TEST 13 (J)

CSAT 2024 – FLT 2

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1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 80

   1. Question

   If in a certain language FASHION is coded as FOIHSAN, how is PROBLEM coded in that code?
   (A) MELBORP
   (B) MNROST
   (C) PLEROBM
   (D) PELBORM

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The first and the last letters of the word remain as such and the remaining letters are written in a reverse order, to obtain the code.
   Therefore, required code = PELBORM

   Unattempted
   

   The first and the last letters of the word remain as such and the remaining letters are written in a reverse order, to obtain the code.
   Therefore, required code = PELBORM
2. Question 2 of 80

   2. Question

   If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 and MORALE is coded as 296137, how are the following words REAL coded in that language ?
   (A) 6713
   (B) 6174
   (C) 6731
   (D) 4719

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   With the given details,
   we get C=4, H =5, A=1,
   R=6, O=9, L= 3, M=2 and E=7
   Thus, REAL = 6713

   Unattempted
   

   With the given details,
   we get C=4, H =5, A=1,
   R=6, O=9, L= 3, M=2 and E=7
   Thus, REAL = 6713
3. Question 3 of 80

   3. Question

   The bureaucracy is an instrument through which welfare policies of the government must reach the people. But most often, it is so powerful that people are afraid of approaching a government officer. It is a common experience of the people that bureaucracy is insensitive to the demands and expectations of the ordinary citizen. Only if the democratically elected government controls the bureaucracy, some of these problems can be effectively handled. On the other hand, too much political interference turns the bureaucracy into an instrument in the hands of the politician.
   Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
   (A) Maintaining a balance between no and too much political control of the bureaucracy is necessary so that the welfare policies reach to the people.
   (B) Complete political control over bureaucracy will automatically let the welfare policies of the government reach to the people.
   (C) Democratic countries do not need to worry about the welfare policies as the bureaucracy is approachable, friendly and independent in democracies.
   (D) Breaking the corrupt nexus of politicians and bureaucrats will help common people enjoy the benefits of welfare policies of the government.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   (A) is correct as the passage first conveys how distant the bureaucracy is from the people and suggests that only a democratically elected government”s control can handle this problem. But it also suggests that too much interference by politicians leads to a bureaucracy which is an instrument at the hands of politicians. So, an approach where a balance is maintained will logically follow the passage. Hence, option (A) is correct. (B) is incorrect as it suggests one extreme as the next logical step. This would lead to the bureaucracy becoming an instrument at the hands of politicians.
   (C) is incorrect as it is a generalization of the democracies which cannot be deduced as the next logical step of the argument presented in the passage.
   (D) may sound logically correct but it goes beyond the scope of the passage as no nexus is conveyed by the passage. Hence, cannot be the next logical step of the passage.

   Unattempted
   

   (A) is correct as the passage first conveys how distant the bureaucracy is from the people and suggests that only a democratically elected government”s control can handle this problem. But it also suggests that too much interference by politicians leads to a bureaucracy which is an instrument at the hands of politicians. So, an approach where a balance is maintained will logically follow the passage. Hence, option (A) is correct. (B) is incorrect as it suggests one extreme as the next logical step. This would lead to the bureaucracy becoming an instrument at the hands of politicians.
   (C) is incorrect as it is a generalization of the democracies which cannot be deduced as the next logical step of the argument presented in the passage.
   (D) may sound logically correct but it goes beyond the scope of the passage as no nexus is conveyed by the passage. Hence, cannot be the next logical step of the passage.
4. Question 4 of 80

   4. Question

   What will be the time in the mirror image of the clock when minute hand and hour hand meet for the first time after 12 o” clock?
   (A) 1:05:27
   (B) 10:54:32
   (C) 10:55:32
   (D) 11:55:32

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   After 12 o” clock, the hour hand and minute hand will meet every 720/11 minutes.
   So, (720/11) min = 1 hour 5 min 27 sec
   The clock will read 01:05:27 approx.
   The mirror image will be 10:54:32 approx.

   Unattempted
   

   After 12 o” clock, the hour hand and minute hand will meet every 720/11 minutes.
   So, (720/11) min = 1 hour 5 min 27 sec
   The clock will read 01:05:27 approx.
   The mirror image will be 10:54:32 approx.
5. Question 5 of 80

   5. Question

   In a row of boys, there are 15 boys between Surya and Suraj. Surya is 30th from the left end of the row. If Surya is nearer than Suraj to the right end of the row, then what is the position of Suraj from the left end of the row?
   (A) 13th
   (B) 15th
   (C) 14th
   (D) Data inadequate

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Surya is nearer to the right.
   So, the arrangement can be illustrated as
   Suraj _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Surya
   Surya is 30th from the left.
   _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _Suraj_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Surya
   So, Suraj is 14th from the left end.

   Unattempted
   

   Surya is nearer to the right.
   So, the arrangement can be illustrated as
   Suraj _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Surya
   Surya is 30th from the left.
   _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _Suraj_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Surya
   So, Suraj is 14th from the left end.
6. Question 6 of 80

   6. Question

   Find the number of ways of arranging the letters of the word “MATERIAL” such that all the vowels in the word are to come together?
   (A) 2400
   (B) 1440
   (C) 2100
   (D) 180

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   In the word, “MATERIAL” there is three vowels A, I, E.
   If all the vowels are together, the arrangement is MTRL”AAEI”.
   Consider AAEI as one unit. The arrangement is as follows.
   M T R L A A E I
   The above 5 items can be arranged in 5! ways and AAEI can be arranged among themselves in 4!/2! ways.
   Number of required ways of arranging the above letters
   = 5! * 4!/2!
   = (120 * 24)/2 = 1440 ways.

   Unattempted
   

   In the word, “MATERIAL” there is three vowels A, I, E.
   If all the vowels are together, the arrangement is MTRL”AAEI”.
   Consider AAEI as one unit. The arrangement is as follows.
   M T R L A A E I
   The above 5 items can be arranged in 5! ways and AAEI can be arranged among themselves in 4!/2! ways.
   Number of required ways of arranging the above letters
   = 5! * 4!/2!
   = (120 * 24)/2 = 1440 ways.
7. Question 7 of 80

   7. Question

   How many 4 digit even number can formed by using the digits 1,3,7 and 8 only once ?
   (A) 24
   (B) 12
   (C) 6
   (D) 8

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   To be an even number, the units digit has to even number, in this case only 8 should come in the unit”s place.
   Thus, remaining places can be filled by remaining three numbers in 3! Ways or 6 ways.

   Unattempted
   

   To be an even number, the units digit has to even number, in this case only 8 should come in the unit”s place.
   Thus, remaining places can be filled by remaining three numbers in 3! Ways or 6 ways.
8. Question 8 of 80

   8. Question

   There are 15 students in art class and 37 students in dance class and 12 students are enrolled in both activities. When two classes meet at different hours find the number of students, who are either in art class or in dance class.
   (A) 40
   (B) 52
   (C) 45
   (D) 56

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Unattempted
   
9. Question 9 of 80

   9. Question

   Sonu is brother of Neeraj. Neeraj is father of Rocky. Rocky is son of Puja. In term of relationship what is Sonu of Puja?
   (A) Husband
   (B) Brother
   (C) Brother-in-law
   (D) Father

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Sonu is brother of Neeraj and Neeraj is father of Rocky. So, Sonu is uncle of Rocky.
   Now, Puja is mother of Rocky, So, Sonu is brother-in-law of Puja.

   Unattempted
   

   Sonu is brother of Neeraj and Neeraj is father of Rocky. So, Sonu is uncle of Rocky.
   Now, Puja is mother of Rocky, So, Sonu is brother-in-law of Puja.
10. Question 10 of 80

    10. Question

    The ratio of the CP and SP of an item is 10:11. What is the gain percent?
    (A) 15%
    (B) 10%
    (C) 20%
    (D) 25%

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Let profit% be x
    Profit = SP-CP
    Given, CP/SP=10/11
    =>SP/CP=11/10
    profit%
    = Profit/CP×100
    Profit%
    = (SP-CP)/CP×100
    =(SP/CP-1)×100
    x = (11/10-1)×100
    x = 1/10×100=10%

    Unattempted
    

    Let profit% be x
    Profit = SP-CP
    Given, CP/SP=10/11
    =>SP/CP=11/10
    profit%
    = Profit/CP×100
    Profit%
    = (SP-CP)/CP×100
    =(SP/CP-1)×100
    x = (11/10-1)×100
    x = 1/10×100=10%
11. Question 11 of 80

    11. Question

    Rajeev put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M.?
    (A) South-East
    (B) South
    (C) North
    (D) West

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
12. Question 12 of 80

    12. Question

    Three papers set Times of India, The Hindu, and Hindustan containing 120, 220 and 300 papers respectively. These papers have to stack in such a way that all the papers are stored name wise in room and height of each stack is same. Then total number of stacks will be.
    (A) 21
    (B) 32
    (C) 26
    (D) 20

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Firstly, find the HCF of 120, 220 and 300
    = prime factors of 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
    = prime factor of 220 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 11
    = prime factor of 300 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 5
    So, HCF = 2 × 2 × 5 = 20
    Therefore, we make stack of 20 papers each Number of stack = = 120/20 + 220/20 + 300/20 = 6 +11 +15=32

    Unattempted
    

    Firstly, find the HCF of 120, 220 and 300
    = prime factors of 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
    = prime factor of 220 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 11
    = prime factor of 300 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 5
    So, HCF = 2 × 2 × 5 = 20
    Therefore, we make stack of 20 papers each Number of stack = = 120/20 + 220/20 + 300/20 = 6 +11 +15=32
13. Question 13 of 80

    13. Question

    Direction
    Read the following information and answer the following questions given below it:
    “P + Q” means P is father of Q
    “P – Q” means P is mother of Q
    “P @ Q” means P is bother of Q
    “P $ Q” means P is sister of Q
    “P % Q” means P is son of Q
    In P – Q + R @ S, how P is related to S?
    (A) Mother
    (B) Grandmother
    (C) Grandfather
    (D) Father

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Here, P – Q means P is mother of Q, and Q + R means Q is father of R implies that P is maternal grandmother of R. R @ S implies R is brother of S, implies that P is maternal grandmother of S also.

    Unattempted
    

    Here, P – Q means P is mother of Q, and Q + R means Q is father of R implies that P is maternal grandmother of R. R @ S implies R is brother of S, implies that P is maternal grandmother of S also.
14. Question 14 of 80

    14. Question

    Direction
    Read the following information and answer the following questions given below it:
    “P + Q” means P is father of Q
    “P – Q” means P is mother of Q
    “P @ Q” means P is bother of Q
    “P $ Q” means P is sister of Q
    “P % Q” means P is son of Q
    Which of the following express P is maternal Grandfather of T?
    (A) P + Q – R @ S $ T
    (B) P – Q + R @ S $ T
    (C) Q + P – R @ S $ T
    (D) R – P + Q @ S $ T

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
15. Question 15 of 80

    15. Question

    Consider the word MALAYALAM. Whichever way you read it, from left to right or from right to left, you get the same word. Such a word is known as palindrome. Find the maximum possible number of 7-letter palindromes.
    (A) 26! × 7
    (B) 26! × 4
    (C) 267
    (D) 264

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
16. Question 16 of 80

    16. Question

    Suppose 5 students are staying in a hall in a hostel and they are allotted 5 beds. Among them, Paresh does not want a bed next to Anjum because Anjum snores. Then, in how many ways can you allot the beds?
    (A) 5!
    (B) 5 × 3!
    (C) 72
    (D) 3× 5!

