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1st Plan 2025 : (2) Polity 2

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1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 100

   1. Question

   Consider the following statements with regard to the office of Speaker:
   (1) She decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not.
   (2) She is not allowed to vote during the voting on any issue in the House.
   (3) She is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India in the House.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1 is correct. Article 110 (3) of the Constitution of India states that ‘if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final’.
   A Money Bill can be introduced in Lok Sabha only. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of Speaker thereon is final. The Speaker is under no obligation to consult any one in coming to a decision or in giving certificate that a Bill is a Money Bill. The Speaker’s certificate on a Money Bill once given is final and cannot be challenged. A Money Bill cannot be referred to a Joint Committee of the Houses.
   Statement 2 is incorrect. Speaker can cast a casting vote.Under the constitutional provisions (article 100), Speaker does not vote in the first instance. But he can exercisea casting vote in the case of a tie. Thus, he can vote only when the House is divided equally on any question.
   Such a vote is called casting vote, and its purpose is to resolve a deadlock.
   Statement 3 is correct. Speaker is the final interpreter on the following provisions within the House:
   The Constitution of India
   The Rules of Procedure
   Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha
   The Parliamentary precedents
   The Speaker is elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases:
   If he ceases to be a member of the assembly;
   If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker; and
   If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice.
   Power and duties the Speaker:
   (1)
   (A) Ensure smooth proceedings of the house,
   (B) Maintain discipline in the Lok Sabha,
   (C) Fix the Agenda of the House,
   (D) Permission to ask questions,
   (E) Conduct the business of the House,
   (F) Interpretation of Rules of Procedure and
   (G) Power to adjourn the House.
   (2) Speaker decides the questions of disqualification of a member of the assembly, arising on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.
   (3) Speaker can allow a ‘secret’ sitting of the House at the request of the leader of the House.
   (4) Speaker appoints the chairman of all the committees of the assembly and supervises their functioning. He himself is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the Rules Committee and the General-Purpose Committee.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1 is correct. Article 110 (3) of the Constitution of India states that ‘if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final’.
   A Money Bill can be introduced in Lok Sabha only. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of Speaker thereon is final. The Speaker is under no obligation to consult any one in coming to a decision or in giving certificate that a Bill is a Money Bill. The Speaker’s certificate on a Money Bill once given is final and cannot be challenged. A Money Bill cannot be referred to a Joint Committee of the Houses.
   Statement 2 is incorrect. Speaker can cast a casting vote.Under the constitutional provisions (article 100), Speaker does not vote in the first instance. But he can exercisea casting vote in the case of a tie. Thus, he can vote only when the House is divided equally on any question.
   Such a vote is called casting vote, and its purpose is to resolve a deadlock.
   Statement 3 is correct. Speaker is the final interpreter on the following provisions within the House:
   The Constitution of India
   The Rules of Procedure
   Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha
   The Parliamentary precedents
   The Speaker is elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases:
   If he ceases to be a member of the assembly;
   If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker; and
   If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice.
   Power and duties the Speaker:
   (1)
   (A) Ensure smooth proceedings of the house,
   (B) Maintain discipline in the Lok Sabha,
   (C) Fix the Agenda of the House,
   (D) Permission to ask questions,
   (E) Conduct the business of the House,
   (F) Interpretation of Rules of Procedure and
   (G) Power to adjourn the House.
   (2) Speaker decides the questions of disqualification of a member of the assembly, arising on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.
   (3) Speaker can allow a ‘secret’ sitting of the House at the request of the leader of the House.
   (4) Speaker appoints the chairman of all the committees of the assembly and supervises their functioning. He himself is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the Rules Committee and the General-Purpose Committee.
2. Question 2 of 100

   2. Question

   If Rohan has attained the age of 32 years in India, than he is eligible to be elected as
   (1) Prime Minister of India
   (2) Vice-President of India
   (3) Member of Rajya Sabha
   (4) Governor of a State
   (5) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
   Select the incorrect answer using the code given below:
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) Only four
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   If Rohan has attained the age of 32 years in India, than he is eligible to be elected as
   (1) Member of Lok sabha – Minimum age required is 25 Years
   (2) Prime Minister of India – Minimum age required is 25 Years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
   (3) Member of Rajya Sabha – Minimum age required is 30 Years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
   (4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha – Minimum age required is 25 Years. Hence, statement 5 is correct.
   If Rohan has attained the age of 32 years in India, than he is not eligible to be elected as
   (1) President of India – Minimum age required is 35 Years.
   (2) Vice-President of India – Minimum age required is 35 Years. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
   (3) Governor of a State – Minimum age required is 35 Years. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

