rays
(C) Gamma-rays
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectA CT scan is a special type of X-ray test. Through this, an attempt is made to detect the malformations of the brain.
UnattemptedA CT scan is a special type of X-ray test. Through this, an attempt is made to detect the malformations of the brain.
- Question 61 of 100
61. Question
Chlorella and Spirulina algae are often used by astronauts as food, because abundance of ___ is found in it.
(A) Carbohydrate
(B) Protein
(C) fat
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAlgae called Chlorella and Spirulina are used as food by space travellers are they are rich in protein. Algae called Geladium and Gracilaria are used in making ice cream and jellies.
UnattemptedAlgae called Chlorella and Spirulina are used as food by space travellers are they are rich in protein. Algae called Geladium and Gracilaria are used in making ice cream and jellies.
- Question 62 of 100
62. Question
Match the items of column 1 with column 2, using the code given below.
Column 1 (Chemicals) : Column 2 (Effect)
a. Carbon monoxide : 1. Decrease of oxygen carrying capacity of blood
b. Chloro fluoro carbons : 2. Smog
c. Oxides of nitrogen and fog : 3. Acid rain
d. Sulphuric and nitric acid : 4. Depletion of Ozone layer
a b c d
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 4 2 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIncomplete combustion of fuels release Carbon Monoxide. It is a poisonous gas, which decreases the oxygen carrying capacity of blood. Chlorofluorocarbons, which are used in refrigerators, air conditioners and aerosol sprays, deplete the ozone layer of the atmosphere. After the Montreal protocol, nearly all the countries have started to use less harmful gases in the place of CFCs. Smoke contains oxides of nitrogen which combine with other air pollutants and fog to form smog. Sulphur Dioxide and Nitrogen Dioxide react with the water vapour present in the atmosphere to give sulphuric and nitric acid. This makes the rain acidic and is called acid rain.
UnattemptedIncomplete combustion of fuels release Carbon Monoxide. It is a poisonous gas, which decreases the oxygen carrying capacity of blood. Chlorofluorocarbons, which are used in refrigerators, air conditioners and aerosol sprays, deplete the ozone layer of the atmosphere. After the Montreal protocol, nearly all the countries have started to use less harmful gases in the place of CFCs. Smoke contains oxides of nitrogen which combine with other air pollutants and fog to form smog. Sulphur Dioxide and Nitrogen Dioxide react with the water vapour present in the atmosphere to give sulphuric and nitric acid. This makes the rain acidic and is called acid rain.
- Question 63 of 100
63. Question
Xerophytes fix carbon dioxide at night as __.
(A) Lactic Acid
(B) Malic Acid
(C) Oxalic Acid
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn xerophytes the stomata open in night and remain closed during day as an adaptation to conserve water.
For example, CAM plants are desert succulents in which stomata opens at night time and carbon dioxide is fixed into organic acids, like malic acid and oxaloacetic acid.UnattemptedIn xerophytes the stomata open in night and remain closed during day as an adaptation to conserve water.
For example, CAM plants are desert succulents in which stomata opens at night time and carbon dioxide is fixed into organic acids, like malic acid and oxaloacetic acid. - Question 64 of 100
64. Question
When we are standing at a railway station and a train comes, we start falling towards the train. This can be explained using which of the following theorem/principle?
(A) Pascal's principle
(B) Boyle's principle
(C) Bernoulli's principle
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWhen we are standing at a railway station and a train comes, we tend to fall towards the train. This can be explained using Bernoulli’s principle as the train goes past, the velocity of air between the train and us increases. Hence the pressure decreases. So, the pressure from behind pushes us towards the train.
UnattemptedWhen we are standing at a railway station and a train comes, we tend to fall towards the train. This can be explained using Bernoulli’s principle as the train goes past, the velocity of air between the train and us increases. Hence the pressure decreases. So, the pressure from behind pushes us towards the train.
- Question 65 of 100
65. Question
Which of the following terms, is/are transported in the body, through blood? :
(1) Digested food
(2) Oxygen
(3) Waste material
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBlood is the fluid which flows in blood vessels. It transports substances like digested food from the small intestine to the other parts of the body. It carries oxygen from the lungs to the cells of the body. It also transports waste for removal from the body.
UnattemptedBlood is the fluid which flows in blood vessels. It transports substances like digested food from the small intestine to the other parts of the body. It carries oxygen from the lungs to the cells of the body. It also transports waste for removal from the body.
- Question 66 of 100
66. Question
How much is a Yoctometer (y)?
(A) 10–21 m
(B) 1021 m
(C) 10–24 m
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrect10–24 m = Yocto
10–21 = Zepto
1021 = Zetta
1024 = Yotta
10–18 = AttoUnattempted10–24 m = Yocto
10–21 = Zepto
1021 = Zetta
1024 = Yotta
10–18 = Atto - Question 67 of 100
67. Question
Which of the following are vitamins?