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Suppose Anjum is allotted one of the beds numbered 2, 3 or 4.
    Paresh cannot be allotted the beds on the right-hand side and left-hand side of Anjum”s bed.
    For example, if Anjum is allotted bed number 2, beds numbered 1 or 3 cannot be allotted to Paresh.
    Therefore, Paresh can be allotted a bed in 2 ways in all these cases. After allotting a bed to Paresh, the other 3 can be allotted a bed in 3! Ways.
    Therefore, in each of these cases, the beds can be allotted 2 × 3! = 12 ways.
    => The beds can be allotted in (2 × 18 + 3 × 12)
    =72 = 72 ways.

    Unattempted
    

    Suppose Anjum is allotted one of the beds numbered 2, 3 or 4.
    Paresh cannot be allotted the beds on the right-hand side and left-hand side of Anjum”s bed.
    For example, if Anjum is allotted bed number 2, beds numbered 1 or 3 cannot be allotted to Paresh.
    Therefore, Paresh can be allotted a bed in 2 ways in all these cases. After allotting a bed to Paresh, the other 3 can be allotted a bed in 3! Ways.
    Therefore, in each of these cases, the beds can be allotted 2 × 3! = 12 ways.
    => The beds can be allotted in (2 × 18 + 3 × 12)
    =72 = 72 ways.
17. Question 17 of 80

    17. Question

    AA3=ABBA, where A and B are distinct digits with B being odd. Find the value of B.
    (A) 7
    (B) 3
    (C) 2
    (D) 1

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Check the digits, 1, 2, 3, 4, …. 9.
    11 × 11 × 11 = 1331 (Valid choice, keep note of it)
    22 × 22 × 22 = 10,648 (Not valid, only 4digit number)
    And for the next number result is 5 digit number.
    So we see that, only 11 × 11 × 11 = 1331 satisfy the criteria.
    Hence, B = 3.

    Unattempted
    

    Check the digits, 1, 2, 3, 4, …. 9.
    11 × 11 × 11 = 1331 (Valid choice, keep note of it)
    22 × 22 × 22 = 10,648 (Not valid, only 4digit number)
    And for the next number result is 5 digit number.
    So we see that, only 11 × 11 × 11 = 1331 satisfy the criteria.
    Hence, B = 3.
18. Question 18 of 80

    18. Question

    A and B are playing mathematical puzzles. A asks B “which whole numbers, greater than one, can divide all the nine three digit numbers 111,222,333,444,555,666, 777, 888 and 999?” B immediately gave the desired answer.
    It was
    (A) 3, 37 and 119
    (B) 9, 37 and 111
    (C) 3, 37 and 111
    (D) None of these

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Each of the number can be written as a multiple of 111.
    The factors of 111 are 3 and 37
    Thus, the desired answer is 3, 37 and 111.

    Unattempted
    

    Each of the number can be written as a multiple of 111.
    The factors of 111 are 3 and 37
    Thus, the desired answer is 3, 37 and 111.
19. Question 19 of 80

    19. Question

    The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 11. If 45 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. Find the number.
    (A) 65
    (B) 56
    (C) 38
    (D) 74

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Given
    x + y = 11………(i)
    10x + y + 45 = 10y + x ………..(ii)
    From equation (i) and (ii), we get
    x = 3 and y =8
    So, the number is 38.

    Unattempted
    

    Given
    x + y = 11………(i)
    10x + y + 45 = 10y + x ………..(ii)
    From equation (i) and (ii), we get
    x = 3 and y =8
    So, the number is 38.
20. Question 20 of 80

    20. Question

    A man completes a journey in 11 hrs. He travels first half of journey at the rate of 12 km/h and the second half at the rate of 10 km/h. Find the total journey in km.
    (A) 120 km
    (B) 60 km
    (C) 180 km
    (D) 90 km

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
21. Question 21 of 80

    21. Question

    The ratio of Rajesh”s age 3 years ago and Vishal”s age after 3 years is 1:1. Presently, the ratio of their ages is 3:2. Find the ratio between Rajesh”s age 3 years. hence and Vishal”s age 3 years ago.
    (A) 4: 3
    (B) 3: 4
    (C) 3: 7
    (D) 7: 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
22. Question 22 of 80

    22. Question

    Out of the four annual examinations, each with a total of 200 marks, a student secured average marks of 45%, 50% and 55% in the first, second and third annual examinations. To have an overall average of 60%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the fourth annual examination?
    (A) 160
    (B) 170
    (C) 180
    (D) 190

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
23. Question 23 of 80

    23. Question

    If the HCF of two numbers (each greater than 15) be 15 and LCM be 315, then the sum of numbers will be
    (A) 135
    (B) 153
    (C) 253
    (D) 235

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Let the number be 15a and 15b, then using the product of numbers
    = LCM × HCF
    =15a ×15b = 315 × 15
    = a × b= 21
    21 = 3 × 7 so, numbers can be 15 × 3, 15 × 7
    Sum =45 + 108= 153

    Unattempted
    

    Let the number be 15a and 15b, then using the product of numbers
    = LCM × HCF
    =15a ×15b = 315 × 15
    = a × b= 21
    21 = 3 × 7 so, numbers can be 15 × 3, 15 × 7
    Sum =45 + 108= 153
24. Question 24 of 80

    24. Question

    Consider the following and answer the questions based on it.
    Aayush”s playing schedule consists of Cricket, Hockey, Soccer, Tennis, and Volleyball from Monday to Saturday; each game is on one day, one day being a rest day.
    Cricket is played neither on the first day nor on last day but is played earlier than Tennis.
    Volleyball is played on the immediate next day of the tennis day.
    Hockey is played on the immediate previous day of the rest day.
    Volleyball and Soccer were played with a 2-day gap between them.
    Soccer is played on the day following the rest day.
    Which of the following is a rest day?
    (A) Wednesday
    (B) Thursday
    (C) Tuesday
    (D) Friday

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
25. Question 25 of 80

    25. Question

    Consider the following and answer the questions based on it.
    Aayush”s playing schedule consists of Cricket, Hockey, Soccer, Tennis, and Volleyball from Monday to Saturday; each game is on one day, one day being a rest day.
    Cricket is played neither on the first day nor on last day but is played earlier than Tennis.
    Volleyball is played on the immediate next day of the tennis day.
    Hockey is played on the immediate previous day of the rest day.
    Volleyball and Soccer were played with a 2-day gap between them.
    Soccer is played on the day following the rest day.
    Hockey and Volleyball days have a gap of how many days between them?
    (A) Two
    (B) Three
    (C) Four
    (D) Nil

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
26. Question 26 of 80

    26. Question

    Consider the following and answer the questions based on it.
    Aayush”s playing schedule consists of Cricket, Hockey, Soccer, Tennis, and Volleyball from Monday to Saturday; each game is on one day, one day being a rest day.
    Cricket is played neither on the first day nor on last day but is played earlier than Tennis.
    Volleyball is played on the immediate next day of the tennis day.
    Hockey is played on the immediate previous day of the rest day.
    Volleyball and Soccer were played with a 2-day gap between them.
    Soccer is played on the day following the rest day.
    On which day is soccer played?
    (A) Wednesday
    (B) Tuesday
    (C) Thursday
    (D) Friday

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
27. Question 27 of 80

    27. Question

    Consider the following and answer the questions based on it.
    Aayush”s playing schedule consists of Cricket, Hockey, Soccer, Tennis, and Volleyball from Monday to Saturday; each game is on one day, one day being a rest day.
    Cricket is played neither on the first day nor on last day but is played earlier than Tennis.
    Volleyball is played on the immediate next day of the tennis day.
    Hockey is played on the immediate previous day of the rest day.
    Volleyball and Soccer were played with a 2-day gap between them.
    Soccer is played on the day following the rest day.
    Which of the following is a correct statement?
    (A) Cricket is played immediate previous day of Tennis
    (B) Volleyball is played 4 days after the day on which Soccer was played
    (C) There is a gap of 2 days between the days on which Hockey and Tennis are played.
    (D) There is a 2 days” gap between the rest day and the day on which Cricket is played.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
28. Question 28 of 80

    28. Question

    If x $ y = (x + y + xy –1) (x + y + xy +1),
    then the value of (5 $ 10) is.
    (A) 4422
    (B) 4224
    (C) 4242
    (D) 4142

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    As per the definition of $, (5$10) would be (5 + 10 + 5 × 10 – 1) (5 + 10 + 5 × 10 + 1)
    = 4224. So, answer is (A)

    Unattempted
    

    As per the definition of $, (5$10) would be (5 + 10 + 5 × 10 – 1) (5 + 10 + 5 × 10 + 1)
    = 4224. So, answer is (A)
29. Question 29 of 80

    29. Question

    Direction for following items :
    There are eight friends namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Moreover, each of them likes a different car, viz Ferrari, Volkswagen, Fiat, Safari, Scorpio, Mercedes, Ambassador and Duster, but not necessarily in the same order.
    F, who likes Ferrari, cannot be an immediate neighbour of C. E does not like Scorpio.
    C sits second to the right of A and he likes Duster. There are only two persons between A and D.
    E and G are immediate neighbours, while D and F are also immediate neighbours. B, who likes Fiat, sits third to the left of F.
    G does not like Mercedes or Scorpio. D sits third to the left of G.
    The person who likes Ambassador is sitting between the person who likes Fiat and Duster. H likes Safari and is on the immediate right of the person who likes Ferrari.
    D likes which of the following car?
    (A) Scorpio
    (B) Ambassador
    (C) Safari
    (D) Volkswagen

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
30. Question 30 of 80

    30. Question

    Direction for following items :
    There are eight friends namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Moreover, each of them likes a different car, viz Ferrari, Volkswagen, Fiat, Safari, Scorpio, Mercedes, Ambassador and Duster, but not necessarily in the same order.
    F, who likes Ferrari, cannot be an immediate neighbour of C. E does not like Scorpio.
    C sits second to the right of A and he likes Duster. There are only two persons between A and D.
    E and G are immediate neighbours, while D and F are also immediate neighbours. B, who likes Fiat, sits third to the left of F.
    G does not like Mercedes or Scorpio. D sits third to the left of G.
    The person who likes Ambassador is sitting between the person who likes Fiat and Duster. H likes Safari and is on the immediate right of the person who likes Ferrari.
    How many persons are sitting between C and E, when counted in the clockwise direction from C?
    (A) One
    (B) Two
    (C) Three
    (D) Four

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
31. Question 31 of 80

    31. Question

    Direction for following items :
    There are eight friends namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Moreover, each of them likes a different car, viz Ferrari, Volkswagen, Fiat, Safari, Scorpio, Mercedes, Ambassador and Duster, but not necessarily in the same order.
    F, who likes Ferrari, cannot be an immediate neighbour of C. E does not like Scorpio.
    C sits second to the right of A and he likes Duster. There are only two persons between A and D.
    E and G are immediate neighbours, while D and F are also immediate neighbours. B, who likes Fiat, sits third to the left of F.
    G does not like Mercedes or Scorpio. D sits third to the left of G.
    The person who likes Ambassador is sitting between the person who likes Fiat and Duster. H likes Safari and is on the immediate right of the person who likes Ferrari.
    “Mercedes” is liked by who among the following?
    (A) E
    (B) A
    (C) G
    (D) D