   Unattempted
   

   If Rohan has attained the age of 32 years in India, than he is eligible to be elected as
   (1) Member of Lok sabha – Minimum age required is 25 Years
   (2) Prime Minister of India – Minimum age required is 25 Years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
   (3) Member of Rajya Sabha – Minimum age required is 30 Years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
   (4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha – Minimum age required is 25 Years. Hence, statement 5 is correct.
   If Rohan has attained the age of 32 years in India, than he is not eligible to be elected as
   (1) President of India – Minimum age required is 35 Years.
   (2) Vice-President of India – Minimum age required is 35 Years. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
   (3) Governor of a State – Minimum age required is 35 Years. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
3. Question 3 of 100

   3. Question

   Consider the following statements regarding financial committees of the parliament:
   (1) Both the Public Account Committee and Committee on Public Undertaking scrutinize the reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
   (2) Both the Public Account Committee and Committee on Public Undertaking submit their reports to the Parliament by the President.
   (3) Both the Public Account Committee and Committee on Public Undertaking consist of 22 members each of which not more than 15 belongs to the Lok Sabha and not more than 7 belongs to the Rajya Sabha.
   Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   ● Statement 1 is correct: Public Account Committee (PAC) scrutinizes the Audit Report on Appropriation Account and the Audit Report on Finance Account as submitted by Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). On the other hand, the Committee on Public Undertaking (CPA) scrutinizes the Audit Report on Public Undertaking as submitted by the CAG.
   PAC examines the accounts showing the appropriation of the sums granted by the House to meet the Expenditure, the annual Finance Accounts of the government and, Such other accounts laid before the House as the Committee may think fit.
   ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Both PAC and CPA do submit reports to Parliament but directly and not via the President.
   ● Statement 3 is correct: Both PAC and CPA consist of 22 members of which not more than 15 belong to Lok Sabha and not more than 7 belong to the Rajya Sabha. Further members are elected by the respective houses on the basis of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
   Thus, all parties get due representation in it.
   The term of office of the members is One year.

   Unattempted
   

   ● Statement 1 is correct: Public Account Committee (PAC) scrutinizes the Audit Report on Appropriation Account and the Audit Report on Finance Account as submitted by Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). On the other hand, the Committee on Public Undertaking (CPA) scrutinizes the Audit Report on Public Undertaking as submitted by the CAG.
   PAC examines the accounts showing the appropriation of the sums granted by the House to meet the Expenditure, the annual Finance Accounts of the government and, Such other accounts laid before the House as the Committee may think fit.
   ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Both PAC and CPA do submit reports to Parliament but directly and not via the President.
   ● Statement 3 is correct: Both PAC and CPA consist of 22 members of which not more than 15 belong to Lok Sabha and not more than 7 belong to the Rajya Sabha. Further members are elected by the respective houses on the basis of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
   Thus, all parties get due representation in it.
   The term of office of the members is One year.
4. Question 4 of 100

   4. Question

   Consider the following offices wherein a person elected to that office shall not be disqualified under the Tenth Schedule if he gives up the membership of the political party to which he belonged immediately before such election and re-joins the political party after he ceases to hold such office?
   (1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
   (2) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
   (3) The Chairman of State Legislative Council
   (4) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 and 4 only
   (B) 2 and 4 only
   (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   About disqualifications under the Tenth Schedule:
   ● The Anti-Defection Law was passed through the 52nd amendment in 1985 to the Constitution. It added the 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution with the main intent of the law being to combat “the evil of political defections”.
   ● Tenth Schedule states that a person who has been elected to the office of –
   o the Speaker or
   o the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People
   or
   o the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States or
   o the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council of a State or
   o the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall not be disqualified under this Schedule if
   ● If he, by reason of his election to such office, voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party to which he belonged immediately before such election and does not, so long as he continues to hold such office thereafter, re-join that political party or become a member of another political party; or
   ● if he, having given up by reason of his election to such office his membership of the political party to which he belonged immediately before such election, re-joins such political party after he ceases to hold such office.