(A) Organic compound
(B) living organism
(C) inorganic compound
(D) organic and inorganic compounds
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectVitamins are complex organic compounds. Which control the actions of catalysts in metabolic reactions in the body. Animals get most of the vitamins from food as they are synthesized by plants.
UnattemptedVitamins are complex organic compounds. Which control the actions of catalysts in metabolic reactions in the body. Animals get most of the vitamins from food as they are synthesized by plants.
- Question 68 of 100
68. Question
Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(A) Vitamin D : Rickets
(B) Vitamin C : Bleeding gums
(C) Vitamin A : Arthritis
(D) Vitamin B1 : Beriberi
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectVitamin A deficiency causes an eye disease called night blindness.
Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets.
Deficiency of Vitamin C causes scurvy disease.
Vitamin B1 deficiency causes Beriberi.UnattemptedVitamin A deficiency causes an eye disease called night blindness.
Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets.
Deficiency of Vitamin C causes scurvy disease.
Vitamin B1 deficiency causes Beriberi. - Question 69 of 100
69. Question
Which of the following has the maximum amount of protein?
(A) Arhar
(B) Soybean
(C) Wheat
(D) Urad
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe highest amount of protein is found in soybean. The amount of protein in it is up to 40%. This is mainly a pulse and oilseed crop. Milk is prepared from soybean, which is equivalent to cow's milk.
UnattemptedThe highest amount of protein is found in soybean. The amount of protein in it is up to 40%. This is mainly a pulse and oilseed crop. Milk is prepared from soybean, which is equivalent to cow's milk.
- Question 70 of 100
70. Question
Metabolism of which of the following gives maximum energy?
(A) Fat
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) Mineral
(D) Protein
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe metabolic process of fat gives more energy. Oxidation of 1 gram of fat releases 9.3 kcal of energy.
UnattemptedThe metabolic process of fat gives more energy. Oxidation of 1 gram of fat releases 9.3 kcal of energy.
- Question 71 of 100
71. Question
Consider the following statements :
(1) Some organisms live together and share both shelter and nutrients. This relationship is called symbiosis.
(2) Nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients from dead and decaying matter is called saprotrophic nutrition.
Which of the above statements/are true?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectSome organisms live together and share both shelter and nutrients. This relationship is called symbiosis. For example, certain fungi live inside the roots of plants. The plants provide nutrients to the fungus and, in return, the fungus provides water and certain nutrients.
For example: lichens.The mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients from dead and decaying matter is called saprotrophic nutrition. Such organisms with saprotrophic mode of nutrition are called saprotrophs. For example fungi, that grow on pickles, leather, clothes and other articles that had been left out in hot and humid weather for a long time, is a saprotroph. Note that during the rainy season such fungal growth may spoil a lot of household things.UnattemptedSome organisms live together and share both shelter and nutrients. This relationship is called symbiosis. For example, certain fungi live inside the roots of plants. The plants provide nutrients to the fungus and, in return, the fungus provides water and certain nutrients.
For example: lichens.The mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients from dead and decaying matter is called saprotrophic nutrition. Such organisms with saprotrophic mode of nutrition are called saprotrophs. For example fungi, that grow on pickles, leather, clothes and other articles that had been left out in hot and humid weather for a long time, is a saprotroph. Note that during the rainy season such fungal growth may spoil a lot of household things. - Question 72 of 100
72. Question
Which of the following is the reason for the viscosity of human blood?
(A) Platelets in plasma
(B) Protein in the blood
(C) RBC and WBC in blood
(D) calcium in the blood
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe viscosity of plasma is dependent on the concentration of plasma proteins, such as fibrinogen, α1-globulins, α2-globulins, β-globulins, and γ-globulins.
Any elevation in the concentration of these proteins can cause plasma, and thus whole blood, viscosity to increase. White blood cells and platelets in the blood have no effect on its viscosity.UnattemptedThe viscosity of plasma is dependent on the concentration of plasma proteins, such as fibrinogen, α1-globulins, α2-globulins, β-globulins, and γ-globulins.
Any elevation in the concentration of these proteins can cause plasma, and thus whole blood, viscosity to increase. White blood cells and platelets in the blood have no effect on its viscosity. - Question 73 of 100
73. Question
Which of the following are the functions of antigen?
(A) lowers body temperature
(B) modifies the immune system
(C) destroys insulin
(D) destroys harmful bacteria
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAntigens are those substances, which induce the formation of antibodies and activate the immune system. To destroy the viruses, fungi, or bacteria, the immune system creates antibodies that are specific for each antigen.
UnattemptedAntigens are those substances, which induce the formation of antibodies and activate the immune system. To destroy the viruses, fungi, or bacteria, the immune system creates antibodies that are specific for each antigen.