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
32. Question 32 of 80

    32. Question

    Direction for following items :
    There are eight friends namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Moreover, each of them likes a different car, viz Ferrari, Volkswagen, Fiat, Safari, Scorpio, Mercedes, Ambassador and Duster, but not necessarily in the same order.
    F, who likes Ferrari, cannot be an immediate neighbour of C. E does not like Scorpio.
    C sits second to the right of A and he likes Duster. There are only two persons between A and D.
    E and G are immediate neighbours, while D and F are also immediate neighbours. B, who likes Fiat, sits third to the left of F.
    G does not like Mercedes or Scorpio. D sits third to the left of G.
    The person who likes Ambassador is sitting between the person who likes Fiat and Duster. H likes Safari and is on the immediate right of the person who likes Ferrari.
    If “Ferrari” is related to “Scorpio” in a certain way and `Duster” is related to “Volkswagen” in the same way, which of the following is “Fiat” related to, following the same way?
    (A) Volkswagen
    (B) Fiat
    (C) Ambassador
    (D) Safari

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
33. Question 33 of 80

    33. Question

    Direction for following items :
    There are eight friends namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Moreover, each of them likes a different car, viz Ferrari, Volkswagen, Fiat, Safari, Scorpio, Mercedes, Ambassador and Duster, but not necessarily in the same order.
    F, who likes Ferrari, cannot be an immediate neighbour of C. E does not like Scorpio.
    C sits second to the right of A and he likes Duster. There are only two persons between A and D.
    E and G are immediate neighbours, while D and F are also immediate neighbours. B, who likes Fiat, sits third to the left of F.
    G does not like Mercedes or Scorpio. D sits third to the left of G.
    The person who likes Ambassador is sitting between the person who likes Fiat and Duster. H likes Safari and is on the immediate right of the person who likes Ferrari.
    G likes which of the following car?
    (A) Duster
    (B) Scorpio
    (C) Mercedes
    (D) Volkswagen

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
34. Question 34 of 80

    34. Question

    Direction for following items :
    In a family there are seven children. In which A, B and C are male while W, X, Y and Z are female.
    There is only one carrom board in this family and children want to play. For each game they select a team in which two male children are must. All children must be able to play with each other. But, B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z and W cannot play with Y.
    If Y is selected and B is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups?
    (A) A, C, W and Y
    (B) A, C, X and Y
    (C) A, C, Y and Z
    (D) A, W, Y and Z

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Two male children and B isn”t playing. So, A and C are must in team and Y is selected so Z mustn”t be in team because C can”t play with her. So, X is the fourth member of the team.

    Unattempted
    

    Two male children and B isn”t playing. So, A and C are must in team and Y is selected so Z mustn”t be in team because C can”t play with her. So, X is the fourth member of the team.
35. Question 35 of 80

    35. Question

    Direction for following items :
    In a family there are seven children. In which A, B and C are male while W, X, Y and Z are female.
    There is only one carrom board in this family and children want to play. For each game they select a team in which two male children are must. All children must be able to play with each other. But, B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z and W cannot play with Y.
    If B is selected and Y is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups?
    (A) A, B, C and W
    (B) A, B, C and Z
    (C) A, B, C and X
    (D) A, W, Y and Z

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    If B is selected then W can”t be selected and if C is playing then Z mustn”t play. So, the team will be A, B, C and X.

    Unattempted
    

    If B is selected then W can”t be selected and if C is playing then Z mustn”t play. So, the team will be A, B, C and X.
36. Question 36 of 80

    36. Question

    Direction for following items :
    In a family there are seven children. In which A, B and C are male while W, X, Y and Z are female.
    There is only one carrom board in this family and children want to play. For each game they select a team in which two male children are must. All children must be able to play with each other. But, B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z and W cannot play with Y.
    If all the three males are selected, then how many combinations of teams are possible?
    (A) 1
    (B) 2
    (C) 3
    (D) 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    If B plays W mustn”t play and C plays then Z mustn”t play. So there is two possible teams (A, B, C and X) and (A, B, C and Y).

    Unattempted
    

    If B plays W mustn”t play and C plays then Z mustn”t play. So there is two possible teams (A, B, C and X) and (A, B, C and Y).
37. Question 37 of 80

    37. Question

    Despite the best efforts of those responsible for preventing fraud, one inevitable reality remains: “fraud happens.” Because fraud and misconduct can occur at various levels in any organization, it is essential that appropriate preventive and detective techniques are in place. Although fraud prevention and detection are related concepts, they are not the same. While prevention encompasses policies, procedures, training, and communication, detection involves activities and programs designed to identify fraud or misconduct that is occurring or has occurred. Although preventive measures cannot ensure that fraud will not be committed, they are the first line of defence in minimizing fraud risk.
    According to the passage, what is the fundamental difference between fraud prevention and fraud detection?
    (A) Background checks should also be performed on new and existing suppliers, customers, and business partners to identify any issues of financial health, ownership, reputation, and integrity that may represent an unacceptable risk to the business.
    (B) Prevention means to stop something from happening, while detection means to figure out the cause of an action.
    (C) Prevention is not to allow data exchange and detection is to identify the problem.
    (D) Prevention encompasses policies, procedures, training, and communication, detection involves activities and programs designed to identify fraud.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    It is mentioned in the passage that prevention encompasses policies, procedures, training, and communication, while detection involves activities and programs designed to identify fraud.

    Unattempted
    

    It is mentioned in the passage that prevention encompasses policies, procedures, training, and communication, while detection involves activities and programs designed to identify fraud.
38. Question 38 of 80

    38. Question

    Cyber Security or Information technology security means protecting data, networks, programs and other information from unauthorized or unintended access, destruction or change. It encompasses all the mechanisms and processes that protect digital equipment, information and records from illegal or unintended access, manipulation or destruction. In today”s dynamic environment, cyber security has become vital for individuals and families, as well as organizations (such as military, government, business houses, educational and financial institutions, corporations and others) that collect and store a wide range of confidential data on computers and transmit that to other computers across different networks. For families, protection of children and family members from cybercrime has become substantially important. For an individual, protecting information that could impact social life as well as personal finance is essential. The internet has provided a wide array of learning opportunities, but there are risks too. Photos, videos and other personal information shared by an individual on social networking sites such as Facebook, Twitter can be inappropriately used by others may lead to serious and even lifethreatening incidents. Social networking sites have become the most popular medium for sharing information and connecting with other people. But these sites have created varied opportunities for cybercrimes, compromised personal identities and information leakage. Therefore, it is important for individuals to understand how to protect against cyber threats, and must also comprehend the difference between virtual and real world. One should learn how to protect computers and personal information from being hacked and should engage in appropriate online behaviour in order to eliminate changes of cyber threats and thereby creating a safer online environment.
    According to the author what does the cyber security means?
    (A) Cyber Security means the dispersion of important data and devise a structural engineering that allow easy flow of information.
    (B) Cyber Security means protecting data, networks, programs and other information from unauthorized or unintended access, destruction or change.
    (C) Cyber Security means the blocking of all the websites that are available in free domain.
    (D) Cyber Security means the Hacking of important data, network outages, computer viruses and other cyber related threats affect our lives that range from minor inconvenience to serious incidents.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    It is mentioned in the passage that Cyber Security means protecting data, networks, programs and other information from unauthorized or unintended access, destruction or change.

    Unattempted
    

    It is mentioned in the passage that Cyber Security means protecting data, networks, programs and other information from unauthorized or unintended access, destruction or change.
39. Question 39 of 80

    39. Question

    Cyber Security or Information technology security means protecting data, networks, programs and other information from unauthorized or unintended access, destruction or change. It encompasses all the mechanisms and processes that protect digital equipment, information and records from illegal or unintended access, manipulation or destruction. In today”s dynamic environment, cyber security has become vital for individuals and families, as well as organizations (such as military, government, business houses, educational and financial institutions, corporations and others) that collect and store a wide range of confidential data on computers and transmit that to other computers across different networks. For families, protection of children and family members from cybercrime has become substantially important. For an individual, protecting information that could impact social life as well as personal finance is essential. The internet has provided a wide array of learning opportunities, but there are risks too. Photos, videos and other personal information shared by an individual on social networking sites such as Facebook, Twitter can be inappropriately used by others may lead to serious and even lifethreatening incidents. Social networking sites have become the most popular medium for sharing information and connecting with other people. But these sites have created varied opportunities for cybercrimes, compromised personal identities and information leakage. Therefore, it is important for individuals to understand how to protect against cyber threats, and must also comprehend the difference between virtual and real world. One should learn how to protect computers and personal information from being hacked and should engage in appropriate online behaviour in order to eliminate changes of cyber threats and thereby creating a safer online environment.
    What is the downside of Social media, according to the author?
    (A) the long hours usage of social media could affect an individual mentally and become the victim of depression.
    (B) by sharing sensitive information, one can be vulnerable to sudden outburst of emotions.
    (C) information shared by an individual for socializing purposes can be distorted and can be used for malignant purpose.
    (D) the social media owners can steal the information and sell this information for monetary purposes.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    information shared by an individual for socializing purposes can be distorted and can be used for malignant purpose.

    Unattempted
    

    information shared by an individual for socializing purposes can be distorted and can be used for malignant purpose.
40. Question 40 of 80

    40. Question

    On a personal level, winning doesn”t mean the other guy has to lose. As former P&G brand manager Bruce Miller put in, “It”s not a zero-sum game. It”s more like golf than tennis, you are playing against yourself and the course, not the guy across the net or in the next office. Play your best game and, if it”s good enough, you”ll be a winner. You might not achieve the specific goal you have set, but the company is big enough and flexible enough to move you up and onward in a way that suits your talents. That”s winning.” Miller remembers the story of an assistant brand manager who, by his own account, was achieving great things and looked as if he had the world by the tail. At about the time his “class” was ready to go out on sales training, he had a closed-door meeting with his boss. His peers assumed he was the first to get the nod. It turned out his performance had all along been more flash than substance, and the meeting with his boss was to discuss other career alternatives inside or outside the company. Miller is convinced that the moral of the story is that winning is all about your own performance and not about keeping up with what the other guy seems to be doing.
    What does Miller mean when he says that winning is not “a zero sum game”?
    (A) It does not mean that the other guy has to lose.
    (B) You are playing against yourself.
    (C) It”s more like golf than tennis.
    (D) The company is big enough to move you up.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Refer the third sentence of the first paragraph “It”s more like golf than tennis, you are playing against yourself and the course, not the guy across the net or in the next office.”

    Unattempted
    

    Refer the third sentence of the first paragraph “It”s more like golf than tennis, you are playing against yourself and the course, not the guy across the net or in the next office.”
41. Question 41 of 80

    41. Question

    On a personal level, winning doesn”t mean the other guy has to lose. As former P&G brand manager Bruce Miller put in, “It”s not a zero-sum game. It”s more like golf than tennis, you are playing against yourself and the course, not the guy across the net or in the next office. Play your best game and, if it”s good enough, you”ll be a winner. You might not achieve the specific goal you have set, but the company is big enough and flexible enough to move you up and onward in a way that suits your talents. That”s winning.” Miller remembers the story of an assistant brand manager who, by his own account, was achieving great things and looked as if he had the world by the tail. At about the time his “class” was ready to go out on sales training, he had a closed-door meeting with his boss. His peers assumed he was the first to get the nod. It turned out his performance had all along been more flash than substance, and the meeting with his boss was to discuss other career alternatives inside or outside the company. Miller is convinced that the moral of the story is that winning is all about your own performance and not about keeping up with what the other guy seems to be doing.
    By “more flash than substance,” the author means
    (A) the achievement was temporary, not lasting.
    (B) the achievement was more a matter of chance.
    (C) the manager was fooling himself.
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The author means by the phrase “more flash than substance” is that there was no quality.