   Unattempted
   

   About disqualifications under the Tenth Schedule:
   ● The Anti-Defection Law was passed through the 52nd amendment in 1985 to the Constitution. It added the 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution with the main intent of the law being to combat “the evil of political defections”.
   ● Tenth Schedule states that a person who has been elected to the office of –
   o the Speaker or
   o the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People
   or
   o the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States or
   o the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council of a State or
   o the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall not be disqualified under this Schedule if
   ● If he, by reason of his election to such office, voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party to which he belonged immediately before such election and does not, so long as he continues to hold such office thereafter, re-join that political party or become a member of another political party; or
   ● if he, having given up by reason of his election to such office his membership of the political party to which he belonged immediately before such election, re-joins such political party after he ceases to hold such office.
5. Question 5 of 100

   5. Question

   Which of the following Cabinet Committees are headed by the Prime Minister of India?
   (1) Political Affairs Committee
   (2) Economic Affairs Committee
   (3) Parliamentary Affairs Committee
   (4) Appointments Committee
   Select the incorrect answer using the code given below.
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1 is correct. Political Affairs Committee – It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. It deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs. It is the most powerful of all the Cabinet Committees, often described as a “Super-Cabinet”.
   Statement 2 is correct. Economic Affairs Committee – It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. It directs and coordinates the governmental activities in the economic sphere.
   Statement 3 is incorrect. Parliamentary Affairs Committee – It is chaired by the Home Minister of India, not by the Prime Minister of India. It looks after the progress of government business in the Parliament.
   Statement 4 is correct. Appointments Committee – It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. It decides all higher-level appointments in the Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1 is correct. Political Affairs Committee – It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. It deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs. It is the most powerful of all the Cabinet Committees, often described as a “Super-Cabinet”.
   Statement 2 is correct. Economic Affairs Committee – It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. It directs and coordinates the governmental activities in the economic sphere.
   Statement 3 is incorrect. Parliamentary Affairs Committee – It is chaired by the Home Minister of India, not by the Prime Minister of India. It looks after the progress of government business in the Parliament.
   Statement 4 is correct. Appointments Committee – It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. It decides all higher-level appointments in the Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions.
6. Question 6 of 100

   6. Question

   With regard to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, consider the following statements:
   (1) He is appointed by the President of India.
   (2) His service conditions have not been specified by the Constitution.
   (3) His office was created by an amendment in the Constitution.
   Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1 is correct. There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India. It is the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution. He reports to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct.
   The President should place all such reports before each House of Parliament and send it to the governments of the states concerned.
   Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
   Statement 3 is correct. Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the States Reorganization Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. In pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of the Constitution, the office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957.
   The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is a constitutional body. The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution, established the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1 is correct. There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India. It is the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution. He reports to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct.
   The President should place all such reports before each House of Parliament and send it to the governments of the states concerned.
   Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
   Statement 3 is correct. Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the States Reorganization Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. In pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of the Constitution, the office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957.
   The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is a constitutional body. The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution, established the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
7. Question 7 of 100

   7. Question

   Which of the following are not included in the electoral college of the election of the President?
   (A) Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament.
   (B) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states.
   (C) Elected members of the Legislative Councils of the states.
   (D) Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of:
   1) The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament
   2) The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states
   3) The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry
   The nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislativeassemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President.

   Unattempted
   

   The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of:
   1) The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament
   2) The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states
   3) The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry
   The nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislativeassemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President.
8. Question 8 of 100

   8. Question

   Consider the following statements:
   (1) The Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
   (2) The Amendment Bill does not require prior permission of the President.
   (3) An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill in Lok Sabha.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority.
   However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This was ruled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
   An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
   The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

   Unattempted
   

   Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority.
   However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This was ruled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
   An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
   The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
9. Question 9 of 100

   9. Question

   According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
   (1) The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
   (2) The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
   (3) The National Human Right Commission
   (4) The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) Only three
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Reports and Statements get by President to be laid before parliament are as follows:
   (1) Annual Financial Statement
   (2) Reports of Auditor General
   (3) Annual report of UPSC
   (4) Reports of Finance Commission
   (5) Reports of Special officers of SC & ST
   (6) Report of the Special officers of Linguistic Minorities and Backward Classes.
   The report of NHRC is submitted to Central Government which in turn submits to parliament.

   Unattempted
   

   The Reports and Statements get by President to be laid before parliament are as follows:
   (1) Annual Financial Statement
   (2) Reports of Auditor General
   (3) Annual report of UPSC
   (4) Reports of Finance Commission
   (5) Reports of Special officers of SC & ST
   (6) Report of the Special officers of Linguistic Minorities and Backward Classes.
   The report of NHRC is submitted to Central Government which in turn submits to parliament.
10. Question 10 of 100

    10. Question

    Who among the following is involved in the election of vice president
    (1) Elected members of all state legislature
    (2) Elected members of Lok Sabha
    (3) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
    (4) All the Nominated Members of parliament
    Which of the above statement is incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All.
    (D) None.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Thus, this Electoral College is different from the Electoral College for the election of the President in the following two respects:
    (1) It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of president, only elected members).
    (2) It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).

