ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK TEST

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2023 – FULL LENGTH – TEST 8

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1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 100

   1. Question

   With reference to Peasant Movements in India, consider the following pairs:
   – Peasant movement : – Leaders
   (1) Indigo Revolt : Gauri Shankar Mishra
   (2) Eka movement : Madari Pasi
   (3) Kisan Sabha movement : Digambar Biswas
   (4) Bardoli Satyagraha : Vallabhbhai Patel
   Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
   (A) 1 and 4 only
   (B) 2 and 4 only
   (C) 2 only
   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   INDIGO REVOLT : 1859-1860
   In Bengal, the indigo planters, nearly all Europeans, exploited the local peasants by forcing them to grow indigo on their lands instead of the more paying crops like rice. The planters forced the peasants to take advance sums and enter into fraudulent contracts which were then used against the peasants. The anger of the peasants exploded in 1859, led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas of Nadia district, they decided not to grow Indigo under duress and resisted the physical pressure of the planters and their lathiyals (retainers) backed by police and the courts. The ryots replied by going on a rent strike by refusing to pay the enhanced rents and by physically resisting the attempts to evict them. Gradually, they learned to use the legal machinery and initiated legal action supported by fund collection. The Bengali intelligentsia played a significant role by supporting the peasants' cause through newspaper campaigns, organization of mass meetings, preparing memoranda on peasants' grievances and supporting them in legal battles. The Government appointed an Indigo commission to inquire into the problem of indigo cultivation. Based on its recommendations, the Government issued a notification in November 1860 that the ryots could not be compelled to grow indigo and that it would ensure that all disputes were settled by legal means. But, the planters were already closing down factories and indigo cultivation was virtually wiped out from Bengal by the end of 1860.
   KISAN SABHA MOVEMENT : 1919-1922
   After the 1857 revolt, the Awadh taluqdars had got back their lands. This strengthened the hold of the taluqdars or big landlords over the agrarian society of the province. The majority of the cultivators were subjected to high rents, summary evictions (bedakhali), illegal levies, renewal fees or nazrana. The First World War had hiked the prices of food and other necessities. This worsened the conditions of the UP peasants. Mainly due to the efforts of the Home Rule activists, kisan sabhas were organised in UP. The UP Kisan Sabha was set up in February 1918 by Gauri Shankar Mishra and Indra Dwivedi.
   Madan Mohan Malaviya supported their efforts. By June 1919, the UP Kisan Sabha had 450 branches. In October 1920, the Awadh Kisan Sabha came into existence because of differences in nationalist ranks. From the earlier forms of mass meetings and mobilization, the patterns of activity changed rapidly in January 1921 to the looting of bazaars, houses, granaries and clashes with the police. The centres of activity were primarily the districts of Rai Bareilly, Faizabad and Sultanpur. The movement declined soon, partly due to government repression and partly because of the passing of the Awadh Rent (Amendment) Act.
   EKA MOVEMENT : 1921-1922
   Eka Movement, Towards the end of 1921, peasant discontent resurfaced in some northern districts of the United Provinces—Hardoi, Bahraich, Sitapur. The issues involved were high rents-50 per cent higher than the recorded rates,oppression of thikadars in charge of revenue collection and practice of share-rents.
   The meetings of the Eka or the Unity Movement involved a symbolic religious ritual in which the assembled peasants vowed that they would
   pay only the recorded rent but would pay it on time;
   not leave when evicted;
   refuse to do forced labour;
   give no help to criminals
   abide by panchayat decisions.
   The grassroot leadership of the Eka Movement came from Madari Pasi and other low-caste leaders, and many small zamindars.By March 1922, severe repression by authorities brought the movement to an end.
   BARDOLI SATYAGRAHA : 1928
   The Bardoli taluqa in Surat district had witnessed intense politicization after the coming of Gandhi on the national political scene. The movement sparked off in January 1926 when the authorities decided to increase the land revenue by 30 per cent. The Congress leaders were quick to protest and a Bardoli Inquiry Committee was set up to go into the issue. The committee found the revenue hike to be unjustified. In February 1926, Vallabhbhai Patel was called to lead the movement. The women of Bardoli gave him the title of “Sardar”.
   Under Patel, the Bardoli peasants resolved to refuse payments of the revised assessment until the Government appointed an independent tribunal or accepted the current amount as full payment. Special emphasis was placed on the mobilization of women. K.M. Munshi and Lalji Naranji resigned from the Bombay Legislative Council in support of the movement. By August 1928, massive tension had built up in the 'area. There were prospects of a railway strike in Bombay. Gandhi reached Bardoli to stand by in case of any emergency. The Government was looking for a graceful withdrawal now. It set the condition that first the enhanced rent be, paid by all the occupants (not actually done). Then, a committee went into the whole affair and found the revenue hike to be unjustified and recommended a rise of 6.03 per cent only.Hence, only 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

   Unattempted
   

   INDIGO REVOLT : 1859-1860
   In Bengal, the indigo planters, nearly all Europeans, exploited the local peasants by forcing them to grow indigo on their lands instead of the more paying crops like rice. The planters forced the peasants to take advance sums and enter into fraudulent contracts which were then used against the peasants. The anger of the peasants exploded in 1859, led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas of Nadia district, they decided not to grow Indigo under duress and resisted the physical pressure of the planters and their lathiyals (retainers) backed by police and the courts. The ryots replied by going on a rent strike by refusing to pay the enhanced rents and by physically resisting the attempts to evict them. Gradually, they learned to use the legal machinery and initiated legal action supported by fund collection. The Bengali intelligentsia played a significant role by supporting the peasants' cause through newspaper campaigns, organization of mass meetings, preparing memoranda on peasants' grievances and supporting them in legal battles. The Government appointed an Indigo commission to inquire into the problem of indigo cultivation. Based on its recommendations, the Government issued a notification in November 1860 that the ryots could not be compelled to grow indigo and that it would ensure that all disputes were settled by legal means. But, the planters were already closing down factories and indigo cultivation was virtually wiped out from Bengal by the end of 1860.
   KISAN SABHA MOVEMENT : 1919-1922
   After the 1857 revolt, the Awadh taluqdars had got back their lands. This strengthened the hold of the taluqdars or big landlords over the agrarian society of the province. The majority of the cultivators were subjected to high rents, summary evictions (bedakhali), illegal levies, renewal fees or nazrana. The First World War had hiked the prices of food and other necessities. This worsened the conditions of the UP peasants. Mainly due to the efforts of the Home Rule activists, kisan sabhas were organised in UP. The UP Kisan Sabha was set up in February 1918 by Gauri Shankar Mishra and Indra Dwivedi.
   Madan Mohan Malaviya supported their efforts. By June 1919, the UP Kisan Sabha had 450 branches. In October 1920, the Awadh Kisan Sabha came into existence because of differences in nationalist ranks. From the earlier forms of mass meetings and mobilization, the patterns of activity changed rapidly in January 1921 to the looting of bazaars, houses, granaries and clashes with the police. The centres of activity were primarily the districts of Rai Bareilly, Faizabad and Sultanpur. The movement declined soon, partly due to government repression and partly because of the passing of the Awadh Rent (Amendment) Act.
   EKA MOVEMENT : 1921-1922
   Eka Movement, Towards the end of 1921, peasant discontent resurfaced in some northern districts of the United Provinces—Hardoi, Bahraich, Sitapur. The issues involved were high rents-50 per cent higher than the recorded rates,oppression of thikadars in charge of revenue collection and practice of share-rents.
   The meetings of the Eka or the Unity Movement involved a symbolic religious ritual in which the assembled peasants vowed that they would
   pay only the recorded rent but would pay it on time;
   not leave when evicted;
   refuse to do forced labour;
   give no help to criminals
   abide by panchayat decisions.
   The grassroot leadership of the Eka Movement came from Madari Pasi and other low-caste leaders, and many small zamindars.By March 1922, severe repression by authorities brought the movement to an end.
   BARDOLI SATYAGRAHA : 1928
   The Bardoli taluqa in Surat district had witnessed intense politicization after the coming of Gandhi on the national political scene. The movement sparked off in January 1926 when the authorities decided to increase the land revenue by 30 per cent. The Congress leaders were quick to protest and a Bardoli Inquiry Committee was set up to go into the issue. The committee found the revenue hike to be unjustified. In February 1926, Vallabhbhai Patel was called to lead the movement. The women of Bardoli gave him the title of “Sardar”.
   Under Patel, the Bardoli peasants resolved to refuse payments of the revised assessment until the Government appointed an independent tribunal or accepted the current amount as full payment. Special emphasis was placed on the mobilization of women. K.M. Munshi and Lalji Naranji resigned from the Bombay Legislative Council in support of the movement. By August 1928, massive tension had built up in the 'area. There were prospects of a railway strike in Bombay. Gandhi reached Bardoli to stand by in case of any emergency. The Government was looking for a graceful withdrawal now. It set the condition that first the enhanced rent be, paid by all the occupants (not actually done). Then, a committee went into the whole affair and found the revenue hike to be unjustified and recommended a rise of 6.03 per cent only.Hence, only 2 and 4 are correctly matched.
2. Question 2 of 100

   2. Question

   With reference to the Indus river system, consider the following statements:
   (1) Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus.
   (2) Jhelum meets Sutlej near Harike Wetland.
   (3) Ravi flows through Srinagar and passes through Wular lake.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 1 and 2 only
   (C) 2 and 3 only
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   o Statement 1 is correct: The Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus. It is formed by two streams, the Chandra and the Bhaga, which join at Tandi near Keylong in Himachal Pradesh. Hence, it is also known as Chandrabhaga.
   o Statement 2 is not correct: The Jhelum rises from a spring at Verinag situated at the foot of the Pir Panjal in the south-eastern part of the valley of Kashmir. It flows through Srinagar and the Wular lake before entering Pakistan through a deep narrow gorge. It joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.o The Beas, which originates from the Beas Kund near the Rohtang Pass, meets the Satluj near Harike.
   o Statement 3 is not correct: Ravi rises west of the Rohtang pass in the kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh.

   Unattempted
   

   o Statement 1 is correct: The Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus. It is formed by two streams, the Chandra and the Bhaga, which join at Tandi near Keylong in Himachal Pradesh. Hence, it is also known as Chandrabhaga.
   o Statement 2 is not correct: The Jhelum rises from a spring at Verinag situated at the foot of the Pir Panjal in the south-eastern part of the valley of Kashmir. It flows through Srinagar and the Wular lake before entering Pakistan through a deep narrow gorge. It joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.o The Beas, which originates from the Beas Kund near the Rohtang Pass, meets the Satluj near Harike.
   o Statement 3 is not correct: Ravi rises west of the Rohtang pass in the kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh.
3. Question 3 of 100

   3. Question

   With reference to ‘Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)’, consider the following statements:
   (1) In ONDC's network-centric model, buyers and sellers can transact no matter what platform they use through an open network.
   (2) It was incubated by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) at the Quality Council of India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   •ONDC is a freely accessible government-backed platform that aims to democratise e-commerce by moving it from a platform-centric model to an open network for buying and selling of goods and services.
   •It was incubated by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) at the Quality Council of India.

   Unattempted
   

   •ONDC is a freely accessible government-backed platform that aims to democratise e-commerce by moving it from a platform-centric model to an open network for buying and selling of goods and services.
   •It was incubated by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) at the Quality Council of India.
4. Question 4 of 100

   4. Question

   Which of the following river basins have respectively the highest and lowest total replenishable groundwater resources?
   (A) Indus and Narmada
   (B) Brahmaputra and Pennar
   (C) Godavari and Tapi
   (D) Ganga and Subarnrekha

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Groundwater is a replenishable but finite resource. Rainfall is the principal source of recharge, though, in some areas, canal seepage and return flow from irrigation also contribute significantly to the groundwater recharge.
   The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km.
   Ganga has the maximum and Subarnrekha has the minimum share of the total replenishable groundwater resources.

   Unattempted
   

   Groundwater is a replenishable but finite resource. Rainfall is the principal source of recharge, though, in some areas, canal seepage and return flow from irrigation also contribute significantly to the groundwater recharge.
   The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km.
   Ganga has the maximum and Subarnrekha has the minimum share of the total replenishable groundwater resources.
5. Question 5 of 100

   5. Question

   The Sinai peninsula is situated between which of the following seas?
   (A) Red sea and Mediterranean sea
   (B) Caspian sea and Black sea
   (C) Mediterranean sea and Black Sea
   (D) Red sea and Black sea

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Sinai Peninsula is a triangular peninsula in Egypt. It is situated between the Mediterranean Sea to the north, and the Red Sea to the south. It is the only part of Egyptian territory located in Asia.

   Unattempted
   

   The Sinai Peninsula is a triangular peninsula in Egypt. It is situated between the Mediterranean Sea to the north, and the Red Sea to the south. It is the only part of Egyptian territory located in Asia.
6. Question 6 of 100

   6. Question

   With reference to ‘Ramsay Hunt Syndrome’, consider the following statements:
   (1) Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is a neurological disease caused by varicella zoster virus.
   (2) It causes inflammation of the nerves involved in the arm or leg.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   •Ramsay Hunt Syndrome, also known as Herpes Zoster Oticus, is a virus infection of the geniculate ganglion (7th cranial nerve) of the facial nerve that occurs when a shingles infection affects the facial nerve.
   •Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is caused by reactivation of varicella zoster virus that has previously caused chickenpox and shingles in the patient.

   Unattempted
   

   •Ramsay Hunt Syndrome, also known as Herpes Zoster Oticus, is a virus infection of the geniculate ganglion (7th cranial nerve) of the facial nerve that occurs when a shingles infection affects the facial nerve.
   •Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is caused by reactivation of varicella zoster virus that has previously caused chickenpox and shingles in the patient.
7. Question 7 of 100

   7. Question

   With reference to India’s ‘International Liquid Mirror Telescope (LMT)’, consider the following statements:
   (1) It became the world’s first liquid-mirror telescope to be commissioned for astronomy.
   (2) It will observe asteroids, supernovae, space debris and all other celestial objects.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   •Recently, Devasthal Observatory campus owned by Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES), Nainital in Uttarakhand has set-up the International Liquid-Mirror Telescope (ILMT).
   •It has become the world's first Liquid-Mirror Telescope (LMT) to be commissioned for astronomy and also one of its kind to be operational anywhere in the world.
   •Asteroids, supernovae, space debris and all other celestial objects will be observed using ILMT from an altitude of 2,450 metres in the Himalayas.

   Unattempted
   

   •Recently, Devasthal Observatory campus owned by Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES), Nainital in Uttarakhand has set-up the International Liquid-Mirror Telescope (ILMT).
   •It has become the world's first Liquid-Mirror Telescope (LMT) to be commissioned for astronomy and also one of its kind to be operational anywhere in the world.
   •Asteroids, supernovae, space debris and all other celestial objects will be observed using ILMT from an altitude of 2,450 metres in the Himalayas.
8. Question 8 of 100

   8. Question

   With reference to the easterly jet stream, consider the following statements :
   (1) It sets in along 14° North latitude during summer months.
   (2) It is responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1 is correct: An easterly jet stream, called the sub-tropical easterly jet stream blows over peninsular India, approximately over 14°N during the summer months after the western jet stream has withdrawn itself from the region.
   Statement 2 is correct: The easterly jet stream is held responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India. The Monsoon, unlike the trades, are not steady winds but are pulsating in nature, affected by different atmospheric conditions encountered by it, on its way over the warm tropical seas. The duration of the monsoon is between 100- 120 days from early June to mid-September. Around the time of its arrival, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as the burst‘ of the monsoon, and can be distinguished from the pre-monsoon showers. The monsoon arrives at the southern tip of the Indian peninsula generally by the first week of June. Subsequently, it proceeds into two – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1 is correct: An easterly jet stream, called the sub-tropical easterly jet stream blows over peninsular India, approximately over 14°N during the summer months after the western jet stream has withdrawn itself from the region.
   Statement 2 is correct: The easterly jet stream is held responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India. The Monsoon, unlike the trades, are not steady winds but are pulsating in nature, affected by different atmospheric conditions encountered by it, on its way over the warm tropical seas. The duration of the monsoon is between 100- 120 days from early June to mid-September. Around the time of its arrival, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as the burst‘ of the monsoon, and can be distinguished from the pre-monsoon showers. The monsoon arrives at the southern tip of the Indian peninsula generally by the first week of June. Subsequently, it proceeds into two – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.
9. Question 9 of 100

   9. Question

   Consider the following statements regarding Mediterranean type of Climate:
   (1) It is influenced by shifting of wind belts.
   (2) It is characterized by dry summers and rainfall in winters.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Mediterranean type of climate:
   Entirely confined to the western portion of continental masses, between 30° and 45° north and south of the equator. The basic cause of this type of climate is the shifting of the wind belts. Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of winter rain climate‘, and gives rise to the name Mediterranean Climate.
   A dry, warm summer with off-shore trades: In summer when the sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer, the belt of influence of the Westerlies is shifted a little pole wards. Rain bearing winds are therefore not likely to reach the Mediterranean lands. The prevailing Trade Winds (tropical easterlies) are off-shore and there is practically no rain. Strong winds from inland desert regions pose the risk of wildfires.
   Rainfall in winter with on-shore Westerlies: The Mediterranean lands receive most of their precipitation in winter when the Westerlies shift equator wards. In the northern hemisphere, the prevailing on-shore Westerlies bring much cyclonic rain from the Atlantic (Typical to Mediterranean Climate). The rain comes in heavy showers and only on a few days with bright sunny periods between them. This is another characteristic feature of the Mediterranean winter rain.

   Unattempted
   

   Mediterranean type of climate:
   Entirely confined to the western portion of continental masses, between 30° and 45° north and south of the equator. The basic cause of this type of climate is the shifting of the wind belts. Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of winter rain climate‘, and gives rise to the name Mediterranean Climate.
   A dry, warm summer with off-shore trades: In summer when the sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer, the belt of influence of the Westerlies is shifted a little pole wards. Rain bearing winds are therefore not likely to reach the Mediterranean lands. The prevailing Trade Winds (tropical easterlies) are off-shore and there is practically no rain. Strong winds from inland desert regions pose the risk of wildfires.
   Rainfall in winter with on-shore Westerlies: The Mediterranean lands receive most of their precipitation in winter when the Westerlies shift equator wards. In the northern hemisphere, the prevailing on-shore Westerlies bring much cyclonic rain from the Atlantic (Typical to Mediterranean Climate). The rain comes in heavy showers and only on a few days with bright sunny periods between them. This is another characteristic feature of the Mediterranean winter rain.
10. Question 10 of 100

    10. Question

    With reference to ‘Electric Vertical Takeoff and Landing (eVTOL) aircraft’, consider the following statements:
    (1) It uses distributed electric propulsion technology which means integrating a complex propulsion system with the airframe.
    (2) It requires a runway to land or takeoff.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •An eVTOL aircraft is one that uses electric power to hover, take off, and land vertically.
    •Most eVTOLs also use what is called as distributed electric propulsion technology which means integrating a complex propulsion system with the airframe.

    Unattempted
    

    •An eVTOL aircraft is one that uses electric power to hover, take off, and land vertically.
    •Most eVTOLs also use what is called as distributed electric propulsion technology which means integrating a complex propulsion system with the airframe.
11. Question 11 of 100

    11. Question

    With reference the Permanent Settlement system of land revenue, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) It was introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1793.
    (2) It aimed to encourage investment in agriculture.
    (3) It was highly successful in eastern India.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: The land revenue system of Permanent Settlement was introduced by Charles Cornwallis in 1793 who was the Governor General of Bengal at that time.
    Statement 2 is correct: It was introduced to ensure regular flow of revenue for the East India Company. Also, under the system, the entrepreneurs could feel sure of earning a profit from their investment, since the state would not siphon it off by increasing its claim. The process, officials hoped, would lead to the emergence of a class of yeomen farmers and rich landowners who would have the capital and enterprise to improve agriculture. Nurtured by the British, this class would also be loyal to the Company.
    Statement 3 is not correct: It failed as the Zamindars regularly failed to pay the revenue demand and unpaid balances accumulated. It was because of initial demands were very high. Also, the Permanent Settlement initially limited the power of the zamindar to collect rent from the ryot and manage his zamindari.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: The land revenue system of Permanent Settlement was introduced by Charles Cornwallis in 1793 who was the Governor General of Bengal at that time.
    Statement 2 is correct: It was introduced to ensure regular flow of revenue for the East India Company. Also, under the system, the entrepreneurs could feel sure of earning a profit from their investment, since the state would not siphon it off by increasing its claim. The process, officials hoped, would lead to the emergence of a class of yeomen farmers and rich landowners who would have the capital and enterprise to improve agriculture. Nurtured by the British, this class would also be loyal to the Company.
    Statement 3 is not correct: It failed as the Zamindars regularly failed to pay the revenue demand and unpaid balances accumulated. It was because of initial demands were very high. Also, the Permanent Settlement initially limited the power of the zamindar to collect rent from the ryot and manage his zamindari.
12. Question 12 of 100

    12. Question

    Which among the following could be the reason for non-development of large scale livestock farming in Equatorial regions?
    (1) Absence of meadow grasses
    (2) Cattle prone to disease
    (3) Mild winters
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In hot, wet, equatorial region, livestock farming is greatly handicapped by an absence of meadow grass, even on highlands. Hence option 1 is correct.
    o The few animals like bullocks or buffalos are kept mainly as a beast of burden. Their yield in milk and beef is well below those of cattle in the temperate grasslands.
    o Disease is another factor that makes livestock farming a big hassle in tropical areas. Hence option 2 is correct. In Africa, domesticated animals are attacked by tsetse flies that cause ngana, a deadly disease.
    o The Equatorial regions have no winter season. Hence option 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    In hot, wet, equatorial region, livestock farming is greatly handicapped by an absence of meadow grass, even on highlands. Hence option 1 is correct.
    o The few animals like bullocks or buffalos are kept mainly as a beast of burden. Their yield in milk and beef is well below those of cattle in the temperate grasslands.
    o Disease is another factor that makes livestock farming a big hassle in tropical areas. Hence option 2 is correct. In Africa, domesticated animals are attacked by tsetse flies that cause ngana, a deadly disease.
    o The Equatorial regions have no winter season. Hence option 3 is not correct.
13. Question 13 of 100

    13. Question

    The Narmada and Tapi rivers flow through rift valleys. With respect to this, consider the following statements:
    (1) The rift valleys are caused through upheaval of Himalayas and subsidence of peninsular region.
    (2) These rivers though having rich alluvial deposits are devoid of deltas.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The rift valleys are caused by upheaval of the Himalayas when the northern flank of the Peninsular block was subjected to subsidence and the consequent trough faulting. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Narmada and the Tapi flow in trough faults and fill the original cracks with their detritus materials. Hence, there is a lack of alluvial and deltaic deposits in these rivers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The rift valleys are caused by upheaval of the Himalayas when the northern flank of the Peninsular block was subjected to subsidence and the consequent trough faulting. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Narmada and the Tapi flow in trough faults and fill the original cracks with their detritus materials. Hence, there is a lack of alluvial and deltaic deposits in these rivers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
14. Question 14 of 100

    14. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Deccan Trap :
    (1) It is the result of Volcanic eruption.
    (2) It is largely made of granitic rocks believed to be contributed by the Reunion Hotspot volcano.
    (3) The lava plateau has a minimum thickness along the coast of Mumbai, from where it increases towards the south and east of the Deccan trap.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    At the close of the Cretaceous period (144- 65 Million years), peninsular India witnessed a major phase of volcanic activity. It was a remarkable event in the geology of India, where numerous lava flows were poured out mainly through fissure-type of volcanic eruption and covered a vast area of the Deccan Plateau in western and central India.
    These lava flows formed one of the Largest Igneous Provinces in the world, known as the Deccan Traps or Deccan Volcanic Province.
    It consists of a composite thickness of more than 6,500 feet (>2,000 m) of flat-lying basalt lava flows and covers an area of nearly 200,000 square miles (500,000 square km) in west-central India.
    The Deccan lava covers about 5 lakh sq km of area in Gujarat (Katch, Kathiawad), Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh (Malwa Plateau), Chhattisgarh, northern Andhra Pradesh, and north-western Karnataka. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    When the molten magma comes out from the volcano, it cools and becomes solid. These rocks are called igneous rocks(also called primary rocks). They are two types:
    – Intrusive rocks (molten magma cools down slowly, deep inside the earth’s crust forming intrusive rocks such as Granitic rocks, which are hard and forms large grain structure)
    – Extrusive rocks (molten lava comes onto the earth’s surface, it rapidly cools down and becomes solid forming extrusive rocks such as Basaltic rocks, which are very fine-grain structured)
    Deccan Trap volcanism is associated with a deep mantle plume or hot spot. The plume or hot spot caused the continent to break apart. This Hotspot is known as the Reunion hotspot. The reunion Hotspot is suspected of both causing the Deccan Traps eruption and opening the rift that separated the Mascarene Plateau from India.
    Thus the Deccan trap is largely made of Basaltic rocks and not Granitic rocks. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    The Indian lava plateau (Deccan Trap) has a maximum thickness of around 3000 m along the coast of Mumbai, after which it thins down towards the south and east. It is around 800 m in Kachchh, 150 m in Amarkantak, and 60 m in Belgaum (Karnataka). Individual lava flows range in thickness from 5 m to 29 m on average. Such discharges were discovered in digging near Bhusawal (Maharashtra). So, Statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    At the close of the Cretaceous period (144- 65 Million years), peninsular India witnessed a major phase of volcanic activity. It was a remarkable event in the geology of India, where numerous lava flows were poured out mainly through fissure-type of volcanic eruption and covered a vast area of the Deccan Plateau in western and central India.
    These lava flows formed one of the Largest Igneous Provinces in the world, known as the Deccan Traps or Deccan Volcanic Province.
    It consists of a composite thickness of more than 6,500 feet (>2,000 m) of flat-lying basalt lava flows and covers an area of nearly 200,000 square miles (500,000 square km) in west-central India.
    The Deccan lava covers about 5 lakh sq km of area in Gujarat (Katch, Kathiawad), Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh (Malwa Plateau), Chhattisgarh, northern Andhra Pradesh, and north-western Karnataka. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    When the molten magma comes out from the volcano, it cools and becomes solid. These rocks are called igneous rocks(also called primary rocks). They are two types:
    – Intrusive rocks (molten magma cools down slowly, deep inside the earth’s crust forming intrusive rocks such as Granitic rocks, which are hard and forms large grain structure)
    – Extrusive rocks (molten lava comes onto the earth’s surface, it rapidly cools down and becomes solid forming extrusive rocks such as Basaltic rocks, which are very fine-grain structured)
    Deccan Trap volcanism is associated with a deep mantle plume or hot spot. The plume or hot spot caused the continent to break apart. This Hotspot is known as the Reunion hotspot. The reunion Hotspot is suspected of both causing the Deccan Traps eruption and opening the rift that separated the Mascarene Plateau from India.
    Thus the Deccan trap is largely made of Basaltic rocks and not Granitic rocks. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    The Indian lava plateau (Deccan Trap) has a maximum thickness of around 3000 m along the coast of Mumbai, after which it thins down towards the south and east. It is around 800 m in Kachchh, 150 m in Amarkantak, and 60 m in Belgaum (Karnataka). Individual lava flows range in thickness from 5 m to 29 m on average. Such discharges were discovered in digging near Bhusawal (Maharashtra). So, Statement 3 is not correct.
15. Question 15 of 100