    Unattempted
    

    The author means by the phrase “more flash than substance” is that there was no quality.
42. Question 42 of 80

    42. Question

    Water plays a versatile role in the functioning of the biosphere. The water cycle has two distinct branches: the atmospheric branch and the terrestrial branch. In the atmosphere, water exists mainly in gaseous form. On the earth, liquid forms and solid forms (ice/snow) predominate.
    Water is important to the biosphere in that it is from water that biosphere draws its most abundant element, hydrogen. Hydrogen in the form of carbohydrates constitutes a very important source of energy for all living things. Although we have plentiful supply of water in the oceans, it is not of direct use to us. We have to depend upon a small stock of water-less than 1% contained in our rivers and fresh water lakes and in the subsoil. Even this small proportion can cause havoc to life if it is not properly managed: the reference here is to loods.
    We return to the subject of loods again since nature”s fury seems still unabated. While relief measures are undoubtedly important, attention has to be focused on the long-term lood control measures. In the past, We had constructed lood moderation reservoirs across catchment areas of rivers, and built 19,260 km of embankments and 27,850 km length of drainage channels. Besides, 18,900 villages have been raised above the lood level up to March 1997.
    The fact is that long-term lood control measures to be effective should include both traditional methods and afforestation measures. The intensity of loods may be reduced by keeping the drainage channels clear and removing the accumulated silt from reservoirs and river beds. In fact, the dams built have trapped silt coming from the hills and prevented its large accumulation in river beds downstream. Hence the new emphasis on building more dams in the northern rivers should be welcomed. The embankments also need to be reinforced. In many places, they are just made of mud and sand and easily breached by a little gush of water. Other improvements should be in the regulation of water discharge from illed reservoirs and in the lood forecasting system. Even the present warning system, though inadequate, has helped to save many valuable lives and property. Since the states have been lethargic in implementing lood control schemes and since most rivers low through many states, it would be better if lood control is handled by the Centre. The mighty Himalayan rivers are unlikely to be tamed unless we have a basic understanding as to how loods originate. Since 1947, Indian and foreign scientists have been repeatedly emphasizing that the volume of water in the Himalayan rivers in the Monsoons is the combined effect of rainfall, snow melt and glacier discharges. Even the irst expert committee set up by Mr. Nehru had opined that a serious study of the snow melt and glacier discharges is essential for avoiding lood disasters in the North. But efforts in this direction, during the last 50 years, have been very inadequate. Now that satellite pictures are available detailing the snow cover in the Himalayas over large areas and their movements, the government would do well to initiate measures to obtain the relevant data from such pictures. Field studies in the Himalayan region would also help lood control measures.
    The author seems to favour:
    (1) traditional methods
    (2) Afforestation
    (3) soil conservation measures
    Codes:
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2
    (C) Only 3
    (D) Only 1 and 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
43. Question 43 of 80

    43. Question

    Water plays a versatile role in the functioning of the biosphere. The water cycle has two distinct branches: the atmospheric branch and the terrestrial branch. In the atmosphere, water exists mainly in gaseous form. On the earth, liquid forms and solid forms (ice/snow) predominate.
    Water is important to the biosphere in that it is from water that biosphere draws its most abundant element, hydrogen. Hydrogen in the form of carbohydrates constitutes a very important source of energy for all living things. Although we have plentiful supply of water in the oceans, it is not of direct use to us. We have to depend upon a small stock of water-less than 1% contained in our rivers and fresh water lakes and in the subsoil. Even this small proportion can cause havoc to life if it is not properly managed: the reference here is to loods.
    We return to the subject of loods again since nature”s fury seems still unabated. While relief measures are undoubtedly important, attention has to be focused on the long-term lood control measures. In the past, We had constructed lood moderation reservoirs across catchment areas of rivers, and built 19,260 km of embankments and 27,850 km length of drainage channels. Besides, 18,900 villages have been raised above the lood level up to March 1997.
    The fact is that long-term lood control measures to be effective should include both traditional methods and afforestation measures. The intensity of loods may be reduced by keeping the drainage channels clear and removing the accumulated silt from reservoirs and river beds. In fact, the dams built have trapped silt coming from the hills and prevented its large accumulation in river beds downstream. Hence the new emphasis on building more dams in the northern rivers should be welcomed. The embankments also need to be reinforced. In many places, they are just made of mud and sand and easily breached by a little gush of water. Other improvements should be in the regulation of water discharge from illed reservoirs and in the lood forecasting system. Even the present warning system, though inadequate, has helped to save many valuable lives and property. Since the states have been lethargic in implementing lood control schemes and since most rivers low through many states, it would be better if lood control is handled by the Centre. The mighty Himalayan rivers are unlikely to be tamed unless we have a basic understanding as to how loods originate. Since 1947, Indian and foreign scientists have been repeatedly emphasizing that the volume of water in the Himalayan rivers in the Monsoons is the combined effect of rainfall, snow melt and glacier discharges. Even the irst expert committee set up by Mr. Nehru had opined that a serious study of the snow melt and glacier discharges is essential for avoiding lood disasters in the North. But efforts in this direction, during the last 50 years, have been very inadequate. Now that satellite pictures are available detailing the snow cover in the Himalayas over large areas and their movements, the government would do well to initiate measures to obtain the relevant data from such pictures. Field studies in the Himalayan region would also help lood control measures.
    Which of the following statement(s) is/are deinitely true in the context of the passage?
    (1) a signiicant proportion of water on the earth is not of direct use to us
    (2) water from rainfall, glaciers and snow-melt do not pose any threat to life and property
    (3) water exists in atmosphere in the same state as is available on the earth
    Codes:
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2
    (C) Only 3
    (D) Only 1 and 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
44. Question 44 of 80

    44. Question

    Water plays a versatile role in the functioning of the biosphere. The water cycle has two distinct branches: the atmospheric branch and the terrestrial branch. In the atmosphere, water exists mainly in gaseous form. On the earth, liquid forms and solid forms (ice/snow) predominate.
    Water is important to the biosphere in that it is from water that biosphere draws its most abundant element, hydrogen. Hydrogen in the form of carbohydrates constitutes a very important source of energy for all living things. Although we have plentiful supply of water in the oceans, it is not of direct use to us. We have to depend upon a small stock of water-less than 1% contained in our rivers and fresh water lakes and in the subsoil. Even this small proportion can cause havoc to life if it is not properly managed: the reference here is to loods.
    We return to the subject of loods again since nature”s fury seems still unabated. While relief measures are undoubtedly important, attention has to be focused on the long-term lood control measures. In the past, We had constructed lood moderation reservoirs across catchment areas of rivers, and built 19,260 km of embankments and 27,850 km length of drainage channels. Besides, 18,900 villages have been raised above the lood level up to March 1997.
    The fact is that long-term lood control measures to be effective should include both traditional methods and afforestation measures. The intensity of loods may be reduced by keeping the drainage channels clear and removing the accumulated silt from reservoirs and river beds. In fact, the dams built have trapped silt coming from the hills and prevented its large accumulation in river beds downstream. Hence the new emphasis on building more dams in the northern rivers should be welcomed. The embankments also need to be reinforced. In many places, they are just made of mud and sand and easily breached by a little gush of water. Other improvements should be in the regulation of water discharge from illed reservoirs and in the lood forecasting system. Even the present warning system, though inadequate, has helped to save many valuable lives and property. Since the states have been lethargic in implementing lood control schemes and since most rivers low through many states, it would be better if lood control is handled by the Centre. The mighty Himalayan rivers are unlikely to be tamed unless we have a basic understanding as to how loods originate. Since 1947, Indian and foreign scientists have been repeatedly emphasizing that the volume of water in the Himalayan rivers in the Monsoons is the combined effect of rainfall, snow melt and glacier discharges. Even the irst expert committee set up by Mr. Nehru had opined that a serious study of the snow melt and glacier discharges is essential for avoiding lood disasters in the North. But efforts in this direction, during the last 50 years, have been very inadequate. Now that satellite pictures are available detailing the snow cover in the Himalayas over large areas and their movements, the government would do well to initiate measures to obtain the relevant data from such pictures. Field studies in the Himalayan region would also help lood control measures.
    The dificulty in controlling Himalayan rivers is:
    (A) inadequate number of dams
    (B) inadequate number of reservoirs in catchment areas of rivers.
    (C) inadequate length of drainage channels.
    (D) lack of knowledge of snow melt and glacier discharges.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
45. Question 45 of 80

    45. Question

    Water plays a versatile role in the functioning of the biosphere. The water cycle has two distinct branches: the atmospheric branch and the terrestrial branch. In the atmosphere, water exists mainly in gaseous form. On the earth, liquid forms and solid forms (ice/snow) predominate.
    Water is important to the biosphere in that it is from water that biosphere draws its most abundant element, hydrogen. Hydrogen in the form of carbohydrates constitutes a very important source of energy for all living things. Although we have plentiful supply of water in the oceans, it is not of direct use to us. We have to depend upon a small stock of water-less than 1% contained in our rivers and fresh water lakes and in the subsoil. Even this small proportion can cause havoc to life if it is not properly managed: the reference here is to loods.
    We return to the subject of loods again since nature”s fury seems still unabated. While relief measures are undoubtedly important, attention has to be focused on the long-term lood control measures. In the past, We had constructed lood moderation reservoirs across catchment areas of rivers, and built 19,260 km of embankments and 27,850 km length of drainage channels. Besides, 18,900 villages have been raised above the lood level up to March 1997.
    The fact is that long-term lood control measures to be effective should include both traditional methods and afforestation measures. The intensity of loods may be reduced by keeping the drainage channels clear and removing the accumulated silt from reservoirs and river beds. In fact, the dams built have trapped silt coming from the hills and prevented its large accumulation in river beds downstream. Hence the new emphasis on building more dams in the northern rivers should be welcomed. The embankments also need to be reinforced. In many places, they are just made of mud and sand and easily breached by a little gush of water. Other improvements should be in the regulation of water discharge from illed reservoirs and in the lood forecasting system. Even the present warning system, though inadequate, has helped to save many valuable lives and property. Since the states have been lethargic in implementing lood control schemes and since most rivers low through many states, it would be better if lood control is handled by the Centre. The mighty Himalayan rivers are unlikely to be tamed unless we have a basic understanding as to how loods originate. Since 1947, Indian and foreign scientists have been repeatedly emphasizing that the volume of water in the Himalayan rivers in the Monsoons is the combined effect of rainfall, snow melt and glacier discharges. Even the irst expert committee set up by Mr. Nehru had opined that a serious study of the snow melt and glacier discharges is essential for avoiding lood disasters in the North. But efforts in this direction, during the last 50 years, have been very inadequate. Now that satellite pictures are available detailing the snow cover in the Himalayas over large areas and their movements, the government would do well to initiate measures to obtain the relevant data from such pictures. Field studies in the Himalayan region would also help lood control measures.
    The author welcomes building dams in the northern rivers because they:
    (A) prevent trapping the silt coming from the hills
    (B) store water for irrigation
    (C) store water for power generation
    (D) store water for navigation