    Unattempted
    

    The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Thus, this Electoral College is different from the Electoral College for the election of the President in the following two respects:
    (1) It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of president, only elected members).
    (2) It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).
11. Question 11 of 100

    11. Question

    Which of the following Commite was headed by the first Prime Minister of India.
    (1) Union Powers Committee
    (2) Rules of Procedure Commite
    (3) Drafting Committee
    (4) States Commite
    Select the correct statements
    (A) only 1 statement is correct
    (B) Only 2 statements are correct
    (C) Only 3 statements are correct
    (D) None of the above statements are correct

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    MAJOR COMMITTEES
    (1) Union Powers Committee, Union Constitution Committee & States Committee was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
    (2) Rules of Procedure Committee & Steering Committee headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
    (3) Provincial Constitution Committee by Sardar Patel.
    (4) Drafting Committee by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    (5) Advisory Committee on FRs, Minorities & Tribal & Excluded Areas à Sardar Patel.

    Unattempted
    

    MAJOR COMMITTEES
    (1) Union Powers Committee, Union Constitution Committee & States Committee was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
    (2) Rules of Procedure Committee & Steering Committee headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
    (3) Provincial Constitution Committee by Sardar Patel.
    (4) Drafting Committee by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    (5) Advisory Committee on FRs, Minorities & Tribal & Excluded Areas à Sardar Patel.
12. Question 12 of 100

    12. Question

    What is the significance of the date ‘22 January, 1947’?
    (A) Cabinet Mission Was launched
    (B) Constituent Assembly was Constituted
    (C) Objective Resolution was adopted
    (D) National Flag was adopted

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    OBJECTIVES RESOLUTION
    •Jawaharlal Nehru moved this historic resolution in Dec 13, 1946 in the Assembly.
    •It contained the fundamentals & philosophy of Constitutional structure.
    •This resolution was adopted on Jan 22, 1947 by Assembly.
    •Preamble is modified version of Objective Resolution.

    Unattempted
    

    OBJECTIVES RESOLUTION
    •Jawaharlal Nehru moved this historic resolution in Dec 13, 1946 in the Assembly.
    •It contained the fundamentals & philosophy of Constitutional structure.
    •This resolution was adopted on Jan 22, 1947 by Assembly.
    •Preamble is modified version of Objective Resolution.
13. Question 13 of 100

    13. Question

    Match the following pairs
    Features of constitution -Source
    (1) Judiciary- US Constitution
    (2) Emergency Provision – Government of India Act,1935
    (3) DPSP- USSR Constitution
    (4) Rule of law- British Constitution
    Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Source- Features Borrowed
    (A) Govt. of India Act,1935-Federal scheme, Governor’s office, Judiciary, Public Service Commission, Emergency Provisions and administrative details.
    (B) British Constitution- Parliamentary govt., Rule of Law, Single Citizenship, Cabinet System, Parliamentary privileges, Bicameralism, prerogative writs.
    (C) US Constitution- Fundamental Rights, Independent Judiciary, Impeachment of President, Judicial review, Removal of supreme court and high court judges and post of vice-president.
    (D) USSR Constitution- Fundamental Duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble.

    Unattempted
    

    Source- Features Borrowed
    (A) Govt. of India Act,1935-Federal scheme, Governor’s office, Judiciary, Public Service Commission, Emergency Provisions and administrative details.
    (B) British Constitution- Parliamentary govt., Rule of Law, Single Citizenship, Cabinet System, Parliamentary privileges, Bicameralism, prerogative writs.
    (C) US Constitution- Fundamental Rights, Independent Judiciary, Impeachment of President, Judicial review, Removal of supreme court and high court judges and post of vice-president.
    (D) USSR Constitution- Fundamental Duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble.
14. Question 14 of 100

    14. Question

    In which of the following judgements SC held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the DPSPs :
    (A) Keshavananda Bharti Case
    (B) Golaknath Case
    (C) LIC vs Union of India Case
    (D) Minerva Mills Case

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Minerva Mills Ltd. and Ors. vs. Union Of India and Ors. is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that applied and evolved the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine.
    MINERVA MILLS CASE (1980): SC held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the DPSPs – Basic Structure.