    15. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding tsunamis:
    (1) Its speed is more in the ocean deep than in the shallow water.
    (2) Tsunamis are frequently observed along the Pacific ring of fire.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that cause the sea-floor to move abruptly resulting in sudden displacement of ocean water in the form of high vertical waves are called tsunamis (harbour waves) or seismic sea waves.
    The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon the depth of water. It is more in the shallow water than in the ocean deep. As a result of this, the impact of tsunami is less over the ocean and more near the coast where they cause large-scale devastations. Therefore, a ship at sea is not much affected by tsunami and it is difficult to detect a tsunami in the deeper parts of sea. It is so because over deep water the tsunami has very long wave-length and limited wave-height. Thus, a tsunami wave raises the ship only a metre or two and each rise and fall takes several minutes. As opposed to this, when a tsunami enters shallow water,its wave-length gets reduced and the period remains unchanged, which increases the waveheight.Sometimes, this height can be up to 15m or more, which causes large-scale destructions along the shores. Thus, these are also called Shallow Water Waves. Tsunamis are frequently observed along the Pacific ring of fire, particularly along the coast of Alaska, Japan, Philippines, and other islands of Southeast Asia, Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and India etc.
    Hence, statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that cause the sea-floor to move abruptly resulting in sudden displacement of ocean water in the form of high vertical waves are called tsunamis (harbour waves) or seismic sea waves.
    The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon the depth of water. It is more in the shallow water than in the ocean deep. As a result of this, the impact of tsunami is less over the ocean and more near the coast where they cause large-scale devastations. Therefore, a ship at sea is not much affected by tsunami and it is difficult to detect a tsunami in the deeper parts of sea. It is so because over deep water the tsunami has very long wave-length and limited wave-height. Thus, a tsunami wave raises the ship only a metre or two and each rise and fall takes several minutes. As opposed to this, when a tsunami enters shallow water,its wave-length gets reduced and the period remains unchanged, which increases the waveheight.Sometimes, this height can be up to 15m or more, which causes large-scale destructions along the shores. Thus, these are also called Shallow Water Waves. Tsunamis are frequently observed along the Pacific ring of fire, particularly along the coast of Alaska, Japan, Philippines, and other islands of Southeast Asia, Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and India etc.
    Hence, statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.
16. Question 16 of 100

    16. Question

    Which of the following is/are examples of Smokestack industry?
    (1) Iron and Steel industry
    (2) Automobile manufacturing industry
    (3) Chemicals industry
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 2 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o A smokestack industry is a traditional heavy manufacturing industry that produces heavy machinery, large items or inputs into other industries. Examples include Cars/Automobile manufacturing, shipbuilding, iron & steel and other metals, chemicals and heavy machinery.
    In short, any heavy manufacturing industry that has been around for decades.
    Such industries tend to cause heavy pollution: the typical images of these industries are factories that have banks of chimney stacks emitting smoke into the atmosphere, hence the term “smokestack”.

    Unattempted
    

    o A smokestack industry is a traditional heavy manufacturing industry that produces heavy machinery, large items or inputs into other industries. Examples include Cars/Automobile manufacturing, shipbuilding, iron & steel and other metals, chemicals and heavy machinery.
    In short, any heavy manufacturing industry that has been around for decades.
    Such industries tend to cause heavy pollution: the typical images of these industries are factories that have banks of chimney stacks emitting smoke into the atmosphere, hence the term “smokestack”.
17. Question 17 of 100

    17. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Tebhaga movement?
    (1) It occurred in the aftermath of the Bengal Famine of 1943.
    (2) It was largely a woman-led movement.
    (3) Floud Commission gave recommendations of two-thirds share to the share croppers.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Tebhaga movement occured in Bengal in the aftermath of Bengal Famine of 1943. It gradually cuminated into support of a longstanding demand of the sharecroppers for two-thirds share of the produce, instead of the customary half. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    In Tebhaga movement, women participation was very much limited due to the resistance from communist party. Women's leadership could emerge only when the leadership of the Communist Party “abstained”. The trade unions in general, although they mobilised working class women, ignored women's issues, which were “subsumed within male or general working-class interests. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    The Bengal Land Revenue Commission, popularly known as the Floud Commission, had made recommendations of tebhaga— two-thirds' share—to the bargardars, the share croppers also known as bagehasi or adhyar, instead of the one-half share. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Tebhaga movement occured in Bengal in the aftermath of Bengal Famine of 1943. It gradually cuminated into support of a longstanding demand of the sharecroppers for two-thirds share of the produce, instead of the customary half. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    In Tebhaga movement, women participation was very much limited due to the resistance from communist party. Women's leadership could emerge only when the leadership of the Communist Party “abstained”. The trade unions in general, although they mobilised working class women, ignored women's issues, which were “subsumed within male or general working-class interests. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    The Bengal Land Revenue Commission, popularly known as the Floud Commission, had made recommendations of tebhaga— two-thirds' share—to the bargardars, the share croppers also known as bagehasi or adhyar, instead of the one-half share. Hence statement 3 is correct.
18. Question 18 of 100

    18. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
    (1) It consists of more than 500 islands.
    (2) They are separated by the Nine-Degree Channel.
    (3) They are endowed with tropical rainforests.
    (4) Paddy is the main food crop, mostly cultivated in the Andaman group of Islands.
    How many statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one statement
    (B) Only two statements
    (C) Only three statements
    (D) All four statements

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Andaman & Nicobar Islands comprise 572 Islands (including islets & rocks) and has a geographical area of 8,249 sq km, constituting 0.25% of the country’s total geographical area. So statement 1 is correct.
    The Andaman islands and Nicobar islands are the two groups separated by the 10° N Channel, whereby the Andaman lies to the north of this latitude and the Nicobar to the south. So statement 2 is not correct.
    Andaman & Nicobar Islands support very luxuriant and rich vegetation due to tropical hot and humid climate with abundant rains. As per the Champion & Seth Classification of Forest Types (1968), the forests in Andaman & Nicobar Islands belong to four Type Groups i.e.
    — Tropical Wet Evergreen,
    — Tropical Semi-Evergreen,
    — Tropical Moist Deciduous,
    — Littoral & Swamp Forests.
    The Middle & North Andaman are characterised by Moist Deciduous & Wet Evergreen forests, respectively. The Evergreen forests dominate the Central & Southern Islands of the Nicobar group.
    The moist deciduous forests are common in the Andamans; they are almost absent in the Nicobar islands.
    Overall the entire island group possesses tropical evergreen rainforest. So statement 3 is correct.
    The cultivated area is only 5% of the total geographical area. Paddy is the main food crop mostly cultivated in the Andaman group of islands. In contrast, coconut and Arecanut are the cash crops of the Nicobar group of islands. Other than that, Field crops, namely pulses, oilseeds and vegetables, are grown, followed by paddy during the Rabi season. So statement 4 is correct
    ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS
    Forest cover
    —— The Andaman Sea and the Bay of Bengal are to the eastern and western sides of the Islands.
    —— The Union Territory lies between 6°N to 14°N latitude and 92°E to 94°E longitudes.
    —– The islands spread over a 0.7 m ha area have a hot per-humid tropical climate, hilly undulating topography and interspersed valleys.
    The soils are moderately deep, acidic and low in fertility.
    The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have been declared as two of the 218 endemic bird areas of the world.
    As many as 270 species and sub-species of birds have been reported existing in these islands, 106 of them being endemic.
    Nine National Parks, 96 Wildlife Sanctuaries and one Biosphere Reserves constitute the Protected Area network of the UT, covering 18.71% of its geographical area.

    Unattempted
    

    Andaman & Nicobar Islands comprise 572 Islands (including islets & rocks) and has a geographical area of 8,249 sq km, constituting 0.25% of the country’s total geographical area. So statement 1 is correct.
    The Andaman islands and Nicobar islands are the two groups separated by the 10° N Channel, whereby the Andaman lies to the north of this latitude and the Nicobar to the south. So statement 2 is not correct.
    Andaman & Nicobar Islands support very luxuriant and rich vegetation due to tropical hot and humid climate with abundant rains. As per the Champion & Seth Classification of Forest Types (1968), the forests in Andaman & Nicobar Islands belong to four Type Groups i.e.
    — Tropical Wet Evergreen,
    — Tropical Semi-Evergreen,
    — Tropical Moist Deciduous,
    — Littoral & Swamp Forests.
    The Middle & North Andaman are characterised by Moist Deciduous & Wet Evergreen forests, respectively. The Evergreen forests dominate the Central & Southern Islands of the Nicobar group.
    The moist deciduous forests are common in the Andamans; they are almost absent in the Nicobar islands.
    Overall the entire island group possesses tropical evergreen rainforest. So statement 3 is correct.
    The cultivated area is only 5% of the total geographical area. Paddy is the main food crop mostly cultivated in the Andaman group of islands. In contrast, coconut and Arecanut are the cash crops of the Nicobar group of islands. Other than that, Field crops, namely pulses, oilseeds and vegetables, are grown, followed by paddy during the Rabi season. So statement 4 is correct
    ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS
    Forest cover
    —— The Andaman Sea and the Bay of Bengal are to the eastern and western sides of the Islands.
    —— The Union Territory lies between 6°N to 14°N latitude and 92°E to 94°E longitudes.
    —– The islands spread over a 0.7 m ha area have a hot per-humid tropical climate, hilly undulating topography and interspersed valleys.
    The soils are moderately deep, acidic and low in fertility.
    The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have been declared as two of the 218 endemic bird areas of the world.
    As many as 270 species and sub-species of birds have been reported existing in these islands, 106 of them being endemic.
    Nine National Parks, 96 Wildlife Sanctuaries and one Biosphere Reserves constitute the Protected Area network of the UT, covering 18.71% of its geographical area.
19. Question 19 of 100

    19. Question

    Inflation occurs when there is an
    (1) increase in hoarding and Black marketing
    (2) decrease in circulation of narrow money
    (3) decrease in bank savings by individuals.
    (4) accumulation of unaccounted wealth.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 4 only
    (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Inflation is a quantitative measure of the rate at which the average price level of a basket of selected goods and services in an economy increases over a period of time. Often expressed as a percentage, inflation indicates a decrease in the purchasing power of a nation's currency.o Increase in hoarding and black-marketing increases inflation due to a doctored imbalance in demand and supply. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    o Any reduction in the circulation of narrow money (most liquid- cash, coins etc will makes rupee relatively scarcer and therefore more valuable. This will, in turn increase the purchasing power of the rupee and thereby reducing inflation. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    o The decrease in bank savings not only reduces the purchasing power capacity of currency but also increases liquidity in market and cash crunch in banking sector. This has double impact of fall in available capital with banks for loans and rise in inflation.
    o Accumulation of unaccounted wealth leads to rise in black and benami money in the economy. This has indirect effect on increase in inflation due to decrease in effective purchasing capacity of currency. Hence statement 3 and 4 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Inflation is a quantitative measure of the rate at which the average price level of a basket of selected goods and services in an economy increases over a period of time. Often expressed as a percentage, inflation indicates a decrease in the purchasing power of a nation's currency.o Increase in hoarding and black-marketing increases inflation due to a doctored imbalance in demand and supply. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    o Any reduction in the circulation of narrow money (most liquid- cash, coins etc will makes rupee relatively scarcer and therefore more valuable. This will, in turn increase the purchasing power of the rupee and thereby reducing inflation. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    o The decrease in bank savings not only reduces the purchasing power capacity of currency but also increases liquidity in market and cash crunch in banking sector. This has double impact of fall in available capital with banks for loans and rise in inflation.
    o Accumulation of unaccounted wealth leads to rise in black and benami money in the economy. This has indirect effect on increase in inflation due to decrease in effective purchasing capacity of currency. Hence statement 3 and 4 are correct.
20. Question 20 of 100

    20. Question

    Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the Small Finance Banks (SFBs)?
    (1) They can undertake acceptance of deposits as well as lending activities.
    (2) They are exempted from requirement of maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Small Finance Banks (SFB) are private financial institutions intended to further the objective of financial inclusion by primarily undertaking basic banking activities of acceptance of deposits and lending to un-served and underserved sections including small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganised sector entities, but without any restriction in the area of operations, unlike Regional Rural Banks or Local Area Banks.
    o SFBs are full fledged banks in contrast to payments banks created around the same time. Hence, they are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI as applicable to existing commercial banks like maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
    o The target group of SFBs are similar to that of Local Area Banks. They are required to extend 75 per cent of its Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank. At least 50 per cent of its loan portfolio should constitute loans and advances of upto Rs. 25 lakh.
    o Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Small Finance Banks (SFB) are private financial institutions intended to further the objective of financial inclusion by primarily undertaking basic banking activities of acceptance of deposits and lending to un-served and underserved sections including small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganised sector entities, but without any restriction in the area of operations, unlike Regional Rural Banks or Local Area Banks.
    o SFBs are full fledged banks in contrast to payments banks created around the same time. Hence, they are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI as applicable to existing commercial banks like maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
    o The target group of SFBs are similar to that of Local Area Banks. They are required to extend 75 per cent of its Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank. At least 50 per cent of its loan portfolio should constitute loans and advances of upto Rs. 25 lakh.
    o Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
21. Question 21 of 100

    21. Question

    In the context of macroeconomics, marginal propensity to consume (MPC) refers to
    (A) fraction of total additional income that people use for consumption.
    (B) fraction of total consumption that is incurred on basic necessities like food.
    (C) fraction of income that is put into savings for future consumption.
    (D) fraction of income that is incurred on capital investment.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is the fraction of total additional income that people use for consumption of goods and services, as opposed to saving it. Marginal propensity to consume is a component of Keynesian macroeconomic theory and is calculated as the change in consumption divided by the change in income (ΔC / ΔY).
    o If consumption increases by 80 paise for each additional rupee of income, then MPC is equal to 0.8 / 1 = 0.8.

    Unattempted
    

    The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is the fraction of total additional income that people use for consumption of goods and services, as opposed to saving it. Marginal propensity to consume is a component of Keynesian macroeconomic theory and is calculated as the change in consumption divided by the change in income (ΔC / ΔY).
    o If consumption increases by 80 paise for each additional rupee of income, then MPC is equal to 0.8 / 1 = 0.8.
22. Question 22 of 100

    22. Question

    Which of the following was/were related to development of Education in India?
    (1) Hartog Committee, 1929
    (2) Wardha Scheme, 1937
    (3) Sergent Scheme, 1944
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    HARTOG COMMITTEE (1929): An increase in number of schools and colleges had led to deterioration of education standards. A Hartog Committee was set up to report on development of education. Its main recommendations were as follows: Emphasis should be given to primary education but there need be no hasty expansion or compulsion in education. Only deserving students should go in for high school and intermediate stage, while average students should be diverted to vocational courses after VIII standard. For improvements in standards of university education, admissions should be restricted.
    WARDHA SCHEME OF BASIC EDUCATION (1937): Zakir Hussain committee formulated a detailed national scheme for basic education in the light of the resolutions passed at National Conference on Education in October 1937 in Wardha. The main principle behind this scheme was 'learning through activity'. It was based on Gandhi's ideas published in a series of articles in the weekly Harijan. The scheme had the following provisions: Inclusion of a basic handicraft in the syllabus. First seven years of schooling to be an integral part of a free and compulsory nationwide education system (through mother tongue). Teaching to be in Hindi from class II to VII and in English only after class VIII. Ways to be devised to establish contact with the community around schools through service. The basic premise was that only through such a scheme could India be an independent and non-violent society. This scheme was child-centered and cooperative.
    SERGEANT PLAN OF EDUCATION : 1944: The Sergeant Plan (Sergeant was the educational advisor to the Government) was worked out by the Central Advisory Board of Education in 1944.
    Major recommendations: Pre-primary education for 3-6 years age group; free, universal and compulsory elementary education for 6-11 years age group; high school education for 11-17 years age group for selected children.
    • University course of 3 years after higher secondary; high schools to be of two types: (i) academic and (ii) technical and vocational. Adequate technical, commercial and arts education. Abolition of an intermediate course.
    Liquidation of adult illiteracy in 20 years. Stress on teachers' training, physical education, education for the physically and mentally handicapped. The objective was to create within 40 years, the same level of educational attainment as prevailed in England. Although a bold and comprehensive scheme, it proposed a methodology for implementation. Hence all the options are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    HARTOG COMMITTEE (1929): An increase in number of schools and colleges had led to deterioration of education standards. A Hartog Committee was set up to report on development of education. Its main recommendations were as follows: Emphasis should be given to primary education but there need be no hasty expansion or compulsion in education. Only deserving students should go in for high school and intermediate stage, while average students should be diverted to vocational courses after VIII standard. For improvements in standards of university education, admissions should be restricted.
    WARDHA SCHEME OF BASIC EDUCATION (1937): Zakir Hussain committee formulated a detailed national scheme for basic education in the light of the resolutions passed at National Conference on Education in October 1937 in Wardha. The main principle behind this scheme was 'learning through activity'. It was based on Gandhi's ideas published in a series of articles in the weekly Harijan. The scheme had the following provisions: Inclusion of a basic handicraft in the syllabus. First seven years of schooling to be an integral part of a free and compulsory nationwide education system (through mother tongue). Teaching to be in Hindi from class II to VII and in English only after class VIII. Ways to be devised to establish contact with the community around schools through service. The basic premise was that only through such a scheme could India be an independent and non-violent society. This scheme was child-centered and cooperative.
    SERGEANT PLAN OF EDUCATION : 1944: The Sergeant Plan (Sergeant was the educational advisor to the Government) was worked out by the Central Advisory Board of Education in 1944.
    Major recommendations: Pre-primary education for 3-6 years age group; free, universal and compulsory elementary education for 6-11 years age group; high school education for 11-17 years age group for selected children.
    • University course of 3 years after higher secondary; high schools to be of two types: (i) academic and (ii) technical and vocational. Adequate technical, commercial and arts education. Abolition of an intermediate course.
    Liquidation of adult illiteracy in 20 years. Stress on teachers' training, physical education, education for the physically and mentally handicapped. The objective was to create within 40 years, the same level of educational attainment as prevailed in England. Although a bold and comprehensive scheme, it proposed a methodology for implementation. Hence all the options are correct.
23. Question 23 of 100

    23. Question

    Consider the following pairs :
    Glaciers – Location
    (1) Milam – Himachal Pradesh
    (2) Rupal – Kashmir
    (3) Pindari – Uttarakhand
    (4) Shafat – Ladakh
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
    (A) Only one pair
    (B) Only two pairs
    (C) Only three pairs
    (D) All four pairs

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A glacier is a mass of ice formed from compacted, recrystallized snow that is thick enough to flow plastically.
    Milam Glacier is one of the remotest yet accessible glaciers in the state of Uttarakhand. It is the largest glacier in the Kumaon Himalayas covering an area of 37 square kilometers. Milam glacier is situated 60km from Munsiyari. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
    Rupal Glacier is a glacier in the Great Himalaya subrange of the Himalayas in Gilgit-Baltistan, which is a region administered by Pakistan as an administrative territory and constitutes the northern portion of the larger Kashmir region which has been the subject of a dispute between India and Pakistan since 1947. It starts north of an unnamed 6,326-metre-high (20,755 ft) peak and flows northeastward, north of Laila peak and south of Nanga Parbat’s many peaks. The meltwater from the glacier forms the Rupal river. So, Pair 2 is correct.
    Pindari glacier is located in the Trishul-Nanda Devi area of Kumaun Himalayas in the state of Uttarkhand. The glacier is about 9 kilometers long and gives rise to the Pindar river which meets the Alaknanda at Karnaprayag in the Garhwal district. So, Pair 3 is correct.
    The Shafat Glacier — Parkachik Glacier is a 14 kilometers (9 mi) long glacier in the Himalayan range in Ladakh India. It is a broken, ice-falling glacier melting at an alarming rate due to global warming. So, Pair 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A glacier is a mass of ice formed from compacted, recrystallized snow that is thick enough to flow plastically.
    Milam Glacier is one of the remotest yet accessible glaciers in the state of Uttarakhand. It is the largest glacier in the Kumaon Himalayas covering an area of 37 square kilometers. Milam glacier is situated 60km from Munsiyari. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
    Rupal Glacier is a glacier in the Great Himalaya subrange of the Himalayas in Gilgit-Baltistan, which is a region administered by Pakistan as an administrative territory and constitutes the northern portion of the larger Kashmir region which has been the subject of a dispute between India and Pakistan since 1947. It starts north of an unnamed 6,326-metre-high (20,755 ft) peak and flows northeastward, north of Laila peak and south of Nanga Parbat’s many peaks. The meltwater from the glacier forms the Rupal river. So, Pair 2 is correct.
    Pindari glacier is located in the Trishul-Nanda Devi area of Kumaun Himalayas in the state of Uttarkhand. The glacier is about 9 kilometers long and gives rise to the Pindar river which meets the Alaknanda at Karnaprayag in the Garhwal district. So, Pair 3 is correct.
    The Shafat Glacier — Parkachik Glacier is a 14 kilometers (9 mi) long glacier in the Himalayan range in Ladakh India. It is a broken, ice-falling glacier melting at an alarming rate due to global warming. So, Pair 4 is correct.
24. Question 24 of 100

    24. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Indus river basin in India:
    (1) The principal tributaries of the Indus, namely the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej form the left bank tributary to the river.
    (2) India has restricted use over the waters of the Indus, Jhelum and Chenab waters.
    (3) It is bounded on the west by the Karakoram and Haramosh ranges and on the east by the Sulaiman and Kirthar ranges.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    —– Indus basin is of extraordinary variation in altitude, climate, land use, cropping pattern, and in the availability of water resources. Indus has been the cradle of human civilization since time immemorial. The length of the Indus River in India is 1114 km.
    The total catchment area of the basin is 321289 Sq. Km.
    —– The Indus basin extends over China (Tibet), India, Afghanistan, and Pakistan draining an area of 11, 65,500 Sq.km. The principal tributaries lying on the left of the Indus area are the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej, Zaskar, Suru, Dras, Krishnganga.
    —– Jhelum, Beas, Ravi, Sutlej are joined to the Chenab which is then joined left to the Indus.
    —– Right bank tributaries of Indus are Shyok, Nubra, Gilgit. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    In the year 1960, India and Pakistan signed a water distribution agreement — which came to be
    —– known as Indus Waters Treaty — which was orchestrated by the World Bank. This agreement took nine years of negotiations and divides the control of six rivers between the two nations once signed.
    —– Under the treaty, all the waters of the three eastern rivers such as Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej were allocated to India for exclusive use. But the waters of the western rivers – Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab, were allocated to Pakistan except for 'specified domestic, non-consumptive and agricultural use permitted to India,' according to the treaty.
    —– Thus, India has also been given the right to generate hydroelectricity through the run-of-the-river (RoR) projects on the western rivers which, are subject to specific criteria for design and operation due to their restricted use. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    The basin is bounded by the Himalayas on the east, by the Karakoram and Haramosh ranges on the north, by the Sulaiman and Kirthar ranges on the west, and by the Arabian Sea on the south.
    The Indus River rises from the lofty mountains of the Himalayas around Mansarovar Lake in Tibet at an elevation of 5,182 m. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    INDUS RIVER BASIN
    Facts
    —– The major part of the basin is covered by agricultural land accounting for 35.8% of the total area and 1.85% of the basin is covered by water bodies.
    —– The basin spreads over 32 parliamentary constituencies (2009) comprising 13 of Punjab, 7 of Jammu & Kashmir, 4 each of Himachal Pradesh and Haryana, 3 of Rajasthan, and 1 of Chandigarh.
    —– Important urban centers and towns in the basin are Chandigarh, Srinagar, Shimla, Ambala, Bikaner, Bathinda, and Patiala.