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
46. Question 46 of 80

    46. Question

    Water plays a versatile role in the functioning of the biosphere. The water cycle has two distinct branches: the atmospheric branch and the terrestrial branch. In the atmosphere, water exists mainly in gaseous form. On the earth, liquid forms and solid forms (ice/snow) predominate.
    Water is important to the biosphere in that it is from water that biosphere draws its most abundant element, hydrogen. Hydrogen in the form of carbohydrates constitutes a very important source of energy for all living things. Although we have plentiful supply of water in the oceans, it is not of direct use to us. We have to depend upon a small stock of water-less than 1% contained in our rivers and fresh water lakes and in the subsoil. Even this small proportion can cause havoc to life if it is not properly managed: the reference here is to loods.
    We return to the subject of loods again since nature”s fury seems still unabated. While relief measures are undoubtedly important, attention has to be focused on the long-term lood control measures. In the past, We had constructed lood moderation reservoirs across catchment areas of rivers, and built 19,260 km of embankments and 27,850 km length of drainage channels. Besides, 18,900 villages have been raised above the lood level up to March 1997.
    The fact is that long-term lood control measures to be effective should include both traditional methods and afforestation measures. The intensity of loods may be reduced by keeping the drainage channels clear and removing the accumulated silt from reservoirs and river beds. In fact, the dams built have trapped silt coming from the hills and prevented its large accumulation in river beds downstream. Hence the new emphasis on building more dams in the northern rivers should be welcomed. The embankments also need to be reinforced. In many places, they are just made of mud and sand and easily breached by a little gush of water. Other improvements should be in the regulation of water discharge from illed reservoirs and in the lood forecasting system. Even the present warning system, though inadequate, has helped to save many valuable lives and property. Since the states have been lethargic in implementing lood control schemes and since most rivers low through many states, it would be better if lood control is handled by the Centre. The mighty Himalayan rivers are unlikely to be tamed unless we have a basic understanding as to how loods originate. Since 1947, Indian and foreign scientists have been repeatedly emphasizing that the volume of water in the Himalayan rivers in the Monsoons is the combined effect of rainfall, snow melt and glacier discharges. Even the irst expert committee set up by Mr. Nehru had opined that a serious study of the snow melt and glacier discharges is essential for avoiding lood disasters in the North. But efforts in this direction, during the last 50 years, have been very inadequate. Now that satellite pictures are available detailing the snow cover in the Himalayas over large areas and their movements, the government would do well to initiate measures to obtain the relevant data from such pictures. Field studies in the Himalayan region would also help lood control measures.
    Which of the following is a new suggestion of the author?
    (A) water discharge should be regulated
    (B) the drainage channels should be cleared up
    (C) the reservoirs built across the catchments areas of rivers should be desalted
    (D) the river beds should be desilted

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
47. Question 47 of 80

    47. Question

    Directions for the following question:
    Seven specialist doctors B, M, K, P, D, F and H visit a polyclinic on four days — Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday and Saturday — in a week. At least one doctor but not more than 2 doctors visits the polyclinic on each of these days.
    Each of them is a specialist in different ields — ENT, Orthopaedics, Paediatrics, Neurology, Ophthalmology, Radiology and Oncology.
    (1) P visits on Friday with Radiologist.
    (2) The Paediatrician does not visit on Saturday nor with D and H.
    (3) The Oncologist F visits alone on Tuesday.
    (4) M visits on Wednesday and he is not Paediatrician.
    (5) K visits on Wednesday. H is not Radiologist.
    (6) The Paediatrician visits with the ENT specialist.
    (7) The Neurologist visits on Friday.
    (8) B is neither Orthopedician nor Radiologist.
    What is the speciality of B?
    (A) Ophthalmology
    (B) ENT
    (C) Paediatrics
    (D) Data inadequate

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
48. Question 48 of 80

    48. Question

    Directions for the following question:
    Seven specialist doctors B, M, K, P, D, F and H visit a polyclinic on four days — Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday and Saturday — in a week. At least one doctor but not more than 2 doctors visits the polyclinic on each of these days.
    Each of them is a specialist in different ields — ENT, Orthopaedics, Paediatrics, Neurology, Ophthalmology, Radiology and Oncology.
    (1) P visits on Friday with Radiologist.
    (2) The Paediatrician does not visit on Saturday nor with D and H.
    (3) The Oncologist F visits alone on Tuesday.
    (4) M visits on Wednesday and he is not Paediatrician.
    (5) K visits on Wednesday. H is not Radiologist.
    (6) The Paediatrician visits with the ENT specialist.
    (7) The Neurologist visits on Friday.
    (8) B is neither Orthopedician nor Radiologist.
    On which day of the week does D visit?
    (A) Wednesday
    (B) Saturday
    (C) Friday
    (D) None of these

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
49. Question 49 of 80

    49. Question

    Directions for the following question:
    Seven specialist doctors B, M, K, P, D, F and H visit a polyclinic on four days — Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday and Saturday — in a week. At least one doctor but not more than 2 doctors visits the polyclinic on each of these days.
    Each of them is a specialist in different ields — ENT, Orthopaedics, Paediatrics, Neurology, Ophthalmology, Radiology and Oncology.
    (1) P visits on Friday with Radiologist.
    (2) The Paediatrician does not visit on Saturday nor with D and H.
    (3) The Oncologist F visits alone on Tuesday.
    (4) M visits on Wednesday and he is not Paediatrician.
    (5) K visits on Wednesday. H is not Radiologist.
    (6) The Paediatrician visits with the ENT specialist.
    (7) The Neurologist visits on Friday.
    (8) B is neither Orthopedician nor Radiologist.
    Who among them visits the polyclinic along with B?
    (A) None
    (B) H
    (C) D
    (D) P

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
50. Question 50 of 80

    50. Question

    Directions for the following question:
    Seven specialist doctors B, M, K, P, D, F and H visit a polyclinic on four days — Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday and Saturday — in a week. At least one doctor but not more than 2 doctors visits the polyclinic on each of these days.
    Each of them is a specialist in different ields — ENT, Orthopaedics, Paediatrics, Neurology, Ophthalmology, Radiology and Oncology.
    (1) P visits on Friday with Radiologist.
    (2) The Paediatrician does not visit on Saturday nor with D and H.
    (3) The Oncologist F visits alone on Tuesday.
    (4) M visits on Wednesday and he is not Paediatrician.
    (5) K visits on Wednesday. H is not Radiologist.
    (6) The Paediatrician visits with the ENT specialist.
    (7) The Neurologist visits on Friday.
    (8) B is neither Orthopedician nor Radiologist.
    On which of the following days do the specialists in Orthopaedics and Ophthalmology visit?
    (A) Wednesday
    (B) Friday
    (C) Saturday
    (D) Data inadequate

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
51. Question 51 of 80

    51. Question

    Directions for the following question:
    Seven specialist doctors B, M, K, P, D, F and H visit a polyclinic on four days — Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday and Saturday — in a week. At least one doctor but not more than 2 doctors visits the polyclinic on each of these days.
    Each of them is a specialist in different ields — ENT, Orthopaedics, Paediatrics, Neurology, Ophthalmology, Radiology and Oncology.
    (1) P visits on Friday with Radiologist.
    (2) The Paediatrician does not visit on Saturday nor with D and H.
    (3) The Oncologist F visits alone on Tuesday.
    (4) M visits on Wednesday and he is not Paediatrician.
    (5) K visits on Wednesday. H is not Radiologist.
    (6) The Paediatrician visits with the ENT specialist.
    (7) The Neurologist visits on Friday.
    (8) B is neither Orthopedician nor Radiologist.
    What is P”s profession?
    (A) Paediatrician
    (B) ENT
    (C) Ophthalmologist
    (D) None of these

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
52. Question 52 of 80

    52. Question

    “Not Religion but religious dogma” leads to conlict, “Religion should graduate into spirituality” These two epigrammatic statements of President Abdul Kalam are worth pondering over. It has been said that more blood has been shed over the cause of religion than any other cause. This is conirmed by what is happening today. It is a paradox that religion is at once a cohesive and divisive force. If religion with its potential for good has turned into a destructive force, it is but a perversion of religion.
    Religion in its deepest sense has laid the foundation of moral order. It has extended the bounds of human sympathy and underscored the values of humanity, charity in the sense of love and tolerance, faith in a transcendental divine order, respect for the sanctity of all forms of life and observance of the decencies of life. The inherent divinity of the human being, universal brotherhood, unity of all faiths, and collective progress and peace – these are basic to all religions and form their core.
    All values advocated by religion are threatened by greed, violence, exploitation, competitive religion, consumerism, commercialization and such forces. It looks as if religion has become its own enemy. Every sphere of human activity from the individual and domestic to the international level is torn with chaos and conlict. “Parents have very little love for each other and in the home begins the disruption of the world” (Mother Teresa).
    The spirit of skepticism generated by science has resulted in an erosion of values. The world is broken into narrow domestic walls. Communities tend to be imprisoned in their watertight compartments bearing the respective labels – religion, caste, race, nation, ideology, etc. The phenomenal growth in knowledge is not matched by a commensurate growth in wisdom which lies in the cultivation of humanizing impulses. “We have grasped the mystery of the atom and rejected the Sermon on the Mount. The world has achieved brilliance without wisdom and power without conscience. We know more about war than about peace, more about killing than about living” (General Omar S. Bradley).
    We boast about our civilization. There is nothing particularly civilized in traveling by plane or living in air conditioned comfort. Speed, quantity, sophisticated lifestyle and bank balance do not make for civilization. Human beings have been described as the elder brothers of the animals and the younger brothers of the gods. Civilization fulils itself when they are elevated from animality to spirituality. Religion and spirituality have their role in this transforming and regenerating process. Their role should be redeined and reformulated in the modern context.
    Religion is awareness: it is wisdom and enlightenment. Bigotry, hatred, dogma, fanatical fury, intolerance and such negative elements are alien to it. “I was born not to share men”s hatred but their love” (Antigone: Sophocles). True religion is free from the trappings of superstition, dogma, ritual, quackery, magic and witchcraft. It is sensitive to social needs. Holiness, purity, charity, human equality, service to human beings, etc., are religious universals and not the prerogative of any one faith.
    Religion and spirituality should not be equated with otherworldliness or ascetic seclusion and escape from life”s realities. They are related to life here and now and provide the guidelines for the art of living. One is most religious and spiritual when one is most human. A Russian peasant remarked at the conclusion of a lecture by Maxim Gorky on the marvels of science: “We are taught to ly in the air like birds and swim in water like ish, but how to live on earth, we do not know.”
    Religions are many, but religion is one. There is no relative superiority of one religion over another. One should go beyond denominational religion to understand religion. What the world needs is a fellowship of faiths on a common march towards a common goal.”“ Man must evolve for all human conlicts a method which rejects revenge, aggression and retaliation. The foundation of such a method is love.” These words of Martin Luther King sum up the essence of religion. The present cancerous growth of hatred and violence can be averted by the inculcation and assimilation of the spirit of religion – religion understood to mean “reinement,” “sweetness and light,” “the culture of the soul,” and “the culture of tolerance.” The question is not, “why religion?” but “what kind of religion?”
    The sentence “religion has become its own enemy” indicates that:
    (A) religion is getting self-destructive
    (B) constituting beliefs are working against the interest of that faith
    (C) religion is breeding people who are opposing the same religion
    (D) religion is eroding values