- Question 74 of 100
74. Question
Eutrophication in water bodies is caused by which of the following?
(A) Due to immersion of idols in the reservoir
(B) Due to lack of oxygen
(C) excess growth of algae
(D) due to excess of nitrogenous nutrients and Orthophosphate
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectEutrophication is the process by which the concentration of nutrients in a water body reaches high levels, especially phosphate and nitrate concentrations.
UnattemptedEutrophication is the process by which the concentration of nutrients in a water body reaches high levels, especially phosphate and nitrate concentrations.
- Question 75 of 100
75. Question
Which of the following organic matter is found most abundantly in nature?
(A) Glucose
(B) Cellulose
(C) Fructose
(D) Sucrose
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCellulose is the most abundant organic material found in nature. It is a polysaccharide. Its purest form is cotton.
UnattemptedCellulose is the most abundant organic material found in nature. It is a polysaccharide. Its purest form is cotton.
- Question 76 of 100
76. Question
What is Lithotripsy?
(A) Art of writing on stones
(B) Determining the age of stones by carbon method
(C) breaking of kidney stone by beam
(D) Carving stone for home use
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectLithotripsy is a medical procedure, in which with the help of rays, the patient is treated by breaking the stones located in kidney, gall bladder, bladder etc.
UnattemptedLithotripsy is a medical procedure, in which with the help of rays, the patient is treated by breaking the stones located in kidney, gall bladder, bladder etc.
- Question 77 of 100
77. Question
Consider the following:
(1) Evaporation
(2) Transpiration
(3) Condensation
Which of the above is/are responsible for the transformation of water droplets forming on the surface of a glass full of ice?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe process of transformation of water vapour into its liquid form is called condensation.
Tiny droplets of water on the surface of a glass containing ice are formed due to condensation.
Air contains water vapour, and when air comes in contact with a cold surface, the water vapour cools down and condenses to form droplets of water.
Evaporation and transpiration, both change water from liquid to vapour.UnattemptedThe process of transformation of water vapour into its liquid form is called condensation.
Tiny droplets of water on the surface of a glass containing ice are formed due to condensation.
Air contains water vapour, and when air comes in contact with a cold surface, the water vapour cools down and condenses to form droplets of water.
Evaporation and transpiration, both change water from liquid to vapour. - Question 78 of 100
78. Question
Which of the following is the substance that is normally lost from the body when there is dehydration in the body?
(A) Sugar
(B) calcium phosphate
(C) sodium chloride
(D) Potassium chloride
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectExcessive loss of fluid from the body is called dehydration. In this condition, electrolytes, mainly sodium chloride, are lost from the body.
UnattemptedExcessive loss of fluid from the body is called dehydration. In this condition, electrolytes, mainly sodium chloride, are lost from the body.
- Question 79 of 100
79. Question
Who among the following has the largest brain in proportion to its body?
(A) Ant
(B) Elephant
(C) Dolphin
(D) Human
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectOut of the above options, the brain of an ant is the largest in proportion to its body.
UnattemptedOut of the above options, the brain of an ant is the largest in proportion to its body.
- Question 80 of 100
80. Question
In the context of plane mirror, consider the following assertions —
(1) An image formed by a plane mirror is erect and of the same size as the object.
(2) In the image formed by a plane mirror, the ‘right’ appears ‘left’ and the ‘left’ appears ‘right’.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectPlane mirrors are simply flat mirrors without curves. Because these can be found almost anywhere, the average person is incredibly familiar with them (even if they don't know the technical term). While the first manmade mirrors were made from intensely polished bronze, silver and other metals, today most mirrors are made from glass sheets finished with a thin layer of aluminum. That said, plane mirrors can be made from liquid as well: Gallium and mercury can be used for this purpose. Regardless of material construction, however, all flat mirrors function the same way. They reflect rays of light, producing an image. Characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror:
It is virtual
It is erect and of same size as the object
The distance of object from the plane mirror is same as the distance of image from the plain mirror. One of the important characteristic of the image is that it is laterally inverted. It means if you raise your left hand it would appear in the plane mirror that you have raised your right hand.UnattemptedPlane mirrors are simply flat mirrors without curves. Because these can be found almost anywhere, the average person is incredibly familiar with them (even if they don't know the technical term). While the first manmade mirrors were made from intensely polished bronze, silver and other metals, today most mirrors are made from glass sheets finished with a thin layer of aluminum. That said, plane mirrors can be made from liquid as well: Gallium and mercury can be used for this purpose. Regardless of material construction, however, all flat mirrors function the same way. They reflect rays of light, producing an image. Characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror:
It is virtual
It is erect and of same size as the object
The distance of object from the plane mirror is same as the distance of image from the plain mirror. One of the important characteristic of the image is that it is laterally inverted. It means if you raise your left hand it would appear in the plane mirror that you have raised your right hand. - Question 81 of 100
81. Question
Aqua regia used by goldsmiths is made up of which of the following?
