HCS – GS 1 :: TEST 18
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- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 100
1. Question
With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?
(A) Avalokiteshvara
(B) Lokesvara
(C) Maitreya
(D) Padmapani
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIt is believed that Maitreya is still not Buddha and resides in the Tusita Heaven, which is one of the realms of Buddhist cosmology.
A popular representation of the Maitreya Boddhisattva is the Laughing Buddha. It is said to be an incarnation of Maitreya.
It is believed to appear on the Earth in the future as many scriptures showcase it as the successor of Gautam Buddha, the present Budha.UnattemptedIt is believed that Maitreya is still not Buddha and resides in the Tusita Heaven, which is one of the realms of Buddhist cosmology.
A popular representation of the Maitreya Boddhisattva is the Laughing Buddha. It is said to be an incarnation of Maitreya.
It is believed to appear on the Earth in the future as many scriptures showcase it as the successor of Gautam Buddha, the present Budha. - Question 2 of 100
2. Question
Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
(A) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
(B) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
(C) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
(D) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
The Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two epics named – Silappathikaram and Manimegalai .
Tolkappiyam was authored by Tolkappiyar and is considered the earliest of Tamil literary work. Though it is a work on Tamil grammar but it also provides insights on the political and socio-economic conditions of the time.
Ettutogai (Eight Anthologies) consist of eight works – Aingurunooru, Narrinai, Aganaooru, Purananooru, Kuruntogai, Kalittogai, Paripadal and Padirruppatu.
The Pattuppattu (Ten Idylls) consists of ten works – Thirumurugarruppadai, Porunararruppadai, Sirupanarruppadai, Perumpanarruppadai, Mullaippattu, Nedunalvadai, Maduraikkanji, Kurinjippatttu,Pattinappalai and Malaipadukadam.
Pathinenkilkanakku contains eighteen works about ethics and morals. The most important among these works is Tirukkural authored by Thiruvalluvar, the tamil great poet and philosopher.
The two epics Silappathikaram is written by Elango Adigal and Manimegalai by Sittalai Sattanar. They also provide valuable details about the Sangam society and polity.UnattemptedThe social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
The Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two epics named – Silappathikaram and Manimegalai .
Tolkappiyam was authored by Tolkappiyar and is considered the earliest of Tamil literary work. Though it is a work on Tamil grammar but it also provides insights on the political and socio-economic conditions of the time.
Ettutogai (Eight Anthologies) consist of eight works – Aingurunooru, Narrinai, Aganaooru, Purananooru, Kuruntogai, Kalittogai, Paripadal and Padirruppatu.
The Pattuppattu (Ten Idylls) consists of ten works – Thirumurugarruppadai, Porunararruppadai, Sirupanarruppadai, Perumpanarruppadai, Mullaippattu, Nedunalvadai, Maduraikkanji, Kurinjippatttu,Pattinappalai and Malaipadukadam.
Pathinenkilkanakku contains eighteen works about ethics and morals. The most important among these works is Tirukkural authored by Thiruvalluvar, the tamil great poet and philosopher.
The two epics Silappathikaram is written by Elango Adigal and Manimegalai by Sittalai Sattanar. They also provide valuable details about the Sangam society and polity. - Question 3 of 100
3. Question
Himalayan Forest Research Centre is located at ______:
(A) Shimla
(B) Bhutan
(C) Srinagar
(D) Dehradun
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectHimalayan Forest Research Institute (HFRI) is a research institute situated in Shimla in Himachal Pradesh. It works under the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) of the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India. it was established in 1977.
UnattemptedHimalayan Forest Research Institute (HFRI) is a research institute situated in Shimla in Himachal Pradesh. It works under the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) of the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India. it was established in 1977.
- Question 4 of 100
4. Question
Consider the following statements about Confederate political system:
(1) Confederations have often proved to be a step toward the establishment of a unitary nation.
(2) Confederations are usually made to overcome individual limitations ofnations.
Which of the statement is/are correct:
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is incorrect as confederations have often proved to be step towards establishment of a federal union.
Statement 2 is correct because, state’s come together to create bigger unit to overcome their limitations. Confederations are voluntary associations of independent states that, to secure some common purpose, agree to certain limitations on their freedom of action and establish some joint machinery of consultation or deliberation. The limitations on the freedom of action of the member states may be as trivial as an acknowledgment of their duty to consult with each other before taking some independent action or as significant as the obligation to be bound by majority decisions of the member states. Confederations usually fail to provide for an effective executive authority and lack viable central governments; their member states typically retain their separate military establishments and separate diplomatic representation; and members are generally accorded equal status with an acknowledged right of secession from the confederation.UnattemptedStatement 1 is incorrect as confederations have often proved to be step towards establishment of a federal union.
Statement 2 is correct because, state’s come together to create bigger unit to overcome their limitations. Confederations are voluntary associations of independent states that, to secure some common purpose, agree to certain limitations on their freedom of action and establish some joint machinery of consultation or deliberation. The limitations on the freedom of action of the member states may be as trivial as an acknowledgment of their duty to consult with each other before taking some independent action or as significant as the obligation to be bound by majority decisions of the member states. Confederations usually fail to provide for an effective executive authority and lack viable central governments; their member states typically retain their separate military establishments and separate diplomatic representation; and members are generally accorded equal status with an acknowledged right of secession from the confederation. - Question 5 of 100
5. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Article 17 of the Indian Constitution defines untouchability and provides for its abolition.
(2) A person convicted of untouchability is disqualified for election to theParliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectArticle 17 of the constitution abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
The term 'untouchability' however has not been defined under the constitution.
Under the Protection of Civil Rights act, 1955 a person convicted of the offence of 'untouchability' is disqualified for election to the Parliament or state legislature.UnattemptedArticle 17 of the constitution abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
The term 'untouchability' however has not been defined under the constitution.
Under the Protection of Civil Rights act, 1955 a person convicted of the offence of 'untouchability' is disqualified for election to the Parliament or state legislature. - Question 6 of 100
6. Question
Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?
(1) Avanti
(2) Gandhara
(3) Kosala
(4) Magadha
Which of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 3 and 4 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBuddha traveled through the towns and villages in the kingdoms of Kosala and Magadha teaching his philosophy.
Other regions where he wandered were Vaishali, Vajji, etc.
Jetavana (Jeta garden) was perhaps the best known amongst the beautiful gardens provided to Buddha’s entourage and it was close to Sravasti, capital of the Kosala kingdom.
Perhaps the second-most important monastic resort of Buddha was the “bamboo grove” in Rajgriha, capital of Magadha, provided by king Bimbisara.
Gandhara is not directly associated with the life of Buddha.
During the rule of Ashoka Gandhara was influenced by Buddhist culture.
Avanti was not related to the life of Buddha.
Buddha belonged to the Shakya clan whose capital was Kapilavastu, and who were later annexed by the growing Kingdom of Kosala during the Buddha’s lifetime.UnattemptedBuddha traveled through the towns and villages in the kingdoms of Kosala and Magadha teaching his philosophy.
Other regions where he wandered were Vaishali, Vajji, etc.
Jetavana (Jeta garden) was perhaps the best known amongst the beautiful gardens provided to Buddha’s entourage and it was close to Sravasti, capital of the Kosala kingdom.
Perhaps the second-most important monastic resort of Buddha was the “bamboo grove” in Rajgriha, capital of Magadha, provided by king Bimbisara.
Gandhara is not directly associated with the life of Buddha.
During the rule of Ashoka Gandhara was influenced by Buddhist culture.
Avanti was not related to the life of Buddha.
Buddha belonged to the Shakya clan whose capital was Kapilavastu, and who were later annexed by the growing Kingdom of Kosala during the Buddha’s lifetime. - Question 7 of 100
7. Question
With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:
(1) It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
(2) It is the only circular temple built in India.
(3) It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
(4) Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 4 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct : According to an inscription dated to 1323 CE (Vikram Samvat 1383), the temple was built by the Kachchhapaghata king Devapala (1055 – 1075). It is said that the temple was the venue of providing education in astrology and mathematics based on the transit of the Sun.
Statement 2 is incorrect : This circular temple is one among the very few such temples in India. It is not the only circular temple built in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect : It is, also known as Ekattarso Mahadeva Temple because of the presence of multitude of shivalingas inside itscells. So it promote Shaivite cult in the region not vaishnavite culture.
Statement 4 is correct : Many of these curious visitors have compared this temple with the Indian parliament building (Sansad Bhawan) as both are circular in style. So, many have drawn conclusions that this temple was the inspiration behind the Parliament building.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct : According to an inscription dated to 1323 CE (Vikram Samvat 1383), the temple was built by the Kachchhapaghata king Devapala (1055 – 1075). It is said that the temple was the venue of providing education in astrology and mathematics based on the transit of the Sun.
Statement 2 is incorrect : This circular temple is one among the very few such temples in India. It is not the only circular temple built in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect : It is, also known as Ekattarso Mahadeva Temple because of the presence of multitude of shivalingas inside itscells. So it promote Shaivite cult in the region not vaishnavite culture.
Statement 4 is correct : Many of these curious visitors have compared this temple with the Indian parliament building (Sansad Bhawan) as both are circular in style. So, many have drawn conclusions that this temple was the inspiration behind the Parliament building. - Question 8 of 100
8. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Historical place – Well-known for
(1) Burzahom – Rock-cut shrines
(2) Chandraketugarh – Terracotta art
(3) Ganeshwar – Copper artefacts
Which of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectPair 1 is incorrectly matched. as Burzahom site (Jammu and Kashmir) is a Neolithic site. Rock cut shrines were not found in Neolithic period.
Pair 2 is correctly matched Chandraketugah is a site in West Bengal near Kolkata. According to historians, the place dates back to the 3rd century, which is preMauryan era. The place has always generate curiosity among the archaeologists and various excavations have taken place here and a number of terracotta artworks has been unearthed.
Pair 3 is correctly matched. Ganeshwar is a famous site in Khetri belt in Rajasthan. Ganeshwar complex sites have yielded more than 5000 copper objects, with some typical Harappan types like thin blades, arrow-heads etc.UnattemptedPair 1 is incorrectly matched. as Burzahom site (Jammu and Kashmir) is a Neolithic site. Rock cut shrines were not found in Neolithic period.
Pair 2 is correctly matched Chandraketugah is a site in West Bengal near Kolkata. According to historians, the place dates back to the 3rd century, which is preMauryan era. The place has always generate curiosity among the archaeologists and various excavations have taken place here and a number of terracotta artworks has been unearthed.
Pair 3 is correctly matched. Ganeshwar is a famous site in Khetri belt in Rajasthan. Ganeshwar complex sites have yielded more than 5000 copper objects, with some typical Harappan types like thin blades, arrow-heads etc. - Question 9 of 100
9. Question
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
(A) Ajanta
(B) Badami
(C) Bagh
(D) Ellora
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectSome important paintings at Ajanta are:
Scenes from the Jataka stories of the life of the Gautama Buddha, the Buddha’s former lives as a bodhisattva, etc.
Paintings of various Bodhisattvas in tribhanga pose in Cave 1:
Vajrapani (protector and guide, a symbol of Buddha’s power),
Manjusri (manifestation of Buddha’s wisdom) and
• Padmapani (Avalokitesvara) (symbol of Buddha’s compassion).
The Dying Princess in Cave number 16.UnattemptedSome important paintings at Ajanta are:
Scenes from the Jataka stories of the life of the Gautama Buddha, the Buddha’s former lives as a bodhisattva, etc.
Paintings of various Bodhisattvas in tribhanga pose in Cave 1:
Vajrapani (protector and guide, a symbol of Buddha’s power),
Manjusri (manifestation of Buddha’s wisdom) and
• Padmapani (Avalokitesvara) (symbol of Buddha’s compassion).
The Dying Princess in Cave number 16. - Question 10 of 100
10. Question
Which of the following rulers had poet Harisena, in his court?
(A) Chandragupta I
(B) Samudragupta
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Ashoka
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectHarisena was the court poet of Samudragupta, a famous ruler of the Gupta dynasty.
Court poets under Gupta and Mauryan empire:
Kalidasa
He was a Classical Sanskrit writer, extensively considered as the greatest poet and dramatist of Gupta Period.
The six major works of Kalidasa are
Abhijnanashakuntala
Vikramorvashi
Malavikagnimitra
The epic poems
Raghuvamsha
Kumarasambhava
Meghaduta
Vishakhadatta
The famous plays of Vishakhadatta are Mudrarakṣhasa.
Mudrarakshasha means “Ring of the Demon” and it recites the ascent of Chandragupta Maurya to throne.
Shudraka
He is a king as well as poet.
The famous three Sanskrit plays contributed by him areMrichchhakatika (The Little Clay Cart).
Vinavasavadatta
A bhana (short one-act monologue)
PadmaprabhritakaHarisena
Harisena was a panegyrist, Sanskrit poet, and government minister.
He wrote poems praising the bravery of Samudra Gupta, which is engraved on Allahabad pillar.
Bhasa
He wrote 13 plays which echo the lifestyle of the Gupta Era along with its prevalent beliefs and culture.UnattemptedHarisena was the court poet of Samudragupta, a famous ruler of the Gupta dynasty.
Court poets under Gupta and Mauryan empire:
Kalidasa
He was a Classical Sanskrit writer, extensively considered as the greatest poet and dramatist of Gupta Period.