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
53. Question 53 of 80

    53. Question

    “Not Religion but religious dogma” leads to conlict, “Religion should graduate into spirituality” These two epigrammatic statements of President Abdul Kalam are worth pondering over. It has been said that more blood has been shed over the cause of religion than any other cause. This is conirmed by what is happening today. It is a paradox that religion is at once a cohesive and divisive force. If religion with its potential for good has turned into a destructive force, it is but a perversion of religion.
    Religion in its deepest sense has laid the foundation of moral order. It has extended the bounds of human sympathy and underscored the values of humanity, charity in the sense of love and tolerance, faith in a transcendental divine order, respect for the sanctity of all forms of life and observance of the decencies of life. The inherent divinity of the human being, universal brotherhood, unity of all faiths, and collective progress and peace – these are basic to all religions and form their core.
    All values advocated by religion are threatened by greed, violence, exploitation, competitive religion, consumerism, commercialization and such forces. It looks as if religion has become its own enemy. Every sphere of human activity from the individual and domestic to the international level is torn with chaos and conlict. “Parents have very little love for each other and in the home begins the disruption of the world” (Mother Teresa).
    The spirit of skepticism generated by science has resulted in an erosion of values. The world is broken into narrow domestic walls. Communities tend to be imprisoned in their watertight compartments bearing the respective labels – religion, caste, race, nation, ideology, etc. The phenomenal growth in knowledge is not matched by a commensurate growth in wisdom which lies in the cultivation of humanizing impulses. “We have grasped the mystery of the atom and rejected the Sermon on the Mount. The world has achieved brilliance without wisdom and power without conscience. We know more about war than about peace, more about killing than about living” (General Omar S. Bradley).
    We boast about our civilization. There is nothing particularly civilized in traveling by plane or living in air conditioned comfort. Speed, quantity, sophisticated lifestyle and bank balance do not make for civilization. Human beings have been described as the elder brothers of the animals and the younger brothers of the gods. Civilization fulils itself when they are elevated from animality to spirituality. Religion and spirituality have their role in this transforming and regenerating process. Their role should be redeined and reformulated in the modern context.
    Religion is awareness: it is wisdom and enlightenment. Bigotry, hatred, dogma, fanatical fury, intolerance and such negative elements are alien to it. “I was born not to share men”s hatred but their love” (Antigone: Sophocles). True religion is free from the trappings of superstition, dogma, ritual, quackery, magic and witchcraft. It is sensitive to social needs. Holiness, purity, charity, human equality, service to human beings, etc., are religious universals and not the prerogative of any one faith.
    Religion and spirituality should not be equated with otherworldliness or ascetic seclusion and escape from life”s realities. They are related to life here and now and provide the guidelines for the art of living. One is most religious and spiritual when one is most human. A Russian peasant remarked at the conclusion of a lecture by Maxim Gorky on the marvels of science: “We are taught to ly in the air like birds and swim in water like ish, but how to live on earth, we do not know.”
    Religions are many, but religion is one. There is no relative superiority of one religion over another. One should go beyond denominational religion to understand religion. What the world needs is a fellowship of faiths on a common march towards a common goal.”“ Man must evolve for all human conlicts a method which rejects revenge, aggression and retaliation. The foundation of such a method is love.” These words of Martin Luther King sum up the essence of religion. The present cancerous growth of hatred and violence can be averted by the inculcation and assimilation of the spirit of religion – religion understood to mean “reinement,” “sweetness and light,” “the culture of the soul,” and “the culture of tolerance.” The question is not, “why religion?” but “what kind of religion?”
    The sentence “religion should graduate into spirituality” means:
    (A) people should value spirituality more
    (B) religion should give way to spirituality
    (C) religion should uplift itself to spirituality
    (D) salvation should be the sole aim of religion

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
54. Question 54 of 80

    54. Question

    “Not Religion but religious dogma” leads to conlict, “Religion should graduate into spirituality” These two epigrammatic statements of President Abdul Kalam are worth pondering over. It has been said that more blood has been shed over the cause of religion than any other cause. This is conirmed by what is happening today. It is a paradox that religion is at once a cohesive and divisive force. If religion with its potential for good has turned into a destructive force, it is but a perversion of religion.
    Religion in its deepest sense has laid the foundation of moral order. It has extended the bounds of human sympathy and underscored the values of humanity, charity in the sense of love and tolerance, faith in a transcendental divine order, respect for the sanctity of all forms of life and observance of the decencies of life. The inherent divinity of the human being, universal brotherhood, unity of all faiths, and collective progress and peace – these are basic to all religions and form their core.
    All values advocated by religion are threatened by greed, violence, exploitation, competitive religion, consumerism, commercialization and such forces. It looks as if religion has become its own enemy. Every sphere of human activity from the individual and domestic to the international level is torn with chaos and conlict. “Parents have very little love for each other and in the home begins the disruption of the world” (Mother Teresa).
    The spirit of skepticism generated by science has resulted in an erosion of values. The world is broken into narrow domestic walls. Communities tend to be imprisoned in their watertight compartments bearing the respective labels – religion, caste, race, nation, ideology, etc. The phenomenal growth in knowledge is not matched by a commensurate growth in wisdom which lies in the cultivation of humanizing impulses. “We have grasped the mystery of the atom and rejected the Sermon on the Mount. The world has achieved brilliance without wisdom and power without conscience. We know more about war than about peace, more about killing than about living” (General Omar S. Bradley).
    We boast about our civilization. There is nothing particularly civilized in traveling by plane or living in air conditioned comfort. Speed, quantity, sophisticated lifestyle and bank balance do not make for civilization. Human beings have been described as the elder brothers of the animals and the younger brothers of the gods. Civilization fulils itself when they are elevated from animality to spirituality. Religion and spirituality have their role in this transforming and regenerating process. Their role should be redeined and reformulated in the modern context.
    Religion is awareness: it is wisdom and enlightenment. Bigotry, hatred, dogma, fanatical fury, intolerance and such negative elements are alien to it. “I was born not to share men”s hatred but their love” (Antigone: Sophocles). True religion is free from the trappings of superstition, dogma, ritual, quackery, magic and witchcraft. It is sensitive to social needs. Holiness, purity, charity, human equality, service to human beings, etc., are religious universals and not the prerogative of any one faith.
    Religion and spirituality should not be equated with otherworldliness or ascetic seclusion and escape from life”s realities. They are related to life here and now and provide the guidelines for the art of living. One is most religious and spiritual when one is most human. A Russian peasant remarked at the conclusion of a lecture by Maxim Gorky on the marvels of science: “We are taught to ly in the air like birds and swim in water like ish, but how to live on earth, we do not know.”
    Religions are many, but religion is one. There is no relative superiority of one religion over another. One should go beyond denominational religion to understand religion. What the world needs is a fellowship of faiths on a common march towards a common goal.”“ Man must evolve for all human conlicts a method which rejects revenge, aggression and retaliation. The foundation of such a method is love.” These words of Martin Luther King sum up the essence of religion. The present cancerous growth of hatred and violence can be averted by the inculcation and assimilation of the spirit of religion – religion understood to mean “reinement,” “sweetness and light,” “the culture of the soul,” and “the culture of tolerance.” The question is not, “why religion?” but “what kind of religion?”
    Which one of the following is not a core value of all religions?
    (A) all religions are same
    (B) people of the whole world are brothers
    (C) man is a divine creature
    (D) charity is a cardinal part of faith

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
55. Question 55 of 80

    55. Question

    “Not Religion but religious dogma” leads to conlict, “Religion should graduate into spirituality” These two epigrammatic statements of President Abdul Kalam are worth pondering over. It has been said that more blood has been shed over the cause of religion than any other cause. This is conirmed by what is happening today. It is a paradox that religion is at once a cohesive and divisive force. If religion with its potential for good has turned into a destructive force, it is but a perversion of religion.
    Religion in its deepest sense has laid the foundation of moral order. It has extended the bounds of human sympathy and underscored the values of humanity, charity in the sense of love and tolerance, faith in a transcendental divine order, respect for the sanctity of all forms of life and observance of the decencies of life. The inherent divinity of the human being, universal brotherhood, unity of all faiths, and collective progress and peace – these are basic to all religions and form their core.
    All values advocated by religion are threatened by greed, violence, exploitation, competitive religion, consumerism, commercialization and such forces. It looks as if religion has become its own enemy. Every sphere of human activity from the individual and domestic to the international level is torn with chaos and conlict. “Parents have very little love for each other and in the home begins the disruption of the world” (Mother Teresa).
    The spirit of skepticism generated by science has resulted in an erosion of values. The world is broken into narrow domestic walls. Communities tend to be imprisoned in their watertight compartments bearing the respective labels – religion, caste, race, nation, ideology, etc. The phenomenal growth in knowledge is not matched by a commensurate growth in wisdom which lies in the cultivation of humanizing impulses. “We have grasped the mystery of the atom and rejected the Sermon on the Mount. The world has achieved brilliance without wisdom and power without conscience. We know more about war than about peace, more about killing than about living” (General Omar S. Bradley).
    We boast about our civilization. There is nothing particularly civilized in traveling by plane or living in air conditioned comfort. Speed, quantity, sophisticated lifestyle and bank balance do not make for civilization. Human beings have been described as the elder brothers of the animals and the younger brothers of the gods. Civilization fulils itself when they are elevated from animality to spirituality. Religion and spirituality have their role in this transforming and regenerating process. Their role should be redeined and reformulated in the modern context.
    Religion is awareness: it is wisdom and enlightenment. Bigotry, hatred, dogma, fanatical fury, intolerance and such negative elements are alien to it. “I was born not to share men”s hatred but their love” (Antigone: Sophocles). True religion is free from the trappings of superstition, dogma, ritual, quackery, magic and witchcraft. It is sensitive to social needs. Holiness, purity, charity, human equality, service to human beings, etc., are religious universals and not the prerogative of any one faith.
    Religion and spirituality should not be equated with otherworldliness or ascetic seclusion and escape from life”s realities. They are related to life here and now and provide the guidelines for the art of living. One is most religious and spiritual when one is most human. A Russian peasant remarked at the conclusion of a lecture by Maxim Gorky on the marvels of science: “We are taught to ly in the air like birds and swim in water like ish, but how to live on earth, we do not know.”
    Religions are many, but religion is one. There is no relative superiority of one religion over another. One should go beyond denominational religion to understand religion. What the world needs is a fellowship of faiths on a common march towards a common goal.”“ Man must evolve for all human conlicts a method which rejects revenge, aggression and retaliation. The foundation of such a method is love.” These words of Martin Luther King sum up the essence of religion. The present cancerous growth of hatred and violence can be averted by the inculcation and assimilation of the spirit of religion – religion understood to mean “reinement,” “sweetness and light,” “the culture of the soul,” and “the culture of tolerance.” The question is not, “why religion?” but “what kind of religion?”
    True religion, according to the passage, is not:
    (A) sensitivity
    (B) divine power
    (C) service
    (D) deeper awareness

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
56. Question 56 of 80

    56. Question

    Directions for the following item:
    Read the information given below carefully and answer the item that follow.
    Seven cities – A, B, C, D, E, F and G are connected by different modes of transport as given below:
    (1) E and G are connected by rail as well as road.
    (2) F and C are connected only by Air.
    (3) D and G are connected by boat and rail.
    (4) A and C are connected by air as well as rail.
    (5) B and E are connected by road, rail and air.
    (6) C and D are connected by air as well as rail.
    Without changing the mode of transport, one can reach from B to D using which of the following mode of transport?
    (A) Boat
    (B) Air
    (C) Rail
    (D) Road

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Using the rail link, one can reach from B to D.