(A) Nitric acid and Sulfuric acid
(B) Nitric acid and Hydrochloric acid
(C) Sulfuric acid and Hydrochloric acid
(D) citric acid and benzoic acid
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAqua Regia is a mixture of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid. It is a very corrosive acid and is used by goldsmiths while making jewellery.
UnattemptedAqua Regia is a mixture of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid. It is a very corrosive acid and is used by goldsmiths while making jewellery.
- Question 82 of 100
82. Question
The first step of reproduction is called fertilization. Consider the following statements regarding reproduction of organisms.
(1) The fusion of sperms and ovum is called fertilization.
(2) Fertilization in all oviparous animals occurs outside the female body.
Which of the above given statement/statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectSperm and ovum, both are examples of single celled bodies. The fusion of both is called fertilization, the result of which is the formation of zygote. The cells of zygote divide continuously, to form a ball of cells, after which, the cells differentiate and divide into tissues and organs. This is called an embryo. The embryo undergoes development after being implanted on the wall of the uterus. The stage of embryo development, wherein all the body parts are distinguishable, is called foetus. Animals which give birth to offsprings, are called viviparous; and the ones which develop through eggs are called oviparous. Statement 2 is not correct, because fertilisation in some oviparous animals occurs outside the body, and in some, inside the body. Fertilisation in chicken is an example of internal fertilization. In many animals (frogs, toad, fish, starfish, etc), fertilization occurs outside the female body. In these animals, fertilization occurs in water. As soon as the egg is released from the female body, males release the sperms. All the sperms swim in the water with the help of their tail. These sperms, on coming in contact with the membrane of the egg, result in fertilization. This type of fertilization, where male and female gametes fuse outside the female body is called external fertilization.
UnattemptedSperm and ovum, both are examples of single celled bodies. The fusion of both is called fertilization, the result of which is the formation of zygote. The cells of zygote divide continuously, to form a ball of cells, after which, the cells differentiate and divide into tissues and organs. This is called an embryo. The embryo undergoes development after being implanted on the wall of the uterus. The stage of embryo development, wherein all the body parts are distinguishable, is called foetus. Animals which give birth to offsprings, are called viviparous; and the ones which develop through eggs are called oviparous. Statement 2 is not correct, because fertilisation in some oviparous animals occurs outside the body, and in some, inside the body. Fertilisation in chicken is an example of internal fertilization. In many animals (frogs, toad, fish, starfish, etc), fertilization occurs outside the female body. In these animals, fertilization occurs in water. As soon as the egg is released from the female body, males release the sperms. All the sperms swim in the water with the help of their tail. These sperms, on coming in contact with the membrane of the egg, result in fertilization. This type of fertilization, where male and female gametes fuse outside the female body is called external fertilization.
- Question 83 of 100
83. Question
The chemical used in the manufacture of dynamite is?
(A) Glycerol
(B) Glycerol triacetate
(C) Glycerol tri nitrate
(D) Glycerol triiodate
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectGlycerol tri nitrate is also known as nitroglycerin. It is a heavy, colourless, oily explosive liquid. It is an essential ingredient of dynamite.
UnattemptedGlycerol tri nitrate is also known as nitroglycerin. It is a heavy, colourless, oily explosive liquid. It is an essential ingredient of dynamite.
- Question 84 of 100
84. Question
Which gas is present in ordinary tube light?
(A) sodium vapor with argon
(B) mercury vapor with argon
(C) sodium vapor with neon
(D) Mercury vapor with neon
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectA tubelight consists of a long glass tube whose inner walls are phosphor coated. The inside of the tube is filled with an inert gas such as argon along with mercury vapor.
UnattemptedA tubelight consists of a long glass tube whose inner walls are phosphor coated. The inside of the tube is filled with an inert gas such as argon along with mercury vapor.
- Question 85 of 100
85. Question
Cyclotron is used to accelerate
(A) Neutron
(B) Ion
(C) Proton
(D) Atom
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCyclotron is such an accelerated device by which high velocities are generated in protons, alpha particles etc.
UnattemptedCyclotron is such an accelerated device by which high velocities are generated in protons, alpha particles etc.
- Question 86 of 100
86. Question
Regarding amoeba, consider the following assertions:
(1) It is a microscopic single-celled organism found in pond water.
(2) Amoeba constantly changes its shape and position.