    Unattempted
    

    —– Indus basin is of extraordinary variation in altitude, climate, land use, cropping pattern, and in the availability of water resources. Indus has been the cradle of human civilization since time immemorial. The length of the Indus River in India is 1114 km.
    The total catchment area of the basin is 321289 Sq. Km.
    —– The Indus basin extends over China (Tibet), India, Afghanistan, and Pakistan draining an area of 11, 65,500 Sq.km. The principal tributaries lying on the left of the Indus area are the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej, Zaskar, Suru, Dras, Krishnganga.
    —– Jhelum, Beas, Ravi, Sutlej are joined to the Chenab which is then joined left to the Indus.
    —– Right bank tributaries of Indus are Shyok, Nubra, Gilgit. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    In the year 1960, India and Pakistan signed a water distribution agreement — which came to be
    —– known as Indus Waters Treaty — which was orchestrated by the World Bank. This agreement took nine years of negotiations and divides the control of six rivers between the two nations once signed.
    —– Under the treaty, all the waters of the three eastern rivers such as Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej were allocated to India for exclusive use. But the waters of the western rivers – Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab, were allocated to Pakistan except for 'specified domestic, non-consumptive and agricultural use permitted to India,' according to the treaty.
    —– Thus, India has also been given the right to generate hydroelectricity through the run-of-the-river (RoR) projects on the western rivers which, are subject to specific criteria for design and operation due to their restricted use. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    The basin is bounded by the Himalayas on the east, by the Karakoram and Haramosh ranges on the north, by the Sulaiman and Kirthar ranges on the west, and by the Arabian Sea on the south.
    The Indus River rises from the lofty mountains of the Himalayas around Mansarovar Lake in Tibet at an elevation of 5,182 m. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    INDUS RIVER BASIN
    Facts
    —– The major part of the basin is covered by agricultural land accounting for 35.8% of the total area and 1.85% of the basin is covered by water bodies.
    —– The basin spreads over 32 parliamentary constituencies (2009) comprising 13 of Punjab, 7 of Jammu & Kashmir, 4 each of Himachal Pradesh and Haryana, 3 of Rajasthan, and 1 of Chandigarh.
    —– Important urban centers and towns in the basin are Chandigarh, Srinagar, Shimla, Ambala, Bikaner, Bathinda, and Patiala.
25. Question 25 of 100

    25. Question

    In relation to the hot and wet equatorial climate of the world, the term belukar refers to:
    (A) an extensive farming practise
    (B) humid winds in the region
    (C) secondary forests
    (D) a nomadic tribe in the region

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    When forests in the tropical rainforests are cleared for lumbering or shifting cultivation, less luxuriant secondary forests emerge in the region. These secondary forests are called belukar. These can be typically found in Malaysia.

    Unattempted
    

    When forests in the tropical rainforests are cleared for lumbering or shifting cultivation, less luxuriant secondary forests emerge in the region. These secondary forests are called belukar. These can be typically found in Malaysia.
26. Question 26 of 100

    26. Question

    Which of the following are right bank tributaries of River Brahmaputra?
    (1) Manas
    (2) Lohit
    (3) Subansiri
    (4) Kameng
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (C) 2 and 4 only
    (D) 3 and 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Manas, Subansiri and Kameng are the major right bank tributaries of Brahmaputra.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Lohit is a major left bank tributary of Brahmaputra.

    Unattempted
    

    Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Manas, Subansiri and Kameng are the major right bank tributaries of Brahmaputra.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Lohit is a major left bank tributary of Brahmaputra.
27. Question 27 of 100

    27. Question

    With reference to dust particles in atmosphere, consider the following statements:
    (1) They are generally concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere.
    (2) They are highly concentrated in equatorial and polar regions.
    (3) They assist in the formation of clouds.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Atmosphere has a suffient capacity to keep small solid particles, which may originate from different sources and include sea salts, fine soil, smoke-soot, ash, pollen, dust and disintergrated particles of meteors.Dust particles are generally concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere; yet, convectional air currents may transport them to great heights. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
    Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Atmosphere has a suffient capacity to keep small solid particles, which may originate from different sources and include sea salts, fine soil, smoke-soot, ash, pollen, dust and disintergrated particles of meteors.Dust particles are generally concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere; yet, convectional air currents may transport them to great heights. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
    Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
28. Question 28 of 100

    28. Question

    With reference to index linked bonds, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a bond in which payment of interest income on the principal is usually related to specific price index.
    (2) It provides protection to investors by shielding them from changes in the underlying index.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    An index-linked bond is a bond in which payment of interest income on the principal is related to a specific price index, usually the Consumer Price Index. This feature provides protection to investors by shielding them from changes in the underlying index. The bond's cash flows are adjusted to ensure that the holder of the bond receives a known real rate of return. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    A bond investor holds a bond with a fixed level of interest rate. The interest payments, known as coupons, are usually paid semi-annually and represent the bondholder’s return on investing in the bond.
    However, as time goes by, inflation also increases, thereby, eroding the value of the investor’s annual return. This is unlike returns on equity and property, in which dividend and rental income increases with inflation. To mitigate the impact of inflation, index-linked bonds are issued by the government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    An index-linked bond is a bond in which payment of interest income on the principal is related to a specific price index, usually the Consumer Price Index. This feature provides protection to investors by shielding them from changes in the underlying index. The bond's cash flows are adjusted to ensure that the holder of the bond receives a known real rate of return. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    A bond investor holds a bond with a fixed level of interest rate. The interest payments, known as coupons, are usually paid semi-annually and represent the bondholder’s return on investing in the bond.
    However, as time goes by, inflation also increases, thereby, eroding the value of the investor’s annual return. This is unlike returns on equity and property, in which dividend and rental income increases with inflation. To mitigate the impact of inflation, index-linked bonds are issued by the government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
29. Question 29 of 100

    29. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Fuse’ used in the domestic electric installation
    (1) They have very high melting point.
    (2) They are made up of non-metals.
    (3) They are arranged in series in circuit.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Fuse is a piece of wire of a material with a very low melting point.
    When a high current flows through the circuit due to overloading or a short circuit, the wires gets heated and melts. As a result, the circuit is broken and current stops flowing.
    The fuse is arranged in series to carry all the current passing through the protected circuit. They are always connected in live wire.
    The fuse wire is made of zinc, copper, silver, aluminum, or alloys to provide stable and predictable characteristics. Fuse should be of low resistance and low melting point as per the requirement current rating for overcurrent protection.

    Unattempted
    

    Fuse is a piece of wire of a material with a very low melting point.
    When a high current flows through the circuit due to overloading or a short circuit, the wires gets heated and melts. As a result, the circuit is broken and current stops flowing.
    The fuse is arranged in series to carry all the current passing through the protected circuit. They are always connected in live wire.
    The fuse wire is made of zinc, copper, silver, aluminum, or alloys to provide stable and predictable characteristics. Fuse should be of low resistance and low melting point as per the requirement current rating for overcurrent protection.
30. Question 30 of 100

    30. Question

    With reference to World Refugee day, consider the following statements :
    (1) The theme for World Refugee Day 2022 is “whoever, whatever, whenever. Everyone has got a right to seek safety”.
    (2) India is a signatory to the 1951 UN Refugee Convention.
    (3) The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian constitution under Articles 14 and 20 are available to all persons, including refugees.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 1 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    World Refugee Day is an international day designated by the United Nations to honour refugees around the globe. It falls each year on June 20 and celebrates the strength and courage of people who have been forced to flee their home country to escape conflict or persecution.
    World Refugee Day is an occasion to build empathy and understanding for their plight and to recognize their resilience in rebuilding their lives. The theme for this year is “Every person on this planet has a right to seek safety – whoever they are, wherever they come from, and whenever they are forced to flee”.
    So, Statement 1 is correct.
    India is not a party to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol and it does not have specific legislation which governs refugees and asylum seekers. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    The Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article14: Equality before the law and equal protection of laws, Article 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offenses, and Article 21, etc are available to all persons, whether citizens, foreigners, or refugees. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    WORLD REFUGEE DAY
    The National Human Rights Commission discussed “protecting the basic human rights of refugees and asylum seekers in India.”
    UNHCR, the UN Refugee Agency, is a global organization dedicated to saving lives, protecting rights, and building a better future for refugees, forcibly displaced communities, and stateless people.
    149 countries are parties to either or both the 1951 Convention and the 1967 Protocol.

    Unattempted
    

    World Refugee Day is an international day designated by the United Nations to honour refugees around the globe. It falls each year on June 20 and celebrates the strength and courage of people who have been forced to flee their home country to escape conflict or persecution.
    World Refugee Day is an occasion to build empathy and understanding for their plight and to recognize their resilience in rebuilding their lives. The theme for this year is “Every person on this planet has a right to seek safety – whoever they are, wherever they come from, and whenever they are forced to flee”.
    So, Statement 1 is correct.
    India is not a party to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol and it does not have specific legislation which governs refugees and asylum seekers. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    The Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article14: Equality before the law and equal protection of laws, Article 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offenses, and Article 21, etc are available to all persons, whether citizens, foreigners, or refugees. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    WORLD REFUGEE DAY
    The National Human Rights Commission discussed “protecting the basic human rights of refugees and asylum seekers in India.”
    UNHCR, the UN Refugee Agency, is a global organization dedicated to saving lives, protecting rights, and building a better future for refugees, forcibly displaced communities, and stateless people.
    149 countries are parties to either or both the 1951 Convention and the 1967 Protocol.
31. Question 31 of 100

    31. Question

    Biosphere Reserve: Location
    (1) Dihang Dibang : Assam
    (2) Seshachalam Hills : Andhra Pradesh
    (3) Cold Desert : Jammu and Kashmir
    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
    (A) 2 only
    (B) 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 2 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Dihang Dibang biosphere reserve is located in Arunachal Pradesh, whereas cold desert biosphere reserve is located in Himachal Pradesh, not the Jammu and Kashmir. Cold desert Biosphere reserve is area around pin valley, and covering chandratal and Sarchu & Kibber wildlife sanctuary.

    Unattempted
    

    Dihang Dibang biosphere reserve is located in Arunachal Pradesh, whereas cold desert biosphere reserve is located in Himachal Pradesh, not the Jammu and Kashmir. Cold desert Biosphere reserve is area around pin valley, and covering chandratal and Sarchu & Kibber wildlife sanctuary.
32. Question 32 of 100

    32. Question

    In India, which of the following valley is/are rift valley ?
    (1) Son valley
    (2) Damodar valley
    (3) Mahi valley
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2, and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A rift valley is a lowland region that forms where Earth’s tectonic plates move apart, or rift. Rift valleys are found both on land and at the bottom of the ocean, where they are created by the process of seafloor spreading. Rift valleys differ from river valleys and glacial valleys in that they are created by tectonic activity and not the process of erosion.
    o In India, Son valley, Damodar valley, Tapi valley, Narmada valley are example of rift valley. Hence option (D) is correct.
    o The Son valley is geologically almost a continuation of that of the Narmada River to the southwest. It is largely forested and sparsely populated. The valley is bordered by the Kaimur Range to the north and the Chota Nagpur plateau to the south. The river’s flow is seasonal, and the Son is unimportant for navigation. Dams have been constructed on some of its tributaries.
    o Damodar River, river in northeastern India, rising with its many tributaries, notably the Bokaro and Konar, in the Chota Nagpur plateau of south-central Bihar state. It follows a generally eastward course for 368 miles (592 km) through West Bengal to join the Hugli (Hooghly) River southwest of Kolkata (Calcutta).
    o The Damodar valley along the Bihar–West Bengal border includes India’s most important coal- and micamining fields and has long been an area of active industrial development. The major coalfields (Jharia, Raniganj, and Giridih) are mostly open-pit and are easily mined.

    Unattempted
    

    A rift valley is a lowland region that forms where Earth’s tectonic plates move apart, or rift. Rift valleys are found both on land and at the bottom of the ocean, where they are created by the process of seafloor spreading. Rift valleys differ from river valleys and glacial valleys in that they are created by tectonic activity and not the process of erosion.
    o In India, Son valley, Damodar valley, Tapi valley, Narmada valley are example of rift valley. Hence option (D) is correct.
    o The Son valley is geologically almost a continuation of that of the Narmada River to the southwest. It is largely forested and sparsely populated. The valley is bordered by the Kaimur Range to the north and the Chota Nagpur plateau to the south. The river’s flow is seasonal, and the Son is unimportant for navigation. Dams have been constructed on some of its tributaries.
    o Damodar River, river in northeastern India, rising with its many tributaries, notably the Bokaro and Konar, in the Chota Nagpur plateau of south-central Bihar state. It follows a generally eastward course for 368 miles (592 km) through West Bengal to join the Hugli (Hooghly) River southwest of Kolkata (Calcutta).
    o The Damodar valley along the Bihar–West Bengal border includes India’s most important coal- and micamining fields and has long been an area of active industrial development. The major coalfields (Jharia, Raniganj, and Giridih) are mostly open-pit and are easily mined.
33. Question 33 of 100

    33. Question

    Recently, the Ministry of Culture organized “TirangaUtsav” to celebrate the contribution of Pingali Venkayya to the nation.
    Consider the following statements with reference to the Pingali Venkayya.
    (1) He was the designer of the Indian National Tricolour Flag
    (2) He served as a soldier in the British Army
    (3) He met Mahatma Gandhi for the first time in the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress in 1917
    (4) He published a book called 'Bharatha Deshaniki Oka Jatiya Patakam'
    How many statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one statement
    (B) Only two statements
    (C) Only three statements
    (D) All four statements

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Gandhian ideologist Pingali Venkayya was a writer, geologist, and linguist. In 1916, he also released a book with thirty possible designs for the Indian flag. The Indian national flag was created by ardent freedom fighter Pingali Venkayya, who later came to symbolise the spirit of a free and independent India.
    So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Pingali Venkayya served as a soldier in the British Army in South Africa during the Anglo-Boer war in Africa. Venkayya met the Mahatma during the war. He was 19 when the meeting took place and formed an association which would last for more than 50 years.
    He met the Mahatma once again in Vijayawada and showed him his publication with the various designs of the flag.
    Acknowledging the need for a national flag, Gandhi then asked Venkayya to design a fresh one at the national congress meeting in 1921. So, Statements 2 is correct and 3 is not correct.
    In 1916, he published a book titled Bharatha Desaniki Oka Jatiya Patakam (A National Flag for India) with 30 potential designs for a flag. So, Statement 4 is correct.
    TIRANGA UTSAV
    Ministry of Culture organised “Tiranga Utsav” to celebrate the contribution of Pingali Venkayya to the nation on the occasion of his 146th Birth Anniversary.

    Unattempted
    

    The Gandhian ideologist Pingali Venkayya was a writer, geologist, and linguist. In 1916, he also released a book with thirty possible designs for the Indian flag. The Indian national flag was created by ardent freedom fighter Pingali Venkayya, who later came to symbolise the spirit of a free and independent India.
    So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Pingali Venkayya served as a soldier in the British Army in South Africa during the Anglo-Boer war in Africa. Venkayya met the Mahatma during the war. He was 19 when the meeting took place and formed an association which would last for more than 50 years.
    He met the Mahatma once again in Vijayawada and showed him his publication with the various designs of the flag.
    Acknowledging the need for a national flag, Gandhi then asked Venkayya to design a fresh one at the national congress meeting in 1921. So, Statements 2 is correct and 3 is not correct.
    In 1916, he published a book titled Bharatha Desaniki Oka Jatiya Patakam (A National Flag for India) with 30 potential designs for a flag. So, Statement 4 is correct.
    TIRANGA UTSAV
    Ministry of Culture organised “Tiranga Utsav” to celebrate the contribution of Pingali Venkayya to the nation on the occasion of his 146th Birth Anniversary.
34. Question 34 of 100

    34. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to cotton production in India:
    (1) In India, the cotton crop is grown only in the Western and Southern States of India.
    (2) Cotton seed oil is edible oil and can also be used to produce biodiesel.
    (3) Similar to other Agro-processing industries, the cotton textile industry is also a weight-loss industry.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 3 only
    (D) 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ** Cotton is one of the most important fiber and cash crop of India.
    ** In India, the cotton crop is grown mainly in the central and southern States of India.
    **The central zone includes Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat, and the south zone comprises Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
    ** Therefore, the cotton crop grown in India is not only in Western and Southern parts of Indian states but also in Northern parts of India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
    ** Cotton seed oil can be used to make salad oil (mayonnaise, salad dressings, sauces and marinades), cooking oil for frying in both commercial and home cooking, and margarine or shortening for baked goods and cake icings.
    ** Biodiesel is a renewable, biodegradable fuel manufactured domestically from vegetable oils and animal fats, and it was produced from crude cottonseed oil (triglycerides) by transesterification.
    ** Some of the main resources for biodiesel production from non-edible oils are Jatropha, cotton seed oil, rice bran oil, mahua seed oil etc. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    Cotton is a pure raw material which does not lose weight in the manufacturing process.
    The cotton textile industry uses a non-weight-losing raw material and is generally located in large urban centres. Therefore, the Cotton textile industry is a Weight-gaining industry. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    COTTON PRODUCTION IN INDIA
    Extreme weather conditions like Rains and pests force the world's top cotton producer India to import supplies, as India is the top producer of cotton.
    Transesterification is the process in which fat or oil reacts with an alcohol to form esters and glycerol.
    ** The top two cotton producers are India and China, contributing approximately 45-50 per cent of the world's production, while the top four comprise 70-75 percent of global cotton production.
    ** India is the world's leading cotton producer, surpassing China recently.
    Agro based industries It uses plant and animal-based products as its raw materials. Food processing, vegetable oil, cotton textile, dairy products and leather industries are examples of agro-based industries.

    Unattempted
    

    ** Cotton is one of the most important fiber and cash crop of India.
    ** In India, the cotton crop is grown mainly in the central and southern States of India.
    **The central zone includes Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat, and the south zone comprises Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
    ** Therefore, the cotton crop grown in India is not only in Western and Southern parts of Indian states but also in Northern parts of India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
    ** Cotton seed oil can be used to make salad oil (mayonnaise, salad dressings, sauces and marinades), cooking oil for frying in both commercial and home cooking, and margarine or shortening for baked goods and cake icings.
    ** Biodiesel is a renewable, biodegradable fuel manufactured domestically from vegetable oils and animal fats, and it was produced from crude cottonseed oil (triglycerides) by transesterification.
    ** Some of the main resources for biodiesel production from non-edible oils are Jatropha, cotton seed oil, rice bran oil, mahua seed oil etc. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    Cotton is a pure raw material which does not lose weight in the manufacturing process.
    The cotton textile industry uses a non-weight-losing raw material and is generally located in large urban centres. Therefore, the Cotton textile industry is a Weight-gaining industry. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    COTTON PRODUCTION IN INDIA
    Extreme weather conditions like Rains and pests force the world's top cotton producer India to import supplies, as India is the top producer of cotton.
    Transesterification is the process in which fat or oil reacts with an alcohol to form esters and glycerol.
    ** The top two cotton producers are India and China, contributing approximately 45-50 per cent of the world's production, while the top four comprise 70-75 percent of global cotton production.
    ** India is the world's leading cotton producer, surpassing China recently.
    Agro based industries It uses plant and animal-based products as its raw materials. Food processing, vegetable oil, cotton textile, dairy products and leather industries are examples of agro-based industries.
35. Question 35 of 100

    35. Question

    With reference to Antarctica, consider the following statements:
    (1) It has Iron and copper reserves
    (2) Madrid Protocol permits commercial exploitation of mineral resources.
    (3) Maitri, India's permanent station, is situated on the rocky mountainous region called Schirmacher Oasis.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Ag- Silver, Au- Gold, Co- Cobalt, Cu- Copper, Cr- Chromium, Fe- Iron, Mb- Molybdenum, MnManganese, Ni- Nickel, Pb- Lead, Ti- Titanium U- Uranium, Zn- Zinc. All these minearls are found in the antarctic region. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    Madrid Protocol sets forth basic principles applicable to human activities in Antarctica. Article 7 of this protocol prohibits all activities relating to Antarctic mineral resources, except for scientific research. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    Maitri is India's second permanent research station in Antarctica as part of the Indian Antarctic Programme. It was built and finished in 1989, shortly before the first station Dakshin Gangotri was buried in ice and abandoned in 1990–91. Maitri is situated on the rocky mountainous region called Schirmacher Oasis. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Ag- Silver, Au- Gold, Co- Cobalt, Cu- Copper, Cr- Chromium, Fe- Iron, Mb- Molybdenum, MnManganese, Ni- Nickel, Pb- Lead, Ti- Titanium U- Uranium, Zn- Zinc. All these minearls are found in the antarctic region. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    Madrid Protocol sets forth basic principles applicable to human activities in Antarctica. Article 7 of this protocol prohibits all activities relating to Antarctic mineral resources, except for scientific research. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    Maitri is India's second permanent research station in Antarctica as part of the Indian Antarctic Programme. It was built and finished in 1989, shortly before the first station Dakshin Gangotri was buried in ice and abandoned in 1990–91. Maitri is situated on the rocky mountainous region called Schirmacher Oasis. Hence statement 3 is correct.
36. Question 36 of 100

    36. Question

    Consider the following statements with regard to occurrence of minerals:
    (1) Coal and iron ore are found in the sedimentary rocks.
    (2) Metallic minerals like tin and copper are found in the igneous rocks.
    (3) Bauxite is found in the form of placer deposits.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Coal and some forms of iron ore are found in the Sedimentary rocks.
    In sedimentary rocks a number of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata. Coal and some forms of iron ore have been concentrated as a result of long periods under great heat and pressure.
    Another group of sedimentary minerals include gypsum, potash salt and sodium salt. These are formed as a result of evaporation especially in arid regions.
    Statement 2 is correct. Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc and lead etc. are obtained from igneous and metamorphic rocks.
    In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface. They cool and solidify as they rise.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Bauxite ore is not found in the placer deposits. Bauxite is found in the form of residual mass which remains after decomposition and removal of soluble constituents.
    The decomposition of surface rocks, and the removal of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered material containing ores is one of ways in which minerals are formed. Bauxite is formed this way.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Coal and some forms of iron ore are found in the Sedimentary rocks.
    In sedimentary rocks a number of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata. Coal and some forms of iron ore have been concentrated as a result of long periods under great heat and pressure.
    Another group of sedimentary minerals include gypsum, potash salt and sodium salt. These are formed as a result of evaporation especially in arid regions.
    Statement 2 is correct. Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc and lead etc. are obtained from igneous and metamorphic rocks.
    In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface. They cool and solidify as they rise.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Bauxite ore is not found in the placer deposits. Bauxite is found in the form of residual mass which remains after decomposition and removal of soluble constituents.
    The decomposition of surface rocks, and the removal of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered material containing ores is one of ways in which minerals are formed. Bauxite is formed this way.
37. Question 37 of 100

    37. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was set up in 1988 and was given statutory recognition in 1992.
    (2) Capital market refers to the market for short to medium-term funds for investment purposes.
    (3) BSE is the largest stock market in the country.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Capital market refers to the market for long-term funds for investment purposes. The capital market is the source of funds for the corporates and the governments, and provides opportunities to the savers to park their long-term savings. The capital market comprises two segments: the primary and the secondary markets.
    The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was set up in 1988 and was given statutory recognition in 1992.
    The setting up to the NSE (The National Stock Exchange of India Ltd) is a landmark in the Indian capital markets. At present, the NSE is the largest stock market in the country. Trading on the NSE can be done throughout the country through the network of satellite terminals. The NSE has introduced inter-regional clearing facilities.

    Unattempted
    

    Capital market refers to the market for long-term funds for investment purposes. The capital market is the source of funds for the corporates and the governments, and provides opportunities to the savers to park their long-term savings. The capital market comprises two segments: the primary and the secondary markets.
    The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was set up in 1988 and was given statutory recognition in 1992.
    The setting up to the NSE (The National Stock Exchange of India Ltd) is a landmark in the Indian capital markets. At present, the NSE is the largest stock market in the country. Trading on the NSE can be done throughout the country through the network of satellite terminals. The NSE has introduced inter-regional clearing facilities.
38. Question 38 of 100

    38. Question

    With reference to state funding of elections, consider the following statements:
    (1) It means that government gives funds to political parties or candidates for contesting elections.
    (2) Partial state funding of elections is practised in India.
    (3) It can limit the influence of wealthy people and rich mafias.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    State funding of elections means that government gives funds to political parties or candidates for contesting elections. State funding increases transparency inside the party and also in candidate finance, as certain restrictions can be put along with state funding. State funding can limit the influence of wealthy people and rich mafias, thereby purifying the election process Through state funding the demand for internal democracy in party, women representations, representations of weaker section can be encouraged. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
    Through state funding of elections the tax payers are forced to support even those political parties or candidates, whose view they do not subscribe to. State funding encourages status quo that keeps the established party or candidate in power and makes it difficult for the new parties.
    State funding of elections is not practiced in India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    State funding of elections means that government gives funds to political parties or candidates for contesting elections. State funding increases transparency inside the party and also in candidate finance, as certain restrictions can be put along with state funding. State funding can limit the influence of wealthy people and rich mafias, thereby purifying the election process Through state funding the demand for internal democracy in party, women representations, representations of weaker section can be encouraged. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
    Through state funding of elections the tax payers are forced to support even those political parties or candidates, whose view they do not subscribe to. State funding encourages status quo that keeps the established party or candidate in power and makes it difficult for the new parties.
    State funding of elections is not practiced in India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
39. Question 39 of 100

    39. Question

    Species diversity increases as we move from
    (1) low to high latitudes
    (2) high to low altitudes
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Species diversity decreases as we move from low to high latitudes. Biodiversity varies with change in latitude or altitude. As we move from high to low latitudes (i.e. from the poles to the equator), broadly speaking, the biological diversity increases. While in temperate region the climate is severe with short growing period for plants, in tropical rain forest the conditions are favourable for growth throughout the year. Favourable environmental conditions favour speciation, and make it possible for a larger number of species to occur and grow. For example, mean number of vascular plant species per 0.1 ha sample area in tropical rain forests varies from 118-236, whereas it is only in the range of 21-48 species in the temperate zones.Similarly, we generally notice a increase in species diversity from higher to lower altitudes on a mountain. A 1000 m increase in altitude results in a temperature drop of about 6.50 C. This drop in temperature and greater seasonal variability at higher altitudes are a major factor that reduces diversity.The latitudinal and altitudinal gradients are two master gradients, although regional and taxa-related exceptions do occur.