    Unattempted
    

    Using the rail link, one can reach from B to D.
57. Question 57 of 80

    57. Question

    Directions for the following item:
    Read the information given below carefully and answer the item that follow.
    Seven cities – A, B, C, D, E, F and G are connected by different modes of transport as given below:
    (1) E and G are connected by rail as well as road.
    (2) F and C are connected only by Air.
    (3) D and G are connected by boat and rail.
    (4) A and C are connected by air as well as rail.
    (5) B and E are connected by road, rail and air.
    (6) C and D are connected by air as well as rail.
    For travelling from B to A, a person needs totravel using at least how many different modes of transport?
    (A) 1
    (B) 2
    (C) 3
    (D) 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The path from B to A can be broken down into B → E → G → D → C → A
    All these cities are connected by rail. So, one can reach from B to A using a single mode of transport (i.e. Rail)

    Unattempted
    

    The path from B to A can be broken down into B → E → G → D → C → A
    All these cities are connected by rail. So, one can reach from B to A using a single mode of transport (i.e. Rail)
58. Question 58 of 80

    58. Question

    Directions for the following item:
    Read the information given below carefully and answer the item that follow.
    Seven cities – A, B, C, D, E, F and G are connected by different modes of transport as given below:
    (1) E and G are connected by rail as well as road.
    (2) F and C are connected only by Air.
    (3) D and G are connected by boat and rail.
    (4) A and C are connected by air as well as rail.
    (5) B and E are connected by road, rail and air.
    (6) C and D are connected by air as well as rail.
    If the rail link between G and D is closed and air link between C and D is closed, then the person travelling from F to G can travel using all the modes of transport except
    (A) Air
    (B) Rail
    (C) Road
    (D) Boat

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Path from G to F can be broken down into F → C → D → G
    F → C is connected by air only.
    C → D Air link is closed So, one has to use the rail link.
    D → G Rail link is closed, so one has to use the boat.
    Thus, the person travels in air, boat and rail. One uses all the modes of transport except road transport.

    Unattempted
    

    Path from G to F can be broken down into F → C → D → G
    F → C is connected by air only.
    C → D Air link is closed So, one has to use the rail link.
    D → G Rail link is closed, so one has to use the boat.
    Thus, the person travels in air, boat and rail. One uses all the modes of transport except road transport.
59. Question 59 of 80

    59. Question

    Ramesh has a triangular plot of land on which all the sides are equal. He wants to plant some trees on his plot such that there are equal number of trees on each side and every consecutive row has one less tree than the previous row (starting from any side of the triangle). If he plants a total of 55 trees, how many trees are there on each side of the plot?
    (A) 9
    (B) 10
    (C) 11
    (D) 12

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
60. Question 60 of 80

    60. Question

    All the students of a class are sitting in a row. Raman is 7th from the left and Rohan is 14th from the right. The number of students sitting in between them is 1/4th of the total of students in the row. How many students are sitting in the row?
    (A) 18
    (B) 26
    (C) 30
    (D) 28

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Let the total number of students = n.
    Number of students to the left of Raman = 6.
    Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13.
    Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4.
    Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n
    So, 3n/4 = 21
    Or n = 28.

    Unattempted
    

    Let the total number of students = n.
    Number of students to the left of Raman = 6.
    Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13.
    Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4.
    Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n
    So, 3n/4 = 21
    Or n = 28.
61. Question 61 of 80

    61. Question

    The fact that superior service can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt at improving service will create such an advantage. Investments in service, like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding factor for customers only in extreme situations. This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional bank, which failed to improve its competitive position despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors tocopy. The only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be described to customers.
    According to the passage, investments in service are comparable to investments in production and distribution in terms of the
    (A) Tangibility of the benefits that they tend to confer
    (B) Increased revenues that they ultimately produce
    (C) Basis on which they need to be weighed
    (D) Insufficient analysis that managers devote to them

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    From the passage it can be inferred that investments in service are comparable to investments in production and distribution in terms of the basis on which they need to be weighed.

    Unattempted
    

    From the passage it can be inferred that investments in service are comparable to investments in production and distribution in terms of the basis on which they need to be weighed.
62. Question 62 of 80

    62. Question

    The fact that superior service can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt at improving service will create such an advantage. Investments in service, like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding factor for customers only in extreme situations. This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional bank, which failed to improve its competitive position despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors tocopy. The only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be described to customers.
    The passage suggests which of the following about service provided by the regional bank prior to its investment in enhancing that service?
    (A) It enabled the bank to retain customers at an acceptable rate.
    (B) It threatened to weaken the bank’s competitive position with respect to other regional banks.
    (C) It had already been improved after having caused damage to the bank’s reputation in the past.
    (D) It was slightly superior to that of the bank’s regional competitors.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In the passage it is mentioned that “If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted” implies that the passage suggests to enable the bank to retain customers at an acceptable rate prior to its investment in enhancing that service.

    Unattempted
    

    In the passage it is mentioned that “If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted” implies that the passage suggests to enable the bank to retain customers at an acceptable rate prior to its investment in enhancing that service.
63. Question 63 of 80

    63. Question

    The fact that superior service can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt at improving service will create such an advantage. Investments in service, like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding factor for customers only in extreme situations. This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional bank, which failed to improve its competitive position despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors tocopy. The only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be described to customers.
    The passage suggests that bank managers failed to consider whether or not the service improvement
    (A) Was too complicated to be easily described to prospective customers.
    (B) Made a measurable change in the experiences of customers in the bank’s offices.
    (C) Could be sustained if the number of customers increased significantly.
    (D) Was an innovation that competing banks could have imitated.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In the passage it is mentioned that “The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy.” Implies that bank manager failed to consider whether or not the service improvement was an innovation that competing banks could have imitated.

    Unattempted
    

    In the passage it is mentioned that “The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy.” Implies that bank manager failed to consider whether or not the service improvement was an innovation that competing banks could have imitated.
64. Question 64 of 80

    64. Question

    A survey conducted in Britain confirmed that an abnormally high percentage of patients suffering from arthritis of the spine who had been treated with X rays contracted cancer. Another study revealed a high incidence of childhood cancer in cases where the mother had been given prenatal pelvic X rays. These studies have pointed to the need to re-examine the assumption that exposure to low-linear energy transfer presents only a minor risk. Recently, examination of the death certificates of former employees of a West Coast plant that produces plutonium for nuclear weapons revealed markedly higher rates for cancers of the pancreas, lung, bone marrow, and lymphatic system than would have been expected in a normal population. While the National Academy of Sciences committee attributes this difference to chemical or other environmental causes rather than radiation, other scientists maintain that any radiation exposure, no matter how small, leads to an increase in cancer risk. It is believed by some that a dose of one rem, if sustained over many generations, would lead to an increase of 1 percent in the number of serious genetic defects at birth, a possible increase of 1,000 disorders per million births.
    According to the passage, some scientists believe that a dose of one rem of radiation continued over a period of generations would
    (A) Raise the strontium 90 levels in the body but otherwise, have little effect
    (B) Relieve the acute suffering of those afflicted with arthritis of the spine without side effects
    (C) Have the effect of increasing by 1 per cent the cases of serious genetic defects
    (D) Have little impact on the regulatory efforts of federal agencies

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In the passage it is clearly mentioned that a dose of one rem if sustained over many generations, would lead to an increase of 1 percent in the number of serious genetic defects at birth.

    Unattempted
    

    In the passage it is clearly mentioned that a dose of one rem if sustained over many generations, would lead to an increase of 1 percent in the number of serious genetic defects at birth.
65. Question 65 of 80

    65. Question

    A survey conducted in Britain confirmed that an abnormally high percentage of patients suffering from arthritis of the spine who had been treated with X rays contracted cancer. Another study revealed a high incidence of childhood cancer in cases where the mother had been given prenatal pelvic X rays. These studies have pointed to the need to re-examine the assumption that exposure to low-linear energy transfer presents only a minor risk. Recently, examination of the death certificates of former employees of a West Coast plant that produces plutonium for nuclear weapons revealed markedly higher rates for cancers of the pancreas, lung, bone marrow, and lymphatic system than would have been expected in a normal population. While the National Academy of Sciences committee attributes this difference to chemical or other environmental causes rather than radiation, other scientists maintain that any radiation exposure, no matter how small, leads to an increase in cancer risk. It is believed by some that a dose of one rem, if sustained over many generations, would lead to an increase of 1 percent in the number of serious genetic defects at birth, a possible increase of 1,000 disorders per million births.
    The passage implies that each of the following statements about radiation has been disputed EXCEPT?
    (A) Even small doses of radiation are likely to cause birth defects.
    (B) Exposure to radiation causes cancer.
    (C) Many small doses of radiation are as harmful as a single large dose.
    (D) Humans can tolerate a certain amount of radiation.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In the passage it is mentioned that many small doses of radiation are as harmful as a large dose. So, it implies that human can’t tolerate any amount of radiation.

    Unattempted
    

    In the passage it is mentioned that many small doses of radiation are as harmful as a large dose. So, it implies that human can’t tolerate any amount of radiation.
66. Question 66 of 80

    66. Question

    Just as one must learn the art of killing in the training for violence, so one must learn the art of dying in the training for non-violence. Violence does not mean emancipation from fear, but discovering the means of combating the cause of fear. Non-violence, on the other hand, has no cause for fear. The votary of non-violence has to cultivate the capacity for sacrifice of the highest type in order to be free from fear. He recks not if he should lose his hand, his wealth, his life. He who has not overcome all fear cannot practice ahimsa to perfection. The votary of ahimsa has only one fear that is of god. He who seeks refuge in god ought to have a glimpse of the atma that transcends the body; and the moment one has a glimpse of the imperishable Atma one sheds the love of the perishable body. Training in violence is thus diametrically opposed to training in violence. Violence is needed for the protection of things external; non-violence is needed for the protection of Atma, for the protection of one’s honour.
    Which of the following statement as per the passage are correct?
    (1) Violence means overcoming the cause of fear.
    (2) Violence means trying to eliminate the cause of fear.
    (3) Non-violence means combating the source of fear.
    (4) Non-violence means sacrificing even self for shedding fear.
    (A) (1) & (2)
    (B) (1) & (4)
    (C) (2) & (3)
    (D) (2) & (4)

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    From the passage we may conclude that author’s view Violence does not mean emancipation from fear, but discovering the means of combating the cause of fear while Nonviolence has to cultivate the capacity for sacrifice of the highest type in order to be free from fear.

    Unattempted
    

    From the passage we may conclude that author’s view Violence does not mean emancipation from fear, but discovering the means of combating the cause of fear while Nonviolence has to cultivate the capacity for sacrifice of the highest type in order to be free from fear.
67. Question 67 of 80

    67. Question

    Just as one must learn the art of killing in the training for violence, so one must learn the art of dying in the training for non-violence. Violence does not mean emancipation from fear, but discovering the means of combating the cause of fear. Non-violence, on the other hand, has no cause for fear. The votary of non-violence has to cultivate the capacity for sacrifice of the highest type in order to be free from fear. He recks not if he should lose his hand, his wealth, his life. He who has not overcome all fear cannot practice ahimsa to perfection. The votary of ahimsa has only one fear that is of god. He who seeks refuge in god ought to have a glimpse of the atma that transcends the body; and the moment one has a glimpse of the imperishable Atma one sheds the love of the perishable body. Training in violence is thus diametrically opposed to training in violence. Violence is needed for the protection of things external; non-violence is needed for the protection of Atma, for the protection of one’s honour.
    Why does the author suggest that practitioners of non-violence should develop capacity for sacrifice?
    (A) As practitioner of non-violence remains defenceless, sacrifice is the only available remedy.
    (B) Practitioner of non-violence, by sacrificing strikes at the root cause of violence, which is self.
    (C) Sacrifice imparts the practitioner of non violence a moral force.
    (D) Sacrifice is essential for practitioner of non violence to overcome and be free from fear.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In the passage author suggest that practitioners of non-violence should develop capacity for sacrifice in order to be free from fear.