(3) Amoeba has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIt is the microscopic unicellular organism found in pond water which keeps changing its shape and position constantly. It has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm. The amoeba is a tiny, one-celled organism. You need a microscope to see most amoebas – the largest are only about 1 mm across. Amoebas live in fresh water (like puddle and ponds), in salt water, in wet soil, and in animals (including people). There are many different types of amoebas. The name amoeba comes from the Greek word amoibe, which means change. (Amoeba is sometimes spelled ameba.)
(1) Cell membrane – the thin layer of protein and fat that surrounds the amoeba; it allows some substances to pass into the cell, and blocks other substances.
(2) Contractile vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba that excretes excess water and waste; the waste is brought to the cell membrane and is then eliminated from the amoeba.
(3) Cytoplasm (ectoplasm and endoplasm) – a jelly-like material that fills most of the cell; the organelles (like the nucleus) are surrounded by cytoplasm.
(4) Food vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba in which food is digested (broken down in order to be absorbed by the amoeba).
(5) Nucleus – the major organelle of the amoeba, located centrally; it controls reproduction (it contains the chromosomes) and many other important functions (including eating and growth).
(6) Pseudopods – temporary “feet” that the amoeba uses to move around and to engulf food.
An amoeba consists of a single blobby cell surrounded by a porous cell membrane. The amoeba “breathes” using this membrane – oxygen gas from the water passes in to the amoeba through the cell membrane and carbon dioxide gas leaves through it. A complex, jelly-like series of folded membranes called cytoplasm fills most of the cell. A large, disk-shaped nucleus within the amoeba controls the growth and reproduction of the amoeba.UnattemptedIt is the microscopic unicellular organism found in pond water which keeps changing its shape and position constantly. It has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm. The amoeba is a tiny, one-celled organism. You need a microscope to see most amoebas – the largest are only about 1 mm across. Amoebas live in fresh water (like puddle and ponds), in salt water, in wet soil, and in animals (including people). There are many different types of amoebas. The name amoeba comes from the Greek word amoibe, which means change. (Amoeba is sometimes spelled ameba.)
(1) Cell membrane – the thin layer of protein and fat that surrounds the amoeba; it allows some substances to pass into the cell, and blocks other substances.
(2) Contractile vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba that excretes excess water and waste; the waste is brought to the cell membrane and is then eliminated from the amoeba.
(3) Cytoplasm (ectoplasm and endoplasm) – a jelly-like material that fills most of the cell; the organelles (like the nucleus) are surrounded by cytoplasm.
(4) Food vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba in which food is digested (broken down in order to be absorbed by the amoeba).
(5) Nucleus – the major organelle of the amoeba, located centrally; it controls reproduction (it contains the chromosomes) and many other important functions (including eating and growth).
(6) Pseudopods – temporary “feet” that the amoeba uses to move around and to engulf food.
An amoeba consists of a single blobby cell surrounded by a porous cell membrane. The amoeba “breathes” using this membrane – oxygen gas from the water passes in to the amoeba through the cell membrane and carbon dioxide gas leaves through it. A complex, jelly-like series of folded membranes called cytoplasm fills most of the cell. A large, disk-shaped nucleus within the amoeba controls the growth and reproduction of the amoeba. - Question 87 of 100
87. Question
Solder is an alloy of which of the following?
(A) lead and zinc
(B) lead and tin
(C) lead and copper
(D) lead, copper and sulfur
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectSolder, which is an alloy of lead and tin, is used to join electrical wires together.
UnattemptedSolder, which is an alloy of lead and tin, is used to join electrical wires together.
- Question 88 of 100
88. Question
Which form of energy is converted into electrical energy in wind power?
(A) kinetic energy
(B) potential energy
(C) Solar energy
(D) Radiation energy
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWind power is the conversion of the kinetic energy of the air into electrical energy. The energy generated from the flowing air is called wind energy.
UnattemptedWind power is the conversion of the kinetic energy of the air into electrical energy. The energy generated from the flowing air is called wind energy.
- Question 89 of 100
89. Question
Regarding the digestive system, consider the following assertions:
(1) Digestive juices convert simple substances of food into complex ones, which is helpful in digestion.
(2) The inner walls of the stomach, the small intestine, and the various glands associated with the alimentary canal secrete digestive juices.
Which of the above assertions is/are wrong?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectDigestive juices convert complex substances of food into simpler ones. The digestive tract and the associated glands together constitute the digestive system.
The inner walls of the stomach and the small intestine, and the various glands associated with the alimentary canal such as salivary glands, the liver and the pancreas secrete digestive juices.UnattemptedDigestive juices convert complex substances of food into simpler ones. The digestive tract and the associated glands together constitute the digestive system.
The inner walls of the stomach and the small intestine, and the various glands associated with the alimentary canal such as salivary glands, the liver and the pancreas secrete digestive juices. - Question 90 of 100
90. Question
Which law of motion causes the shoulder to move backwards after a bullet is fired from a gun?