    Unattempted
    

    Species diversity decreases as we move from low to high latitudes. Biodiversity varies with change in latitude or altitude. As we move from high to low latitudes (i.e. from the poles to the equator), broadly speaking, the biological diversity increases. While in temperate region the climate is severe with short growing period for plants, in tropical rain forest the conditions are favourable for growth throughout the year. Favourable environmental conditions favour speciation, and make it possible for a larger number of species to occur and grow. For example, mean number of vascular plant species per 0.1 ha sample area in tropical rain forests varies from 118-236, whereas it is only in the range of 21-48 species in the temperate zones.Similarly, we generally notice a increase in species diversity from higher to lower altitudes on a mountain. A 1000 m increase in altitude results in a temperature drop of about 6.50 C. This drop in temperature and greater seasonal variability at higher altitudes are a major factor that reduces diversity.The latitudinal and altitudinal gradients are two master gradients, although regional and taxa-related exceptions do occur.
40. Question 40 of 100

    40. Question

    With reference to the Sadler Commission of 1917, consider the following statements:
    (1) It focussed on university education and overlooked primary and secondary education.
    (2) It encouraged female education.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Sadler Commission was set up to study and report on problems of Calcutta University but its recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also. It reviewed the entire field from school education to university education. It held the view that, for the improvement of university education, improvement of secondary education was a necessary precondition. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    o It made following recommendations:
    A separate board of secondary and 'intermediate education should be set up for administration and control of secondary and intermediate education.
    There should be less rigidity in framing university regulations.
    A university should function as centralised, unitary residential-teaching autonomous body, rather than as scattered, affiliated colleges.
    Female education, applied scientific and technological education, teachers' training including those for professional and vocational colleges should be extended. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Sadler Commission was set up to study and report on problems of Calcutta University but its recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also. It reviewed the entire field from school education to university education. It held the view that, for the improvement of university education, improvement of secondary education was a necessary precondition. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    o It made following recommendations:
    A separate board of secondary and 'intermediate education should be set up for administration and control of secondary and intermediate education.
    There should be less rigidity in framing university regulations.
    A university should function as centralised, unitary residential-teaching autonomous body, rather than as scattered, affiliated colleges.
    Female education, applied scientific and technological education, teachers' training including those for professional and vocational colleges should be extended. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
41. Question 41 of 100

    41. Question

    With regard to Electoral Trusts, consider the following statements:
    (1) They are created with an objective to distribute the contributions received by it to the political party concerned.
    (2) They can receive contributions from both citizens and foreigners.
    (3) They can receive the funding both in cash and non-cash form.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Electoral Trust is a Section 25 Company or a non-profit company created in India for orderly receipt of the voluntary contributions from any person and for distributing the same to the respective political parties, registered under Section 29A of the Representation of People Act, 1951.
    The objective of the Electoral Trust is not to earn any profit or pass any direct or indirect benefit to its members or contributors. The sole objective is to distribute the contributions received by it to the political party concerned. This is a mechanism for bringing transparency and sanity in the political party funding. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
    Funding : Electoral Trust can raise funds from Indian citizens and domestic companies which are registered in India and also from a firm or Hindu Undivided Family or an association of persons or a body of individuals, who are residing in India. The electoral trust cannot accept any contribution without the permanent account number (PAN) of the contributor, who is a resident and the passport number in the case of a citizen of India, who is not a resident.
    The electoral trust cannot accept contributions from non-citizens, other electoral trust or government companies or from any other foreign sources or from any foreign entity whether incorporated or not. They cannot take contributions in cash.Hence, both statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
    The Central Government amended the Income Tax Rules, 1962 to list the functions of Electoral Trusts which are approved by the Central Bureau of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
    The list of electoral trust is maintained by Ministry of Corporate Affairs.Those electoral trusts are recognised by the CBDT, and their contribution reports are maintained by the Election Commission of India.

    Unattempted
    

    Electoral Trust is a Section 25 Company or a non-profit company created in India for orderly receipt of the voluntary contributions from any person and for distributing the same to the respective political parties, registered under Section 29A of the Representation of People Act, 1951.
    The objective of the Electoral Trust is not to earn any profit or pass any direct or indirect benefit to its members or contributors. The sole objective is to distribute the contributions received by it to the political party concerned. This is a mechanism for bringing transparency and sanity in the political party funding. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
    Funding : Electoral Trust can raise funds from Indian citizens and domestic companies which are registered in India and also from a firm or Hindu Undivided Family or an association of persons or a body of individuals, who are residing in India. The electoral trust cannot accept any contribution without the permanent account number (PAN) of the contributor, who is a resident and the passport number in the case of a citizen of India, who is not a resident.
    The electoral trust cannot accept contributions from non-citizens, other electoral trust or government companies or from any other foreign sources or from any foreign entity whether incorporated or not. They cannot take contributions in cash.Hence, both statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
    The Central Government amended the Income Tax Rules, 1962 to list the functions of Electoral Trusts which are approved by the Central Bureau of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
    The list of electoral trust is maintained by Ministry of Corporate Affairs.Those electoral trusts are recognised by the CBDT, and their contribution reports are maintained by the Election Commission of India.
42. Question 42 of 100

    42. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Board of Film Certification in India;
    (1) It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
    (2) The Chairman and members of the board are appointed by the President of India.
    Which of the above-mentioned statements is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    • The present certification of films is governed by the 1952 Cinematograph Act, the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules promulgated in 1983 and the Guidelines issued thereunder from time to time, the latest having been issued on December 6, 1991.
    • The Cinematograph Act, 1952, apart from including provisions relating to the Constitution and functioning of the Central Board of Film Certification, also lays down the guidelines to be followed by certifying films.
    • Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairman, all of whom are appointed by Central Government, and functions with headquarters at Mumbai. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    • It has nine Regional offices, one each at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack and Guwahati.
    • The Regional Offices are assisted in the examination of films by Advisory Panels.
    • The members of the panels are nominated by Central Government by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of 2 years.

    Unattempted
    

    • The present certification of films is governed by the 1952 Cinematograph Act, the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules promulgated in 1983 and the Guidelines issued thereunder from time to time, the latest having been issued on December 6, 1991.
    • The Cinematograph Act, 1952, apart from including provisions relating to the Constitution and functioning of the Central Board of Film Certification, also lays down the guidelines to be followed by certifying films.
    • Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairman, all of whom are appointed by Central Government, and functions with headquarters at Mumbai. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    • It has nine Regional offices, one each at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack and Guwahati.
    • The Regional Offices are assisted in the examination of films by Advisory Panels.
    • The members of the panels are nominated by Central Government by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of 2 years.
43. Question 43 of 100

    43. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Some plants can photosynthesize optimally under very low light conditions.
    (2) Seasonal variations in light intensity and duration act as cues for animal behaviour.
    (3) Green algae are found in much deeper waters than the red algae.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Since plants produce food through photosynthesis, a process which is only possible when sunlight is available as a source of energy, light plays an important role for living organisms, particularly autotrophs.
    Effect of light on organisms include:
    Statement 1 is correct. Many species of small plants (herbs and shrubs) growing in forests are adapted to photosynthesize optimally under very low light conditions because they are constantly overshadowed by tall, canopied trees.
    Statement 2 is correct. For many animals, light is important in that they use the diurnal and seasonal variations in light intensity and duration (photoperiod) as cues for timing their foraging, reproductive and migratory activities.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Not all the colour components of the visible spectrum are available for marine plants living at different depths of the ocean. Bluish portion of the spectrum has the shortest wavelength and the highest energy. So, this bluish component is able to penetrate deep down in the ocean depths. Since red algae can absorb blue light, they can live in much deeper water where light of long wavelengths – like red can't reach. Red algae have been found living in depths of over 500 feet. Green algae absorb red light while reflecting green light. Since red light’s ability to penetrate in water is less than the blue light, red algae are found at much deeper waters than the green algae.

    Unattempted
    

    Since plants produce food through photosynthesis, a process which is only possible when sunlight is available as a source of energy, light plays an important role for living organisms, particularly autotrophs.
    Effect of light on organisms include:
    Statement 1 is correct. Many species of small plants (herbs and shrubs) growing in forests are adapted to photosynthesize optimally under very low light conditions because they are constantly overshadowed by tall, canopied trees.
    Statement 2 is correct. For many animals, light is important in that they use the diurnal and seasonal variations in light intensity and duration (photoperiod) as cues for timing their foraging, reproductive and migratory activities.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Not all the colour components of the visible spectrum are available for marine plants living at different depths of the ocean. Bluish portion of the spectrum has the shortest wavelength and the highest energy. So, this bluish component is able to penetrate deep down in the ocean depths. Since red algae can absorb blue light, they can live in much deeper water where light of long wavelengths – like red can't reach. Red algae have been found living in depths of over 500 feet. Green algae absorb red light while reflecting green light. Since red light’s ability to penetrate in water is less than the blue light, red algae are found at much deeper waters than the green algae.
44. Question 44 of 100

    44. Question

    Which of the following concept best describes how a species obtains its energy and influences other species in its own environment?
    (A) Habitat
    (B) Community
    (C) Ecological niche
    (D) Ecosystem

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Ecological niche describes the functional role played by an organism as well as the physical space it inhabits. If the habitat is the individual's “address”, then the niche is its “profession”, including how and where it obtains its energy and how it influences other species and the environment around it. When describing the ecological niche, our concern is about the organism's tolerances and responses to changes in moisture, temperature, soil chemistry, illumination, and other factors.

    Unattempted
    

    Ecological niche describes the functional role played by an organism as well as the physical space it inhabits. If the habitat is the individual's “address”, then the niche is its “profession”, including how and where it obtains its energy and how it influences other species and the environment around it. When describing the ecological niche, our concern is about the organism's tolerances and responses to changes in moisture, temperature, soil chemistry, illumination, and other factors.
45. Question 45 of 100

    45. Question

    With references to India, ‘Kantu’, ‘Kakni’, ‘Ghugri’, and ‘Sukri’ are the names of?
    (A) Small rivers
    (B) Saline lakes
    (C) Mangrove areas
    (D) Water reservoirs

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The area of inland drainage in the Rajasthan Desert Basin extends over the states of Haryana and Rajasthan. It is bounded by the Punjab plains on the north and east, by the Aravalli range on the south, and by the Thar Desert on the west. The small rivers draining into the basin are the Kantu, the Kakni, the Ghugri, and the Sukri. So, Option (A) is correct.
    A Salt Lake or saline lake is a landlocked land body of water with a concentration of salts (typically sodium chloride) and other dissolved minerals significantly higher than most lakes (i.e., bodies of water with salinities above 3 grams per). So, Option (B) is not correct.
    Mangroves are a group of trees and shrubs that live in the coastal intertidal zone, and In India, it is spread over an area of 4,975 sq. km (1.2 million acres), which is 0.15% of the country’s total geographical area.”
    Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. So, Option (C) is not correct.CCC A reservoir is an artificial lake where water is stored. Most reservoirs are formed by constructing dams across rivers. So, Option (D) is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The area of inland drainage in the Rajasthan Desert Basin extends over the states of Haryana and Rajasthan. It is bounded by the Punjab plains on the north and east, by the Aravalli range on the south, and by the Thar Desert on the west. The small rivers draining into the basin are the Kantu, the Kakni, the Ghugri, and the Sukri. So, Option (A) is correct.
    A Salt Lake or saline lake is a landlocked land body of water with a concentration of salts (typically sodium chloride) and other dissolved minerals significantly higher than most lakes (i.e., bodies of water with salinities above 3 grams per). So, Option (B) is not correct.
    Mangroves are a group of trees and shrubs that live in the coastal intertidal zone, and In India, it is spread over an area of 4,975 sq. km (1.2 million acres), which is 0.15% of the country’s total geographical area.”
    Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. So, Option (C) is not correct.CCC A reservoir is an artificial lake where water is stored. Most reservoirs are formed by constructing dams across rivers. So, Option (D) is not correct.
46. Question 46 of 100

    46. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to tribes of India :
    (1) Bhils constitute the largest tribe in India in terms of population, followed by the Gonds.
    (2) The population of tribes in India has been declining consistently, since Independence.
    (3) Hatti's of Assam and Kuruvikkaran of Odisha have been recently granted Scheduled Tribes status.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Bhils, or Bheel, are India's largest tribe and the most populous tribal communities, with people living in Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Rajasthan. The name comes from the word 'billu,' meaning “bow.”
    The Bhils are recognised for being great archers with extensive knowledge of their surroundings. According to the 2011 Indian census, Bhil is the most populous tribe, with a total population of 4,618 068, accounting for 37.7% of all Scheduled Tribes.
    Gonds are the second-largest tribe of India, mostly found in the Chhindwara district of Madhya Pradesh, the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh and parts of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Odisha.
    Their staple food is two kinds of millet:
    Kodo and Kutki. Rice is mostly consumed during festival feasts. Gonds believe that Gods rule the earth, water and air. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Since the Independence, the population of the scheduled tribes in India is consistently increasing from one census to mthe other. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    Hatti community settled in the Trans-Giri area of Sirmaur, Himachal Pradesh. Brijiya community in Chhattisgarh and Kuruvikkaran from Tamil Nadu, Betta Kuruba from Karnataka, Gond from Uttar Pradesh. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Bhils, or Bheel, are India's largest tribe and the most populous tribal communities, with people living in Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Rajasthan. The name comes from the word 'billu,' meaning “bow.”
    The Bhils are recognised for being great archers with extensive knowledge of their surroundings. According to the 2011 Indian census, Bhil is the most populous tribe, with a total population of 4,618 068, accounting for 37.7% of all Scheduled Tribes.
    Gonds are the second-largest tribe of India, mostly found in the Chhindwara district of Madhya Pradesh, the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh and parts of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Odisha.
    Their staple food is two kinds of millet:
    Kodo and Kutki. Rice is mostly consumed during festival feasts. Gonds believe that Gods rule the earth, water and air. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Since the Independence, the population of the scheduled tribes in India is consistently increasing from one census to mthe other. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    Hatti community settled in the Trans-Giri area of Sirmaur, Himachal Pradesh. Brijiya community in Chhattisgarh and Kuruvikkaran from Tamil Nadu, Betta Kuruba from Karnataka, Gond from Uttar Pradesh. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
47. Question 47 of 100

    47. Question

    which of the following are major causes of biodiversity loss in an ecosystem?
    (1) Habitat destruction
    (2) Over exploitation
    (3) Pollution
    (4) Introduction of invasive species
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (C) 1 and 4 only
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The extinction of species takes place when they are exploited for economic gain or hunted as sport or for food. Extinction of species may also occur due to environmental reasons like ecological substitutions, biological factors and pathological causes which can be caused either by nature or man.
    i) Natural causes: Floods, Earthquakes, Landslides, Rivalry among species, Lack of pollination and Diseases.
    ii) Man-Made causes: Habitat destruction, Uncontrolled (Over) commercial exploitation, Hunting & poaching, Conversion of rich biodiversity site for human settlement and industrial development, Extension of agriculture pollution, Filling up of wetlands, Destruction of coastal areas, Species Introduction etc.

    Unattempted
    

    The extinction of species takes place when they are exploited for economic gain or hunted as sport or for food. Extinction of species may also occur due to environmental reasons like ecological substitutions, biological factors and pathological causes which can be caused either by nature or man.
    i) Natural causes: Floods, Earthquakes, Landslides, Rivalry among species, Lack of pollination and Diseases.
    ii) Man-Made causes: Habitat destruction, Uncontrolled (Over) commercial exploitation, Hunting & poaching, Conversion of rich biodiversity site for human settlement and industrial development, Extension of agriculture pollution, Filling up of wetlands, Destruction of coastal areas, Species Introduction etc.
48. Question 48 of 100

    48. Question

    Which of the following are examples of methods of energy conservation?
    (1) Better insulation of buildings
    (2) Encouraging public transport
    (3) Recycling of metals
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 2 and 3 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 3
    (D) 1 and 2 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The practice of increasing the efficiency of use of energy in order to achieve higher useful output for the same energy consumption is called energy conservation.
    Insulation reduces the exchange of heat through a surface such as a wall, duct or roof. In a well-insulated home, less warm air escapes from the house during the winter, and less cool air escapes during the summer, reducing the amount of energy needed for heating and cooling.
    Public transportation enables more people to travel together along designated routes. Thus, the energy consumed is lower per person as compared to the case when private transportation is used.
    When a recycled material, rather than a raw material, is used to make a new product, natural resources and energy are conserved. This is because recycled materials have already been refined and processed once; manufacturing the second time is much cleaner and less energy-intensive than the first. For example, manufacturing with recycled aluminum cans uses 95 percent less energy than creating the same amount of aluminum with bauxite. Hence, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The practice of increasing the efficiency of use of energy in order to achieve higher useful output for the same energy consumption is called energy conservation.
    Insulation reduces the exchange of heat through a surface such as a wall, duct or roof. In a well-insulated home, less warm air escapes from the house during the winter, and less cool air escapes during the summer, reducing the amount of energy needed for heating and cooling.
    Public transportation enables more people to travel together along designated routes. Thus, the energy consumed is lower per person as compared to the case when private transportation is used.
    When a recycled material, rather than a raw material, is used to make a new product, natural resources and energy are conserved. This is because recycled materials have already been refined and processed once; manufacturing the second time is much cleaner and less energy-intensive than the first. For example, manufacturing with recycled aluminum cans uses 95 percent less energy than creating the same amount of aluminum with bauxite. Hence, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
49. Question 49 of 100

    49. Question

    Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
    (1) Gaseous cycles are relatively imperfect than sedimentary cycles.
    (2) Both carbon and nitrogen nutrient cycles are soil nutrient cycles.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Based on the replacement period, a nutrient cycle is referred to as Perfect or Imperfect Cycle. A perfect cycle is one in which nutrients are replaced as fast as they are utilised. Most gaseous cycles are generally considered as perfect cycles. In contrast, sedimentary cycles are considered relatively imperfect, as some nutrients are lost from the cycle and get locked into sediments and so become unavailable for immediate cycling. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Statement 2 is correct. Carbon and Nitrogen nutrient cycles make up an essential part of the overall soil nutrient cycle. These cycles ensure the turnover and supply of nutrients that are essential for plant and crop growth, through the interconversion of different forms of nitrogen, sulphur and phosphorus, interlinked with the carbon cycle.

    Unattempted
    

    Based on the replacement period, a nutrient cycle is referred to as Perfect or Imperfect Cycle. A perfect cycle is one in which nutrients are replaced as fast as they are utilised. Most gaseous cycles are generally considered as perfect cycles. In contrast, sedimentary cycles are considered relatively imperfect, as some nutrients are lost from the cycle and get locked into sediments and so become unavailable for immediate cycling. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Statement 2 is correct. Carbon and Nitrogen nutrient cycles make up an essential part of the overall soil nutrient cycle. These cycles ensure the turnover and supply of nutrients that are essential for plant and crop growth, through the interconversion of different forms of nitrogen, sulphur and phosphorus, interlinked with the carbon cycle.
50. Question 50 of 100

    50. Question

    Consider the following w.r.t ‘Influenza’
    (1) Influenza viruses circulate in all parts of the world where type C influenza cases occur much more frequently than A and B.
    (2) Avian influenza is a viral disease of birds and do not infect humans
    (3) H1N1 is a type of influenza
    Select the correct code
    (A) 1 and 3
    (B) 1, 2 and 3
    (C) Only 3
    (D) Only 1

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Seasonal influenza is an acute viral infection caused by an influenza virus.
    There are 3 types of seasonal influenza viruses – A, B and C. Type A influenza viruses are further classified into subtypes according to the combinations of various virus surface proteins. Among many subtypes of influenza A viruses, influenza A(H1N1) and A(H3N2) subtypes are currently circulating among humans.
    Influenza viruses circulate in all parts of the world. Type C influenza cases occur much less frequently than A and B. That is why only influenza A and B viruses are included in seasonal influenza vaccines.
    Avian influenza (AI), commonly called bird flu, is an infectious viral disease of birds.Most avian influenza viruses do not infect humans; however some, such as A(H5N1) and A(H7N9), have caused serious infections in people.

    Unattempted
    

    Seasonal influenza is an acute viral infection caused by an influenza virus.
    There are 3 types of seasonal influenza viruses – A, B and C. Type A influenza viruses are further classified into subtypes according to the combinations of various virus surface proteins. Among many subtypes of influenza A viruses, influenza A(H1N1) and A(H3N2) subtypes are currently circulating among humans.
    Influenza viruses circulate in all parts of the world. Type C influenza cases occur much less frequently than A and B. That is why only influenza A and B viruses are included in seasonal influenza vaccines.
    Avian influenza (AI), commonly called bird flu, is an infectious viral disease of birds.Most avian influenza viruses do not infect humans; however some, such as A(H5N1) and A(H7N9), have caused serious infections in people.
51. Question 51 of 100

    51. Question

    Which among the following places were associated with the life of Mahatama Gandhi?
    (1) Natal
    (2) Transvaal
    (3) Pietermaritzburg
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mahatama Gandhi established Phoenix settlement in Natal in 1904 inspired by reading of John Ruskin's Unto This Last, a work that extolled the virtues of the simple life of love, labour, and the dignity of human beings.
    Gandhi helped establish the Natal Indian Congress and the Transvaal British Indian Association to make representations to the authorities. He encouraged the youth to participate in public work and provided free legal services to indentured labourers.
    He organised satyagraha movement in the Transvaal against the Asiatic Registration Act of 1907 and the Transvaal Immigration Act.
    Pietermaritzburg was where Gandhiji was evicted from a train in 1893 for refusing to obey an order to move from a first-class compartment because of his race.

    Unattempted
    

    Mahatama Gandhi established Phoenix settlement in Natal in 1904 inspired by reading of John Ruskin's Unto This Last, a work that extolled the virtues of the simple life of love, labour, and the dignity of human beings.
    Gandhi helped establish the Natal Indian Congress and the Transvaal British Indian Association to make representations to the authorities. He encouraged the youth to participate in public work and provided free legal services to indentured labourers.
    He organised satyagraha movement in the Transvaal against the Asiatic Registration Act of 1907 and the Transvaal Immigration Act.
    Pietermaritzburg was where Gandhiji was evicted from a train in 1893 for refusing to obey an order to move from a first-class compartment because of his race.
52. Question 52 of 100

    52. Question

    Consider the following statements about primary productivity of an ecosystem:
    (1) Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.
    (2) Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A constant input of solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and sustain. Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of weight (g –2 ) or energy (kcal m–2). The rate of biomass production is called productivity. It is expressed in terms of gm–2 yr –1 or (kcal m–2) yr –1 to compare the productivity of different ecosystems. It can be divided into gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP). Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. Hence, statement 1 is correct. A considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP). GPP – R = NPP Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbiviores and decomposers).Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A constant input of solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and sustain. Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of weight (g –2 ) or energy (kcal m–2). The rate of biomass production is called productivity. It is expressed in terms of gm–2 yr –1 or (kcal m–2) yr –1 to compare the productivity of different ecosystems. It can be divided into gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP). Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. Hence, statement 1 is correct. A considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP). GPP – R = NPP Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbiviores and decomposers).Hence, statement 2 is correct.
53. Question 53 of 100

    53. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Aluminium Industry in India:
    (1) The ores for Aluminium are usually found at great depths below the surface and are seldom found at the top of plateaus and mountains.
    (2) Aluminium Smelting is more energy intensive than Copper smelting.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    There are several ores that contain aluminium. But it is from bauxite, a clay-like substance that alumina and later aluminium is obtained. Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates. It is not a specific mineral but a rock that consists mainly of hydrated aluminium oxides. It is mostl associated with laterite soil whose deposits occur as blankets or cuppings on hills and are always mostly at the top of plateaus. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
    ** Aluminium smelting is the process of extracting Aluminium from its oxide, alumina and is an electrolytic process, so an aluminium smelter uses huge amounts of electric power.
    ** Copper smelting is the process through which the copper ore is purified through intense heating and melting to derive high-quality Copper or copper products.
    ** Aluminium production is more energy intensive and depends on electricity which requires around 14 MWh per tonne of metal, which is about seven times more than copper smelting.
    Copper is not the most energy-intensive metal to produce. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    ALUMINUM INDUSTRY IN INDIA
    About ** Aluminium is the second most important metallurgical industry.
    ** Its elasticity, good conductivity of electricity and heat, and capacity to be moulded into any desired shape have made it a universally accepted metal.
    ** In India, Aluminium is used in power (48%), automobiles (15%), construction (13%), packaging (8%), and industrial (7%). Consumption of aluminium has nearby (4.3%).
    Location ** Availability of Bauxite (raw material) and hydroelectricity are the basic requirements for establishing the aluminium industry.
    ** About 30 to 40% of the production cost of aluminium is accounted for electricity alone.