The six major works of Kalidasa are
Abhijnanashakuntala
Vikramorvashi
Malavikagnimitra
The epic poems
Raghuvamsha
Kumarasambhava
Meghaduta
Vishakhadatta
The famous plays of Vishakhadatta are Mudrarakṣhasa.
Mudrarakshasha means “Ring of the Demon” and it recites the ascent of Chandragupta Maurya to throne.
Shudraka
He is a king as well as poet.
The famous three Sanskrit plays contributed by him areMrichchhakatika (The Little Clay Cart).
Vinavasavadatta
A bhana (short one-act monologue)
PadmaprabhritakaHarisena
Harisena was a panegyrist, Sanskrit poet, and government minister.
He wrote poems praising the bravery of Samudra Gupta, which is engraved on Allahabad pillar.
Bhasa
He wrote 13 plays which echo the lifestyle of the Gupta Era along with its prevalent beliefs and culture. - Question 11 of 100
11. Question
Consider the following pair/s :
CITY – RIVERS
(1) Mohenjodaro – Ravi
(2) Ropar – Sutlaj
(3) Lothal – Bhogava
(4) Dholavira. – Luni
Which of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectPair 1 is not correct : Moenjodaro, group of mounds and ruins on the right bank of the Indus River, northern Sindh province, southern Pakistan.
Pair 2 is correct : Ropar, also spelled Rupar, also called Rupnagar, town, eastern Punjab state, northwestern India. The town lies on the Sutlej River near the head of the great Sirhind Canal, about 20 miles (32 km) northwest of Chandigarh.
Pair 3 is correct : The archaeological remains of the Harappan port-town of Lothal is located along the Bhogava river, a tributary of Sabarmati, in the Gulf of Khambat.
Pair 4 is correct : Dholavira is an archaeological site at Khadirbet in Bhachau Taluka of Kutch District, in the state of Gujarat in western India. It is situated at the bank of river Luni.UnattemptedPair 1 is not correct : Moenjodaro, group of mounds and ruins on the right bank of the Indus River, northern Sindh province, southern Pakistan.
Pair 2 is correct : Ropar, also spelled Rupar, also called Rupnagar, town, eastern Punjab state, northwestern India. The town lies on the Sutlej River near the head of the great Sirhind Canal, about 20 miles (32 km) northwest of Chandigarh.
Pair 3 is correct : The archaeological remains of the Harappan port-town of Lothal is located along the Bhogava river, a tributary of Sabarmati, in the Gulf of Khambat.
Pair 4 is correct : Dholavira is an archaeological site at Khadirbet in Bhachau Taluka of Kutch District, in the state of Gujarat in western India. It is situated at the bank of river Luni. - Question 12 of 100
12. Question
The inscription on the Ashokan pillar at Allahabad provide information about which of the following rulers?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Chandragupta I
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Samudragupta
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWe know about Samudragupta from a long inscription, actually a poem in Sanskrit, composed by his court poet, Harisena nearly 1700 years ago. This was inscribed on the Ashokan pillar at Allahabad.
This inscription is of a special kind known as a prashasti, a Sanskrit word, meaning ‘in praise of’.UnattemptedWe know about Samudragupta from a long inscription, actually a poem in Sanskrit, composed by his court poet, Harisena nearly 1700 years ago. This was inscribed on the Ashokan pillar at Allahabad.
This inscription is of a special kind known as a prashasti, a Sanskrit word, meaning ‘in praise of’. - Question 13 of 100
13. Question
Blood consists of a fluid medium called plasma in which the cells are suspended. Plasma transports which of the following?
(1) Food
(2) Nitrogenous wastes
(3) Oxygen
Choose :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBlood consists of a fluid medium called plasma in which the cells are suspended. Plasma transports food, carbon dioxide and nitrogenous wastes in dissolved form. Oxygen is carried by the red blood corpuscles. Many other substances like salts, are also transported by the blood.
UnattemptedBlood consists of a fluid medium called plasma in which the cells are suspended. Plasma transports food, carbon dioxide and nitrogenous wastes in dissolved form. Oxygen is carried by the red blood corpuscles. Many other substances like salts, are also transported by the blood.
- Question 14 of 100
14. Question
Which of the following statement related to myopia is not correct?
(A) A person with myopia has the far point nearer than infinity.
(B) The image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina.
(C) This defect may arise due to contraction of the eyeball.
(D) This defect may arise due to excessive curvature of the eye lens.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectMyopia is also known as nearsightedness. A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly. A person with this defect has the far point nearer than infinity. Such a person may see clearly up to a distance of a few metres. In a myopic eye, the image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina and not at the retina itself. This defect may arise due to (i) excessive curvature of the eye lens, or (ii) elongation of the eyeball. This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power.
UnattemptedMyopia is also known as nearsightedness. A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly. A person with this defect has the far point nearer than infinity. Such a person may see clearly up to a distance of a few metres. In a myopic eye, the image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina and not at the retina itself. This defect may arise due to (i) excessive curvature of the eye lens, or (ii) elongation of the eyeball. This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power.
- Question 15 of 100
15. Question
Who among the following is known as Shakas conqueror?
(A) Sri Gupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Ashoka
(D) Kumaragupta
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectChandragupta II led an expedition to western India, where he overcame Rudra Singh III, the last ruler of Shakas, and came to be known as Shakas conqueror.
About Shaka rulers:-
The beginning of the Saka Era can be related to the ascent of the king Chashtana.
Scythians (referred to as Sakas in Indian sources) were a group of Iranian nomadic pastoral tribes.
In the second century BC, central Asian nomadic tribes and tribes from the Chinese region invaded the region of present-day Kazakhstan whose inhabitants were Scythians.
This promoted the Scythians to move towards Bactria and Parthia. After defeating the Parthian king, they moved towards India. Scythians who migrated to India are known as Indo-Scythians.
The Sakas had an Indian kingdom larger than the Indo-Greeks.UnattemptedChandragupta II led an expedition to western India, where he overcame Rudra Singh III, the last ruler of Shakas, and came to be known as Shakas conqueror.
About Shaka rulers:-
The beginning of the Saka Era can be related to the ascent of the king Chashtana.
Scythians (referred to as Sakas in Indian sources) were a group of Iranian nomadic pastoral tribes.
In the second century BC, central Asian nomadic tribes and tribes from the Chinese region invaded the region of present-day Kazakhstan whose inhabitants were Scythians.
This promoted the Scythians to move towards Bactria and Parthia. After defeating the Parthian king, they moved towards India. Scythians who migrated to India are known as Indo-Scythians.
The Sakas had an Indian kingdom larger than the Indo-Greeks. - Question 16 of 100
16. Question
Consider the following about the office of Chief Secretary (CS) in the State Government :
(1) It is not mentioned in the Constitution.
(2) The CS acts as the secretary to the State cabinet.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAbout Chief Secy:
Administrative head of state admin In India.
In many ways counterpart of Cabinet Secy.
Chief Coordinator of State secretariat and other administrative departments
Attends cabinet meetings
Role in policy formulation both formal and informal substantial + supervisory role
Head of Civil Services in the state and Cabinet Secretariat
Status equal to that of Secretary to the GoI
Different from Principal Secy to the CM (he may also attend cabinet meetings)
Functions
Not mentioned in the Constitution, but in Rules of Business of State govt.
Some functions customs and convention
Alter-ego of the CM
Secy. to the cabinet
Head of Cabinet Secretariart
Role in Policy formulation – ensuring implementation of decisions (supervisory role – whereas Cabinet Secy only coordination)
Matters affecting centre-state and inter-state relations (like water disputes); zonal councils (secy.)
All important decisions regarding adoption of new schemes
Head of a few administrative depts. also like DoPT, Planning dept. (traditionally put under him – also 1st ARC) (cabinet secy only head of cabinet secretariat)
Responsible for personnel matters of state cadre officers of the IAS, and any other services if given +Admin. Reforms
Consulted by CM in appointing members of SPSCs, Lokayuktas in some states.UnattemptedAbout Chief Secy:
Administrative head of state admin In India.
In many ways counterpart of Cabinet Secy.
Chief Coordinator of State secretariat and other administrative departments
Attends cabinet meetings
Role in policy formulation both formal and informal substantial + supervisory role
Head of Civil Services in the state and Cabinet Secretariat
Status equal to that of Secretary to the GoI
Different from Principal Secy to the CM (he may also attend cabinet meetings)
Functions
Not mentioned in the Constitution, but in Rules of Business of State govt.
Some functions customs and convention
Alter-ego of the CM
Secy. to the cabinet
Head of Cabinet Secretariart
Role in Policy formulation – ensuring implementation of decisions (supervisory role – whereas Cabinet Secy only coordination)
Matters affecting centre-state and inter-state relations (like water disputes); zonal councils (secy.)
All important decisions regarding adoption of new schemes
Head of a few administrative depts. also like DoPT, Planning dept. (traditionally put under him – also 1st ARC) (cabinet secy only head of cabinet secretariat)
Responsible for personnel matters of state cadre officers of the IAS, and any other services if given +Admin. Reforms
Consulted by CM in appointing members of SPSCs, Lokayuktas in some states. - Question 17 of 100
17. Question
The transfer of Judges from one High Court to another is done by:
(A) Chief Justice of India only
(B) Governor after consulting Chief Justice of India.
(C) Chief Justice of India after consulting concerned Chief Justice of High Court.
(D) President after consulting Chief Justice of India
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe President can transfer a Judge from one High Court to another after consulting Chief Justice of India) On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by the Parliament.
UnattemptedThe President can transfer a Judge from one High Court to another after consulting Chief Justice of India) On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by the Parliament.
- Question 18 of 100
18. Question
The term ‘demographic gap’ signifies the difference in which of the following?
(A) Between the birth and the death rate
(B) Child / woman ratio
(C) Age
(D) Sex ratio
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe term ‘demographic gap’ signifies the difference between the birth and the death rate.
UnattemptedThe term ‘demographic gap’ signifies the difference between the birth and the death rate.
- Question 19 of 100
19. Question
Arrange the following Portuguese voyagers according to their India expedition chronologically
(1) Pedro Alvarez Cabral
(2) Vasco Da Gama
(3) Francisco De Almeida
(4) Nino Da Cunha
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 3, 2, 4, 1
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectChronological order- Vasco Da Gama (1498), Pedro Alvarez Cabral (1500), Francisco De Almeida (1505), Nino Da Cunha (1529)
UnattemptedChronological order- Vasco Da Gama (1498), Pedro Alvarez Cabral (1500), Francisco De Almeida (1505), Nino Da Cunha (1529)
- Question 20 of 100
20. Question
What is the name of the outermost range of the Himalayas?
(A) Shivaliks
(B) Himadri
(C) Sahyadri
(D) Himachal
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectShivalik Hills also known as Outer Himalayas are located in between the Great Plains and Lesser Himalayas. Shivalik Hills extends to westnorthwestward for more than 1,600 km from the Teesta River in Sikkim state, northeastern India, through Nepal, across northwestern India, and into northern Pakistan. The width of the Shivalik Hills varies from 10 to 50 km and their average elevation is 1,500 to 2,000 m.
UnattemptedShivalik Hills also known as Outer Himalayas are located in between the Great Plains and Lesser Himalayas. Shivalik Hills extends to westnorthwestward for more than 1,600 km from the Teesta River in Sikkim state, northeastern India, through Nepal, across northwestern India, and into northern Pakistan. The width of the Shivalik Hills varies from 10 to 50 km and their average elevation is 1,500 to 2,000 m.
- Question 21 of 100
21. Question
Which of the following statements about the executive is/are correct?
(1) There is less of separation of powers in the presidential system ofgovernment compared to the parliamentary system.
(2) There is always the danger of personality cult in presidential executive.
(3) The parliamentary form of government is more democratic, because the executive is accountable to the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectStatements 2 and 3 are correct as presidential executive puts much emphasis on the president as the chief executive and as source of all executive power. He is also not responsible to the legislature.
Statement 1 is incorrect as the separation of powers in the presidential system is more strict compared to the parliamentary system. The members of executive are not the members of the legislature whereas in the parliamentary system, they overlap. The members of council of ministers are selected from the members of legislature.UnattemptedStatements 2 and 3 are correct as presidential executive puts much emphasis on the president as the chief executive and as source of all executive power. He is also not responsible to the legislature.
Statement 1 is incorrect as the separation of powers in the presidential system is more strict compared to the parliamentary system. The members of executive are not the members of the legislature whereas in the parliamentary system, they overlap. The members of council of ministers are selected from the members of legislature. - Question 22 of 100
22. Question
Which of the following was unknown to Indus Valley Civilisation?
(A) Bronze
(B) Barley
(C) Iron
(D) Cotton
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Neolithic period is followed by Chalcolithic (copper-stone) period when copper and bronze came to be used. The new technology of smelting metal ore and crafting metal artifacts is an important development in human civilization. Generally, Chalcolithic cultures had grown in river valleys. Most importantly, the Harappan culture is considered as a part of Chalcolithic culture.
There was a great progress in all spheres of economic activity such as agriculture, industry and crafts and trade. Wheat and barley were the main crops grown besides sesame, mustard and cotton. Surplus grain is stored in granaries. Animals like sheep, goats and buffalo were domesticated.