(A) Due to the law of conservation of momentum
(B) due to law of inertia
(C) Because of Newton's second law of motion
(D) Because of Newton's third law of motion
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWhen a bullet is fired from a gun, the shoulder moves backwards, when jumping from a boat, the boat moves backwards, when you hit someone and you feel hurt, etc. are due to Newton's third law of motion. This is called the action-reaction law.
UnattemptedWhen a bullet is fired from a gun, the shoulder moves backwards, when jumping from a boat, the boat moves backwards, when you hit someone and you feel hurt, etc. are due to Newton's third law of motion. This is called the action-reaction law.
- Question 91 of 100
91. Question
Which of the following assertions is/are correct?
(1) The liver is the largest gland in the body.
(2) The liver does not secrete bile juice.
(3) Bile juice plays an important role in the digestion of fat.
Use the code given below to select the correct answer —
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe liver is an abdominal glandular organ in the digestive system. It is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, under the diaphragm and on top of the stomach. The liver is a vital organ that supports nearly every other organ to some capacity. The liver is the body's second-largest organ (skin is the largest organ).
Function: “The liver has a complex role in the function of the body,” said Jordan Knowlton, an advanced registered nurse practitioner at the University of Florida Health Shands Hospital.
“Detoxification, metabolism (including regulation of glycogen storage), hormone regulation, protein synthesis, digestion, and decomposition of red blood cells, to name a few.”
Production of bile, which helps carry away waste and break down fats in the small intestine during digestion.
Production of certain proteins for blood plasma.
Production of cholesterol and special proteins to help carry fats through the body
Conversion of excess glucose into glycogen for storage (glycogen can later be converted back to glucose for energy) and to balance and make glucose as needed
Regulation of blood levels of amino acids, which form the building blocks of proteins
Processing of hemoglobin for use of its iron content (the liver stores iron)
Conversion of poisonous ammonia to urea (urea is an end product of protein metabolism and is excreted in the urine)
Clearing the blood of drugs and other poisonous substances
Regulating blood clotting
Resisting infections by making immune factors and removing bacteria from the bloodstream
Clearance of bilirubin, also from red blood cells. If there is an accumulation of bilirubin, the skin and eyes turn yellow.UnattemptedThe liver is an abdominal glandular organ in the digestive system. It is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, under the diaphragm and on top of the stomach. The liver is a vital organ that supports nearly every other organ to some capacity. The liver is the body's second-largest organ (skin is the largest organ).
Function: “The liver has a complex role in the function of the body,” said Jordan Knowlton, an advanced registered nurse practitioner at the University of Florida Health Shands Hospital.
“Detoxification, metabolism (including regulation of glycogen storage), hormone regulation, protein synthesis, digestion, and decomposition of red blood cells, to name a few.”
Production of bile, which helps carry away waste and break down fats in the small intestine during digestion.
Production of certain proteins for blood plasma.
Production of cholesterol and special proteins to help carry fats through the body
Conversion of excess glucose into glycogen for storage (glycogen can later be converted back to glucose for energy) and to balance and make glucose as needed
Regulation of blood levels of amino acids, which form the building blocks of proteins
Processing of hemoglobin for use of its iron content (the liver stores iron)
Conversion of poisonous ammonia to urea (urea is an end product of protein metabolism and is excreted in the urine)
Clearing the blood of drugs and other poisonous substances
Regulating blood clotting
Resisting infections by making immune factors and removing bacteria from the bloodstream
Clearance of bilirubin, also from red blood cells. If there is an accumulation of bilirubin, the skin and eyes turn yellow. - Question 92 of 100
92. Question
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched with respect to important organic compounds and their uses?
(A) As an insecticide – use of iodoform
(B) In mosquito repellent – use of allethrin
(C) As a chemical weapon – use of mustard gas
(D) As a fire extinguisher – use of ethyl mercaptan
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCarbon tetrachloride is used in firefighting.
▪️ Ethyl mercaptan is used to detect the leakage of LPG gas.
▪️ Iodoform and Gamoxygen are used as insecticides.
▪️ Aspirin is used as an antipyretic and analgesic.UnattemptedCarbon tetrachloride is used in firefighting.
▪️ Ethyl mercaptan is used to detect the leakage of LPG gas.
▪️ Iodoform and Gamoxygen are used as insecticides.
▪️ Aspirin is used as an antipyretic and analgesic. - Question 93 of 100
93. Question
When a bottle is filled with water and allowed to freeze, why does the bottle break?
(A) water expands on freezing
(B) the bottle shrinks at freezing point
(C) the temperature outside the bottle is higher than inside
(D) water expands on heating
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWhen a bottle is filled with water and allowed to freeze, the bottle breaks because water expands on freezing.