    Unattempted
    

    There are several ores that contain aluminium. But it is from bauxite, a clay-like substance that alumina and later aluminium is obtained. Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates. It is not a specific mineral but a rock that consists mainly of hydrated aluminium oxides. It is mostl associated with laterite soil whose deposits occur as blankets or cuppings on hills and are always mostly at the top of plateaus. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
    ** Aluminium smelting is the process of extracting Aluminium from its oxide, alumina and is an electrolytic process, so an aluminium smelter uses huge amounts of electric power.
    ** Copper smelting is the process through which the copper ore is purified through intense heating and melting to derive high-quality Copper or copper products.
    ** Aluminium production is more energy intensive and depends on electricity which requires around 14 MWh per tonne of metal, which is about seven times more than copper smelting.
    Copper is not the most energy-intensive metal to produce. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    ALUMINUM INDUSTRY IN INDIA
    About ** Aluminium is the second most important metallurgical industry.
    ** Its elasticity, good conductivity of electricity and heat, and capacity to be moulded into any desired shape have made it a universally accepted metal.
    ** In India, Aluminium is used in power (48%), automobiles (15%), construction (13%), packaging (8%), and industrial (7%). Consumption of aluminium has nearby (4.3%).
    Location ** Availability of Bauxite (raw material) and hydroelectricity are the basic requirements for establishing the aluminium industry.
    ** About 30 to 40% of the production cost of aluminium is accounted for electricity alone.
54. Question 54 of 100

    54. Question

    Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the ‘Khayyam satellite’, which is sometimes seen in the news recently?
    (A) It is a remote-sensing satellite of Iran.
    (B) It is a new Earth observation satellite from China.
    (C) It is a spy satellite launched recently by the United States of America.
    (D) It is a retrievable scientific research satellite of Israel.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Khayyam is a “remote sensing satellite” which belongs to Iran. It was launched into its orbit in cooperation with Russia, with Russian Soyuz rocket from Baiknour space station. It will take all of its commands from Iranian space scientists. Though the satellite is being launched into space by Russia, it will be controlled and steered by Iranian ground stations.
    ** The satellite can capture images of the earth's surface in various picture spectrums and has a high degree of imaging precision.
    Objectives are:
    ** Enhancing agricultural output.
    ** Monitor the country's borders.
    ** Monitoring natural disasters and water resources.
    So, Option (A) is correct.
    ONEWEB INDIA-1 MISSION (LVM-3-M2)
    About ** The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is set to launch its maiden commercial of 36 broadband communication satellites on board the space agency's heaviest rocket, LVM3-M2, at Sriharikota spaceport in Andhra Pradesh.
    ** The Launch vehicle of LVM3-M2 from GSLV-MK III, the newest rocket, is capable of launching 4,000 kilograms class of satellites into GTO and 8,000 kgs of payloads into LEO.
    Key Facts ** The LVM3-M2 mission would boost the space agency with the new launch vehicle to place satellites into low earth orbit and its trusted workhorse Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
    ** LVM3-M2 is a three-stage launch vehicle consisting of two solid propellants, S200 strap-ons on its sides and a core stage comprising the L110 liquid stage and C25 cryogenic stage.

    Unattempted
    

    Khayyam is a “remote sensing satellite” which belongs to Iran. It was launched into its orbit in cooperation with Russia, with Russian Soyuz rocket from Baiknour space station. It will take all of its commands from Iranian space scientists. Though the satellite is being launched into space by Russia, it will be controlled and steered by Iranian ground stations.
    ** The satellite can capture images of the earth's surface in various picture spectrums and has a high degree of imaging precision.
    Objectives are:
    ** Enhancing agricultural output.
    ** Monitor the country's borders.
    ** Monitoring natural disasters and water resources.
    So, Option (A) is correct.
    ONEWEB INDIA-1 MISSION (LVM-3-M2)
    About ** The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is set to launch its maiden commercial of 36 broadband communication satellites on board the space agency's heaviest rocket, LVM3-M2, at Sriharikota spaceport in Andhra Pradesh.
    ** The Launch vehicle of LVM3-M2 from GSLV-MK III, the newest rocket, is capable of launching 4,000 kilograms class of satellites into GTO and 8,000 kgs of payloads into LEO.
    Key Facts ** The LVM3-M2 mission would boost the space agency with the new launch vehicle to place satellites into low earth orbit and its trusted workhorse Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
    ** LVM3-M2 is a three-stage launch vehicle consisting of two solid propellants, S200 strap-ons on its sides and a core stage comprising the L110 liquid stage and C25 cryogenic stage.
55. Question 55 of 100

    55. Question

    Open economic systems are those where:
    (1) consumers have the choice to purchase both domestic and foreign goods.
    (2) investors can invest in both domestic and foreign assets.
    (3) firms can choose where to locate production and workers to choose where to work.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o Most of the modern economic system are open in nature and interact with other economies of the world.
    This leads to widening of choices in three broad ways -:
    Consumers and firms have the opportunity to choose between domestic and foreign goods. This is the product market linkage which occurs through international trade.
    Investors have the opportunity to choose between domestic and foreign assets. This constitutes the financial market linkage.
    Firms can choose where to locate production and workers to choose where to work. This is the factor market linkage. Labour market linkages have been relatively less due to various restrictions on the movement of people through immigration laws. Movement of goods has traditionally been seen as a substitute for the movement of labour.
    Hence all the statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    o Most of the modern economic system are open in nature and interact with other economies of the world.
    This leads to widening of choices in three broad ways -:
    Consumers and firms have the opportunity to choose between domestic and foreign goods. This is the product market linkage which occurs through international trade.
    Investors have the opportunity to choose between domestic and foreign assets. This constitutes the financial market linkage.
    Firms can choose where to locate production and workers to choose where to work. This is the factor market linkage. Labour market linkages have been relatively less due to various restrictions on the movement of people through immigration laws. Movement of goods has traditionally been seen as a substitute for the movement of labour.
    Hence all the statements are correct.
56. Question 56 of 100

    56. Question

    With reference to debentures, consider the following statements:
    (1) A debenture is a bond with no collateral or assets backing the debt.
    (2) Debentures investors enjoy right to vote for members of the board of director and financial issues affecting the company.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Although a debenture is a bond, not all bonds are characterized as debentures. A debenture has no collateral or assets backing the debt. Instead, debentures are backed only by the creditworthiness of the issuer. Companies are expected to repay the principal on a debenture upon maturity, and most pay interest payments during the term of the loan or the term of the bond. Therefore, debentures are synonymous with unsecured bonds.
    o Statement 2 is not correct: Shareholders are entitled to certain rights which are not assigned to debenture holders/bondholders. Stockholders of common shares have a right to vote for members of the board of directors and financial issues affecting the company.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Although a debenture is a bond, not all bonds are characterized as debentures. A debenture has no collateral or assets backing the debt. Instead, debentures are backed only by the creditworthiness of the issuer. Companies are expected to repay the principal on a debenture upon maturity, and most pay interest payments during the term of the loan or the term of the bond. Therefore, debentures are synonymous with unsecured bonds.
    o Statement 2 is not correct: Shareholders are entitled to certain rights which are not assigned to debenture holders/bondholders. Stockholders of common shares have a right to vote for members of the board of directors and financial issues affecting the company.
57. Question 57 of 100

    57. Question

    It is issued for the period of less than one year and are used by banks. It isnegotiable and tradeable in the money market. It is:
    (A) Certificate of deposit
    (B) Commercial paper
    (C) Treasury bills
    (D) Commercial bills

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Certificate of deposit: It is used by banks and issued to the depositors for a specified period ranging less than one year—they are negotiable and tradable in the money market. Since 1993 the RBI allowed the financial institutions to operate in it— IFCI, IDBI, IRBI (IIBI since 1997) and the Exim Bank—they can issue CDs for the maturity periods above one year and up to three years.

    Unattempted
    

    Certificate of deposit: It is used by banks and issued to the depositors for a specified period ranging less than one year—they are negotiable and tradable in the money market. Since 1993 the RBI allowed the financial institutions to operate in it— IFCI, IDBI, IRBI (IIBI since 1997) and the Exim Bank—they can issue CDs for the maturity periods above one year and up to three years.
58. Question 58 of 100

    58. Question

    The tendency to increase variety and density of some organisms at the community border is known as:
    (A) Ecotone
    (B) Ecotope
    (C) Edge Effect
    (D) Niche

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Edge effects refer to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of two habitats. Areas with small habitat fragments exhibit especially pronounced edge effects that may extend throughout the range. As the edge effects increase, the boundary habitat allows for greater biodiversity.

    Unattempted
    

    Edge effects refer to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of two habitats. Areas with small habitat fragments exhibit especially pronounced edge effects that may extend throughout the range. As the edge effects increase, the boundary habitat allows for greater biodiversity.
59. Question 59 of 100

    59. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) ?
    (1) The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power.
    (2) Deep Freezers and Light Commercial Air Conditioners are part of BEE's star labelling program.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Government of India set up the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), on 1st March 2002 under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 and it was under the Ministry of Power.
    The mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency is to assist in developing policies and strategies with a thrust on self-regulation and market principles, within the overall framework of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 with the primary objective of reducing the energy intensity of the Indian economy. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Star Labelling Program has been formulated by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency. The program will include many appliances for granted Star Rating in terms of their energy performance. On the occasion of the 19th foundation day, BEE has expanded the coverage by including Energy Efficient “Deep Freezers” and “Light Commercial Air Conditioners (LCAC)” under the voluntary regime category.
    ** Star Labeling programme for Deep Freezer and Light Commercial Air Conditioners (LCAC) together are expected to save approx. 9 BU of electricity by 2030. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    BUREAU OF ENERGY EFFICIENCY
    ** It celebrated its 20 th Anniversary
    ** The facility for Low Carbon Technology Deployment (FLCTD) Project was launched in 2016 to identify innovative energy efficiency and low carbon technology solutions that address the existing technology gaps in Indian industrial and commercial sectors.)
    ** The FLCTD project is financed by the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and implemented by the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) in collaboration with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
    ** FLCTD has identified six priority technology verticals for the ‘Innovation Challenge.
    ** The project conducts an annual innovation challenge and invites participation from industry, innovators, and technical institutes in the following areas: Waste Heat Recovery, Space Conditioning, Pumps, Pumping Systems, and Motors, Industrial IoT, Industrial Resource Efficiency, and Electrical Energy Storage.

    Unattempted
    

    The Government of India set up the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), on 1st March 2002 under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 and it was under the Ministry of Power.
    The mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency is to assist in developing policies and strategies with a thrust on self-regulation and market principles, within the overall framework of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 with the primary objective of reducing the energy intensity of the Indian economy. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Star Labelling Program has been formulated by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency. The program will include many appliances for granted Star Rating in terms of their energy performance. On the occasion of the 19th foundation day, BEE has expanded the coverage by including Energy Efficient “Deep Freezers” and “Light Commercial Air Conditioners (LCAC)” under the voluntary regime category.
    ** Star Labeling programme for Deep Freezer and Light Commercial Air Conditioners (LCAC) together are expected to save approx. 9 BU of electricity by 2030. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    BUREAU OF ENERGY EFFICIENCY
    ** It celebrated its 20 th Anniversary
    ** The facility for Low Carbon Technology Deployment (FLCTD) Project was launched in 2016 to identify innovative energy efficiency and low carbon technology solutions that address the existing technology gaps in Indian industrial and commercial sectors.)
    ** The FLCTD project is financed by the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and implemented by the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) in collaboration with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
    ** FLCTD has identified six priority technology verticals for the ‘Innovation Challenge.
    ** The project conducts an annual innovation challenge and invites participation from industry, innovators, and technical institutes in the following areas: Waste Heat Recovery, Space Conditioning, Pumps, Pumping Systems, and Motors, Industrial IoT, Industrial Resource Efficiency, and Electrical Energy Storage.
60. Question 60 of 100

    60. Question

    With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:
    Famous work of art : Site
    (1) Painting of Jataka commonly called the dying princess : Ajanta
    (2) Ravana shaking Mount Kailash : Ellora
    (3) Shiva figure with two visible heads of Bhairava and Uma : Elephanta
    Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o All the pairs are correcty matched.
    o A beautiful example of Ajanta painting is the one which illustrates a scene of Jataka and commonly called 'the dying princess' in cave No.XVI painted in the early part of the 5th century A.D. The story tells how Nanda who was passionately in love with this girl was tricked away from her by the Buddha and carried up to heaven. Overwhelmed by the beauty of the Apsaras, Nanda forgot his earthly love and consented to enter the Buddhist order as a shortcut to heaven. In time, he came to see the vanity of his purely physical aim and became a Buddhist but the Princess, his beloved, was cruelly left to her fate without any such consolation. 'It is one of the most remarkable paintings of Ajanta as the movement of the line is sure and firm. This adaptation of line is the chief character of all oriental paintings and one of the greatest achievements of the Ajanta artists. Emotion and pathos are expressed here by the controlled turn and poise of the body and the eloquent gestures of the hands.
    o Many caves at Ellora are dedicated to Shaivism, but the images of both Shiva and Vishnu and their various orms according to Puranic narrative are depicted. Among the Shaivite themes, Ravana shaking Mount Kailash, Andhakasurvadha, Kalyanasundara are profusely depicted whereas among the Vaishnavite themes, the different avatars of Vishnu are depicted.
    o The image of Maheshmurti at Elephanta dates back to the early sixth century CE. The image is large in size. The central head is the main Shiva figure whereas the other two visible heads are of Bhairava and Uma. The all-inclusive aspect of Shiva is exhibited in this sculpture by soft-modelling, smooth surface and large face. The face of Shiva-Bhairava is clearly shown in profile in anger with bulging eye and mustache. The other face showing feminine characters is of Uma who is the consort of Shiva.

    Unattempted
    

    o All the pairs are correcty matched.
    o A beautiful example of Ajanta painting is the one which illustrates a scene of Jataka and commonly called 'the dying princess' in cave No.XVI painted in the early part of the 5th century A.D. The story tells how Nanda who was passionately in love with this girl was tricked away from her by the Buddha and carried up to heaven. Overwhelmed by the beauty of the Apsaras, Nanda forgot his earthly love and consented to enter the Buddhist order as a shortcut to heaven. In time, he came to see the vanity of his purely physical aim and became a Buddhist but the Princess, his beloved, was cruelly left to her fate without any such consolation. 'It is one of the most remarkable paintings of Ajanta as the movement of the line is sure and firm. This adaptation of line is the chief character of all oriental paintings and one of the greatest achievements of the Ajanta artists. Emotion and pathos are expressed here by the controlled turn and poise of the body and the eloquent gestures of the hands.
    o Many caves at Ellora are dedicated to Shaivism, but the images of both Shiva and Vishnu and their various orms according to Puranic narrative are depicted. Among the Shaivite themes, Ravana shaking Mount Kailash, Andhakasurvadha, Kalyanasundara are profusely depicted whereas among the Vaishnavite themes, the different avatars of Vishnu are depicted.
    o The image of Maheshmurti at Elephanta dates back to the early sixth century CE. The image is large in size. The central head is the main Shiva figure whereas the other two visible heads are of Bhairava and Uma. The all-inclusive aspect of Shiva is exhibited in this sculpture by soft-modelling, smooth surface and large face. The face of Shiva-Bhairava is clearly shown in profile in anger with bulging eye and mustache. The other face showing feminine characters is of Uma who is the consort of Shiva.
61. Question 61 of 100

    61. Question

    A situation where any advantage given by one member of the WTO to another member must be extended to all WTO members is termed as the
    (A) Trade diversion principle
    (B) Intra-regional principle
    (C) Most Favoured Nation principle
    (D) Comparative advantage principle

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Most Favored Nation (MFN) treatment is understood as non-discriminatory trade policy, because it ensures equal rather than exclusive trading privileges between two partners. It is a situation where any advantage given by one member of the WTO to another member must be extended to all WTO members. Hence, option (C) is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Most Favored Nation (MFN) treatment is understood as non-discriminatory trade policy, because it ensures equal rather than exclusive trading privileges between two partners. It is a situation where any advantage given by one member of the WTO to another member must be extended to all WTO members. Hence, option (C) is correct.
62. Question 62 of 100

    62. Question

    The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is entrusted with auditing the accounts of which of the following entities?
    (1) State owned public sector commercial enterprises
    (2) Autonomous bodies financed by Central and State governments.
    (3) District and Regional Councils of tribal areas
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 3
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    As a constitutional functionary, CAG is primarily entrusted with the responsibility to audit the accounts and related activities of the three tiers of Government – Federal, Provincial and Local; the State owned public sector commercial enterprises; and autonomous bodies financed by the Federal and Provincial Governments. His reports are laid before the Parliament and Legislatures of the Provinces. Hence, options 1 and 2 are correct. [Articles 244(2) and 275(1)]
    District and Regional Funds—
    There shall be constituted for each autonomous district, a District Fund and for each autonomous region, a Regional Fund.
    The Governor may make rules for the management of the District Fund, or, as the case may be, the Regional Fund.
    The accounts of the District Council or, as the case may be, the Regional Council shall be kept in such form as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India may, with the approval of the President, prescribe.
    The Comptroller and Auditor-General shall cause the accounts of the District and Regional Councils to be audited in such manner as he may think fit, and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General relating to such accounts shall be submitted to the Governor who shall cause them to be laid before the Council. Hence, option 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    As a constitutional functionary, CAG is primarily entrusted with the responsibility to audit the accounts and related activities of the three tiers of Government – Federal, Provincial and Local; the State owned public sector commercial enterprises; and autonomous bodies financed by the Federal and Provincial Governments. His reports are laid before the Parliament and Legislatures of the Provinces. Hence, options 1 and 2 are correct. [Articles 244(2) and 275(1)]
    District and Regional Funds—
    There shall be constituted for each autonomous district, a District Fund and for each autonomous region, a Regional Fund.
    The Governor may make rules for the management of the District Fund, or, as the case may be, the Regional Fund.
    The accounts of the District Council or, as the case may be, the Regional Council shall be kept in such form as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India may, with the approval of the President, prescribe.
    The Comptroller and Auditor-General shall cause the accounts of the District and Regional Councils to be audited in such manner as he may think fit, and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General relating to such accounts shall be submitted to the Governor who shall cause them to be laid before the Council. Hence, option 3 is correct.
63. Question 63 of 100

    63. Question

    With reference to e-DNA, consider the following statements :
    (1) e-DNA is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA released from an organism into the environment.
    (2) It can help to understand the composition of animal communities and detect the spread of non-native species.
    (3) UNEP launches a global eDNA project to study species' vulnerability to climate change at marine world heritage sites.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    DNA, short for deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in organisms that contains the biological instructions for building and maintaining them. Environmental DNA (eDNA) is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA that is released from an organism into the environment. Sources of eDNA include secreted feces, mucous, and gametes, shed skin and hair, and carcasses. eDNA can be detected in cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The applications of e- DNA indicate a big potential to be used for the conservation of terrestrial vertebrates and is used to identify species in water bodies. And it could help understand the composition of animal communities and detect the spread of non-native species. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    UNESCO launched global eDNA project to study vulnerability of species to climate change at marine World Heritage sites.
    It will involve the collection by scientists and local residents of genetic material from waste, mucus or the cells of fish from across select marine World Heritage sites, with the aim of monitoring fish, including species red-listed by the International Union Conservation of Nature (IUCN). eDNA involves collecting and analyzing samples collected from the environment (soil, water, air) rather than an individual organism.
    So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    E – DNA
    ** DNA from the air may help identify, and track animals in the wild
    About
    ** Environmental DNA (eDNA) is organismal DNA that can be found in the environment.
    Environmental DNA originates from cellular material shed by organisms (via skin, excrement, etc.) into aquatic or terrestrial environments that can be sampled and monitored using new molecular methods. Such methodology is important for the early detection of invasive species as well as the detection of rare and cryptic species.
    Uses – Improved Detection of Native Species
    ** Protocols using eDNA may allow for rapid, cost-effective, and standardized collection of data about species distribution and relative abundance. For small, rare, secretive, and other species that are difficult to detect, eDNA provides an attractive alternative for aquatic inventory and monitoring programs.
    ** Thus, the detection of species using eDNA may improve biodiversity assessments and provide information about the status, distribution, and habitat requirements for lesser-known species.
    Early Detection of Invasive Species
    —- eDNA may also be an effective tool for the early detection of aquatic invasive species.
    Application of eDNA methods for invasive species monitoring may include periodically collecting water samples and screening them for several invasive species at once.
    —- Boat-ballast water, a source of introduction for many invasive species including mollusks, also could be sampled. Some intensive eradication programs for invasive species fail when a few surviving individuals recolonize the ecosystem. eDNA methods may provide a means of confirming the eradication of all invaders.

    Unattempted
    

    DNA, short for deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in organisms that contains the biological instructions for building and maintaining them. Environmental DNA (eDNA) is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA that is released from an organism into the environment. Sources of eDNA include secreted feces, mucous, and gametes, shed skin and hair, and carcasses. eDNA can be detected in cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The applications of e- DNA indicate a big potential to be used for the conservation of terrestrial vertebrates and is used to identify species in water bodies. And it could help understand the composition of animal communities and detect the spread of non-native species. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    UNESCO launched global eDNA project to study vulnerability of species to climate change at marine World Heritage sites.
    It will involve the collection by scientists and local residents of genetic material from waste, mucus or the cells of fish from across select marine World Heritage sites, with the aim of monitoring fish, including species red-listed by the International Union Conservation of Nature (IUCN). eDNA involves collecting and analyzing samples collected from the environment (soil, water, air) rather than an individual organism.
    So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    E – DNA
    ** DNA from the air may help identify, and track animals in the wild
    About
    ** Environmental DNA (eDNA) is organismal DNA that can be found in the environment.
    Environmental DNA originates from cellular material shed by organisms (via skin, excrement, etc.) into aquatic or terrestrial environments that can be sampled and monitored using new molecular methods. Such methodology is important for the early detection of invasive species as well as the detection of rare and cryptic species.
    Uses – Improved Detection of Native Species
    ** Protocols using eDNA may allow for rapid, cost-effective, and standardized collection of data about species distribution and relative abundance. For small, rare, secretive, and other species that are difficult to detect, eDNA provides an attractive alternative for aquatic inventory and monitoring programs.
    ** Thus, the detection of species using eDNA may improve biodiversity assessments and provide information about the status, distribution, and habitat requirements for lesser-known species.
    Early Detection of Invasive Species
    —- eDNA may also be an effective tool for the early detection of aquatic invasive species.
    Application of eDNA methods for invasive species monitoring may include periodically collecting water samples and screening them for several invasive species at once.
    —- Boat-ballast water, a source of introduction for many invasive species including mollusks, also could be sampled. Some intensive eradication programs for invasive species fail when a few surviving individuals recolonize the ecosystem. eDNA methods may provide a means of confirming the eradication of all invaders.
64. Question 64 of 100

    64. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to Negative ion technology :
    (1) It embeds negative ions in personal products, which helps to maintain health, balance energy, and improve well-being.
    (2) The minerals that produce negative ions include tourmaline, uranium and thorium.
    Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Negative ions are odorless, tasteless, and invisible molecules that we inhale in abundance in certain environments. Negative ion technology embeds negative ions in personal products and is currently being advertised as a means to maintain health, balance energy, and improve emotional well-being. Specifically, some commercially available silicone wristbands and kinesiology tapes commonly used by athletes and the general public promote the use of negative ion technology in their products. So, Statement 1 iscorrect.
    According to a recent study done with the support of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) in the undergarment industry in Malaysia and elsewhere advertised that their “negative ion undergarments” contain tourmaline, monazite, and zircon, and also known to involve the use of minerals that contain a naturally occurring source of radiation such as thorium or uranium. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    NEGATIVE IONS
    ** The Authority for Nuclear Safety and Radiation Protection (ANVS), Netherlands issued a statement identifying products containing more radioactivity than legally permitted.
    ** Help regulate sleep patterns and mood
    ** Reduce stress
    ** Boost immune system function
    ** Increase metabolism trusted source of carbs and fats
    ** Kill or inhibit the growth of harmful bacteria, viruses, and mold species, such as E. coli, Staphylococcus aureus, and the bacterium that causes tuberculosis.
    Efforts
    ** In “Radiation Protection and Safety of Radiation Sources: International Basic Safety Standards” (2014), the IAEA considers that the frivolous use of radiation or radioactive substances in toys and personal jewelry or adornments, which increases activity, isunjustified.
    ** The IAEA also published a specific safety guide titled “Radiation Safety for Consumer Products (2016).
    The Atomic Energy (Radiation Protection) Rules, 2004 contains provisions consistent with those of the IAEA.