Bronze and copper vessels are the outstanding examples of the Harappan metal craft. Gold and silver ornaments are found in many places.But iron was not known to them.
In forein trade main exports were several agricultural products such as wheat, barely, peas, oil seeds and a variety of finished products including cotton goods, pottery, beads, terracotta figures and ivory products.
Known: Cotton, Barley, Wheat, Ragi, Peas, Rice etc.
Metalas known: Gold ,silver, lead ,bronze ,copper ,steatite etc.Unknown: sugar cane, Maize, Iron, Horse.UnattemptedThe Neolithic period is followed by Chalcolithic (copper-stone) period when copper and bronze came to be used. The new technology of smelting metal ore and crafting metal artifacts is an important development in human civilization. Generally, Chalcolithic cultures had grown in river valleys. Most importantly, the Harappan culture is considered as a part of Chalcolithic culture.
There was a great progress in all spheres of economic activity such as agriculture, industry and crafts and trade. Wheat and barley were the main crops grown besides sesame, mustard and cotton. Surplus grain is stored in granaries. Animals like sheep, goats and buffalo were domesticated.
Bronze and copper vessels are the outstanding examples of the Harappan metal craft. Gold and silver ornaments are found in many places.But iron was not known to them.
In forein trade main exports were several agricultural products such as wheat, barely, peas, oil seeds and a variety of finished products including cotton goods, pottery, beads, terracotta figures and ivory products.
Known: Cotton, Barley, Wheat, Ragi, Peas, Rice etc.
Metalas known: Gold ,silver, lead ,bronze ,copper ,steatite etc.Unknown: sugar cane, Maize, Iron, Horse. - Question 23 of 100
23. Question
Which of the following is/are used in making bread and beer?
(1) Yeast
(2) Lichen
(3) Saccharomyces
Choose :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectA fungus called yeast is used to make bread and beer. Antibiotics are made from a fungus called Penicillium.
Beer and bread are the products which require the process of alcohol fermentation carried out by yeasts. The commonly used yeast for this process is Saccharomyces.UnattemptedA fungus called yeast is used to make bread and beer. Antibiotics are made from a fungus called Penicillium.
Beer and bread are the products which require the process of alcohol fermentation carried out by yeasts. The commonly used yeast for this process is Saccharomyces. - Question 24 of 100
24. Question
Sugar , Amino Acids, & Nucleotides are constituents of respectively ___________ ?
(A) Polysaccharides, Proteins. Nucleic Acids,
(B) Proteins, Carbohydrates , Fats
(C) Nucleic Acids. Proteins, Polysaccharides
(D) Polysaccharides, Nucleic Acids. Proteins
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectSugar, Amino Acids, & Nucleotides are constituents of respectively Polysaccharides, Proteins and Nucleic Acids. Nucleotides are organic molecules which are the building blocks of nucleic acids.
UnattemptedSugar, Amino Acids, & Nucleotides are constituents of respectively Polysaccharides, Proteins and Nucleic Acids. Nucleotides are organic molecules which are the building blocks of nucleic acids.
- Question 25 of 100
25. Question
Which of the following rulers was Banabhatta the court poet of ?
(A) Kumaragupta
(B) Skandagupta
(C) Vishnugupta
(D) Harshavardhana
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectHarshavardhana, who ruled nearly 1400 years ago, was one such ruler. His court poet, Banabhatta, wrote his biography, the Harshacharita, in Sanskrit. This gives us the genealogy of Harsha, and ends with him becoming king.
Facts about Harshavardhana:
Harshavardhana was born in 590 AD to King Prabhakaravardhana of Sthaneshvara (Thanesar, Haryana).
He belonged to the Pushyabhuti also called the Vardhana dynasty.
He was a Hindu who later embraced Mahayana Buddhism.
He was married to Durgavati.
He had a daughter and two sons. His daughter married a king of Vallabhi whereas his sons were killed by his own minister.
King Harshavardhana deeds were praised by Chinese Buddhist traveller Xuanzang in his writings.UnattemptedHarshavardhana, who ruled nearly 1400 years ago, was one such ruler. His court poet, Banabhatta, wrote his biography, the Harshacharita, in Sanskrit. This gives us the genealogy of Harsha, and ends with him becoming king.
Facts about Harshavardhana:
Harshavardhana was born in 590 AD to King Prabhakaravardhana of Sthaneshvara (Thanesar, Haryana).
He belonged to the Pushyabhuti also called the Vardhana dynasty.
He was a Hindu who later embraced Mahayana Buddhism.
He was married to Durgavati.
He had a daughter and two sons. His daughter married a king of Vallabhi whereas his sons were killed by his own minister.
King Harshavardhana deeds were praised by Chinese Buddhist traveller Xuanzang in his writings. - Question 26 of 100
26. Question
Which of the following statements about Curative petition is/are correct?
(1) It can be filed in Supreme Court only.
(2) It must be accompanied by certification from Chief Justice of India before filing in court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectA curative petition may be filed after a review plea (under article 137 of the Indian constitution) against the final conviction is dismissed) It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice, and to prevent abuse of process. A curative petition is usually decided by judges in chamber, unless a specific request for an open-court hearing is allowed) Every curative petition is decided on the basis of principles laid down by the Supreme Court in Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs Ashok Hurra & another, 2002. It can only be filed in Supreme Court. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The court ruled that a curative petition can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order. It will also be admitted where a judge failed to disclose facts that raise the apprehension of bias. The Supreme Court (SC) has held that curative petitions must be rare rather than regular, and be entertained with circumspection. A curative petition must be accompanied by certification by a senior advocate, pointing out substantial grounds for entertaining it. It must be first circulated to a bench of the three senior most judges, and the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available. Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed — as far as possible, before the same Bench. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.UnattemptedA curative petition may be filed after a review plea (under article 137 of the Indian constitution) against the final conviction is dismissed) It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice, and to prevent abuse of process. A curative petition is usually decided by judges in chamber, unless a specific request for an open-court hearing is allowed) Every curative petition is decided on the basis of principles laid down by the Supreme Court in Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs Ashok Hurra & another, 2002. It can only be filed in Supreme Court. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The court ruled that a curative petition can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order. It will also be admitted where a judge failed to disclose facts that raise the apprehension of bias. The Supreme Court (SC) has held that curative petitions must be rare rather than regular, and be entertained with circumspection. A curative petition must be accompanied by certification by a senior advocate, pointing out substantial grounds for entertaining it. It must be first circulated to a bench of the three senior most judges, and the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available. Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed — as far as possible, before the same Bench. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. - Question 27 of 100
27. Question
With respect to the executive relations between the Centre and States, consider the following statements:
(1) In respect of matters enumerated in Concurrent List, the executive power rests with the States.
(2) Failure to comply with executive directions given by Centre to a State is a ground for imposition of emergency in a state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBoth the statements are correct.
The executive power has been divided between the Centre and the states on the lines of the distribution of legislative powers, except in few cases. In respect of matters on which both the Parliament and the state legislatures have power of legislation (i.e., the subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List), the executive power rests with the states except when a Constitutional provision or a parliamentary law specifically confers it on the Centre. Therefore, a law on a concurrent subject, though enacted by the Parliament, is to be executed by the states except when the Constitution or the Parliament has directed otherwise.
The Constitution has placed two restrictions on the executive power of the states in order to give ample scope to the Centre for exercising its executive power in an unrestricted manner. Thus, the executive power of every state is to be exercised in such a way a) as to ensure compliance with the laws made by the Parliament and any existing law which apply in the state; and b) as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of executive power of the Centre in the state. In both the cases, the executive power of the Centre extends to giving of such directions to the state as are necessary for the purpose. The sanction behind these directions of the Centre is coercive in nature. Thus, Article 365 says that where any state has failed to comply with (or to give effect to) any directions given by the Centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It means that, in such a situation, the President’s rule can be imposed in the state under Article 356.UnattemptedBoth the statements are correct.
The executive power has been divided between the Centre and the states on the lines of the distribution of legislative powers, except in few cases. In respect of matters on which both the Parliament and the state legislatures have power of legislation (i.e., the subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List), the executive power rests with the states except when a Constitutional provision or a parliamentary law specifically confers it on the Centre. Therefore, a law on a concurrent subject, though enacted by the Parliament, is to be executed by the states except when the Constitution or the Parliament has directed otherwise.
The Constitution has placed two restrictions on the executive power of the states in order to give ample scope to the Centre for exercising its executive power in an unrestricted manner. Thus, the executive power of every state is to be exercised in such a way a) as to ensure compliance with the laws made by the Parliament and any existing law which apply in the state; and b) as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of executive power of the Centre in the state. In both the cases, the executive power of the Centre extends to giving of such directions to the state as are necessary for the purpose. The sanction behind these directions of the Centre is coercive in nature. Thus, Article 365 says that where any state has failed to comply with (or to give effect to) any directions given by the Centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It means that, in such a situation, the President’s rule can be imposed in the state under Article 356. - Question 28 of 100
28. Question
Consider the following assertion with the given reason with reference to history of ancient India :
Assertion: Some kings tried to control large portions of the route.
Reason: The traders travelling along the silk route brought taxes, tributes and gifts for the kings of that area.
Use the code given below to select the correct answer—
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct but the reason is not correct.
(D) Assertion is not correct but the reason is correct.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectBoth assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Some kings tried to control large portions of the route. This was because they could benefit from taxes, tributes and gifts that were brought by traders travelling along the route.
In return, they often protected the traders who passed through their kingdoms from attacks by robbers.UnattemptedBoth assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Some kings tried to control large portions of the route. This was because they could benefit from taxes, tributes and gifts that were brought by traders travelling along the route.
In return, they often protected the traders who passed through their kingdoms from attacks by robbers. - Question 29 of 100
29. Question
Consider the following statement about Indus Valley Civilization:
1) Stone buildings were most popular form of construction.
2) Ancient text refered Indus region as mehula.
3) Most seals have inscriptions in a pictographic scipt that is yet to be deciphered.
4) Faience were an artificially produced material and were used to make beads, bangles, earrings, and tiny vessels.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 3 and 4 Only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is not correct : Stone buildings were not the most popular form of construction. In 1931, Sir John Marshall estimated the duration of the occupation of Mohenjodaro between 3250 and 2750 B.C. The Harappan culture was distinguished by its system of town planning on the lines of the grid system – that is streets and lanes cutting across one another almost at right angles thus dividing the city into several rectangular blocks. The large-scale use of burnt bricks in almost all kinds of constructions and the absence of stone buildings are the important characteristics of the Harappan culture.
Statement 2 is correct : Meluha is the Sumerian name which has been found in the Mesopotamia Records from 2350 BC onwards. Many scholars associate the name with Indus Valley Civilization. It is believed that people from the Indus Valley Civilization exported sesame oil to the Mesopotamia Civilization.
Statement 4 is correct : Much evidence is available to understand the social life of the Harappans. The dress of both men and women consisted of two pieces of cloth, one upper garment and the other lower garment. Beads were worn by men and women. Jewelleries such as bangles, bracelets, fillets, girdles, anklets, ear-rings and finger rings were worn by women. These ornaments were made of gold, silver, copper, bronze and semi precious stones. Faience were artificially produced material made by melting quartz rock and then regrinding the glassy frit to make a paste that is then fired once again. These were used in making beads, bangles, earrings, and tiny vessels. Use of faience was also common in Egyption civilization.
The Harappan script has still to be fully deciphered. The number of signs is between 400 and 600 of which 40 or 60 are basic and the rest are their variants. The script was mostly written from right to left. The mystery of the Harappan script still exists and there is no doubt that the decipherment of Harappan script will throw much light on this culture.
Most seals have inscriptions in a pictographic script that is yet to be deciphered. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedStatement 1 is not correct : Stone buildings were not the most popular form of construction. In 1931, Sir John Marshall estimated the duration of the occupation of Mohenjodaro between 3250 and 2750 B.C. The Harappan culture was distinguished by its system of town planning on the lines of the grid system – that is streets and lanes cutting across one another almost at right angles thus dividing the city into several rectangular blocks. The large-scale use of burnt bricks in almost all kinds of constructions and the absence of stone buildings are the important characteristics of the Harappan culture.
Statement 2 is correct : Meluha is the Sumerian name which has been found in the Mesopotamia Records from 2350 BC onwards. Many scholars associate the name with Indus Valley Civilization. It is believed that people from the Indus Valley Civilization exported sesame oil to the Mesopotamia Civilization.
Statement 4 is correct : Much evidence is available to understand the social life of the Harappans. The dress of both men and women consisted of two pieces of cloth, one upper garment and the other lower garment. Beads were worn by men and women. Jewelleries such as bangles, bracelets, fillets, girdles, anklets, ear-rings and finger rings were worn by women. These ornaments were made of gold, silver, copper, bronze and semi precious stones. Faience were artificially produced material made by melting quartz rock and then regrinding the glassy frit to make a paste that is then fired once again. These were used in making beads, bangles, earrings, and tiny vessels. Use of faience was also common in Egyption civilization.
The Harappan script has still to be fully deciphered. The number of signs is between 400 and 600 of which 40 or 60 are basic and the rest are their variants. The script was mostly written from right to left. The mystery of the Harappan script still exists and there is no doubt that the decipherment of Harappan script will throw much light on this culture.