When water becomes ice, its volume increases and density decreases, while on melting, the volume decreases while the density increases.UnattemptedWhen a bottle is filled with water and allowed to freeze, the bottle breaks because water expands on freezing.
When water becomes ice, its volume increases and density decreases, while on melting, the volume decreases while the density increases. - Question 94 of 100
94. Question
Which of the following are examples of a symbiotic relationship?
(1) Algae and fungus
(2) Algae and bacteria
(3) Fungus and bacteria
(4) Plants and bacteria
Use the code given below to select the correct answer —
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThere is a symbiotic relationship between algae and fungus. For example, in organisms called lichens, a chlorophyll-containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live together. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga and, in return, the alga prepares and provides food to the fungus.The bacterium called Rhizobium can take atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into a usable form. But Rhizobium cannot make its own food.
So, it often lives in the roots of gram, peas, moong, beans and other legumes and provides them with nitrogen. In return, the plants provide food and shelter to the bacteria. They, thus, have a symbiotic relationship. (i.e., between plants and bacteria).UnattemptedThere is a symbiotic relationship between algae and fungus. For example, in organisms called lichens, a chlorophyll-containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live together. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga and, in return, the alga prepares and provides food to the fungus.The bacterium called Rhizobium can take atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into a usable form. But Rhizobium cannot make its own food.
So, it often lives in the roots of gram, peas, moong, beans and other legumes and provides them with nitrogen. In return, the plants provide food and shelter to the bacteria. They, thus, have a symbiotic relationship. (i.e., between plants and bacteria). - Question 95 of 100
95. Question
Consider the following assertions in relation to photosynthesis:
(1) Only oxygen is formed from the process of photosynthesis.
(2) In addition to the leaves, the other green parts of plants also carry out photosynthesis.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBoth carbohydrate and oxygen are formed in the process of photosynthesis.Besides leaves, photosynthesis also takes place in other green parts of the plant — in green stems and green branches. Desert plants have scales or spine-like leaves to reduce loss of water by transpiration. These plants have green stems which carry out photosynthesis.
UnattemptedBoth carbohydrate and oxygen are formed in the process of photosynthesis.Besides leaves, photosynthesis also takes place in other green parts of the plant — in green stems and green branches. Desert plants have scales or spine-like leaves to reduce loss of water by transpiration. These plants have green stems which carry out photosynthesis.
- Question 96 of 100
96. Question
Which of the following photoelectric devices is the most suitable for digital applications?
(A) Photo-voltaic cell
(B) Photo-emissive cell
(C) Photo-diode
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectPhotoelectric device means which uses the photoelectric effect, in other words, which produces electricity/electric signal from light.
A photovoltaic cell is one such device. Other devices in the option are exactly the opposite of this, in other words, they produce light on the flow of electricity.
Photovoltaic cell:
A photovoltaic panel usually referred to as a module, is a structure made up of connected unique cells that produce an electric current when exposed to sunlight.
An electric field is produced when the cells are exposed to the sun.
Photovoltaic cells or commonly known as solar cells have vast use in digital technology.
For example entire satellite communication depends on it since this is the main source of power for it.
Photodiodes are used to accurately measure light intensity.
The photodiode works on the concept that an electric current begins to flow through it when the junction of this two-terminal semiconductor device is lit.
Photodiodes are utilized in CD players, smoke detectors, medical equipment, and the receivers for infrared remote controls used to operate everything from air conditioners to televisions.
Photodiodes all are used in photoelectric devices according to the requirements.
Devices like cameras, medical equipment, automobiles, and in many other applications.
A substance that emits photoemitted electrons when illuminated.
Emitting photons, particularly from metallic surfaces.UnattemptedPhotoelectric device means which uses the photoelectric effect, in other words, which produces electricity/electric signal from light.
A photovoltaic cell is one such device. Other devices in the option are exactly the opposite of this, in other words, they produce light on the flow of electricity.
Photovoltaic cell:
A photovoltaic panel usually referred to as a module, is a structure made up of connected unique cells that produce an electric current when exposed to sunlight.
An electric field is produced when the cells are exposed to the sun.
Photovoltaic cells or commonly known as solar cells have vast use in digital technology.
For example entire satellite communication depends on it since this is the main source of power for it.
Photodiodes are used to accurately measure light intensity.
The photodiode works on the concept that an electric current begins to flow through it when the junction of this two-terminal semiconductor device is lit.
Photodiodes are utilized in CD players, smoke detectors, medical equipment, and the receivers for infrared remote controls used to operate everything from air conditioners to televisions.
Photodiodes all are used in photoelectric devices according to the requirements.
Devices like cameras, medical equipment, automobiles, and in many other applications.
A substance that emits photoemitted electrons when illuminated.
Emitting photons, particularly from metallic surfaces. - Question 97 of 100
97. Question
In the context of respiration in various animals, consider the following assertions —
(1) The process of breakdown of food in the cell with the release of energy is called cellular respiration.