    Unattempted
    

    Negative ions are odorless, tasteless, and invisible molecules that we inhale in abundance in certain environments. Negative ion technology embeds negative ions in personal products and is currently being advertised as a means to maintain health, balance energy, and improve emotional well-being. Specifically, some commercially available silicone wristbands and kinesiology tapes commonly used by athletes and the general public promote the use of negative ion technology in their products. So, Statement 1 iscorrect.
    According to a recent study done with the support of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) in the undergarment industry in Malaysia and elsewhere advertised that their “negative ion undergarments” contain tourmaline, monazite, and zircon, and also known to involve the use of minerals that contain a naturally occurring source of radiation such as thorium or uranium. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    NEGATIVE IONS
    ** The Authority for Nuclear Safety and Radiation Protection (ANVS), Netherlands issued a statement identifying products containing more radioactivity than legally permitted.
    ** Help regulate sleep patterns and mood
    ** Reduce stress
    ** Boost immune system function
    ** Increase metabolism trusted source of carbs and fats
    ** Kill or inhibit the growth of harmful bacteria, viruses, and mold species, such as E. coli, Staphylococcus aureus, and the bacterium that causes tuberculosis.
    Efforts
    ** In “Radiation Protection and Safety of Radiation Sources: International Basic Safety Standards” (2014), the IAEA considers that the frivolous use of radiation or radioactive substances in toys and personal jewelry or adornments, which increases activity, isunjustified.
    ** The IAEA also published a specific safety guide titled “Radiation Safety for Consumer Products (2016).
    The Atomic Energy (Radiation Protection) Rules, 2004 contains provisions consistent with those of the IAEA.
65. Question 65 of 100

    65. Question

    Consider the following criterion for identification of Wetlands of NationalImportance:
    (1) If it contains a representative, rare or unique example of a natural or near natural wetland type.
    (2) If it supports threatened ecological communities.
    (3) If it regularly supports 20000 or more water birds.
    (4) If it regularly supports 1 % of the individuals in a population of onespecies or subspecies of waterbirds.
    Which of the above given criterion are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Wetlands are areas of marsh, fen, peatland/water, whether natural (or) artificial, permanent (or) temporary with water that is static (or) flowing, fresh, brackish (or) salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed 6 mtrs.
    Criterion for identification of wetlands of national importance under NWCP are same as those prescribed under the 'Ramsar Convention on Wetlands' and are as given below:
    (i) If it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region (Thus, statement 1 is correct).
    (ii) If it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species; or threatened ecological communities (Thus, statement 2 is correct).
    (iii) If it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.
    (iv) If it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions.
    (v) If it regularly supports 20,000 or more water birds (Thus, statement 3 is correct).
    (vi) If it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of water birds. (Thus, statement 4 is correct).
    (vii) If it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.
    (viii) If it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend. Specific criteria based on water/life and culture.
    (ix) If it is an important source of food and water resource, increased possibilities for recreation and ecotourism, improved scenic values, educational opportunities, conservation of cultural heritage (historic or religious sites).

    Unattempted
    

    Wetlands are areas of marsh, fen, peatland/water, whether natural (or) artificial, permanent (or) temporary with water that is static (or) flowing, fresh, brackish (or) salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed 6 mtrs.
    Criterion for identification of wetlands of national importance under NWCP are same as those prescribed under the 'Ramsar Convention on Wetlands' and are as given below:
    (i) If it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region (Thus, statement 1 is correct).
    (ii) If it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species; or threatened ecological communities (Thus, statement 2 is correct).
    (iii) If it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.
    (iv) If it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions.
    (v) If it regularly supports 20,000 or more water birds (Thus, statement 3 is correct).
    (vi) If it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of water birds. (Thus, statement 4 is correct).
    (vii) If it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.
    (viii) If it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend. Specific criteria based on water/life and culture.
    (ix) If it is an important source of food and water resource, increased possibilities for recreation and ecotourism, improved scenic values, educational opportunities, conservation of cultural heritage (historic or religious sites).
66. Question 66 of 100

    66. Question

    Which of the following are the characteristics of coniferous forests?
    (1) The leaves are broad leaved and trees have a large spread which provides shade during summer months.
    (2) There is no annual replacement of leaves.
    (3) They can be found in both temperate and tropical regions.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1, 2 and 3
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 1 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Coniferous trees consist of the four major species- Pine, Fir, Spruce and Larch.
    Coniferous forests have the following characteristics:
    The trees are conical in shape with sloping branches to adapt to the sub-arctic climate.
    The leaves are small, thick, leathery and needle-shaped to prevent excessive transpiration. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Almost all conifers are evergreen. The conifer has a two-year fructification cycle. There is no annual replacement of leaves as in deciduous trees. The same leaf remains on the tree for as long as five years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Coniferous forests are found in other climatic regions where altitude reduces the temperature. The conifers are dominant trees in mountainous districts of both temperate and tropical countries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Coniferous trees consist of the four major species- Pine, Fir, Spruce and Larch.
    Coniferous forests have the following characteristics:
    The trees are conical in shape with sloping branches to adapt to the sub-arctic climate.
    The leaves are small, thick, leathery and needle-shaped to prevent excessive transpiration. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Almost all conifers are evergreen. The conifer has a two-year fructification cycle. There is no annual replacement of leaves as in deciduous trees. The same leaf remains on the tree for as long as five years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Coniferous forests are found in other climatic regions where altitude reduces the temperature. The conifers are dominant trees in mountainous districts of both temperate and tropical countries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
67. Question 67 of 100

    67. Question

    In the context of pond ecosystem, consider the following pairs:
    Basic activity : Executed by
    (1) Conversion of inorganic into organic material : Phytoplanktons
    (2) Decomposition of the dead matter : Microbes
    (3) Mineralisation of the dead matter : Macrophytes
    Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The components of the ecosystem are seen to function as a unit when you consider the following aspects:
    o Productivity
    o Decomposition
    o Energy flow and
    o Nutrient cycling.
    To understand the ethos of an aquatic ecosystem, example of a small pond is taken. This is fairly a self sustainable unit and rather simple example that explain even the complex interactions that exist in an aquatic ecosystem. A pond is a shallow water body in which all the above mentioned four basic components of an ecosystem are well exhibited. Main components are described below-
    Abiotic component-The abiotic component is the water with all the dissolved inorganic and organic substances and the rich soil deposit at the bottom of the pond.
    Rate of function-The solar input, the cycle of temperature, day-length and other climatic conditions regulate the rate of function of the entire pond.
    Autotrophic components-The autotrophic components include the phytoplankton, some algae and the floating, submerged and marginal plants found at the edges. Phytoplankton are photosynthetic autotrophs.
    They not only feed themselves but they produce oxygen and serve as food for heterotrophs. Conversion of inorganic into organic material is done by autotropes. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
    Consumers -The consumers are represented by the zooplankton, the free swimming and bottom dwelling forms.
    Functions of any ecosystem –
    This system performs all the functions of any ecosystem and of the biosphere as a whole. Different functions are executed by different components. Some of the examples are as follows-
    Autotrophs- Conversion of inorganic into organic material with the help of the radiant energy of the sun by the autotrophs
    Heterotrophs- Consumption of the autotrophs by heterotrophs
    Decomposers- Decomposition and mineralisation of the dead matter to release them back for reuse by the autotrophs. Mineralization is the process of conversion of organic matter into simple inorganic compounds mainly by microbial degradation. Macrophytes are large aquatic plants. Hence pair 3 is not correct and pair 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The components of the ecosystem are seen to function as a unit when you consider the following aspects:
    o Productivity
    o Decomposition
    o Energy flow and
    o Nutrient cycling.
    To understand the ethos of an aquatic ecosystem, example of a small pond is taken. This is fairly a self sustainable unit and rather simple example that explain even the complex interactions that exist in an aquatic ecosystem. A pond is a shallow water body in which all the above mentioned four basic components of an ecosystem are well exhibited. Main components are described below-
    Abiotic component-The abiotic component is the water with all the dissolved inorganic and organic substances and the rich soil deposit at the bottom of the pond.
    Rate of function-The solar input, the cycle of temperature, day-length and other climatic conditions regulate the rate of function of the entire pond.
    Autotrophic components-The autotrophic components include the phytoplankton, some algae and the floating, submerged and marginal plants found at the edges. Phytoplankton are photosynthetic autotrophs.
    They not only feed themselves but they produce oxygen and serve as food for heterotrophs. Conversion of inorganic into organic material is done by autotropes. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
    Consumers -The consumers are represented by the zooplankton, the free swimming and bottom dwelling forms.
    Functions of any ecosystem –
    This system performs all the functions of any ecosystem and of the biosphere as a whole. Different functions are executed by different components. Some of the examples are as follows-
    Autotrophs- Conversion of inorganic into organic material with the help of the radiant energy of the sun by the autotrophs
    Heterotrophs- Consumption of the autotrophs by heterotrophs
    Decomposers- Decomposition and mineralisation of the dead matter to release them back for reuse by the autotrophs. Mineralization is the process of conversion of organic matter into simple inorganic compounds mainly by microbial degradation. Macrophytes are large aquatic plants. Hence pair 3 is not correct and pair 2 is correct.
68. Question 68 of 100

    68. Question

    The “I4F” fund recently seen in the news is a cooperation between India and
    (A) Indonesia
    (B) Israel
    (C) France
    (D) USA

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    India-Israel Industrial R&D and Technological Innovation Fund (I4F) fund is a cooperation between the Department of Science and Technology (DST), the Government of India, and the Israel Innovation Authority, the Government of Israel to promote, facilitate and support joint industrial R&D projects between companies from India and Israel to address the challenges in the agreed ‘Focus Sectors’.
    I4F is aimed to promote, facilitate and support joint industrial R&D between India & Israel, which would lead to the co-development and commercialization of innovative technologies benefiting both countries.
    Global Innovation & Technology Alliance (GITA) is appointed to implement the I4F program in India, while Israel Innovation Authority is the implementing agency in Israel. So, Option (B) is correct.
    I4F FUND
    ** Experts from India and Israel suggested expanding the scope of the India-Israel Industrial R&D & Technological Innovation Fund (I4F)
    About
    ** To foster bilateral industrial research and development (R&D) between India and Israel, the Governments of the two countries have created a US$40 million fund (over 5 years) to seed finance innovative industrial R&D projects between the two countries.
    ** The Fund was launched jointly by the Prime Ministers of India and Israel in January 2018.
    Focus areas
    ** Agriculture
    ** Energy
    ** Healthcare
    ** Information & Communication Technologies (ICT)
    ** Water
    GITA ** Global Innovation and Technology Alliance (GITA) is a “not–for–profit” Public Private Partnership (PPP) company promoted jointly by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and the Technology Development Board under the Department of Science & Technology, Govt. of India.
    ** It encourages industrial investments in innovative technology solutions by Connecting Industrial and Institutional partners for synergistic matchmaking under its Bilateral Programme with various countries.

    Unattempted
    

    India-Israel Industrial R&D and Technological Innovation Fund (I4F) fund is a cooperation between the Department of Science and Technology (DST), the Government of India, and the Israel Innovation Authority, the Government of Israel to promote, facilitate and support joint industrial R&D projects between companies from India and Israel to address the challenges in the agreed ‘Focus Sectors’.
    I4F is aimed to promote, facilitate and support joint industrial R&D between India & Israel, which would lead to the co-development and commercialization of innovative technologies benefiting both countries.
    Global Innovation & Technology Alliance (GITA) is appointed to implement the I4F program in India, while Israel Innovation Authority is the implementing agency in Israel. So, Option (B) is correct.
    I4F FUND
    ** Experts from India and Israel suggested expanding the scope of the India-Israel Industrial R&D & Technological Innovation Fund (I4F)
    About
    ** To foster bilateral industrial research and development (R&D) between India and Israel, the Governments of the two countries have created a US$40 million fund (over 5 years) to seed finance innovative industrial R&D projects between the two countries.
    ** The Fund was launched jointly by the Prime Ministers of India and Israel in January 2018.
    Focus areas
    ** Agriculture
    ** Energy
    ** Healthcare
    ** Information & Communication Technologies (ICT)
    ** Water
    GITA ** Global Innovation and Technology Alliance (GITA) is a “not–for–profit” Public Private Partnership (PPP) company promoted jointly by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and the Technology Development Board under the Department of Science & Technology, Govt. of India.
    ** It encourages industrial investments in innovative technology solutions by Connecting Industrial and Institutional partners for synergistic matchmaking under its Bilateral Programme with various countries.
69. Question 69 of 100

    69. Question

    With reference to the National Savings Certificate (NSC) scheme, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a fixed-income investment initiative of the Reserve Bank of India.
    (2) Non-Resident Indians cannot purchase NSC certificates.
    (3) Collections from the NSC scheme are credited to the National Small savings fund, which is established in the public account of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    National Savings Certificates (NSC) are savings bonds offered under the India Post office small saving schemes and are fixed-income investment schemes. It works under the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Hence it is not an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
    The government has promoted the National Savings Certificate as a savings scheme for individuals.
    Hence, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) and trusts cannot invest in it. Furthermore, even non-resident Indians (NRI) cannot purchase NSC certificates. The scheme is open only to individual Indian resident citizens. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    All deposits or collections from small savings schemes are credited to the 'National Small Savings Fund (NSSF), established in the Public Account of India, which came into force in 1999. All withdrawals by the depositors are made out of the accumulations in this Fund. The balance in the Fund is invested in special Government securities as per norms decided from time to time by the Central Government. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    History of Saving in India
    ** The first savings bank was established in Calcutta in British India.
    ** The Government Savings Bank Act was passed in 1873, and it was in 1882 that the Post Office Savings Bank of India came into existence.
    ** In 1886 The Government District Savings Banks were merged with the Post Office Savings Bank (POSB).
    ** After independence, the Constitution of India, adopted in 1949, lists the 'Post Office Savings Bank' in its Seventh Schedule, Item No. 39. Utilizing the Government Savings Certificates Act of 1959 and the Public Provident Fund Act of 1968, the Ministry of Finance (MoF) framed numerous small savings plans under these acts.
    Vision
    An economically strong and financially self-reliant Indian society with 'regular savings' is a way of life.
    Mission
    Mobilization of Savings by the inculcation of habitual thrift among the masses and providing avenues for safe and convenient investment to the small savers.

    Unattempted
    

    National Savings Certificates (NSC) are savings bonds offered under the India Post office small saving schemes and are fixed-income investment schemes. It works under the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Hence it is not an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
    The government has promoted the National Savings Certificate as a savings scheme for individuals.
    Hence, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) and trusts cannot invest in it. Furthermore, even non-resident Indians (NRI) cannot purchase NSC certificates. The scheme is open only to individual Indian resident citizens. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    All deposits or collections from small savings schemes are credited to the 'National Small Savings Fund (NSSF), established in the Public Account of India, which came into force in 1999. All withdrawals by the depositors are made out of the accumulations in this Fund. The balance in the Fund is invested in special Government securities as per norms decided from time to time by the Central Government. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    History of Saving in India
    ** The first savings bank was established in Calcutta in British India.
    ** The Government Savings Bank Act was passed in 1873, and it was in 1882 that the Post Office Savings Bank of India came into existence.
    ** In 1886 The Government District Savings Banks were merged with the Post Office Savings Bank (POSB).
    ** After independence, the Constitution of India, adopted in 1949, lists the 'Post Office Savings Bank' in its Seventh Schedule, Item No. 39. Utilizing the Government Savings Certificates Act of 1959 and the Public Provident Fund Act of 1968, the Ministry of Finance (MoF) framed numerous small savings plans under these acts.
    Vision
    An economically strong and financially self-reliant Indian society with 'regular savings' is a way of life.
    Mission
    Mobilization of Savings by the inculcation of habitual thrift among the masses and providing avenues for safe and convenient investment to the small savers.
70. Question 70 of 100

    70. Question

    Which of the following members is/are part of the electoral college that elects the Vice President of India?
    (1) Elected members of the Parliament
    (2) Nominated members of the Parliament
    (3) Elected members of the state legislative assemblies
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 3 only
    (D) 1 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Vice-President is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament (both elected and nominated members) in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
    It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).

    Unattempted
    

    The Vice-President is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament (both elected and nominated members) in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
    It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).
71. Question 71 of 100

    71. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to insider trading in stock market?
    (1) It is the buying or selling of a security by someone who has access to material nonpublic information about the security.
    (2) In India, it is regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Insider trading is the buying or selling of a security by someone who has access to material nonpublic information about the security. As disclosures are often price sensitive, insiders are always in a better position to make bigger trading gains. But since this will be unfair to other investors, and in order to maintain trust and confidence in the market, trading on the basis of unpublished pricesensitive information is illegal.
    Statement 2 is correct: In India, SEBI (Insider Trading) Regulation, 1992 framed under SEBI Act, 1992 intends to curb and prevent the menace of insider trading in securities. Companies Act 2013 also prohibits insider trading.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Insider trading is the buying or selling of a security by someone who has access to material nonpublic information about the security. As disclosures are often price sensitive, insiders are always in a better position to make bigger trading gains. But since this will be unfair to other investors, and in order to maintain trust and confidence in the market, trading on the basis of unpublished pricesensitive information is illegal.
    Statement 2 is correct: In India, SEBI (Insider Trading) Regulation, 1992 framed under SEBI Act, 1992 intends to curb and prevent the menace of insider trading in securities. Companies Act 2013 also prohibits insider trading.
72. Question 72 of 100

    72. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Marine National Park/ Wildlife Sanctuary : State
    (1) Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park : Gujarat
    (2) Gahirmatha Marine Wildlife Sanctuary : Odisha
    (3) Malvan Marine Wildlife Sanctuary : Maharashtra
    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park at Wandoor is at a distance of 29 Kms from Port Blair (Andaman and Nicobar Island and covers an area of 281.5 Sqr. Kms. This Marine Park comprises of open sea, creeks and 15 small and large islands.
    Gahirmatha is the lone mass nesting spot of Olive ridley turtle in the Indian Ocean region and the only turtle sanctuary in Odisha. Gahirmatha was declared a turtle sanctuary in 1997 by Odisha government after considering its ecological importance and as part of efforts to save the sea turtles. The Olive Ridley turtles travel across the South Pacific to breed on the coast of Gahirmatha.
    The marine biodiversity in the Malvan region has been reported to be relatively rich and hence the Government of Maharashtra has declared port of Malvan coastal waters as Marine Sanctuaries in 1987. The total area of marine Sanctuary is about 29.12 sq.km.

    Unattempted
    

    The Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park at Wandoor is at a distance of 29 Kms from Port Blair (Andaman and Nicobar Island and covers an area of 281.5 Sqr. Kms. This Marine Park comprises of open sea, creeks and 15 small and large islands.
    Gahirmatha is the lone mass nesting spot of Olive ridley turtle in the Indian Ocean region and the only turtle sanctuary in Odisha. Gahirmatha was declared a turtle sanctuary in 1997 by Odisha government after considering its ecological importance and as part of efforts to save the sea turtles. The Olive Ridley turtles travel across the South Pacific to breed on the coast of Gahirmatha.
    The marine biodiversity in the Malvan region has been reported to be relatively rich and hence the Government of Maharashtra has declared port of Malvan coastal waters as Marine Sanctuaries in 1987. The total area of marine Sanctuary is about 29.12 sq.km.
73. Question 73 of 100

    73. Question

    which of the following statement is incorrect?
    (A) There is no competition between main crop and intercrop in inter cropping.
    (B) The main objective of mixed cropping is to utilize space between rows of main crop.
    (C) In intercropping, the main crop may be of longer duration.
    (D) There is competition among crops in mixed farming.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. In Intercropping, primary crop is planted/ sown at its optimum sole while intercrop is planted in between rows of base crops without compromising the main crop yields. It helps for the better use of growth resources including light, nutrients and water.
    Thus, there is no competition between main crop and intercropping.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Mixed Cropping is used to mean a cropping technique, in which two or more plants are planted simultaneously, in a particular piece of land. In this process, the components of the crops are intermingled in the available space in a way, that they grow together. The main objective of mixed cropping is to minimise the risk of crop failure, due to unfavourable weather conditions.
    Statement 3 is correct. In intercropping, main crop may be of long duration.
    Statement 4 is correct. Mixed farming is defined as a system of farming on a particular farm which includes crop production, raising livestock, poultry, fisheries, bee keeping etc. to sustain and satisfy as many needs of the farmer as possible. Utilising few resources on such a large scale for different purposes creates competitive farming which also includes competition among crops.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. In Intercropping, primary crop is planted/ sown at its optimum sole while intercrop is planted in between rows of base crops without compromising the main crop yields. It helps for the better use of growth resources including light, nutrients and water.
    Thus, there is no competition between main crop and intercropping.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Mixed Cropping is used to mean a cropping technique, in which two or more plants are planted simultaneously, in a particular piece of land. In this process, the components of the crops are intermingled in the available space in a way, that they grow together. The main objective of mixed cropping is to minimise the risk of crop failure, due to unfavourable weather conditions.
    Statement 3 is correct. In intercropping, main crop may be of long duration.
    Statement 4 is correct. Mixed farming is defined as a system of farming on a particular farm which includes crop production, raising livestock, poultry, fisheries, bee keeping etc. to sustain and satisfy as many needs of the farmer as possible. Utilising few resources on such a large scale for different purposes creates competitive farming which also includes competition among crops.
74. Question 74 of 100

    74. Question

    Consider the following statements
    (1) Classical smog occurs in cool and humid climate.
    (2) Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate.
    (3) Classical and photochemical smog are also known as reducing smog.
    Choose the correct statement/s by using the code given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ▪ Statement 1 is correct as Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate. It is a mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide. Chemically it is a reducing mixture and so it is also called as reducing smog.
    ▪ Statement 2 is correct as Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate.
    ▪ Statement 3 is incorrect as Photochemical smog has high concentration of oxidising agents and is, therefore, called as oxidising smog. Classical smog is known as reducing smog.

    Unattempted
    

    ▪ Statement 1 is correct as Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate. It is a mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide. Chemically it is a reducing mixture and so it is also called as reducing smog.
    ▪ Statement 2 is correct as Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate.
    ▪ Statement 3 is incorrect as Photochemical smog has high concentration of oxidising agents and is, therefore, called as oxidising smog. Classical smog is known as reducing smog.
75. Question 75 of 100

    75. Question

    “Unitary Digital Identity Framework”, a personal identity verification device based on biometric data, was introduced by which one of the following countries ?
    (A) Ukraine
    (B) Bangladesh
    (C) Sri Lanka
    (D) North Korea

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, India has agreed to provide a grant to Sri Lanka to implement a 'Unitary Digital Identity framework', apparently modeled on the Aadhaar card.
    The Unitary Digital Identity framework is a personal identity verification program that is a digital tool that can represent the identities of individuals in cyberspace and the identification of individual identities that can be accurately verified in digital and physical environments by combining the two devices. This framework is based on biometric data.
    So, Option (C) is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, India has agreed to provide a grant to Sri Lanka to implement a 'Unitary Digital Identity framework', apparently modeled on the Aadhaar card.
    The Unitary Digital Identity framework is a personal identity verification program that is a digital tool that can represent the identities of individuals in cyberspace and the identification of individual identities that can be accurately verified in digital and physical environments by combining the two devices. This framework is based on biometric data.
    So, Option (C) is correct.
76. Question 76 of 100

    76. Question

    With reference to Zero Tillage, consider the following statements :
    (1) It is one of the principles of Conservation Agriculture.
    (2) It slows down evaporation.
    (3) It can be an alternative to burning and tilling land between the rice harvest and wheat planting season.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming system that can prevent losses of arable land while regenerating degraded lands. It enhances biodiversity and natural biological processes above and below the ground surface, which contribute to increased water and nutrient use efficiency and improved and sustained crop production.
    Three principles of Conservation Agriculture are:
    ** Minimum mechanical soil disturbance (i.e., no-tillage)
    ** Permanent soil organic cover
    ** Species diversification
    So, Statement 1 is correct.
    In Zero Tillage or No-Tilling farming practices, crop residue on the surface field is left over without ploughing to create more soil nutrients, and the organic materials or the plant residues that are left behind in no-tillage capture water, and this help keep the soil moist and minimize the evaporative effects of the wind and sun absorbs water in the soil or it facilitates the field's easier absorption of water or which lowers evaporation and reduces the water runoff, and irrigation efficiency is improved. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    Zero tillage as an innovative approach provides farmers with a mechanized alternative to burning and tilling land between the rice harvest and wheat planting season as the rice straw was burned in the fields by farmers after harvest as the fastest and cheapest way to prepare the land for wheat planting.
    The zero-tillage approach offers to sow wheat directly into paddies without ploughing the field using innovative machinery that can chop the leftover rice stalks, spread the residue evenly as mulch, and plant seeds into the soil without the need for clearing it. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    ZERO TILLAGE
    ** Farmers were looking for zero tillage technology in the coming summer if they went for irrigated and dry (ID) crops where only paddy was harvested.
    An experiment was conducted in one of the farms in Kangti Mandal, where maize seeds were directly sown in the paddy wetlands. Once paddy was harvested, one irrigation was supplied, and then after 24 hours, the maize seed was directly dibbling in soil; this saved money and for the farmer and time.
    Advantages
    ** Reduction in the crop duration.
    ** Early cropping can be obtained to get higher yields.
    ** Reduction in the cost of inputs for land preparation, residual moisture can be effectively utilized, and the number of irrigations can be reduced. Dry matter and organic matter get added to the soil.