Most seals have inscriptions in a pictographic script that is yet to be deciphered. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. - Question 30 of 100
30. Question
Which of the following in a Question hour can be followed by a supplementary question?
(1) Starred question
(2) Unstarred question
(3) Short Notice question
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectQuestions are of four types:
Starred, Unstarred, Short Notice Questions and Questions addressed to private Members:
A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon. Hence, option 1 is correct.
An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked) To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally and followed by supplementary questions. Hence, option 3 is correct.UnattemptedQuestions are of four types:
Starred, Unstarred, Short Notice Questions and Questions addressed to private Members:
A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon. Hence, option 1 is correct.
An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked) To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally and followed by supplementary questions. Hence, option 3 is correct. - Question 31 of 100
31. Question
With reference to the Preamble, consider the following statements:
(1) The Preamble is an integral part of the constitution.
(2) The provisions of the Preamble can be enforced by the law.
(3) It can work as source of power to the legislature.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: In the Kesavananda Bharti case (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The provisions of the Preamble are not justiciable in nature.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: In the Kesavananda Bharti case (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The provisions of the Preamble are not justiciable in nature.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature. - Question 32 of 100
32. Question
Which of the following Indian state share boundary with Myanmar?
(1) Assam
(2) Manipur
(3) Nagaland
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
Choose :
(A) 1, 3 and 4 Only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIndia shares a 1,643-km-long border with Myanmar which touches Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram. India shares a 4,096- km-long border with Bangladesh which touches Assam, Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya and West Bengal.
UnattemptedIndia shares a 1,643-km-long border with Myanmar which touches Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram. India shares a 4,096- km-long border with Bangladesh which touches Assam, Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya and West Bengal.
- Question 33 of 100
33. Question
Which of the following is the meaning of the term “Khadar”?
(A) Old alluvial soils
(B) New alluvial soils
(C) Dry sandy soils
(D) Semi black soils
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectKhadar is the type of soil that consists of new alluvial deposits. It is very fertile in nature.
UnattemptedKhadar is the type of soil that consists of new alluvial deposits. It is very fertile in nature.
- Question 34 of 100
34. Question
Which of the following pairs is/are correct?
(1) The Indian Councils Act, 1909 — Provincial Autonomy
(2) The Government of Act, 1919 — Introduction of India Dyarchy
(3) The Government Act, 1935 — Proposal for a of India Federation of India
(4) The Indian Act, 1947 — Provincial Independence Legislature
(A) Only (1) and (4)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2) and (4)
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWith regard to the provinces, the act of 1935 was an improvement on the existing position. It introduced what is known as provincial autonomy.
On August 1935, the Government of India passed longest act i.e. Government of India Act 1935 under the British Act of Parliament. This act also included the Government of Burma Act 1935. According to this act, India would become a federation if 50% of Indian states decided to join it.UnattemptedWith regard to the provinces, the act of 1935 was an improvement on the existing position. It introduced what is known as provincial autonomy.
On August 1935, the Government of India passed longest act i.e. Government of India Act 1935 under the British Act of Parliament. This act also included the Government of Burma Act 1935. According to this act, India would become a federation if 50% of Indian states decided to join it. - Question 35 of 100
35. Question
Who helped the English to capture Ormuz by defeating Portuguese?
(A) Jahangir
(B) King of Iran
(C) King of France
(D) Samuthiri
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectKing of Iran Shah Abbas helped the English to capture Ormuz by defeating Portuguese in 1622.
UnattemptedKing of Iran Shah Abbas helped the English to capture Ormuz by defeating Portuguese in 1622.
- Question 36 of 100
36. Question
In which village of Haryana has the ‘Atom on Wheels campaign’ been started?
(A) Siwani
(B) Gorakhpur
(C) Ramayan
(D) None of these
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe ‘Atom on Wheels campaign’ was launched by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India under the Rural Integration Program. The campaign aims to remove misconceptions about nuclear energy among the general public. The campaign will run for four months in each state, covering 60 to 70 villages every month. The exhibition bus will go from village to village, and there will be a three to four member team in the bus, which will also answer the questions of the villagers. The campaign will be run in Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh. The campaign was launched from the Gorakhpur Haryana Atomic Project Plant located at village Gorakhpur in Fatehabad district of Haryana. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
UnattemptedThe ‘Atom on Wheels campaign’ was launched by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India under the Rural Integration Program. The campaign aims to remove misconceptions about nuclear energy among the general public. The campaign will run for four months in each state, covering 60 to 70 villages every month. The exhibition bus will go from village to village, and there will be a three to four member team in the bus, which will also answer the questions of the villagers. The campaign will be run in Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh. The campaign was launched from the Gorakhpur Haryana Atomic Project Plant located at village Gorakhpur in Fatehabad district of Haryana. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
- Question 37 of 100
37. Question
Which of the following are chemical changes?
(1) Cooking of Food
(2) Digestion of Food
(3) Freezing of water
(4) Water is heated up
Choose :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 4 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrect(1) Cooking of Food —— Chemical Change
(2) Digestion of Food —– Chemical Change
(3) Freezing of water —– Physical Change
(4) Water is heated up —- Physical Change
because here the chemical composition of the substance changes in 1 & 2 only.
Since we know that, If the chemical composition is changing then it is a chemical change and if the chemical composition is remaining the same, then it is a physical change.Unattempted(1) Cooking of Food —— Chemical Change
(2) Digestion of Food —– Chemical Change
(3) Freezing of water —– Physical Change
(4) Water is heated up —- Physical Change
because here the chemical composition of the substance changes in 1 & 2 only.
Since we know that, If the chemical composition is changing then it is a chemical change and if the chemical composition is remaining the same, then it is a physical change. - Question 38 of 100
38. Question
Which medal has Haryana's Ekta Bhayan recently won in shot put throw in the Asian Para Games?
(A) Gold Medal
(B) Silver Medal
(C) Bronze Medal
(D) None of these
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectEkta Bhyan, an Indian para-athlete, won a bronze medal in the Club Throw event at the 2023 Asian Para Games held in Hangzhou, China.
UnattemptedEkta Bhyan, an Indian para-athlete, won a bronze medal in the Club Throw event at the 2023 Asian Para Games held in Hangzhou, China.
- Question 39 of 100
39. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Constituent assembly which formulated the constitution of independent India?
(1) It was directly elected body by provincial legislative assemblies.
(2) Its composition was as per the scheme recommended by Mountbatten plan.
(3) Method of proportionate representation was followed to elect its members.
Select the correct option :
(A) 1 Only
(B) 2 Only
(C) 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Constituent Assembly of India was established to frame the Constitution of India and consisted of indirectly elected representatives. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It was formed in 1946 on the basis of the Cabinet Mission Plan. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The members of this assembly were elected indirectly, i.e., by the members of the provincial assemblies by the method of a single transferable vote of proportional representation. The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was 389 of which 292 were representatives of the provinces, 93 represented the princely states and four were from the chief commissioner provinces of Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British Baluchistan. Hence, statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedThe Constituent Assembly of India was established to frame the Constitution of India and consisted of indirectly elected representatives. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It was formed in 1946 on the basis of the Cabinet Mission Plan. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The members of this assembly were elected indirectly, i.e., by the members of the provincial assemblies by the method of a single transferable vote of proportional representation. The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was 389 of which 292 were representatives of the provinces, 93 represented the princely states and four were from the chief commissioner provinces of Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British Baluchistan. Hence, statement 3 is correct. - Question 40 of 100
40. Question
Which of the following is/are not mentioned in the Constitution of India?
(1) Office of whip
(2) Leader of the House
(3) Leader of the Opposition
Choose :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe offices of the leader of the House and the leader of the Opposition are not mentioned in the Constitution of India, they are mentioned in the Rules of the House and Parliamentary Statute respectively. The office of ‘whip’, on the other hand, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the system of parliamentary government.
UnattemptedThe offices of the leader of the House and the leader of the Opposition are not mentioned in the Constitution of India, they are mentioned in the Rules of the House and Parliamentary Statute respectively. The office of ‘whip’, on the other hand, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the system of parliamentary government.
- Question 41 of 100
41. Question
Consider the following statements and identify the false statement-
(A) Platelets present in the blood secrete a substance called thromboplastin
(B) Fibrinogen is present in plasma.
(C) Fibrinogen helps in clotting of blood.
(D) Plasma without fibrinogen is called thrombin.
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWhen the blood freezes, a yellowish liquid oozes out. It is called serum. Serum is actually plasma without fibrinogen.
Prothrombin present in the blood is converted into thrombin in the presence of thromboplastin and calcium.UnattemptedWhen the blood freezes, a yellowish liquid oozes out. It is called serum. Serum is actually plasma without fibrinogen.
Prothrombin present in the blood is converted into thrombin in the presence of thromboplastin and calcium. - Question 42 of 100
42. Question
With reference to RajyaSabha’s power over annual financial statement, consider the following statements:
(1) RajyaSabha does not have power to discuss the budget.
(2) RajyaSabha has no power of voting on the demands for grants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Finance Minister presents the General Budget with a speech known as the ‘budget speech’. At the end of the speech in the LokSabha, the budget is laid before the RajyaSabha, which can only discuss it and has no power to vote on the demands for grants. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the LokSabha, that is, the RajyaSabha has no power of voting the demands. Hence, statement 2 is correct.UnattemptedThe Finance Minister presents the General Budget with a speech known as the ‘budget speech’. At the end of the speech in the LokSabha, the budget is laid before the RajyaSabha, which can only discuss it and has no power to vote on the demands for grants. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the LokSabha, that is, the RajyaSabha has no power of voting the demands. Hence, statement 2 is correct. - Question 43 of 100
43. Question
Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union is discussed in the article
(A) 311
(B) 312
(C) 313
(D) 314
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectArticle-311- Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State.
(1) No person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.UnattemptedArticle-311- Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State.
(1) No person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed. - Question 44 of 100
44. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Lambani People:
(1) They speak Gor Boli which belongs to the Indo-Aryan Group of Languages.
(2) The Teej festival is celebrated by them during the month of August.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 Only
(B) 2 Only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectRecently, as part of the third G20 culture working group (CWG) meeting in Hampi, a Guinness world record was created for the ‘largest display of Lambani items.
About Lambani embroidery patches:
The Lambani embroidery is an intricate form of textile embellishment characterised by colourful threads, mirror-work and stitch patterns.
It is practised in several villages of Karnataka such as Sandur, Keri Tanda, Mariyammanahalli, Kadirampur etc.
The Lambani craft tradition involves stitching together small pieces of discarded fabric to create a beautiful fabric.
This embroidery had also found a place in the list of products with Geographic Indication (GI) tag in the country.
The Lambanis are also known as Banjaras and most of them are found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka states in South India.
This community settled across the country with different names, have permanently abandoned their nomadic lifestyle and settled in their settlements called Tandas.
They speak Gor Boli also called Lambadi which belongs to the Indo-Aryan Group of Languages. Lambadi has no script.
They celebrate the festival of Teej during Shravanam (in the month of august). In this festival young unmarried Banjara girls pray for a good groom.
Fire dance and Chari are the traditional dance forms of the banjara people.UnattemptedRecently, as part of the third G20 culture working group (CWG) meeting in Hampi, a Guinness world record was created for the ‘largest display of Lambani items.
About Lambani embroidery patches:
The Lambani embroidery is an intricate form of textile embellishment characterised by colourful threads, mirror-work and stitch patterns.
It is practised in several villages of Karnataka such as Sandur, Keri Tanda, Mariyammanahalli, Kadirampur etc.
The Lambani craft tradition involves stitching together small pieces of discarded fabric to create a beautiful fabric.
This embroidery had also found a place in the list of products with Geographic Indication (GI) tag in the country.
The Lambanis are also known as Banjaras and most of them are found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka states in South India.
This community settled across the country with different names, have permanently abandoned their nomadic lifestyle and settled in their settlements called Tandas.
They speak Gor Boli also called Lambadi which belongs to the Indo-Aryan Group of Languages. Lambadi has no script.
They celebrate the festival of Teej during Shravanam (in the month of august). In this festival young unmarried Banjara girls pray for a good groom.
Fire dance and Chari are the traditional dance forms of the banjara people. - Question 45 of 100
45. Question
Which of the following expenditures is/are charged from the consolidated fund of India?
(1) Expenditures related to President’s office
(2) Debt for which Government of India is liable
(3) Salary of judges of High Court
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectStatement 3 is incorrect: The salaries and other expenses of the judges and maintenance of the state high courts are charged from consolidated fund of the state. It is the pension of HC judge which is charged on consolidated fund of India.
Statement 1 and 2 are Correct: The list of the charged expenditure is –
• Emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office.
• Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court.
• Pensions of the judges of high courts.
• Salary, allowances and pension of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
• The debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
• Any sum required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal.UnattemptedStatement 3 is incorrect: The salaries and other expenses of the judges and maintenance of the state high courts are charged from consolidated fund of the state. It is the pension of HC judge which is charged on consolidated fund of India.
Statement 1 and 2 are Correct: The list of the charged expenditure is –
• Emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office.
• Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court.
• Pensions of the judges of high courts.