(2) In the cell, the food (glucose) is broken down into carbon dioxide and water using oxygen.
(3) Food can also be broken down, without using oxygen. This is called aerobic respiration.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWhen breakdown of glucose occurs with the use of oxygen, it is called aerobic respiration; whereas food can also be broken down, without using oxygen. This is called anaerobic respiration.
UnattemptedWhen breakdown of glucose occurs with the use of oxygen, it is called aerobic respiration; whereas food can also be broken down, without using oxygen. This is called anaerobic respiration.
- Question 98 of 100
98. Question
Consider the following assertions in terms of fertility in various organisms:
(1) Reproduction in yeast takes place through budding.
(2) Reproduction process in algae takes place through fragmentation.
(3) Plants such as moss and fern also reproduce by means of spores.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectYeast is a unicellular organism in which reproduction is done through budding.The small bulb-like projection coming out from the yeast cell is called a bud. The bud gradually grows and gets detached from the parent cell and forms a new yeast cell. The new yeast cell grows, matures and produces more yeast cells.
The process of reproduction in algae is done by fragmentation. In this process, the algae (such as spirogyra) breaks up into two or more fragments. These fragments or pieces grow into new individuals.
Plants such as moss and ferns, also reproduce by means of spores. When spores are released they keep floating in the air reaching long distances. Under favourable conditions, a spore germinates and develops into a new individual.UnattemptedYeast is a unicellular organism in which reproduction is done through budding.The small bulb-like projection coming out from the yeast cell is called a bud. The bud gradually grows and gets detached from the parent cell and forms a new yeast cell. The new yeast cell grows, matures and produces more yeast cells.
The process of reproduction in algae is done by fragmentation. In this process, the algae (such as spirogyra) breaks up into two or more fragments. These fragments or pieces grow into new individuals.
Plants such as moss and ferns, also reproduce by means of spores. When spores are released they keep floating in the air reaching long distances. Under favourable conditions, a spore germinates and develops into a new individual. - Question 99 of 100
99. Question
In the context of lenses, consider the following assertions —
(1) The image formed by a convex lens is real, inverted and large in size than the object.
(2) The image formed by a concave lens is always virtual, erect, and smaller in size than the object.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrect(1) The image formed by a convex lens is real, inverted, and can be either larger, smaller, or the same size as the object, depending on the object's position relative to the focal point. So, the first assertion is not always correct.
(2) The image formed by a concave lens is virtual, erect, and smaller than the object. This is generally correct for concave lenses.
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) 2 only.Unattempted(1) The image formed by a convex lens is real, inverted, and can be either larger, smaller, or the same size as the object, depending on the object's position relative to the focal point. So, the first assertion is not always correct.
(2) The image formed by a concave lens is virtual, erect, and smaller than the object. This is generally correct for concave lenses.
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) 2 only. - Question 100 of 100
100. Question
The job of a fire extinguisher is to cut off the supply of air, or to bring down the temperature of the fuel, or both. Consider the following statements in the context of cutting off the supply of air:
(1) Water vapours, formed due to water being poured on the flame, surround the combustible material, helping in cutting off the supply of air.
(2) CO2, being heavier than oxygen, covers the fire like a blanket. Since the contact between the fuel and oxygen is cut off, the fire is controlled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWater cools the combustible and the water vapours formed also surround the combustible material, cutting off the supply of air. thus, the fire is extinguished. The most common fire extinguisher is water. But for fires involving electrical equipment and inflammable materials like petrol, carbon dioxide (CO2) is the best extinguisher. CO2, being heavier than oxygen, covers the fire like a blanket. Since the contact between the fuel and oxygen is cut off, the fire is controlled. It does not harm the electrical equipment.CO2 can be stored at high pressure as a liquid in cylinders.
When released from the cylinder, CO2 expands enormously in volume and cools down.
Another way to get CO2 is to release a lot of dry powder of chemicals like sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) or potassium bicarbonate. On coming near the fire, these chemicals decompose to give off CO2.UnattemptedWater cools the combustible and the water vapours formed also surround the combustible material, cutting off the supply of air. thus, the fire is extinguished. The most common fire extinguisher is water. But for fires involving electrical equipment and inflammable materials like petrol, carbon dioxide (CO2) is the best extinguisher. CO2, being heavier than oxygen, covers the fire like a blanket. Since the contact between the fuel and oxygen is cut off, the fire is controlled. It does not harm the electrical equipment.CO2 can be stored at high pressure as a liquid in cylinders.
When released from the cylinder, CO2 expands enormously in volume and cools down.
Another way to get CO2 is to release a lot of dry powder of chemicals like sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) or potassium bicarbonate. On coming near the fire, these chemicals decompose to give off CO2.