    Unattempted
    

    Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming system that can prevent losses of arable land while regenerating degraded lands. It enhances biodiversity and natural biological processes above and below the ground surface, which contribute to increased water and nutrient use efficiency and improved and sustained crop production.
    Three principles of Conservation Agriculture are:
    ** Minimum mechanical soil disturbance (i.e., no-tillage)
    ** Permanent soil organic cover
    ** Species diversification
    So, Statement 1 is correct.
    In Zero Tillage or No-Tilling farming practices, crop residue on the surface field is left over without ploughing to create more soil nutrients, and the organic materials or the plant residues that are left behind in no-tillage capture water, and this help keep the soil moist and minimize the evaporative effects of the wind and sun absorbs water in the soil or it facilitates the field's easier absorption of water or which lowers evaporation and reduces the water runoff, and irrigation efficiency is improved. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    Zero tillage as an innovative approach provides farmers with a mechanized alternative to burning and tilling land between the rice harvest and wheat planting season as the rice straw was burned in the fields by farmers after harvest as the fastest and cheapest way to prepare the land for wheat planting.
    The zero-tillage approach offers to sow wheat directly into paddies without ploughing the field using innovative machinery that can chop the leftover rice stalks, spread the residue evenly as mulch, and plant seeds into the soil without the need for clearing it. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    ZERO TILLAGE
    ** Farmers were looking for zero tillage technology in the coming summer if they went for irrigated and dry (ID) crops where only paddy was harvested.
    An experiment was conducted in one of the farms in Kangti Mandal, where maize seeds were directly sown in the paddy wetlands. Once paddy was harvested, one irrigation was supplied, and then after 24 hours, the maize seed was directly dibbling in soil; this saved money and for the farmer and time.
    Advantages
    ** Reduction in the crop duration.
    ** Early cropping can be obtained to get higher yields.
    ** Reduction in the cost of inputs for land preparation, residual moisture can be effectively utilized, and the number of irrigations can be reduced. Dry matter and organic matter get added to the soil.
77. Question 77 of 100

    77. Question

    Which of the following Government expenditures is/are 'Transfer Payments'?
    (1) Subsidies
    (2) Old Age Pension
    (3) Procurement of defence equipment
    (4) Interest payments on loansSelect the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (B) 2 and 4 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A transfer payment is a process used by governments as a way to redistribute money through programs such as old age or disability pensions, student grants and unemployment compensation. Transfer payments, however, does not include subsidies that are paid to domestic farmers, manufacturers and exporters, even though they are technically a one-way payment to a person on behalf of the government.
    Education and training assistance is also considered a type of government transfer payment. This government assistance consists of higher education student assistance, interest payments on student loans and state educational assistance.
    o Non-transfer expenditure includes development as well as non-develoment expenditure that results in creation of output directly or indirectly. It includes economic infrastructure such as power, transport, irrigation etc.; Social infrastructure such as education, health and family welfare, law and order and defence, public administration etc.

    Unattempted
    

    A transfer payment is a process used by governments as a way to redistribute money through programs such as old age or disability pensions, student grants and unemployment compensation. Transfer payments, however, does not include subsidies that are paid to domestic farmers, manufacturers and exporters, even though they are technically a one-way payment to a person on behalf of the government.
    Education and training assistance is also considered a type of government transfer payment. This government assistance consists of higher education student assistance, interest payments on student loans and state educational assistance.
    o Non-transfer expenditure includes development as well as non-develoment expenditure that results in creation of output directly or indirectly. It includes economic infrastructure such as power, transport, irrigation etc.; Social infrastructure such as education, health and family welfare, law and order and defence, public administration etc.
78. Question 78 of 100

    78. Question

    “It is a Sanskrit play which depicts a story about a young man named Charudatta of Pataliputra (Patna), and his love for Vasantasena, a rich courtesan or nagarvadhu. It presents a remarkable social drama with touches of grim reality.
    An interesting account of a burglary is given in which stealing is treated as a regular art. The interlinking of a political revolution with the private affairs of the two lovers adds new charm to the play. “
    Which of the following texts of ancient India is described in the above passage?
    (A) Mricchakatika
    (B) Kumarasambhava
    (C) Vikramorvasiya
    (D) Meghaduta

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mricchakatika: The Mricchakatika (the clay-cart) by Sudraka (248 A.D.) presents a remarkable social drama with touches of grim reality. The play is set in the ancient city of Ujjayini during the reign of the King Palaka, near the end of the Pradyota dynasty that made up the first quarter of the fifth century BC. The central story is that of a noble but impoverished young Brahmin Charudatta, who falls in love with a wealthy courtesan or nagarvadhu, Vasantasena. The characters are drawn from all strata of society, which include thieves and gamblers, rogues and idlers, courtesans and their associates, police constables, mendicants and politicians. In Act III an interesting account of a burglary is given in which stealing is treated as a regular art. The interlinking of a political revolution with the private affairs of the two lovers adds a new charm to the play.
    Kumarasambhava: Kumarasambhava, (meaning Birth of Kumara an epic poem by Kalidasa was written in the 5th century CE. The work describes the courting of the ascetic Shiva, who is meditating in the mountains, by Parvati, the daughter of the Himalayas; the conflagration of Kama (the god of desire)— after his arrow struck Shiva—by the fire from Shiva‘s third eye; the wedding and lovemaking of Shiva and Parvati; and the subsequent birth of Kumara (Skanda), the war god.
    Vikramorvsiya: Vikramorvasiya ( meaning Urvashi Won by Valour ) is a five-act Sanskrit play by Kalidasa who flourished in the 4th Century CE, on the Vedic love story of king Pururavas and an Apsara, a celestial nymph named Urvashi.
    Meghaduta: It was written by Kalidasa. In this narrative lyric poem, the poet makes a cloud a messenger to tell the story of two lovers who are separated. This is also quite in keeping with the sublime conception of love, which looks dark in separation, like a black cloud with a silver lining.

    Unattempted
    

    Mricchakatika: The Mricchakatika (the clay-cart) by Sudraka (248 A.D.) presents a remarkable social drama with touches of grim reality. The play is set in the ancient city of Ujjayini during the reign of the King Palaka, near the end of the Pradyota dynasty that made up the first quarter of the fifth century BC. The central story is that of a noble but impoverished young Brahmin Charudatta, who falls in love with a wealthy courtesan or nagarvadhu, Vasantasena. The characters are drawn from all strata of society, which include thieves and gamblers, rogues and idlers, courtesans and their associates, police constables, mendicants and politicians. In Act III an interesting account of a burglary is given in which stealing is treated as a regular art. The interlinking of a political revolution with the private affairs of the two lovers adds a new charm to the play.
    Kumarasambhava: Kumarasambhava, (meaning Birth of Kumara an epic poem by Kalidasa was written in the 5th century CE. The work describes the courting of the ascetic Shiva, who is meditating in the mountains, by Parvati, the daughter of the Himalayas; the conflagration of Kama (the god of desire)— after his arrow struck Shiva—by the fire from Shiva‘s third eye; the wedding and lovemaking of Shiva and Parvati; and the subsequent birth of Kumara (Skanda), the war god.
    Vikramorvsiya: Vikramorvasiya ( meaning Urvashi Won by Valour ) is a five-act Sanskrit play by Kalidasa who flourished in the 4th Century CE, on the Vedic love story of king Pururavas and an Apsara, a celestial nymph named Urvashi.
    Meghaduta: It was written by Kalidasa. In this narrative lyric poem, the poet makes a cloud a messenger to tell the story of two lovers who are separated. This is also quite in keeping with the sublime conception of love, which looks dark in separation, like a black cloud with a silver lining.
79. Question 79 of 100

    79. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to the SAMRIDH (Sustainable Access to Markets and Resources for Innovative Delivery of Healthcare) initiative :
    (1) It aims to improve access to affordable and quality healthcare for vulnerable populations in tier-2 and tier-3 cities and rural and tribal regions.
    (2) It was launched by the Union Ministry of Health and Family welfare.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Sustainable Access to Markets and Resources for Innovative Delivery of Healthcare (SAMRIDH) is a healthcare blended finance facility strengthening India's health systems and solving emerging healthcare challenges. It aims to improve access to affordable and quality healthcare for vulnerable populations in tier-2 and tier-3 cities and rural and tribal regions. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    It is supported by the United States Agency for International Development in collaboration with Atal Innovation Mission & Women Entrepreneurship Platform, NITI Aayog, Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India, the National Health Authority, Indian Institute of Technology, Rockefeller Foundation, Axis Bank, IndusInd Bank, HDFC Bank, Caspian Debt, Centre for Cellular And Molecular Platforms, Crypto Relief and NATHEALTH, and is managed by IPE Global. Hence it is not launched by the Union Ministry of Health and Family welfare.
    Through this initiative, SAMRIDH combines commercial capital with public and philanthropic funds to drive greater resources toward market-based health solutions that can improve access to affordable and quality healthcare services for India’s most vulnerable. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    SAMRIDH (SUSTAINABLE ACCESS TO MARKETS AND RESOURCES FOR INNOVATIVE DELIVERY OF HEALTHCARE) INITIATIVE
    Vision
    Catalyze market solutions and innovations to improve access to affordable and quality healthcare services for vulnerable individuals.
    Importance
    The new partnership will enhance SAMRIDH's efforts to reach vulnerable populations, leveraging AIM's expertise in innovation and entrepreneurship.

    Unattempted
    

    Sustainable Access to Markets and Resources for Innovative Delivery of Healthcare (SAMRIDH) is a healthcare blended finance facility strengthening India's health systems and solving emerging healthcare challenges. It aims to improve access to affordable and quality healthcare for vulnerable populations in tier-2 and tier-3 cities and rural and tribal regions. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    It is supported by the United States Agency for International Development in collaboration with Atal Innovation Mission & Women Entrepreneurship Platform, NITI Aayog, Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India, the National Health Authority, Indian Institute of Technology, Rockefeller Foundation, Axis Bank, IndusInd Bank, HDFC Bank, Caspian Debt, Centre for Cellular And Molecular Platforms, Crypto Relief and NATHEALTH, and is managed by IPE Global. Hence it is not launched by the Union Ministry of Health and Family welfare.
    Through this initiative, SAMRIDH combines commercial capital with public and philanthropic funds to drive greater resources toward market-based health solutions that can improve access to affordable and quality healthcare services for India’s most vulnerable. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    SAMRIDH (SUSTAINABLE ACCESS TO MARKETS AND RESOURCES FOR INNOVATIVE DELIVERY OF HEALTHCARE) INITIATIVE
    Vision
    Catalyze market solutions and innovations to improve access to affordable and quality healthcare services for vulnerable individuals.
    Importance
    The new partnership will enhance SAMRIDH's efforts to reach vulnerable populations, leveraging AIM's expertise in innovation and entrepreneurship.
80. Question 80 of 100

    80. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs)?
    (1) It is a computational learning system similar to the human brain.
    (2) Backpropagation is the essential component of neural networks that helps in improving the accuracy of predictions in machine learning.
    (3) ANNs are present in smartphone applications like voice to type, Siri and Alexa.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A neural network (NN) forms a hidden layer that contains units that change the input from output to output so that the output layer can use the value. This transformation is called a neural layer and is called a neural unit.
    A scientific computing network replicating the human brain's characteristics is called an Artificial Neural Network (ANN). Artificial neurons are the processing units of Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) that mimic the original brain neurons. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Backpropagation, or backward propagation of errors, is an algorithm designed to test for errors working back from output nodes to input nodes. It is an important mathematical tool for improving the accuracy of predictions in data mining and machine learning. Essentially, backpropagation is an algorithm used to calculate derivatives quickly.
    Backpropagation is a learning algorithm that uses artificial neural networks employ to compute a gradient descent to weight values for the various inputs. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    The digital voice assistants Alexa and Siri from Amazon and Apple are more than just practical tools, they are extremely concrete examples of artificial intelligence, which is becoming an increasingly important part of our daily lives. They rely on machine learning and natural language creation and processing to function properly and improve over time, both of which are examples of artificial intelligence (Artificial Neural Networks). So, Statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A neural network (NN) forms a hidden layer that contains units that change the input from output to output so that the output layer can use the value. This transformation is called a neural layer and is called a neural unit.
    A scientific computing network replicating the human brain's characteristics is called an Artificial Neural Network (ANN). Artificial neurons are the processing units of Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) that mimic the original brain neurons. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Backpropagation, or backward propagation of errors, is an algorithm designed to test for errors working back from output nodes to input nodes. It is an important mathematical tool for improving the accuracy of predictions in data mining and machine learning. Essentially, backpropagation is an algorithm used to calculate derivatives quickly.
    Backpropagation is a learning algorithm that uses artificial neural networks employ to compute a gradient descent to weight values for the various inputs. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    The digital voice assistants Alexa and Siri from Amazon and Apple are more than just practical tools, they are extremely concrete examples of artificial intelligence, which is becoming an increasingly important part of our daily lives. They rely on machine learning and natural language creation and processing to function properly and improve over time, both of which are examples of artificial intelligence (Artificial Neural Networks). So, Statement 3 is correct.
81. Question 81 of 100

    81. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) There are large changes in the mean temperature over short distances.
    (2) Precipitation types and its intensity vary spatially.
    (3) There is vertical zonation of climatic types with elevation.
    The above statements represent the characteristics of which of the following types of climates?
    (A) Cold Snow Forest Climates
    (B) Highland Climates
    (C) Dry Climates
    (D) Polar Climates

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Highland climates are governed by topography. In high mountains, large changes in mean temperature occur over short distances. Precipitation types and intensity also vary spatially across high lands. There is vertical zonation or layering of climatic types with elevation in the mountain environment.Hence, (B) is the correct option.

    Unattempted
    

    Highland climates are governed by topography. In high mountains, large changes in mean temperature occur over short distances. Precipitation types and intensity also vary spatially across high lands. There is vertical zonation or layering of climatic types with elevation in the mountain environment.Hence, (B) is the correct option.
82. Question 82 of 100

    82. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding 'Teflon' :
    (1) It is chemically inert and resistant to attack by corrosive reagents.
    (2) It is used as a non-stick coating for cookware.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    • Polytetrafluoroethene (Teflon): Teflon is manufactured by heating tetrafluoroethene with a free radical or persulphate catalyst at high pressures. It is chemically inert and resistant to attack by corrosive reagents.
    • It is used in making oil seals and gaskets and also used for non – stick surface coated utensils.
    • Other advantage of Teflon is its versatility, and the range of applications over so many products and different industries for this material is staggering. The use of teflon can have massive benefits in manufacturing and engineering, not just in making tubes or liners for handling or storing corrosive chemicals, but by coating parts such as bearings or screws to increase the lifetime of both the parts themselves and the machinery they are part of. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    • Polytetrafluoroethene (Teflon): Teflon is manufactured by heating tetrafluoroethene with a free radical or persulphate catalyst at high pressures. It is chemically inert and resistant to attack by corrosive reagents.
    • It is used in making oil seals and gaskets and also used for non – stick surface coated utensils.
    • Other advantage of Teflon is its versatility, and the range of applications over so many products and different industries for this material is staggering. The use of teflon can have massive benefits in manufacturing and engineering, not just in making tubes or liners for handling or storing corrosive chemicals, but by coating parts such as bearings or screws to increase the lifetime of both the parts themselves and the machinery they are part of. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
83. Question 83 of 100

    83. Question

    The term “Founder effect”, in population genetics, is used to indicate
    (A) reduced genetic variation as compared to the original population.
    (B) increased genetic variation as compared to the original population.
    (C) confinement of successive generations in the geographical area that is the original habitat of the founders.
    (D) retreat of successive generations from the geographical area that is the original habitat of the founders.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    • The term “founder effect” refers to the observation that when a small group of individuals breaks off from a larger population and establishes a new population, chance plays a large role in determining which alleles (a variant form of a gene) are represented in the new population. The particular alleles may not be representative of the larger population. As the new population grows, the allele frequencies will usually continue to reflect the original small group.
    • A founder effect occurs when a new colony is started by a few members of the original population. This small population size means that the colony may have:
    o reduced genetic variation from the original population.
    o a non-random sample of the genes in the original population.
    • Hence option (A) is the correct answer.

    Unattempted
    

    • The term “founder effect” refers to the observation that when a small group of individuals breaks off from a larger population and establishes a new population, chance plays a large role in determining which alleles (a variant form of a gene) are represented in the new population. The particular alleles may not be representative of the larger population. As the new population grows, the allele frequencies will usually continue to reflect the original small group.
    • A founder effect occurs when a new colony is started by a few members of the original population. This small population size means that the colony may have:
    o reduced genetic variation from the original population.
    o a non-random sample of the genes in the original population.
    • Hence option (A) is the correct answer.
84. Question 84 of 100

    84. Question

    Which of the following correctly describes the “prebiotics”?
    (A) Food ingredients that encourage the growth of beneficial gut bacteria.
    (B) A type of antimicrobial drug used in the treatment and prevention of bacterial infections.
    (C) Preservatives added to food products to prevent decomposition by microbial growth.
    (D) Vaccine used to stimulate the production of antibodies and provide immunity against one or several diseases.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    • Prebiotics are a group of nutrients that are degraded by gut microbiota.
    • Prebiotics are non-digestible substances, found in fiber. They serve as food for probiotic bacteria and stimulate their growth in the large intestine.
    • They pass through the small intestine only partially digested, and so once they reach the colon, they are able to be fermented by the bacteria there.
    • Hence option (A) is the correct answer.

    Unattempted
    

    • Prebiotics are a group of nutrients that are degraded by gut microbiota.
    • Prebiotics are non-digestible substances, found in fiber. They serve as food for probiotic bacteria and stimulate their growth in the large intestine.
    • They pass through the small intestine only partially digested, and so once they reach the colon, they are able to be fermented by the bacteria there.
    • Hence option (A) is the correct answer.
85. Question 85 of 100

    85. Question

    In the context of decomposition, nutrient immobilization refers to
    (A) incorporation of nutrients in living microbes making them temporary unavailable.
    (B) enzymatic conversion of decomposing detritus to simpler compounds and inorganic nutrients.
    (C) removal of soluble nutrients from the fragmented detritus due to leaching action.
    (D) pulverization of detritus when passing through digestive tracts of detritus feeding invertebrates.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Under certain conditions, soil nutrients get tied up with the biomass of microbes and become temporary unavailable to other organisms. Such incorporation of nutrients in living microbes is called nutrient immobilization. Nutrients remain immobilized for variable periods and get mineralized later, after the death of microbes. This immobilization prevents the nutrients from being washed out from the ecosystem.

    Unattempted
    

    Under certain conditions, soil nutrients get tied up with the biomass of microbes and become temporary unavailable to other organisms. Such incorporation of nutrients in living microbes is called nutrient immobilization. Nutrients remain immobilized for variable periods and get mineralized later, after the death of microbes. This immobilization prevents the nutrients from being washed out from the ecosystem.
86. Question 86 of 100

    86. Question

    Which of the following cities is/are correctly matched with their type of climate?
    City : Climate
    (1) Rome : Meditteranean
    (2) Sydney : Savannah
    (3) Kuala Lumpur : Equatorial
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 1only
    (C) 2and3only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by very distinctive climatic features. The summers have a relatively warm and dry summer is experienced with off-shore trade winds. A temperature of roughly 76˚F is observed in Rome. Rainfall is concentrated in the winters with on-shore westerlies bringing cyclonic rain. Hence, statement 1 is correctly matched.
    Sydney experiences China type of climate, also known as the Warm Temperate Eastern Margin type which is characterized by a warm moist summer and a cool dry winter. Hence, statement 2 is not correctly matched.
    In Kuala Lumpur the hot and wet equatorial type of climate is observed. There is uniformity of temperature throughout the year. Cloudiness and precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature. Hence, statement 3 is correctly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    The Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by very distinctive climatic features. The summers have a relatively warm and dry summer is experienced with off-shore trade winds. A temperature of roughly 76˚F is observed in Rome. Rainfall is concentrated in the winters with on-shore westerlies bringing cyclonic rain. Hence, statement 1 is correctly matched.
    Sydney experiences China type of climate, also known as the Warm Temperate Eastern Margin type which is characterized by a warm moist summer and a cool dry winter. Hence, statement 2 is not correctly matched.
    In Kuala Lumpur the hot and wet equatorial type of climate is observed. There is uniformity of temperature throughout the year. Cloudiness and precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature. Hence, statement 3 is correctly matched.
87. Question 87 of 100

    87. Question

    This climate is found just outside the tropics. The climate is characterized by warm moist summers and cool, dry winters. Occasionally, the penetration of cold air from the continental interiors may bring down the temperature to freezing point. Rainfall is more than moderate, between 60 cm to 150 cm. The areas are densely populated.
    The above passage describes which of the following climate types?
    (A) China type climate
    (B) Steppe climate
    (C) British type climate
    (D) Siberian climate

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    About Warm Temperate Eastern Margin (China type) Climate
    • This type of climate is found on the eastern margins of continents in warm temperate latitudes, just outside the tropics. It is, in fact, the climate of most parts of China —a modified form of monsoonal climate.
    • It has comparatively more rainfall than Mediterranean climate.
    • The climate is typified by a warm moist summer and a cool, dry winter. The mean monthly temperature varies between 40°F to 78°F and is strongly modified by maritime influence.
    • Occasionally, the penetration of cold air from the continental interiors may bring down the temperature to freezing point. Though frosts are rare they occasionally occur in the colder interiors.
    • Rainfall is more than moderate, anything from 60 cm to 150 cm. The areas which experience this climate are very densely populated.

    Unattempted
    

    About Warm Temperate Eastern Margin (China type) Climate
    • This type of climate is found on the eastern margins of continents in warm temperate latitudes, just outside the tropics. It is, in fact, the climate of most parts of China —a modified form of monsoonal climate.
    • It has comparatively more rainfall than Mediterranean climate.
    • The climate is typified by a warm moist summer and a cool, dry winter. The mean monthly temperature varies between 40°F to 78°F and is strongly modified by maritime influence.
    • Occasionally, the penetration of cold air from the continental interiors may bring down the temperature to freezing point. Though frosts are rare they occasionally occur in the colder interiors.
    • Rainfall is more than moderate, anything from 60 cm to 150 cm. The areas which experience this climate are very densely populated.
88. Question 88 of 100

    88. Question

    Arrange the following regions in the ascending order of annual rainfall received by them:
    (1) Khasi hills
    (2) Punjab
    (3) Jharkhand
    (4) Ladakh
    Select the correct Answer using the code given below:
    (A) 4-1-2-3
    (B) 3-2-1-4
    (C) 3-1-2-4
    (D) 4-2-3-1

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    • The highest rainfall occurs along the west coast, on the Western Ghats, as well as in the sub-Himalayan areas in the northeast and the hills of Meghalaya. Here the rainfall exceeds 200 cm. In some parts of Khasi and Jaintia hills, the rainfall exceeds 1,000 cm.
    • Rainfall between 100-200 cm is received in the northeastern Peninsula covering Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar, eastern Madhya Pradesh, northern Ganga plain along the sub-Himalayas and the Cachar Valley and Manipur.
    • Western Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, eastern Rajasthan, Gujarat and the Deccan Plateau receive rainfall between 50-100 cm.
    • Parts of the Peninsula, especially in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra, Ladakh and most of western Rajasthan receive rainfall below 50 cm.

    Unattempted
    

    • The highest rainfall occurs along the west coast, on the Western Ghats, as well as in the sub-Himalayan areas in the northeast and the hills of Meghalaya. Here the rainfall exceeds 200 cm. In some parts of Khasi and Jaintia hills, the rainfall exceeds 1,000 cm.
    • Rainfall between 100-200 cm is received in the northeastern Peninsula covering Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar, eastern Madhya Pradesh, northern Ganga plain along the sub-Himalayas and the Cachar Valley and Manipur.
    • Western Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, eastern Rajasthan, Gujarat and the Deccan Plateau receive rainfall between 50-100 cm.
    • Parts of the Peninsula, especially in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra, Ladakh and most of western Rajasthan receive rainfall below 50 cm.
89. Question 89 of 100

    89. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Alluvial soil:
    (1) It covers most of the Deccan Plateau including parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
    (2) Khadar is the new alluvium and enriches soil by depositing fine silts.
    (3) Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium, composed of calcareous deposits.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    • Statement 1 is incorrect: Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
    Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. These soils cover about 40 per cent of the total area of the country.
    In the Peninsular region, they are found in deltas of the east coast and in the river valleys.
    • Statement 2 and 3 are correct: In the Upper and Middle Ganga plain, two different types of alluvial soils have developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar.
    Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts. Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium deposited away from the flood plains. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions (Kankars). These soils are more loamy and clayey in the lower and middle Ganga plain and the Brahmaputra valley. The sand content decreases from the west to east.

    Unattempted
    

    • Statement 1 is incorrect: Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
    Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. These soils cover about 40 per cent of the total area of the country.
    In the Peninsular region, they are found in deltas of the east coast and in the river valleys.
    • Statement 2 and 3 are correct: In the Upper and Middle Ganga plain, two different types of alluvial soils have developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar.
    Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts. Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium deposited away from the flood plains. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions (Kankars). These soils are more loamy and clayey in the lower and middle Ganga plain and the Brahmaputra valley. The sand content decreases from the west to east.
90. Question 90 of 100

    90. Question

    In the famous Nataraja Bronze sculpture of Chola period, the Shiva is standing in 'Bhujangatrasita' stance. What does the stance represent?
    (A) End of the cosmic world.
    (B) Kicking away of illusion from the devotee's mind.
    (C) The celebration of defeating the demon 'apasmara'.
    (D) The balance between material and spiritual world.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Shiva is associated with the end of the cosmic world with which this dancing position is associated.
    In this Chola period bronze sculpture he has been shown balancing himself on his right leg and suppressing the apasmara, the demon of ignorance or forgetfulness, with the foot of the same leg. At the same time, he raises his left leg in bhujangatrasita stance, which represents tirobhava, that is kicking away the veil of maya or illusion from the devotee’s mind. Hence option (B) is correct.
    His four arms are outstretched and the main right hand is posed in abhaya hasta or the gesture suggesting.
    The upper right holds the damaru his favorite musical instrument to keep on the beat tala. The upper left hand carries a flame while the main left hand is held in dola hasta and connects with the abhaya hasta of the right hand. His hair locks fly on both the sides touching the circular jvala mala or the garland of flames which surrounds the entire dancing figuration.