• Salary, allowances and pension of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
• The debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
• Any sum required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal. - Question 46 of 100
46. Question
The world’s oldest bronze sculpture, dancing girl is found in the city of:
(A) Kalibangan
(B) Mohenjodaro
(C) Harappa
(D) LothalCorrectIncorrectThis mesmerizing sculpture, famously known as ‘The Dancing Girl’ is one of the highest achievements of the artists of Mohenjodaro. The ‘Dancing Girl’ is a sculpture made of bronze. It belongs to the Indus Valley Civilization and dates back to circa 2500 BCE. It is 10.5 cm in height, 5 cm in width and 2.5 cm in depth.
Presently, it is on display in the Indus Valley Civilization gallery in the National Museum, New Delhi.UnattemptedThis mesmerizing sculpture, famously known as ‘The Dancing Girl’ is one of the highest achievements of the artists of Mohenjodaro. The ‘Dancing Girl’ is a sculpture made of bronze. It belongs to the Indus Valley Civilization and dates back to circa 2500 BCE. It is 10.5 cm in height, 5 cm in width and 2.5 cm in depth.
Presently, it is on display in the Indus Valley Civilization gallery in the National Museum, New Delhi. - Question 47 of 100
47. Question
Which of the following is not unicellular?
(A) Euglena
(B) Amoeba
(C) Paramecium
(D) Hydra
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectUnicellular organism is an organism which only has one cell while a multicellular organism is an organism that made up of more than one cell. Organisms such as amoeba, plasmodium, paramecium are unicellular organisms. Hydra (animal) and spirogyra (plant) are examples of multicellular organism.
UnattemptedUnicellular organism is an organism which only has one cell while a multicellular organism is an organism that made up of more than one cell. Organisms such as amoeba, plasmodium, paramecium are unicellular organisms. Hydra (animal) and spirogyra (plant) are examples of multicellular organism.
- Question 48 of 100
48. Question
Which of the following is used for wrapping of fractured bones?
(A) Zinc oxide
(B) Plaster of Paris
(C) White cement
(D) White lead
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectPlaster of Paris is a plaster made by calcining gypsum.
CaSO4•1/2H2?O.
It can be used to impregnate gauze bandages to make a sculpting material called modroc.
It is used to make classic plaster orthopedic casts to protect limbs with broken bones.UnattemptedPlaster of Paris is a plaster made by calcining gypsum.
CaSO4•1/2H2?O.
It can be used to impregnate gauze bandages to make a sculpting material called modroc.
It is used to make classic plaster orthopedic casts to protect limbs with broken bones. - Question 49 of 100
49. Question
Which one of the following set of phenomena would increase on raising the temperature?
(A) Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases
(B) Evaporation, expansion of gases, solubility
(C) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases
(D) More than one of the above
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectEvaporation increases with the increase in temperature as more molecules get kinetic energy to convert into vapour.
▪️ As we increase the temperature, the rate of diffusion becomes faster due to an increase in the kinetic energy of particles.
▪️ Heating a gas increases the kinetic energy of the particles, causing the gas to expand. The thermal expansion of gases is larger than that for solids and liquids.
▪️ For many solids dissolved in liquid water, the solubility increases with temperature.UnattemptedEvaporation increases with the increase in temperature as more molecules get kinetic energy to convert into vapour.
▪️ As we increase the temperature, the rate of diffusion becomes faster due to an increase in the kinetic energy of particles.
▪️ Heating a gas increases the kinetic energy of the particles, causing the gas to expand. The thermal expansion of gases is larger than that for solids and liquids.
▪️ For many solids dissolved in liquid water, the solubility increases with temperature. - Question 50 of 100
50. Question
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Davis strait — Baffin Sea and Atlantic Ocean
(B) Dover strait — Arctic Sea and N. Atlantic Ocean
(C) Palk strait — Mannar Gulf and Bay of Bengal
(D) Sunda strait — Java Sea and Indian Ocean
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Strait of Dover or Dover Strait, historically known as the Dover Narrows is the strait at the narrowest part of the English Channel, marking the boundary between the Channel and North Sea, separating Great Britain from continental Europe.
UnattemptedThe Strait of Dover or Dover Strait, historically known as the Dover Narrows is the strait at the narrowest part of the English Channel, marking the boundary between the Channel and North Sea, separating Great Britain from continental Europe.
- Question 51 of 100
51. Question
Which of the following seas are enclosed?
(1) Andaman Sea
(2) Arab Sea
(3) Sea of Azov
(4) Bering Sea
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Arab Sea is a region of the northern Indian Ocean bounded on the north by Pakistan and Iran, on the west by north eastern Somalia and the Arabian Peninsula, and on the east by India. Historically the sea has been known by other names including the Erythraean Sea and the Persian Sea.
The Sea of Azov is bounded in the north by mainland Ukraine, in the east by Russia, and in the west by the Crimean Peninsula.UnattemptedThe Arab Sea is a region of the northern Indian Ocean bounded on the north by Pakistan and Iran, on the west by north eastern Somalia and the Arabian Peninsula, and on the east by India. Historically the sea has been known by other names including the Erythraean Sea and the Persian Sea.
The Sea of Azov is bounded in the north by mainland Ukraine, in the east by Russia, and in the west by the Crimean Peninsula. - Question 52 of 100
52. Question
Which of the following are the principles of Arya Samaj ?
(1) The Vedas are the only source of truth and its study is absolutely necessary
(2) Prohibition of idol-worship
(3) Support to widow remarriage in certain circumstances
(4) Opposition to reincarnation theory of God and religious pilgrimages
Select the correct option from codes given below:
(A) 1 & 2 Only
(B) 2 & 3 Only
(C) 1, 2 & 3 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectTen principles of Arya Samaj are:
Vedas are the only source of truth therefore the study of Vedas is absolutely necessary
Recitation of the Mantras of the Vedas and performance of Yajnas
Opposition to idol worship
Faith in theory of karma and transmigration of soul
Faith in theory of one god who has no physical existence
Opposition to reincarnation theory of God and religious pilgrimages
Opposition to child marriage and polygamy
Belief in female education
Support to widow remarriage in certain circumstances
Attempt to propagate Hindi and Sanskrit languageUnattemptedTen principles of Arya Samaj are:
Vedas are the only source of truth therefore the study of Vedas is absolutely necessary
Recitation of the Mantras of the Vedas and performance of Yajnas
Opposition to idol worship
Faith in theory of karma and transmigration of soul
Faith in theory of one god who has no physical existence
Opposition to reincarnation theory of God and religious pilgrimages
Opposition to child marriage and polygamy
Belief in female education
Support to widow remarriage in certain circumstances
Attempt to propagate Hindi and Sanskrit language - Question 53 of 100
53. Question
In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, heart does not pump oxygenated blood to different parts of the body?
(A) Pisces and amphibians
(B) Amphibians and reptiles
(C) Amphibians only
(D) Pisces only
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn Pisces, the heart does not pump oxygenated blood to different parts of the body. This is because Pisces have a two-chambered heart. Since both the auricle and ventricle remain undivided, only deoxygenated blood passes through it. The deoxygenated blood then enters the gills for oxygenation from the ventricle.
UnattemptedIn Pisces, the heart does not pump oxygenated blood to different parts of the body. This is because Pisces have a two-chambered heart. Since both the auricle and ventricle remain undivided, only deoxygenated blood passes through it. The deoxygenated blood then enters the gills for oxygenation from the ventricle.
- Question 54 of 100
54. Question
The Government of India has approved the setting up of 800 MW thermal plant in which district?
(A) Yamunanagar
(B) Karnal
(C) Kaithal
(D) Palwal
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Indian government has approved the establishment of an 800 MW supercritical thermal power expansion unit in Yamunanagar district, Haryana. The project is an extension of the two 300 MW units at the Deenbandhu Chhotu Ram Thermal Power Plant.
UnattemptedThe Indian government has approved the establishment of an 800 MW supercritical thermal power expansion unit in Yamunanagar district, Haryana. The project is an extension of the two 300 MW units at the Deenbandhu Chhotu Ram Thermal Power Plant.
- Question 55 of 100
55. Question
With reference to Indian judiciary, the power of judicial review is vested in –
(1) Supreme court
(2) High court
(3) District court
Which of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn many countries with written constitutions, there prevails the doctrine of judicial review. It means that the constitution is the supreme law of the land and any law inconsistent therewith is void) Judicial review means the reconsideration of a degree or sentence of an inferior Court, but these days the concept has undergone great changes and the literal meaning of judicial review is no longer valid) The power to judicially review any decision is an extraordinary power vested in a superior court for checking the exercise of power of public authorities, whether they are constitutional, quasi-judicial or governmental. It is only available for exercise when a person who is aggrieved by such a decision brings it before the court.
It is common knowledge that while discharging executive functions, public authorities take various decisions for which they should be allowed sufficient space for a proper exercise of discretion. It is keeping this in mind that, by and large it is only the decision making process that is actually subjected to judicial review. Legislature, executive and judiciary under the Constitution are to exercise powers with checks and balances, but not in water-tight rigid mould) In India, by basis of Arts. 32 and 136, the Supreme Court can exercise the power of judicial review. Similarly, under Art. 226 and 227 High Courts have a power of judicial review.UnattemptedIn many countries with written constitutions, there prevails the doctrine of judicial review. It means that the constitution is the supreme law of the land and any law inconsistent therewith is void) Judicial review means the reconsideration of a degree or sentence of an inferior Court, but these days the concept has undergone great changes and the literal meaning of judicial review is no longer valid) The power to judicially review any decision is an extraordinary power vested in a superior court for checking the exercise of power of public authorities, whether they are constitutional, quasi-judicial or governmental. It is only available for exercise when a person who is aggrieved by such a decision brings it before the court.
It is common knowledge that while discharging executive functions, public authorities take various decisions for which they should be allowed sufficient space for a proper exercise of discretion. It is keeping this in mind that, by and large it is only the decision making process that is actually subjected to judicial review. Legislature, executive and judiciary under the Constitution are to exercise powers with checks and balances, but not in water-tight rigid mould) In India, by basis of Arts. 32 and 136, the Supreme Court can exercise the power of judicial review. Similarly, under Art. 226 and 227 High Courts have a power of judicial review. - Question 56 of 100
56. Question
Recently, in which district the Chief Minister inaugurated India's first elevated railway track with 3.8 km. Construction of a long new road has been approved
(A) Rohtak
(B) Karnal
(C) Kaithal
(D) Hisar
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectCM Manohar Lal Khattar approves Rs. 21.27 crore for construction of new road alongside elevated railway track in Rohtak district, enhancing connectivity and infrastructural development in Haryana. The 3790 mt long and 5.5 mt wide road will benefit over 50,000 residents, connecting various colonies in Rohtak.
UnattemptedCM Manohar Lal Khattar approves Rs. 21.27 crore for construction of new road alongside elevated railway track in Rohtak district, enhancing connectivity and infrastructural development in Haryana. The 3790 mt long and 5.5 mt wide road will benefit over 50,000 residents, connecting various colonies in Rohtak.
- Question 57 of 100
57. Question
Who is the Chairman of Haryana State Haj Committee in Haryana ?
(A) Mr. S. D. Bhatti
(B) Mr. I. M. Ghanchi
(C) Mr. Diksha Tari
(D) Mr. Ashfaque Ahmad Arfi
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Executive Officer of Haryana State Haj Committee is Mr. S. D. Bhatti.
UnattemptedThe Executive Officer of Haryana State Haj Committee is Mr. S. D. Bhatti.
- Question 58 of 100
58. Question
In which university of Haryana has the 19th International Conference of Veterinary Public Health Experts started recently?
(A) Luvas
(B) HAU
(C) GJU
(D) CDLU
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe 19th International Conference of Veterinary Public Health Experts has recently started at the Lala Lajpat Rai University of Veterinary and Animal Sciences (LUVAS) in Hisar, Haryana.
UnattemptedThe 19th International Conference of Veterinary Public Health Experts has recently started at the Lala Lajpat Rai University of Veterinary and Animal Sciences (LUVAS) in Hisar, Haryana.
- Question 59 of 100
59. Question
Haryana government is bringing a new law for temples. In which the government will take the responsibility of the temples in the village where there is less than what percentage of Hindus ?
(A) 70%
(B) 80%
(C) 10%
(D) 20%
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectHaryana government is planning to introduce a bill that will allow the government to take over the responsibility of temples in villages where the Hindu population is less than 20%.
UnattemptedHaryana government is planning to introduce a bill that will allow the government to take over the responsibility of temples in villages where the Hindu population is less than 20%.
- Question 60 of 100
60. Question
Which state has been selected for the National Energy Conservation Award (NECA) 2023 due to its excellent performance in the State Energy Efficiency Index ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Haryana
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectHaryana has been selected (as the second prize) for the National Energy Conservation Award (NECA) 2023 due to its outstanding performance in the state energy efficiency index.
UnattemptedHaryana has been selected (as the second prize) for the National Energy Conservation Award (NECA) 2023 due to its outstanding performance in the state energy efficiency index.
- Question 61 of 100
61. Question
Place these hydrocarbons in order of decreasing boiling point.