    Unattempted
    

    In the passage author suggest that practitioners of non-violence should develop capacity for sacrifice in order to be free from fear.
68. Question 68 of 80

    68. Question

    The norm of anonymity means that the civil servants must work from behind the curtain, without praise or blame. In the word of Mohit Bhattacharya, “Anonymity meant that the civil servant would merely advice the politician from behind and would be protected from being exposed to the din and fury of politics. The norm of anonymity requires that the minister has to answer for the actions of the civil servants working under him in the parliament and thus, protect them from the criticism of the parliamentarians. This implies that the minister assumes total responsibility for the commissions and omissions of the civil servants working under him. The minister runs his department / ministry and is politically responsible for its activities. He is mainly concerned with policy and consults his secretary on policy decisions. It is the Minister who decide which course of action to adopt. He alone would be answerable in the parliament for good and bad results of the policy, not the secretary. Therefore, the norm of anonymity is the counterpart of the principle of ministerial responsibility. In other words, the principle of anonymity goes hand in hand with the principle of ministerial responsibility.
    Which among the following is not implied by anonymity in the passage above?
    (A) That the civil servant should work from behind the curtain hidden from public eye.
    (B) That the civil servant would work from behind the curtain without praise or blame.
    (C) That the civil servant would work from behind the curtain and not have a direct responsibility vis-a-vis the parliament.
    (D) That the minister has to answer the parliament for actions of the civil servants acting under his orders.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Clearly, in the above passage nothing is mentioned about either their work should be hidden from public eyes or not so it is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Clearly, in the above passage nothing is mentioned about either their work should be hidden from public eyes or not so it is incorrect.
69. Question 69 of 80

    69. Question

    The norm of anonymity means that the civil servants must work from behind the curtain, without praise or blame. In the word of Mohit Bhattacharya, “Anonymity meant that the civil servant would merely advice the politician from behind and would be protected from being exposed to the din and fury of politics. The norm of anonymity requires that the minister has to answer for the actions of the civil servants working under him in the parliament and thus, protect them from the criticism of the parliamentarians. This implies that the minister assumes total responsibility for the commissions and omissions of the civil servants working under him. The minister runs his department / ministry and is politically responsible for its activities. He is mainly concerned with policy and consults his secretary on policy decisions. It is the Minister who decide which course of action to adopt. He alone would be answerable in the parliament for good and bad results of the policy, not the secretary. Therefore, the norm of anonymity is the counterpart of the principle of ministerial responsibility. In other words, the principle of anonymity goes hand in hand with the principle of ministerial responsibility.
    What does collective responsibility mean as per the passage above?
    (A) The Minister is not answerable for illegal deeds of the civil servants.
    (B) Civil servant is responsible and accountable for his legal and illegal deeds to the parliament.
    (C) Civil servant along with minister is responsible directly to the parliament for all executive acts.
    (D) The executive is responsible to the parliament for all its actions and policies.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Collective responsibility means that the executive shall be responsible to the parliament for their action and policies. Thus, the principle of ministerial responsibility ensures that for every act or wrong act in his Ministry / department, the minister has to answer in the parliament and protect the civil servants working under him from the criticism of the parliament. So, the executive is responsible to the parliament for all its actions and policies.

    Unattempted
    

    Collective responsibility means that the executive shall be responsible to the parliament for their action and policies. Thus, the principle of ministerial responsibility ensures that for every act or wrong act in his Ministry / department, the minister has to answer in the parliament and protect the civil servants working under him from the criticism of the parliament. So, the executive is responsible to the parliament for all its actions and policies.
70. Question 70 of 80

    70. Question

    The norm of anonymity means that the civil servants must work from behind the curtain, without praise or blame. In the word of Mohit Bhattacharya, “Anonymity meant that the civil servant would merely advice the politician from behind and would be protected from being exposed to the din and fury of politics. The norm of anonymity requires that the minister has to answer for the actions of the civil servants working under him in the parliament and thus, protect them from the criticism of the parliamentarians. This implies that the minister assumes total responsibility for the commissions and omissions of the civil servants working under him. The minister runs his department / ministry and is politically responsible for its activities. He is mainly concerned with policy and consults his secretary on policy decisions. It is the Minister who decide which course of action to adopt. He alone would be answerable in the parliament for good and bad results of the policy, not the secretary. Therefore, the norm of anonymity is the counterpart of the principle of ministerial responsibility. In other words, the principle of anonymity goes hand in hand with the principle of ministerial responsibility.
    What, as per the passage, can be said to be the relationship between ‘Anonymity’ and ‘Ministerial responsibility’.
    (A) Anonymity is just opposite of Ministerial responsibility.
    (B) Anonymity and responsibility are applicable vis-a-vis the public.
    (C) Anonymity applies to the Civil-Servant while Ministerial responsibility is that of political executive to the parliament.
    (D) Both (B) and (C)

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    From the above passage, its clear Anonymity is for civil servants while ministerial responsibility is for executive (i.e., Ministers). Therefore, Anonymity applies to the Civil-Servant while Ministerial responsibility is that of political executive to the parliament.

    Unattempted
    

    From the above passage, its clear Anonymity is for civil servants while ministerial responsibility is for executive (i.e., Ministers). Therefore, Anonymity applies to the Civil-Servant while Ministerial responsibility is that of political executive to the parliament.
71. Question 71 of 80

    71. Question

    Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.
    Amul, Byomkesh, Chaman, Diksha, Emily, Fahim and Gauri are seated in a straight line facing north but not necessarily in the same order.
    Only three people sit between Fahim and Byomkesh.
    Neither Fahim nor Byomkesh sits at the extreme ends of the line.
    Only two people sit between Byomkesh and Emily.
    Diksha is not an immediate neighbour of either Byomkesh or Fahim.
    Diksha sits third to the left of Gauri.
    Gauri is not an immediate neighbour of Byomkesh.
    Diksha is not an immediate neighbour of Amul.
    Who are immediate neighbours of Chaman?
    (A) Amul and Byomkesh
    (B) Diksha and Fahim
    (C) Emily and Amul
    (D) Byomkesh and Diksha

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
72. Question 72 of 80

    72. Question

    Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.
    Amul, Byomkesh, Chaman, Diksha, Emily, Fahim and Gauri are seated in a straight line facing north but not necessarily in the same order.
    Only three people sit between Fahim and Byomkesh.
    Neither Fahim nor Byomkesh sits at the extreme ends of the line.
    Only two people sit between Byomkesh and Emily.
    Diksha is not an immediate neighbour of either Byomkesh or Fahim.
    Diksha sits third to the left of Gauri.
    Gauri is not an immediate neighbour of Byomkesh.
    Diksha is not an immediate neighbour of Amul.
    At what position Chaman is sitting from the right?
    (A) 3rd position
    (B) 5th position
    (C) 2nd position
    (D) 4th position

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
73. Question 73 of 80

    73. Question

    Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.
    Amul, Byomkesh, Chaman, Diksha, Emily, Fahim and Gauri are seated in a straight line facing north but not necessarily in the same order.
    Only three people sit between Fahim and Byomkesh.
    Neither Fahim nor Byomkesh sits at the extreme ends of the line.
    Only two people sit between Byomkesh and Emily.
    Diksha is not an immediate neighbour of either Byomkesh or Fahim.
    Diksha sits third to the left of Gauri.
    Gauri is not an immediate neighbour of Byomkesh.
    Diksha is not an immediate neighbour of Amul.
    Who is sitting between Fahim and Gauri?
    (A) Emily
    (B) Diksha
    (C) Amul
    (D) No one

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
74. Question 74 of 80

    74. Question

    Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.
    Amul, Byomkesh, Chaman, Diksha, Emily, Fahim and Gauri are seated in a straight line facing north but not necessarily in the same order.
    Only three people sit between Fahim and Byomkesh.
    Neither Fahim nor Byomkesh sits at the extreme ends of the line.
    Only two people sit between Byomkesh and Emily.
    Diksha is not an immediate neighbour of either Byomkesh or Fahim.
    Diksha sits third to the left of Gauri.
    Gauri is not an immediate neighbour of Byomkesh.
    Diksha is not an immediate neighbour of Amul.
    Who is sitting right to Emily?
    (A) Diksha and Chaman
    (B) Fahim
    (C) Fahim and Gauri
    (D) Fahim, Diksha and Gauri

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
75. Question 75 of 80

    75. Question

    A species that exerts. an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisasterochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytiluscalifornianus. In the absence of seastars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species. A study at the University of washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the 46. mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
    What is the crux of the passage ?
    (A) Sea star has a preferred prey.
    (B) A preferred prey determines the survival of a keystone species.
    (C) Keystone species ensures species diversity.
    (D) Sea star is the only keystone species on the Pacific coast of North America.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
76. Question 76 of 80

    76. Question

    A species that exerts. an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisasterochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytiluscalifornianus. In the absence of seastars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species. A study at the University of washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the 46. mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
    With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :
    (1) Mussels-are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystems.
    (2) The survival of sea stars is generally determined by the abundance of mussels.
    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
77. Question 77 of 80

    77. Question

    A species that exerts. an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisasterochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytiluscalifornianus. In the absence of seastars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species. A study at the University of washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the 46. mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
    Which of the following is/are implied by the passage ?
    (1) Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars.
    (2) Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution.
    (3) Sea stars constitute an important component in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3
    (D) 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
78. Question 78 of 80

    78. Question

    A species that exerts. an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisasterochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytiluscalifornianus. In the absence of seastars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species. A study at the University of washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the 46. mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
    Consider the following assumptions:
    (1) The food chains/food web in an ecosystem are influenced by keystone species.
    (2) The presence of keystone species is a specific characteristic of aquatic ecosystems.
    (3) If the keystone species is completely removed from an ecosystem, it will lead to the collapse of the ecosystem.
    With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
79. Question 79 of 80

    79. Question

    The happy man is the man who lives objectively, who has free affections and wide interests, who secures his happiness through these interests and affections and through the fact that they, in turn, make him an object of interest and affection to many others. To be the recipient of affection is a potent cause of happiness, but the man who demands affection is not the man upon whom it is bestowed. The man who receives affection is, speaking broadly, the man who gives it. But it is useless to attempt to give it as a calculation, in the way in which one might lend money at interest, for a calculated affection is not genuine and is not felt to be so by the recipient.
    According to the passage, calculated affection
    (A) Appears to be false and fabricated.
    (B) Makes another person love you.
    (C) Turns into permanent affection over a period of time.
    (D) Leads to self-pity

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to the passage “calculated affection is not genuine and is not felt to be so by the recipient” implies that calculated affection appears to be false and fabricated.

    Unattempted
    

    According to the passage “calculated affection is not genuine and is not felt to be so by the recipient” implies that calculated affection appears to be false and fabricated.
80. Question 80 of 80

    80. Question

    The happy man is the man who lives objectively, who has free affections and wide interests, who secures his happiness through these interests and affections and through the fact that they, in turn, make him an object of interest and affection to many others. To be the recipient of affection is a potent cause of happiness, but the man who demands affection is not the man upon whom it is bestowed. The man who receives affection is, speaking broadly, the man who gives it. But it is useless to attempt to give it as a calculation, in the way in which one might lend money at interest, for a calculated affection is not genuine and is not felt to be so by the recipient.
    Who according to the passage is the happy man?
    (A) Who is encased in self.
    (B) Who has free affection and wide interests.
    (C) Who is free from worldly passions.
    (D) Who has externally centred passions.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to the passage happy man is the man who lives objectively, who has free affections and wide interests.

    Unattempted
    

    According to the passage happy man is the man who lives objectively, who has free affections and wide interests.