    Unattempted
    

    Shiva is associated with the end of the cosmic world with which this dancing position is associated.
    In this Chola period bronze sculpture he has been shown balancing himself on his right leg and suppressing the apasmara, the demon of ignorance or forgetfulness, with the foot of the same leg. At the same time, he raises his left leg in bhujangatrasita stance, which represents tirobhava, that is kicking away the veil of maya or illusion from the devotee’s mind. Hence option (B) is correct.
    His four arms are outstretched and the main right hand is posed in abhaya hasta or the gesture suggesting.
    The upper right holds the damaru his favorite musical instrument to keep on the beat tala. The upper left hand carries a flame while the main left hand is held in dola hasta and connects with the abhaya hasta of the right hand. His hair locks fly on both the sides touching the circular jvala mala or the garland of flames which surrounds the entire dancing figuration.
91. Question 91 of 100

    91. Question

    India has a rich and ancient tradition of string puppets or marionettes.
    Which of the following is/are the types of String puppetry?
    (1) Kathputli
    (2) Gombeyatta
    (3) Bommalattam
    (4) Ravanchhaya
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (D) 3 and 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    India has a rich and ancient tradition of string puppets or marionettes. Marionettes having jointed limbs controlled by strings allow far greater flexibility and are, therefore, the most articulate of the puppets.Rajasthan, Orissa, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are some of the regions where this form of puppetry has flourished. The different types of string puppetry are:
    Kathputli, Rajasthan: The traditional marionettes of Rajasthan are known as Kathputli. Carved from a single piece of wood, these puppets are like large dolls that are colourfully dressed. Their costumes and headgears are designed in the medieval Rajasthani style of dress, which is prevalent even today.The Kathputli is accompanied by a highly dramatised version of the regional music. Oval faces, large eyes, arched eyebrows and large lips are some of the distinct facial features of these string puppets.
    These puppets wear long trailing skirts and do not have legs. Puppeteers manipulate them with two to five strings which are normally tied to their fingers and not to a prop or a support.
    Kundhei, Orissa: The string puppets of Orissa are known as Kundhei. Made of light wood, the Orissa puppets have no legs but wear long flowing skirts. They have more joints and are, therefore, more versatile, articulate and easy to manipulate. The puppeteers often hold a wooden prop, triangular in shape, to which strings are attached for manipulation. The costumes of Kundhei resemble those worn by actors of the Jatra traditional theatre. The music is drawn from the popular tunes of the region and is sometimes influenced by the music of Odissi dance.
    Gombeyatta, Karnataka: The string puppets of Karnataka are called Gombeyatta. They are styled and designed like the characters of Yakshagana, the traditional theatre form of the region. The Gombeyatta puppet figures are highly stylized and have joints at the legs, shoulders, elbows, hips and knees. These puppets are manipulated by five to seven strings tied to a prop. Some of the more complicated movements of the puppet are manipulated by two to three puppeteers at a time. Episodes enacted in Gombeyatta are usually based on Prasangas of the Yakshagana plays. The music that accompanies is dramatic and beautifully blends folk and classical elements. While Togalu Gombayetta is a shadow puppetry.
    Bommalattam, Tamil Nadu: Puppets from Tamil Nadu, known as Bommalattam combine the techniques of both rod and string puppets. They are made of wood and the strings for manipulation are tied to an iron ring which the puppeteer wears like a crown on his head. A few puppets have jointed arms and hands, which are manipulated by rods. The Bommalattam puppets are the largest, heaviest and the most articulate of all traditional Indian marionettes. A puppet may be as big as 4.5 feet in height weighing about ten kilograms. Bommalattam theatre has elaborate preliminaries which are divided into four parts – Vinayak Puja, Komali, Amanattam and Pusenkanattam.
    Ravanachhaya, Orissa: It is a type of shadow puppetry. The most theatrically exciting is the Ravanachhaya of Orissa. The puppets are in one piece and have no joints. They are not coloured, hence throw opaque shadows on the screen. The manipulation requires great dexterity since there are no joints. The puppets are made of deer skin and are conceived in bold dramatic poses. Apart from human and animal characters, many props such as trees, mountains, chariots, etc. are also used.
    Although Ravanachhaya puppets are smaller in size-the largest not more than two feet have no jointed limbs, they create very sensitive and lyrical shadows. Hence option 4 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    India has a rich and ancient tradition of string puppets or marionettes. Marionettes having jointed limbs controlled by strings allow far greater flexibility and are, therefore, the most articulate of the puppets.Rajasthan, Orissa, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are some of the regions where this form of puppetry has flourished. The different types of string puppetry are:
    Kathputli, Rajasthan: The traditional marionettes of Rajasthan are known as Kathputli. Carved from a single piece of wood, these puppets are like large dolls that are colourfully dressed. Their costumes and headgears are designed in the medieval Rajasthani style of dress, which is prevalent even today.The Kathputli is accompanied by a highly dramatised version of the regional music. Oval faces, large eyes, arched eyebrows and large lips are some of the distinct facial features of these string puppets.
    These puppets wear long trailing skirts and do not have legs. Puppeteers manipulate them with two to five strings which are normally tied to their fingers and not to a prop or a support.
    Kundhei, Orissa: The string puppets of Orissa are known as Kundhei. Made of light wood, the Orissa puppets have no legs but wear long flowing skirts. They have more joints and are, therefore, more versatile, articulate and easy to manipulate. The puppeteers often hold a wooden prop, triangular in shape, to which strings are attached for manipulation. The costumes of Kundhei resemble those worn by actors of the Jatra traditional theatre. The music is drawn from the popular tunes of the region and is sometimes influenced by the music of Odissi dance.
    Gombeyatta, Karnataka: The string puppets of Karnataka are called Gombeyatta. They are styled and designed like the characters of Yakshagana, the traditional theatre form of the region. The Gombeyatta puppet figures are highly stylized and have joints at the legs, shoulders, elbows, hips and knees. These puppets are manipulated by five to seven strings tied to a prop. Some of the more complicated movements of the puppet are manipulated by two to three puppeteers at a time. Episodes enacted in Gombeyatta are usually based on Prasangas of the Yakshagana plays. The music that accompanies is dramatic and beautifully blends folk and classical elements. While Togalu Gombayetta is a shadow puppetry.
    Bommalattam, Tamil Nadu: Puppets from Tamil Nadu, known as Bommalattam combine the techniques of both rod and string puppets. They are made of wood and the strings for manipulation are tied to an iron ring which the puppeteer wears like a crown on his head. A few puppets have jointed arms and hands, which are manipulated by rods. The Bommalattam puppets are the largest, heaviest and the most articulate of all traditional Indian marionettes. A puppet may be as big as 4.5 feet in height weighing about ten kilograms. Bommalattam theatre has elaborate preliminaries which are divided into four parts – Vinayak Puja, Komali, Amanattam and Pusenkanattam.
    Ravanachhaya, Orissa: It is a type of shadow puppetry. The most theatrically exciting is the Ravanachhaya of Orissa. The puppets are in one piece and have no joints. They are not coloured, hence throw opaque shadows on the screen. The manipulation requires great dexterity since there are no joints. The puppets are made of deer skin and are conceived in bold dramatic poses. Apart from human and animal characters, many props such as trees, mountains, chariots, etc. are also used.
    Although Ravanachhaya puppets are smaller in size-the largest not more than two feet have no jointed limbs, they create very sensitive and lyrical shadows. Hence option 4 is not correct.
92. Question 92 of 100

    92. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Bear Market:
    (1) It is a market that is on the rise.
    (2) In a bear market, investors rush to sell their stocks instead of buying.
    (3) During it the country's economy is strong and employment levels are high.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A bear market is one that is in decline. Share prices are continuously dropping, resulting in a downward trend that investors believe will continue in the long run, which, in turn, perpetuates the spiral. During a bear market, the economy will typically slow down and unemployment will rise as companies begin laying off workers. In a bear market, investors rush to sell their stocks before they lose more value.
    o A bull market refers to a market that is on the rise. It is typified by a sustained increase in market share prices. In such times, investors have faith that the uptrend will continue in the long term. Typically, the country's economy is strong and employment levels are high. Typically, the country's economy is strong and employment levels are high.

    Unattempted
    

    A bear market is one that is in decline. Share prices are continuously dropping, resulting in a downward trend that investors believe will continue in the long run, which, in turn, perpetuates the spiral. During a bear market, the economy will typically slow down and unemployment will rise as companies begin laying off workers. In a bear market, investors rush to sell their stocks before they lose more value.
    o A bull market refers to a market that is on the rise. It is typified by a sustained increase in market share prices. In such times, investors have faith that the uptrend will continue in the long term. Typically, the country's economy is strong and employment levels are high. Typically, the country's economy is strong and employment levels are high.
93. Question 93 of 100

    93. Question

    Which of the following can be chosen by the banks to fix the interest rate on loans under the External Benchmarking Regime?
    (1) Repo Rate
    (2) Marginal Cost of Fund based Lending Rate (MCLR)
    (3) Yield rates on the Treasury Bills, such as T-91 and T-182
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The RBI has introduced the external benchmarking of loans mandating the banks to link all new floating rate retail and MSE loans to any of the 4 external benchmarks. These external benchmarks could be Repo Rate, Yield Rate of Treasury Bill (T-91), Yield Rate of T-182 or any reference market rate of interest published by the Financial Benchmarks India Private Ltd., (FBIL).
    The banks are free to decide the spread over the external benchmark.
    The interest rate under the regime shall be reset at least once in 3 months.
    Marginal Cost of Fund based Lending Rate (MCLR) cannot be chosen by the banks to fix the interest rate on loans under the External Benchmarking Regime.

    Unattempted
    

    The RBI has introduced the external benchmarking of loans mandating the banks to link all new floating rate retail and MSE loans to any of the 4 external benchmarks. These external benchmarks could be Repo Rate, Yield Rate of Treasury Bill (T-91), Yield Rate of T-182 or any reference market rate of interest published by the Financial Benchmarks India Private Ltd., (FBIL).
    The banks are free to decide the spread over the external benchmark.
    The interest rate under the regime shall be reset at least once in 3 months.
    Marginal Cost of Fund based Lending Rate (MCLR) cannot be chosen by the banks to fix the interest rate on loans under the External Benchmarking Regime.
94. Question 94 of 100

    94. Question

    With reference to the monetary policy of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consider the following statements:
    (1) The Statutory Liquidity Ratio is the ratio of the total deposits of a bank which is to be maintained by the bank with itself in non – cash form.
    (2) The higher the Cash Reserve Ratio the more is the amount of money available to banks for lending and investing.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the ratio (fixed by the RBI) of the total deposits of a bank which is to be maintained by the bank with itself in non-cash form.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The Cash Reserve Ratio is the amount of money kept by Banks with RBI. Thus, when the RBI decides to increase the Cash Reserve Ratio, the amount of money that is available with the banks reduces. This is the RBI’s way of controlling the excess flow of money in the economy. Thus, the higher the Cash Reserve Ratio, the lesser is the amount of money available to banks for lending and investing.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the ratio (fixed by the RBI) of the total deposits of a bank which is to be maintained by the bank with itself in non-cash form.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The Cash Reserve Ratio is the amount of money kept by Banks with RBI. Thus, when the RBI decides to increase the Cash Reserve Ratio, the amount of money that is available with the banks reduces. This is the RBI’s way of controlling the excess flow of money in the economy. Thus, the higher the Cash Reserve Ratio, the lesser is the amount of money available to banks for lending and investing.
95. Question 95 of 100

    95. Question

    With reference to the Central Information Commission, consider the following statements:
    (1) It has suo- moto power to order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds.
    (2) It has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority.
    (3) It can examine any record under the control of any public authority during inquiry.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The powers and functions of the Central Information Commission are:
    1. It is the duty of the Commission to receive and inquire into a complaint from any person:
    (a) who has not been able to submit an information request because of non-appointment of a Public Information Officer;
    (b) who has been refused information that was requested;
    (c) who has not received response to his information request within the specified time limits;
    (d) who thinks the fees charged are unreasonable;
    (e) who thinks information given is incomplete, misleading or false; and
    (f) any other matter relating to obtaining information.
    2. The Commission can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    3. While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil court in respect of the following matters:
    (a) summoning and enforcing attendance of persons and compelling them to give oral or written evidence on oath and to produce documents or things;
    (b) requiring the discovery and inspection of documents;
    (c) receiving evidence on affidavit;
    (d) requisitioning any public record from any court or office;
    (e) issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents; and
    (f) any other matter which may be prescribed. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    4. During the inquiry of a complaint, the Commission may examine any record which is under the control of the public authority and no such record may be withheld from it on any grounds. In other words, all public records must be given to the Commission during inquiry for examination.
    5. The Commission has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority. This includes:
    (a) providing access to information in a particular form;
    (b) directing the public authority to appoint a Public Information Officer where none exists;
    (c) publishing information or categories of information;
    (d) making necessary changes to the practices relating to management, maintenance and destruction of records;
    (e) enhancing training provision for officials on the right to information;
    (f) seeking an annual report from the public authority on compliance with this Act;
    (g) requiring the public authority to compensate for any loss or other detriment suffered by the applicant;
    (h) imposing penalties under this Act; and
    (i) rejecting the application. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    6. The Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the provisions of this Act. The Central Government places this report before each House of Parliament.
    7. When a public authority does not conform to the provisions of this Act, the Commission may recommend (to the authority) steps which ought to be taken for promoting such conformity.

    Unattempted
    

    The powers and functions of the Central Information Commission are:
    1. It is the duty of the Commission to receive and inquire into a complaint from any person:
    (a) who has not been able to submit an information request because of non-appointment of a Public Information Officer;
    (b) who has been refused information that was requested;
    (c) who has not received response to his information request within the specified time limits;
    (d) who thinks the fees charged are unreasonable;
    (e) who thinks information given is incomplete, misleading or false; and
    (f) any other matter relating to obtaining information.
    2. The Commission can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    3. While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil court in respect of the following matters:
    (a) summoning and enforcing attendance of persons and compelling them to give oral or written evidence on oath and to produce documents or things;
    (b) requiring the discovery and inspection of documents;
    (c) receiving evidence on affidavit;
    (d) requisitioning any public record from any court or office;
    (e) issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents; and
    (f) any other matter which may be prescribed. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    4. During the inquiry of a complaint, the Commission may examine any record which is under the control of the public authority and no such record may be withheld from it on any grounds. In other words, all public records must be given to the Commission during inquiry for examination.
    5. The Commission has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority. This includes:
    (a) providing access to information in a particular form;
    (b) directing the public authority to appoint a Public Information Officer where none exists;
    (c) publishing information or categories of information;
    (d) making necessary changes to the practices relating to management, maintenance and destruction of records;
    (e) enhancing training provision for officials on the right to information;
    (f) seeking an annual report from the public authority on compliance with this Act;
    (g) requiring the public authority to compensate for any loss or other detriment suffered by the applicant;
    (h) imposing penalties under this Act; and
    (i) rejecting the application. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    6. The Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the provisions of this Act. The Central Government places this report before each House of Parliament.
    7. When a public authority does not conform to the provisions of this Act, the Commission may recommend (to the authority) steps which ought to be taken for promoting such conformity.
96. Question 96 of 100

    96. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The privileges extend to both the members of the Parliament and state legislature.
    (2) The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs has the final authority to decide upon the matters of breach of privileges.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament. A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege. Each House also claims the right to punish as contempt actions which, while not breach of any specific privilege, are offences against its authority and dignity.
    The Constitution under Article 194 has also extended the privileges to the state legislature : freedom of speech within the Houses of state legislature and freedom from prosecution for any speech made or vote given inside the Houses or its committees to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of the Houses. This includes Advocate General of the state and state ministers. However, these privileges do not extend to the Governor. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    A breach of privilege notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege. Each House also claims the right to punish as contempt actions which, while not breach of any specific privilege, are offences against its authority and dignity.
    A member may, with the consent of the Speaker, raise a question involving a breach of privilege or contempt either of a member or of the House or of a Committee thereof. On receipt of the notice the matter is considered by the Speaker who may either give or withhold his consent to the raising of the question of privilege in the House. The Speaker, however, before deciding whether the matter proposed to be raised as a question of privilege requires the intervention of the House and whether he should give his consent to the raising of the matter in the House, may give an opportunity to the person incriminated to explain his case to the Speaker.
    The matter on the question of breach of privilege may either be considered and decided by the House itself, or it may be referred by the House, on a motion made by any member, to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation and report. The usual practice is, however, to refer the matter of complaint to the Committee of Privileges, and the House defers its judgement until the report of the Committee has been presented to the House. However, in cases where the House finds that the matter is too trivial or that the offender has already tendered an adequate apology, the House itself disposes of the matter by deciding not to proceed further in the matter.
    Hence, the House has the power to determine as to what constitutes breach of privilege and contempt. The penal jurisdiction of the House in this regard covers its members as well as strangers and every act of violation of privileges, whether committed in the immediate presence of the House or outside of it. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    Apart from the privileges as specified in the Constitution, the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides for freedom from arrest and detention of members under civil process during the continuance of the meeting of the House or of a committee thereof and forty days before its commencement and forty days after its conclusion.

    Unattempted
    

    Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament. A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege. Each House also claims the right to punish as contempt actions which, while not breach of any specific privilege, are offences against its authority and dignity.
    The Constitution under Article 194 has also extended the privileges to the state legislature : freedom of speech within the Houses of state legislature and freedom from prosecution for any speech made or vote given inside the Houses or its committees to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of the Houses. This includes Advocate General of the state and state ministers. However, these privileges do not extend to the Governor. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    A breach of privilege notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege. Each House also claims the right to punish as contempt actions which, while not breach of any specific privilege, are offences against its authority and dignity.
    A member may, with the consent of the Speaker, raise a question involving a breach of privilege or contempt either of a member or of the House or of a Committee thereof. On receipt of the notice the matter is considered by the Speaker who may either give or withhold his consent to the raising of the question of privilege in the House. The Speaker, however, before deciding whether the matter proposed to be raised as a question of privilege requires the intervention of the House and whether he should give his consent to the raising of the matter in the House, may give an opportunity to the person incriminated to explain his case to the Speaker.
    The matter on the question of breach of privilege may either be considered and decided by the House itself, or it may be referred by the House, on a motion made by any member, to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation and report. The usual practice is, however, to refer the matter of complaint to the Committee of Privileges, and the House defers its judgement until the report of the Committee has been presented to the House. However, in cases where the House finds that the matter is too trivial or that the offender has already tendered an adequate apology, the House itself disposes of the matter by deciding not to proceed further in the matter.
    Hence, the House has the power to determine as to what constitutes breach of privilege and contempt. The penal jurisdiction of the House in this regard covers its members as well as strangers and every act of violation of privileges, whether committed in the immediate presence of the House or outside of it. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    Apart from the privileges as specified in the Constitution, the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides for freedom from arrest and detention of members under civil process during the continuance of the meeting of the House or of a committee thereof and forty days before its commencement and forty days after its conclusion.
97. Question 97 of 100

    97. Question

    With reference to Modern Indian History, “Black Hole tragedy” is related to:
    (A) An incident in which 19 Canada-bound Indian immigrants were killed in police firing near Kolkata.
    (B) Siraj-ud-daula imprisoning 146 English persons who were lodged in a very tiny room due to which 123 of them died of suffocation.
    (C) The agitated crowd torching the police station with policemen inside; those who tried to flee were hacked to death and thrown back into the fire.
    (D) The death of Sher-i-Punjab Lala Lajpat Rai due to lathi blows received during a lathi- charge on an anti-Simon Commission procession.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ‘Black Hole Tragedy’- Siraj-ud-daula is believed to have imprisoned 146 English persons who were lodged in a very tiny room due to which 123 of them died of suffocation.
    ● Black Hole of Calcutta, scene of an incident on June 20, 1756, in which anumber of Europeans were imprisoned in Calcutta (now Kolkata) and manydied. The Europeans were the remaining defenders of Calcutta following thecapture of the city by the nawab (ruler) Siraj-ud-daula, of Bengal, and thesurrender of the East India Company’s garrison under the self-proclaimedgovernor of Bengal, John Z. Holwell. The incident became a cause célèbre in the idealization of British imperialism in India and a subject of controversy.

    Unattempted
    

    ‘Black Hole Tragedy’- Siraj-ud-daula is believed to have imprisoned 146 English persons who were lodged in a very tiny room due to which 123 of them died of suffocation.
    ● Black Hole of Calcutta, scene of an incident on June 20, 1756, in which anumber of Europeans were imprisoned in Calcutta (now Kolkata) and manydied. The Europeans were the remaining defenders of Calcutta following thecapture of the city by the nawab (ruler) Siraj-ud-daula, of Bengal, and thesurrender of the East India Company’s garrison under the self-proclaimedgovernor of Bengal, John Z. Holwell. The incident became a cause célèbre in the idealization of British imperialism in India and a subject of controversy.
98. Question 98 of 100

    98. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Embroidery/Weaving Pattern : State
    (1) Kasuti : Kerala
    (2) Phulkari : Punjab
    (3) Chikankari : Uttar Pradesh
    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 3 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Kasuti is a hand-woven variety of embroidery of Dharwar district of Karnataka. Basically found in the Silk pallus, Kasuti embroidery consists of interwoven geometric patterns that make up for this interesting design. It has mostly been adapted from the temple designs and architectural musings of the surroundings. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
    Phulkari, which literally translates into flower work‘, has a history etched in the culture of Punjab. Spun from the charkha this spectacular style of embroidery is patterned on odinis, shawls, kurtis and chunris. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
    The craft of Chikan work, often referred to as Lucknow Chikan, is over 400 years old with a firm presence in the Indian and global fashion arena. The technique of its creation is called Chikankari and its unique sensibility flaunts grace and elegance as subtly as the wearer pleases. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    Kasuti is a hand-woven variety of embroidery of Dharwar district of Karnataka. Basically found in the Silk pallus, Kasuti embroidery consists of interwoven geometric patterns that make up for this interesting design. It has mostly been adapted from the temple designs and architectural musings of the surroundings. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
    Phulkari, which literally translates into flower work‘, has a history etched in the culture of Punjab. Spun from the charkha this spectacular style of embroidery is patterned on odinis, shawls, kurtis and chunris. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
    The craft of Chikan work, often referred to as Lucknow Chikan, is over 400 years old with a firm presence in the Indian and global fashion arena. The technique of its creation is called Chikankari and its unique sensibility flaunts grace and elegance as subtly as the wearer pleases. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
99. Question 99 of 100

    99. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to the Battle of Wandiwash:
    (1) The immediate context of the battle was provided by succession dispute at Carnatic and Hyderabad.
    (2) It was fought between the French and the British.
    (3) After the battle, the British emerged as supreme power in India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The outbreak of the Seven Years' War in Europe between England and France in 1756 provided the context for the third and decisive round of Anglo- French conflict in south India. The most decisive battle of the Third Carnatic War was the Battle of Wandiwash in 1760. The succession dispute at Carnatic and Hyderabad provided the context for the Second Carnatic War. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    o In the Battle of Wandiwash, General Eyre Coote of the English defeated the French army under Count Thomas Arthur de Lally and took Bussy as prisoner. French also lost Pondicherry to the British. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    o During the Third Carnatic War, French lost their positions in India, such as Chandernagore in Bengal, settlements at Masulipatnam and Yanam etc. However by the Peace of Paris in 1763 France got back all the factories and settlements that it possessed in India prior to 1749, with the provision that it could not any more fortify Chandernagore. But the balance of power in India had by now decisively changed with the steady expansion of power of the English company. The French East India Company was finally wound up in 1769.
    o The treaty of Peace of Paris (1763) restored to the French their factories in India but not allowed to fortify them. Also the French ceased to be political power in India. The victory at Wandiwash left the English East India Company with no European rival in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The outbreak of the Seven Years' War in Europe between England and France in 1756 provided the context for the third and decisive round of Anglo- French conflict in south India. The most decisive battle of the Third Carnatic War was the Battle of Wandiwash in 1760. The succession dispute at Carnatic and Hyderabad provided the context for the Second Carnatic War. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    o In the Battle of Wandiwash, General Eyre Coote of the English defeated the French army under Count Thomas Arthur de Lally and took Bussy as prisoner. French also lost Pondicherry to the British. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    o During the Third Carnatic War, French lost their positions in India, such as Chandernagore in Bengal, settlements at Masulipatnam and Yanam etc. However by the Peace of Paris in 1763 France got back all the factories and settlements that it possessed in India prior to 1749, with the provision that it could not any more fortify Chandernagore. But the balance of power in India had by now decisively changed with the steady expansion of power of the English company. The French East India Company was finally wound up in 1769.
    o The treaty of Peace of Paris (1763) restored to the French their factories in India but not allowed to fortify them. Also the French ceased to be political power in India. The victory at Wandiwash left the English East India Company with no European rival in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
100. Question 100 of 100

     100. Question

     Which of the following statement correctly defines the concept of ‘debt trap’:
     (A) A situation when an economy is borrowing more than what it can repay from its domestic earnings.
     (B) A situation when an economy is borrowing higher than what it is repaying for its past borrowings.
     (C) A situation when an economy is borrowing to repay even the interest of its past borrowings.
     (D) A situation when the forex reserves growth rate of an economy starts lagging behind the growth rate of its external borrowings.

     • A
     • B
     • C
     • D
     Correct
     

     Incorrect
     

     A debt trap is a situation in which a borrower is led into a cycle of re-borrowing, or rolling over, their loan payments because they are unable to afford the scheduled payments on the principal of a loan. These traps are usually caused by high-interest rates and short terms. Thus, option (C) is correct.
     Many of the highly indebted countries (HICs) in sub-Saharan Africa fall under this category. India was very close to a similar situation in early 2000.

     Unattempted
     

     A debt trap is a situation in which a borrower is led into a cycle of re-borrowing, or rolling over, their loan payments because they are unable to afford the scheduled payments on the principal of a loan. These traps are usually caused by high-interest rates and short terms. Thus, option (C) is correct.
     Many of the highly indebted countries (HICs) in sub-Saharan Africa fall under this category. India was very close to a similar situation in early 2000.