(1) Paraffin
(2) Octadecane
(3) Hexane
(4) Neohexane and
(5) Ethane
(A) Paraffin > Octadecane > Neohexane > Hexane > Ethane
(B) Paraffin > Octadecane > Hexane > Neohexane > Ethane
(C) Hexane > Paraffin > Octadecane > Neohexane > Ethane
(D) None of the above
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn hydrocarbon, the boiling point directly varies with the length of carbon chain. On increasing the number of carbon atom, the boiling point of the compound also increases. Paraffin contains highest number of carbon atoms whereas, ethane is comprised of two carbon atoms.
The decreasing order of boiling point of mention compounds is written as follows:
Paraffin > Octadecane > Hexane > Neohexane > EthaneUnattemptedIn hydrocarbon, the boiling point directly varies with the length of carbon chain. On increasing the number of carbon atom, the boiling point of the compound also increases. Paraffin contains highest number of carbon atoms whereas, ethane is comprised of two carbon atoms.
The decreasing order of boiling point of mention compounds is written as follows:
Paraffin > Octadecane > Hexane > Neohexane > Ethane - Question 62 of 100
62. Question
The First fort was constructed by British in India, at which among the following places?
(A) Surat
(B) Bombay
(C) Madras
(D) Calcutta
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectFort St George (White Town) founded in 1639 Madras
UnattemptedFort St George (White Town) founded in 1639 Madras
- Question 63 of 100
63. Question
Which of the Following is an Amorphous solid ?
(A) Quartz Glass(Sio2)
(B) Chrome Alum
(C) Silicon Carbide(SiC)
(D) Graphite
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAn amorphous or non-crystalline solid is a solid that lacks the long-range order that is characteristic of a crystal. In Brief, An amorphous solid is any noncrystalline solid in which the atoms and molecules are not organized in a definite lattice pattern. Such solids include glass, plastic, and gel.
Quartz glass (SiO2) is an amorphous solid due to its short range order of constituent particles. Note Quartz is a crystalline solid while quartz glass is an amorphous solid.UnattemptedAn amorphous or non-crystalline solid is a solid that lacks the long-range order that is characteristic of a crystal. In Brief, An amorphous solid is any noncrystalline solid in which the atoms and molecules are not organized in a definite lattice pattern. Such solids include glass, plastic, and gel.
Quartz glass (SiO2) is an amorphous solid due to its short range order of constituent particles. Note Quartz is a crystalline solid while quartz glass is an amorphous solid. - Question 64 of 100
64. Question
What was the name of Haryana in the Mahabharata period?
(A) Kurukshetra
(B) Bharat
(C) Bahudhanyak
(D) Haribahu
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn the Mahabharata period, Haryana was named Bahudhanyak and Bahudhana Pradesh. Mahabharata is the world's largest epic, whose author is Maharishi Ved Vyasa. Mahabharata is also known as Jayasamhita and Satasasri Samhita. The original name of Mahabharata is Panchali Katha. The Mahabharata was written by Ved Vyasa in Kurukshetra. Haryana has been called Bahudhanyak in Mahabharata. The city of Karnal was founded by King Karna in the Mahabharata period. Therefore, Kurukshetra district of Haryana is considered to be the oldest and sacred.
UnattemptedIn the Mahabharata period, Haryana was named Bahudhanyak and Bahudhana Pradesh. Mahabharata is the world's largest epic, whose author is Maharishi Ved Vyasa. Mahabharata is also known as Jayasamhita and Satasasri Samhita. The original name of Mahabharata is Panchali Katha. The Mahabharata was written by Ved Vyasa in Kurukshetra. Haryana has been called Bahudhanyak in Mahabharata. The city of Karnal was founded by King Karna in the Mahabharata period. Therefore, Kurukshetra district of Haryana is considered to be the oldest and sacred.
- Question 65 of 100
65. Question
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I — List-II
(Current) — (Feature)
a. Kuroshio Current — 1. Warm current in Atlantic Ocean
b. Peru current — 2. Cold current in the Atlantic Ocean
c. Labrador current – – 3. Warm current in the Pacific Ocean
d. Florida current — 4. Cold current in the Pacific Ocean
a b c d
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 1 2 4 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectKuroshio current – Warm current in the Pacific Oceans
Peru Current – Cold current in the Pacific Ocean
Labrador Current – Cold current in the Atlantic Ocean
Florida Current – Warm current in Atlantic OceanUnattemptedKuroshio current – Warm current in the Pacific Oceans
Peru Current – Cold current in the Pacific Ocean
Labrador Current – Cold current in the Atlantic Ocean
Florida Current – Warm current in Atlantic Ocean - Question 66 of 100
66. Question
Which one of the following is not a biotic resource?
(A) Fresh water
(B) Coal
(C) Petroleum
(D) Fish
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe resources which are obtained from the biosphere and have life are called biotic resources. Examples of biotic resources are forests, animals, birds, fish and marine organisms. Mineral fuels can be regarded as biotic resources since they are derived from or products formed from decayed organic matter.
UnattemptedThe resources which are obtained from the biosphere and have life are called biotic resources. Examples of biotic resources are forests, animals, birds, fish and marine organisms. Mineral fuels can be regarded as biotic resources since they are derived from or products formed from decayed organic matter.
- Question 67 of 100
67. Question
With reference to use of National Emergency, consider following events :
(1) Chinese aggression
(2) Due to internal disturbance
(3) Indo-Pakistan war
What is the correct chronological sequence?
(A) 1-2-3
(B) 2-1-3
(C) 1-3-2
(D) 3-1-2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe first Proclamation of Emergency under Art. 352 was made by the President on October 26, 1962, in view of the Chinese aggression in the NEFa).
The Second Proclamation of Emergency under Art. 352 was made by the President on DEc) 3, 1971 when Pakistan launched, an undeclared war against India).
The third Proclamation of Emergency under Art. 352 was made on June 25, 1975, on the ground of internal disturbance.UnattemptedThe first Proclamation of Emergency under Art. 352 was made by the President on October 26, 1962, in view of the Chinese aggression in the NEFa).
The Second Proclamation of Emergency under Art. 352 was made by the President on DEc) 3, 1971 when Pakistan launched, an undeclared war against India).
The third Proclamation of Emergency under Art. 352 was made on June 25, 1975, on the ground of internal disturbance. - Question 68 of 100
68. Question
Unconstitutional bills introduced by the Legislative Assembly of a State may be disapproved by
(1) The President of India after being referred to by the Governor of the State.
(2) The Rajya Sabha after being referred to by the Legislative Council of the State.
Which of the above is/are correc?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Governor usually reserves such bills for the President who then either approves the bill or vetoes it or sends it back to the assembly. This is to ensure harmony between the central laws, state laws and the constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The RS does not has such powers over state bills even though it represents the states. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.UnattemptedThe Governor usually reserves such bills for the President who then either approves the bill or vetoes it or sends it back to the assembly. This is to ensure harmony between the central laws, state laws and the constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The RS does not has such powers over state bills even though it represents the states. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. - Question 69 of 100
69. Question
Consider the following statements about the Civil Society in India:
(1) They function within the conventional space of both State and Market.
(2) They form their own political parties to meet their objectives.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectIn the current model of economic growth, the voluntary/ civil society sector has been recognized as a key player in achieving equitable, sustainable and inclusive development goals. Civil society organizations function outside the conventional space of both State and Market, but they have the potential to negotiate, persuade and pressurise both these institutions to make them more responsive to the needs and rights of the citizens. They support the political parties but cannot form their own political party and if they form they would not remain civil societies any more.
UnattemptedIn the current model of economic growth, the voluntary/ civil society sector has been recognized as a key player in achieving equitable, sustainable and inclusive development goals. Civil society organizations function outside the conventional space of both State and Market, but they have the potential to negotiate, persuade and pressurise both these institutions to make them more responsive to the needs and rights of the citizens. They support the political parties but cannot form their own political party and if they form they would not remain civil societies any more.
- Question 70 of 100
70. Question
Which is the largest Harappan site in India?
(A) Daulatpur
(B) Mithal
(C) Rakhigarhi
(D) Banavali
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe largest Harappan site in India is Rakhigarhi. This site is in Narnaund block of Hisar district of Haryana. Rakhigarhi is the largest Harappan site in India due to the present location of Harappa and Mohenjodaro in Pakistan. It is spread over an area of about 220 hectares. It has also been a major center of Siswal civilization. This site was first discovered in the year 1969.
UnattemptedThe largest Harappan site in India is Rakhigarhi. This site is in Narnaund block of Hisar district of Haryana. Rakhigarhi is the largest Harappan site in India due to the present location of Harappa and Mohenjodaro in Pakistan. It is spread over an area of about 220 hectares. It has also been a major center of Siswal civilization. This site was first discovered in the year 1969.
- Question 71 of 100
71. Question
Who carried out the first archaeological excavation in Haryana?
(A) Cunningham
(B) D. B. Snooper
(C) H. L. Srivastava
(D) B. B. Lal
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe first archaeological excavation in Haryana was done by D. B. Snooper. Sir Alexander Cunningham, who is called the father of Indian archaeology, visited the Haryana region in 1862 AD. He was probably the first person to explore this area. Then in 1888-89 AD, archaeologist Rogers carried forward Cunningham's work. But in reality, the first archaeological excavation in Haryana was done by D. B. Snooper in the year 1921-22 at a mound called the fort of King Karna near Thanesar.
UnattemptedThe first archaeological excavation in Haryana was done by D. B. Snooper. Sir Alexander Cunningham, who is called the father of Indian archaeology, visited the Haryana region in 1862 AD. He was probably the first person to explore this area. Then in 1888-89 AD, archaeologist Rogers carried forward Cunningham's work. But in reality, the first archaeological excavation in Haryana was done by D. B. Snooper in the year 1921-22 at a mound called the fort of King Karna near Thanesar.
- Question 72 of 100
72. Question
Subhash Chandra Bose was re-elected the President of INC at the Tripuri Session in 1939 by defeating Gandhiji’s candidate :
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) J.B.Kriplani
(C) Pattabhi Sitaramaiyya
(D) Nellie Sengupta
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectGandhiji selected Bhogaraju Pattabhi Sitaramayya, in the Tripuri session (1939) for the presidentship of Indian National Congress against S.C. Bose. Bose won the election by 203 votes. Total number of votes in favour of Subhas Chandra Bose was 1580 and Pattabhi Sitaramayya secured 1377 votes. After that Gandhiji and his followers decided to oppose Bose and 12 members of Congress Working Committee resigned together. Later Jawahar Lal Nehru also decided to resign.
UnattemptedGandhiji selected Bhogaraju Pattabhi Sitaramayya, in the Tripuri session (1939) for the presidentship of Indian National Congress against S.C. Bose. Bose won the election by 203 votes. Total number of votes in favour of Subhas Chandra Bose was 1580 and Pattabhi Sitaramayya secured 1377 votes. After that Gandhiji and his followers decided to oppose Bose and 12 members of Congress Working Committee resigned together. Later Jawahar Lal Nehru also decided to resign.
- Question 73 of 100
73. Question
If the tip of the sugarcane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due to the presence of:
(A) Cambium
(B) Apical meristem
(C) Lateral meristem
(D) Intercalary meristem
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectMeristem cells are capable of proliferating and generating new cells. Sugarcane is a monocot plant having intercalary meristems at nodes. As a result, even if the sugarcane's tip is severed, the intercalary meristem located at nodes allows it to grow.
UnattemptedMeristem cells are capable of proliferating and generating new cells. Sugarcane is a monocot plant having intercalary meristems at nodes. As a result, even if the sugarcane's tip is severed, the intercalary meristem located at nodes allows it to grow.
- Question 74 of 100
74. Question
Which carbohydrate is used commercially in silver polishing behind mirrors?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Sucrose
(C) Glucose
(D) Fructose
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectGlucose is used in silvering of mirror as a reducing agent.
Aldehydes such as glucose reduce Ag+ ions to metallic silver. They themselves are oxidized to carboxylate ions.UnattemptedGlucose is used in silvering of mirror as a reducing agent.
Aldehydes such as glucose reduce Ag+ ions to metallic silver. They themselves are oxidized to carboxylate ions. - Question 75 of 100
75. Question
Permanent Hardness of water can be removed by adding –
(A) Bleaching powder
(B) Chlorine
(C) Wasshing soda
(D) Potassium permanganate
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectHardness can be removed by adding sodium carbonate (washing soda) or by passing the water through an ion-exchange column.
Hardness in water is caused by dissolved magnesium ions and calcium ions. These can get into the water when it comes into contact with limestone and other rocks that contain calcium compounds. This can happen, for example, when rainwater flows over these rocks on its way to a reservoir.
Hardness in water is of two types. They are :
(1) Temporary hardness
(2) Permanent hardness
(1) Temporary hardness:: Temporary hardness is caused by dissolved calcium hydrogen carbonate.
(2) Permanent hardness:: Permanent hardness is caused by dissolved calcium sulfate. Unlike temporary hardness, it is not removed by boiling the water.UnattemptedHardness can be removed by adding sodium carbonate (washing soda) or by passing the water through an ion-exchange column.
Hardness in water is caused by dissolved magnesium ions and calcium ions. These can get into the water when it comes into contact with limestone and other rocks that contain calcium compounds. This can happen, for example, when rainwater flows over these rocks on its way to a reservoir.
Hardness in water is of two types. They are :
(1) Temporary hardness
(2) Permanent hardness
(1) Temporary hardness:: Temporary hardness is caused by dissolved calcium hydrogen carbonate.
(2) Permanent hardness:: Permanent hardness is caused by dissolved calcium sulfate. Unlike temporary hardness, it is not removed by boiling the water. - Question 76 of 100
76. Question
What was the other name of Maharaja Surajmal?
(A) Plato of Jats
(B) Badan Singh
(C) Sujan Singh
(D) Aflatoon of Jats
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectMaharaja Surajmal was given the title of Brijraj. Surajmal's childhood name was Sujan Singh. He was born in February 1707 AD in Bharatpur. After the death of Aurangzeb in 1707 AD, many powerful states emerged in North India, Bharatpur State was one of these states. Surajmal was the successor of Badan Singh (father). Surajmal, the ruler of Bharatpur in present-day Rajasthan, was known for his political sagacity, steady intellect, and clear vision. His influence extended to parts of present-day Haryana as well, particularly during his military campaigns and alliances in the region. He was a prominent leader of the Jat tribe and is often referred to as the ‘Plato of the Jat tribe’.
UnattemptedMaharaja Surajmal was given the title of Brijraj. Surajmal's childhood name was Sujan Singh. He was born in February 1707 AD in Bharatpur. After the death of Aurangzeb in 1707 AD, many powerful states emerged in North India, Bharatpur State was one of these states. Surajmal was the successor of Badan Singh (father). Surajmal, the ruler of Bharatpur in present-day Rajasthan, was known for his political sagacity, steady intellect, and clear vision. His influence extended to parts of present-day Haryana as well, particularly during his military campaigns and alliances in the region. He was a prominent leader of the Jat tribe and is often referred to as the ‘Plato of the Jat tribe’.
- Question 77 of 100
77. Question
The city named Thaneshwar of the state was the capital of which famous king?
(A) Harsh Vardhan
(B) Kanishka
(C) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(D) Ashok
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThaneshwar, also known as Sthanishvara, was the capital of the Pushyabhuti dynasty. The dynasty’s rulers conquered most of Aryavarta following the fall of the Gupta Empire. The Pushyabhuti emperor Prabhakarvardhana was a ruler of Thaneshwar in the early seventh century CE. He was succeeded by his sons, Rajyavardhana and Harsha. Harsha, also known as Harshavardhana, consolidated a vast empire over much of North India by defeating independent kings that fragmented from the Later Guptas. Harsha made Thaneshwar his capital. Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Harsh Vardhan.
UnattemptedThaneshwar, also known as Sthanishvara, was the capital of the Pushyabhuti dynasty. The dynasty’s rulers conquered most of Aryavarta following the fall of the Gupta Empire. The Pushyabhuti emperor Prabhakarvardhana was a ruler of Thaneshwar in the early seventh century CE. He was succeeded by his sons, Rajyavardhana and Harsha. Harsha, also known as Harshavardhana, consolidated a vast empire over much of North India by defeating independent kings that fragmented from the Later Guptas. Harsha made Thaneshwar his capital. Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Harsh Vardhan.
- Question 78 of 100
78. Question
Which Mahajanapadas of the Buddhist period included parts of modern Haryana?
(A) Surasena and Avanti
(B) Assak Auts
(C) Kaushal and Vajji
(D) Kuru and Panchal
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectDuring the Buddhist period, parts of modern Haryana were included in the Mahajanapadas of Kuru and Panchala.
UnattemptedDuring the Buddhist period, parts of modern Haryana were included in the Mahajanapadas of Kuru and Panchala.
- Question 79 of 100
79. Question
The famous Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang has described the splendor and prosperity of which city of Haryana in his book?
(A) Sthanvishvara
(B) Panipat
(C) Ambala
(D) Rohtak
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe famous Chinese traveler Hiuen Tsang described the splendor and prosperity of the city of Sthanvishvara in his book.
UnattemptedThe famous Chinese traveler Hiuen Tsang described the splendor and prosperity of the city of Sthanvishvara in his book.
- Question 80 of 100
80. Question
The play Neeldarpan is associated with ?
(A) Santhal Hool
(B) Indigo revolt
(C) Pabna Riots
(D) Deccan riots
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectNeel Darpan was a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was essential to Nilbidraha, or Indigo revolt of February–March 1859 in Bengal, when farmers refused to sow indigo in their fields as a protest against exploitative farming under the British Raj.
UnattemptedNeel Darpan was a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was essential to Nilbidraha, or Indigo revolt of February–March 1859 in Bengal, when farmers refused to sow indigo in their fields as a protest against exploitative farming under the British Raj.
- Question 81 of 100
81. Question
Which is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?
(A) Pepsin
(B) Cellulase
(C) Amylase
(D) Trypsin
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectSalivary amylase is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract. It is the primary enzyme of saliva. Salivary amylase is secreted from the salivary glands (mainly parotid glands) in the buccal cavity. Salivary amylase breaks down starch into maltose, isomaltose, and limits dextrin.
Approximately 30% of the starch is acted upon by salivary amylase. Salivary amylase acts up to the esophagus due to the presence of alkaline conditions. When the food reaches the stomach the action of salivary amylase becomes inactive due to the highly acidic medium.UnattemptedSalivary amylase is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract. It is the primary enzyme of saliva. Salivary amylase is secreted from the salivary glands (mainly parotid glands) in the buccal cavity. Salivary amylase breaks down starch into maltose, isomaltose, and limits dextrin.
Approximately 30% of the starch is acted upon by salivary amylase. Salivary amylase acts up to the esophagus due to the presence of alkaline conditions. When the food reaches the stomach the action of salivary amylase becomes inactive due to the highly acidic medium. - Question 82 of 100
82. Question
Which of the following is/are direct source(s) of information about the interior of the Earth?
(1) Earthquake wave
(2) Volcano
(3) Gravitational force
(4) Earth magnetism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) 3 and 4
(D) All of these
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectEarthquake waves (seismic waves) and volcanoes provide direct information about the interior of the Earth. Seismic waves, generated by earthquakes, travel through the Earth and are used to study its internal structure. Volcanoes offer insights into the composition and behavior of materials beneath the Earth's surface when they erupt.
Gravitational force and Earth magnetism are indirect sources of information about the Earth's interior and are not directly related to providing insights into its composition or structure.UnattemptedEarthquake waves (seismic waves) and volcanoes provide direct information about the interior of the Earth. Seismic waves, generated by earthquakes, travel through the Earth and are used to study its internal structure. Volcanoes offer insights into the composition and behavior of materials beneath the Earth's surface when they erupt.
Gravitational force and Earth magnetism are indirect sources of information about the Earth's interior and are not directly related to providing insights into its composition or structure. - Question 83 of 100
83. Question
Which of the following metals melt when placed on the palm of your hand because of very low melting points?
(1) Gallium
(2) Mercury
(3) Caesium
Choose :
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectAll metals except mercury exist as solids at room temperature. In Gallium and Caesium have very low melting points. These two metals will melt if you keep them on your palm.
UnattemptedAll metals except mercury exist as solids at room temperature. In Gallium and Caesium have very low melting points. These two metals will melt if you keep them on your palm.
- Question 84 of 100
84. Question
In which district is the mythological village named Adi Badri located?
(A) District Bhiwani
(B) District Sirsa
(C) District Yamunanagar
(D) District Rewari
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe mythological village of Adi Badri is located in the northern part of Yamunanagar district, Haryana.
UnattemptedThe mythological village of Adi Badri is located in the northern part of Yamunanagar district, Haryana.
- Question 85 of 100
85. Question
In which district of Haryana are the famous fairs of Ramsarai and Bhuteshwar held?
(A) In Faridabad district
(B) In Jhajjar district
(C) In Rohtak district
(D) In Jind district
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe famous fairs of Ramsarai and Bhuteshwar are held in Jind district of Haryana. The Bhuteshwar Temple in Jind is one of the oldest temples of Lord Shiva and is dedicated to Bhuteshwar, a manifestation of Shiva. It was built by Raghbir Singh and is also called Rani Talab (meaning Queen Pond) because it has a large water tank all around it.
UnattemptedThe famous fairs of Ramsarai and Bhuteshwar are held in Jind district of Haryana. The Bhuteshwar Temple in Jind is one of the oldest temples of Lord Shiva and is dedicated to Bhuteshwar, a manifestation of Shiva. It was built by Raghbir Singh and is also called Rani Talab (meaning Queen Pond) because it has a large water tank all around it.
- Question 86 of 100
86. Question
Who was the ruler of Rewari during the time of the famous Mughal ruler Akbar?
(A) Tularam
(B) Phool Singh
(C) Hemchandra
(D) Karnasingh
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe ruler of Rewari during the time of the famous Mughal ruler Akbar was Hemchandra (Hemu). Hemu was an Indian ruler who previously served as a general and Wazir of Adil Shah Suri of the Sur Empire during a period in Indian history when Mughals and Afghans were vying for power across North India. He fought Afghan rebels across North India from Punjab to Bengal and Mughal forces of Humayun and Akbar in Agra and Delhi, winning 22 battles for Adil Shah Suri. Hemu claimed royal status after defeating Akbar’s Mughal forces on October 7, 1556, in the Battle of Delhi and assumed the title of Vikramaditya that had been adopted by many Indian kings and emperors in the past.
UnattemptedThe ruler of Rewari during the time of the famous Mughal ruler Akbar was Hemchandra (Hemu). Hemu was an Indian ruler who previously served as a general and Wazir of Adil Shah Suri of the Sur Empire during a period in Indian history when Mughals and Afghans were vying for power across North India. He fought Afghan rebels across North India from Punjab to Bengal and Mughal forces of Humayun and Akbar in Agra and Delhi, winning 22 battles for Adil Shah Suri. Hemu claimed royal status after defeating Akbar’s Mughal forces on October 7, 1556, in the Battle of Delhi and assumed the title of Vikramaditya that had been adopted by many Indian kings and emperors in the past.
- Question 87 of 100
87. Question
Kalaram Temple, recently seen in news, is located in which of the following states?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectRecently, the Prime Minister of India visited the Kalaram Mandir situated in Nasik district of Maharashtra. The Kalaram temple derives its name from a black statue of the Lord – Kala Ram translates literally to “Black Ram”. Kala Ram Temple is situated on the banks of the Godavari River in Panchvati area of Maharashtra. The name Panchavati comes from the existence of five banyan trees in the area. The temple is also the site of a land mark agitation led by Babasaheb Ambedkar, demanding temple entry rights for Dalits more than 90 years ago. The temple was built in 1792 with the efforts of one Sardar Rangarao Odhekar.
UnattemptedRecently, the Prime Minister of India visited the Kalaram Mandir situated in Nasik district of Maharashtra. The Kalaram temple derives its name from a black statue of the Lord – Kala Ram translates literally to “Black Ram”. Kala Ram Temple is situated on the banks of the Godavari River in Panchvati area of Maharashtra. The name Panchavati comes from the existence of five banyan trees in the area. The temple is also the site of a land mark agitation led by Babasaheb Ambedkar, demanding temple entry rights for Dalits more than 90 years ago. The temple was built in 1792 with the efforts of one Sardar Rangarao Odhekar.
- Question 88 of 100
88. Question
Consider the following statements regarding VIPER Rover:
(1) It is NASA's first mobile robotic mission to the Moon.
(2) It will directly analyze ice on the surface and subsurface of the Moon at varying depths and temperature conditions.
(3) It will land at the South Pole of the Moon in late 2024.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover (VIPER) is a lunar rover developed by NASA. It is scheduled to land on the moon's south pole in November 2024. VIPER is NASA's first mobile robotic mission to the Moon.
Its drill and onboard instruments are specifically designed to study ice at various depths and temperatures, particularly in the permanently shadowed craters near the South Pole. Hence, all statements are correct.UnattemptedThe Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover (VIPER) is a lunar rover developed by NASA. It is scheduled to land on the moon's south pole in November 2024. VIPER is NASA's first mobile robotic mission to the Moon.
Its drill and onboard instruments are specifically designed to study ice at various depths and temperatures, particularly in the permanently shadowed craters near the South Pole. Hence, all statements are correct. - Question 89 of 100
89. Question
Which among the following events took place immediately before the massacre at Jallianwalla Bagh?
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) llbert Bill
(C) Passage of the Rowlatt Act
(D) Minto-Morley Reforms
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectRowlatt Act also known as Black Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on 21 March 1919. It empowered the government to put anyone behind the bars without trial and conviction in court law. It basically suspended the right of Habeas Corpus.
UnattemptedRowlatt Act also known as Black Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on 21 March 1919. It empowered the government to put anyone behind the bars without trial and conviction in court law. It basically suspended the right of Habeas Corpus.
- Question 90 of 100
90. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Thylakoid membranes:
(1) Thylakoids are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants.
(2) These membranes are dense, mostly galactolipid, protein-containing bilayers in which photosynthesis occurs in photosynthetic organisms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThylakoids are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants. They store chlorophyll, the substance in plant that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis. These membranes are dense, mostly galactolipid, protein-containing bilayers in which photosynthesis occurs in photosynthetic organisms. They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria. The cyanobacteria multiplied in the oceans billions of years ago, and are believed to be responsible for the vast stores of oxygen that are found in the atmosphere and thus, a precursor to life. It is now believed that thylakoid membranes in cyanobacteria were what made them capable of using sunlight to create energy and release oxygen. Hence, both statements are correct.
UnattemptedThylakoids are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants. They store chlorophyll, the substance in plant that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis. These membranes are dense, mostly galactolipid, protein-containing bilayers in which photosynthesis occurs in photosynthetic organisms. They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria. The cyanobacteria multiplied in the oceans billions of years ago, and are believed to be responsible for the vast stores of oxygen that are found in the atmosphere and thus, a precursor to life. It is now believed that thylakoid membranes in cyanobacteria were what made them capable of using sunlight to create energy and release oxygen. Hence, both statements are correct.
- Question 91 of 100
91. Question
Which of the following carbon compounds will give a yellow flame with lots of black smoke?
(A) Saturated carbon compounds
(B) Unsaturated carbon compounds
(C) Alkanes
(D) More than one of the above
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectUnsaturated carbon compounds will give a yellow flame with lots of black smoke. Saturated carbon compounds are those compounds in which carbon atoms are linked together by single bonds. For instance-Alkanes (CnH2n+2).
Saturated carbon compounds will give a clean flame.UnattemptedUnsaturated carbon compounds will give a yellow flame with lots of black smoke. Saturated carbon compounds are those compounds in which carbon atoms are linked together by single bonds. For instance-Alkanes (CnH2n+2).
Saturated carbon compounds will give a clean flame. - Question 92 of 100
92. Question
Which of the following carries digested and absorbed fat from intestine and drains excess fluid from extra cellular space back into the blood?
(A) Lymph
(B) Platelets
(C) Plasma
(D) More than one of the above
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectLymph carries digested and absorbed fat from the intestine and drains excess fluid from extracellular spaces back into the blood. Platelets are tiny blood cells that help your body form clots to stop bleeding. Plasma carries water, salts, and enzymes. The main role of plasma is to take nutrients, hormones, and proteins to the parts of the body that need it. Cells also put their waste products into the plasma. The plasma then helps remove this waste from the body.
UnattemptedLymph carries digested and absorbed fat from the intestine and drains excess fluid from extracellular spaces back into the blood. Platelets are tiny blood cells that help your body form clots to stop bleeding. Plasma carries water, salts, and enzymes. The main role of plasma is to take nutrients, hormones, and proteins to the parts of the body that need it. Cells also put their waste products into the plasma. The plasma then helps remove this waste from the body.
- Question 93 of 100
93. Question
Which of the following blood component protects against infection?
(A) RBC
(B) WBC
(C) blood plasma
(D) Hemoglobin
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectWhite blood cell (WBC) is an immune cell. When the blood is infected with harmful bacteria or viruses, WBCs reach there and destroy it.
UnattemptedWhite blood cell (WBC) is an immune cell. When the blood is infected with harmful bacteria or viruses, WBCs reach there and destroy it.
- Question 94 of 100
94. Question
In which of the following the speed of light will be minimum?
(A) in glass
(B) in vacuum
(C) in water
(D) in air
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe velocity of light depends on its refractive index in a medium/object. The higher the refractive index of an object, the lower the velocity of light in it.
Refractive index = velocity of light in vaccum/velocity of light in medium
The refractive index of glass is the highest (1.5) among the above. It is followed by the refractive index of water (1.33) and the refractive index of air (1).UnattemptedThe velocity of light depends on its refractive index in a medium/object. The higher the refractive index of an object, the lower the velocity of light in it.
Refractive index = velocity of light in vaccum/velocity of light in medium
The refractive index of glass is the highest (1.5) among the above. It is followed by the refractive index of water (1.33) and the refractive index of air (1). - Question 95 of 100
95. Question
While doing work and running, you move your organs like hands, legs, etc. Which among the following is correct?
(A) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones
(B) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones
(C) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones
(D) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectSkeletal muscles are also called striped muscles because they have alternate dark and light bands. In a person doing work and running the skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon for bone movement. The skeletal muscles are composed of hundreds or even thousands of skeletal muscle fibers.
UnattemptedSkeletal muscles are also called striped muscles because they have alternate dark and light bands. In a person doing work and running the skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon for bone movement. The skeletal muscles are composed of hundreds or even thousands of skeletal muscle fibers.
- Question 96 of 100
96. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Green Rupee Term Deposit Scheme:
(1) It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) with the aim of raising money to finance environment-friendly projects.
(2) The deposit scheme is open to resident individuals, non-individuals, and non-resident Indian (NRI) customers.
(3) Pre-mature withdrawals are not allowed under the scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) 1 and 2 Only
(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 and 3 Only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe State Bank of India (SBI) recently introduced the SBI Green Rupee Term Deposit (SGRTD) scheme to mobilize funds to support environment friendly initiatives and projects. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The deposit scheme is open to resident individuals, non-individuals, and non-resident Indian (NRI) customers. The current framework permits green deposits to be denominated in rupees only. It offers investors the flexibility to choose from three distinct tenors: 1,111 days, 1,777 days, and 2,222 days. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Pre-mature withdrawals are allowed under the scheme. Loan/ overdraft facility will be available against the deposit. Senior Citizens/ Staff/ Staff Senior Citizens are eligible for an additional interest rate over the applicable rate for the public. The benefit of additional interest shall not be available to NRI Senior Citizens/NRI Staff. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.UnattemptedThe State Bank of India (SBI) recently introduced the SBI Green Rupee Term Deposit (SGRTD) scheme to mobilize funds to support environment friendly initiatives and projects. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The deposit scheme is open to resident individuals, non-individuals, and non-resident Indian (NRI) customers. The current framework permits green deposits to be denominated in rupees only. It offers investors the flexibility to choose from three distinct tenors: 1,111 days, 1,777 days, and 2,222 days. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Pre-mature withdrawals are allowed under the scheme. Loan/ overdraft facility will be available against the deposit. Senior Citizens/ Staff/ Staff Senior Citizens are eligible for an additional interest rate over the applicable rate for the public. The benefit of additional interest shall not be available to NRI Senior Citizens/NRI Staff. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. - Question 97 of 100
97. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ANUBHAV Awards:
(1) It recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to Nation building while working in different Ministries or Departments of the government.
(2) It is a joint initiative of Ministry of Human Resource Development and NITI Aayog.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectANUBHAV Awards recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to Nation building while working in Government and to document the administrative history of India by written narratives. The ANUBHAV Portal, established in March 2015, serves as an online platform for retiring and retired government employees to share their experiences. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The portal was launched by the Government of India, Ministry of personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, Department of Pension & Pensioners' welfare. To participate in the scheme, retiring Central Government employees/pensioners are required to submit their Anubhav write ups, 8 months prior to retirement and up to 1 year after their retirement. Each ANUBHAV Awardees will be felicitated with a medal and certificate and a Prize of 10,000 rupees, whereas a Jury certificate Winner will be presented with a medal and a certificate. Till date, 54 ANUBHAV awards have been conferred from 2016 to 2023. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.UnattemptedANUBHAV Awards recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to Nation building while working in Government and to document the administrative history of India by written narratives. The ANUBHAV Portal, established in March 2015, serves as an online platform for retiring and retired government employees to share their experiences. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The portal was launched by the Government of India, Ministry of personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, Department of Pension & Pensioners' welfare. To participate in the scheme, retiring Central Government employees/pensioners are required to submit their Anubhav write ups, 8 months prior to retirement and up to 1 year after their retirement. Each ANUBHAV Awardees will be felicitated with a medal and certificate and a Prize of 10,000 rupees, whereas a Jury certificate Winner will be presented with a medal and a certificate. Till date, 54 ANUBHAV awards have been conferred from 2016 to 2023. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. - Question 98 of 100
98. Question
Consider the following passage:It is a type of gravity dam located below the confluence of the river Kaveri with its tributaries, Hemavati and Lakshmana Tirtha, in the district of Mandya in Karnataka. The construction of this dam began in 1911 and was completed in 1931. The dam was designed by Sir M. Visvesvaraya, a famous Indian engineer (often referred to as the ‘architect of modern Mysore’ or ‘father of planning in India’). It was the first dam to install automated crest gates.
The above passage is related to which of the following dam?
(A) Tungabhadra Dam
(B) Almatti Dam
(C) Kabini Dam
(D) Krishna Raja Sagara Dam
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThe High Court of Karnataka recently banned all types of mining and quarrying activities within a 20-km radius of the historic Krishnarajasagar (KRS) dam in Mandya district. It is a type of gravity dam located below the confluence of the river Kaveri with its tributaries, Hemavati and Lakshmana Tirtha, in the district of Mandya in Karnataka. The dam was constructed during the rule of the Maharaja of Mysore, Krishnaraja Wadiyar IV, and it was named in his honor. The construction of the KRS Dam began in 1911 and was completed in 1931. The dam was designed by Sir M. Visvesvaraya, a famous Indian engineer (often referred to as the ‘architect of modern Mysore’ or ‘father of planning in India’). The water from the dam is used for irrigation in Mysore and Mandya and is the main source of drinking water for Mysore, Mandya, and Bengaluru city. It also ensures power supply to the Shivanasamudra hydroelectric power station. The water released from this dam flows into the state of Tamil Nadu and is stored in the Mettur dam in the Salem district. It was the first dam to install automated crest gates.
UnattemptedThe High Court of Karnataka recently banned all types of mining and quarrying activities within a 20-km radius of the historic Krishnarajasagar (KRS) dam in Mandya district. It is a type of gravity dam located below the confluence of the river Kaveri with its tributaries, Hemavati and Lakshmana Tirtha, in the district of Mandya in Karnataka. The dam was constructed during the rule of the Maharaja of Mysore, Krishnaraja Wadiyar IV, and it was named in his honor. The construction of the KRS Dam began in 1911 and was completed in 1931. The dam was designed by Sir M. Visvesvaraya, a famous Indian engineer (often referred to as the ‘architect of modern Mysore’ or ‘father of planning in India’). The water from the dam is used for irrigation in Mysore and Mandya and is the main source of drinking water for Mysore, Mandya, and Bengaluru city. It also ensures power supply to the Shivanasamudra hydroelectric power station. The water released from this dam flows into the state of Tamil Nadu and is stored in the Mettur dam in the Salem district. It was the first dam to install automated crest gates.
- Question 99 of 100
99. Question
Consider the following statements regarding New Generation Akash missile:
(1) It is a new generation state-of-the-art surface-to-air missile (SAM) for the Indian Air Force (IAF) to destroy high manoeuvring low radar cross section agile aerial threats.
(2) The weight of the rocket is reduced to increase its range and to carry more missiles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectDefence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted a successful flight-test of the New Generation AKASH (AKASH-NG) missile from the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur off the coast of Odisha. It is a surface-to-air new generation missile. The missile intercepted the high-speed unmanned aerial vehicle at a very low altitude. This was the first trial of the missile against a live target, which was successfully intercepted and destroyed. It is a new generation state-of-the-art surface-to-air missile (SAM) for the Indian Air Force (IAF) to destroy high manoeuvring low radar cross section agile aerial threats. It can defend an area 10 times better compared to any short-range SAM and is capable of engaging up to 10 targets simultaneously. It can strike targets up to 40 km as against the earlier variant’s maximum range of 30 km. The weight of the rocket has been brought down from 700 kg to 350 kg. This not just increases range, but also lets the vehicle carry more missiles. Hence, both statements are correct.
UnattemptedDefence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted a successful flight-test of the New Generation AKASH (AKASH-NG) missile from the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur off the coast of Odisha. It is a surface-to-air new generation missile. The missile intercepted the high-speed unmanned aerial vehicle at a very low altitude. This was the first trial of the missile against a live target, which was successfully intercepted and destroyed. It is a new generation state-of-the-art surface-to-air missile (SAM) for the Indian Air Force (IAF) to destroy high manoeuvring low radar cross section agile aerial threats. It can defend an area 10 times better compared to any short-range SAM and is capable of engaging up to 10 targets simultaneously. It can strike targets up to 40 km as against the earlier variant’s maximum range of 30 km. The weight of the rocket has been brought down from 700 kg to 350 kg. This not just increases range, but also lets the vehicle carry more missiles. Hence, both statements are correct.
- Question 100 of 100
100. Question
Which of the following countries are part of Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project?
(A) India, Canada, USA, Japan and China
(B) USA, Brazil, Israel, India and China
(C) Russia, Germany, France, Italy, and Australia
(D) France, USA, China, Russia and Israel
(E) Question not attemptedCorrectIncorrectThirty Meter Telescope (TMT) has been conceived as a 30-metre diameter primary-mirror optical and infrared telescope that will enable observations into deep space. It is a joint venture of 5 countries- India, Canada, USA, Japan and China. It is being installed at Mauna Kea in Hawaii. TMT would be able to resolve objects 12 times better than the Hubble Space Telescope. It will be the world’s most advanced and capable ground-based optical, near-infrared, and mid-infrared observatory.
UnattemptedThirty Meter Telescope (TMT) has been conceived as a 30-metre diameter primary-mirror optical and infrared telescope that will enable observations into deep space. It is a joint venture of 5 countries- India, Canada, USA, Japan and China. It is being installed at Mauna Kea in Hawaii. TMT would be able to resolve objects 12 times better than the Hubble Space Telescope. It will be the world’s most advanced and capable ground-based optical, near-infrared, and mid-infrared observatory.