    Unattempted
    

    Minerva Mills Ltd. and Ors. vs. Union Of India and Ors. is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that applied and evolved the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine.
    MINERVA MILLS CASE (1980): SC held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the DPSPs – Basic Structure.
15. Question 15 of 100

    15. Question

    Consider the following statements
    (1) The 97 th CAA, 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies.
    (2) 73rd and 74th CAA, 1992 have added a third-tier of government (local) which is not found in any other constitutions of the world.
    (3) The 86th CAA, 2002 added one more fundamental duty.
    Choose the correct statements
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The 97th CAA, 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies. It made the right to form co-operative societies a FR (Art. 19) + added a new DPSP on promotion of co-operative societies (Art. 43B) + added a new part IX-B in the constitution entitled as “The Cooperative Societies” (Art. 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
    The 73rd and 74th CAA, 1992 have added a third-tier of government (local) which is not found in any other constitutions of the world. The 73rd CAA of 1992 gave constitutional recognition to Panchayats by adding a new part IX and a new schedule 11 to the constitution.
    The 86th CAA, 2002 added one more fundamental duty.

    Unattempted
    

    The 97th CAA, 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies. It made the right to form co-operative societies a FR (Art. 19) + added a new DPSP on promotion of co-operative societies (Art. 43B) + added a new part IX-B in the constitution entitled as “The Cooperative Societies” (Art. 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
    The 73rd and 74th CAA, 1992 have added a third-tier of government (local) which is not found in any other constitutions of the world. The 73rd CAA of 1992 gave constitutional recognition to Panchayats by adding a new part IX and a new schedule 11 to the constitution.
    The 86th CAA, 2002 added one more fundamental duty.
16. Question 16 of 100

    16. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Council of Ministers :
    (1) Any person, who may or may not be a member of the Parliament, if preferred by the party having a majority in the Lok Sabha, can become the Prime Minister.
    (2) The constitution explicitly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
    (3) The Administrative reforms commission recommended replacing the oath of secrecy for the ministers with the oath of transparency.
    Which of the statements given above are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Any person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister when he/she holds a majority in the house. A person appointed in such a manner will have to get himself/herself elected for either house of Parliament within six months of his/her appointment. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India explicitly mentions that “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People and not to the entire Parliament.” So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    The Second Administrative Reform Committee recommended that “As an affirmation of the importance of transparency in public affairs, Ministers on the assumption of office may take an oath of transparency along with the oath of office and the requirement of administering the oath of secrecy should be dispensed with.”
    Initially, the recommendation for replacing an oath of transparency in place of an oath of secrecy was provided by The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC), while examining the Right to Information. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
    Constitutional Provision
    Article 74 – Council of Ministers to aid and advise President.
    Article 75 – Other provisions as to Ministers.
    About
    The Council of Ministers includes the Cabinet ministers, state ministers, and deputy ministers with PM, as its head.
    According to Article 74, There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act by such advice. The question on any advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
    Sub-clause 1A has been inserted into Article 75, which provides the total number of ministers along with the Prime Minister shall not exceed 15% of the total number of the members of the House of People.
    Members of the Council of Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. Prime Minister is free to choose anyone to be a member of the Council of Ministers.
    The PM can take in a person, who is not a Member of Parliament, but in such cases, the person has to contest and win an election to a parliamentary seat within six months of assumption of office.
    Powers and Functions
    All the executive powers of the President are exercised by the Cabinet/Council of Ministers with Prime Minister.
    It prepares all the internal and external policies.
    The Cabinet/Council of Ministers prepares the agenda for the session of the Parliament.
    It prepares the text of the Presidential address.
    The Cabinet/Council of Ministers is responsible for the issuance of Ordinances at the time when parliament is not in session.
    Even the sessions of the Parliament are convened as per the advice of the Cabinet/Council of Ministers.

    Unattempted
    

    Any person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister when he/she holds a majority in the house. A person appointed in such a manner will have to get himself/herself elected for either house of Parliament within six months of his/her appointment. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India explicitly mentions that “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People and not to the entire Parliament.” So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    The Second Administrative Reform Committee recommended that “As an affirmation of the importance of transparency in public affairs, Ministers on the assumption of office may take an oath of transparency along with the oath of office and the requirement of administering the oath of secrecy should be dispensed with.”
    Initially, the recommendation for replacing an oath of transparency in place of an oath of secrecy was provided by The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC), while examining the Right to Information. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
    Constitutional Provision
    Article 74 – Council of Ministers to aid and advise President.
    Article 75 – Other provisions as to Ministers.
    About
    The Council of Ministers includes the Cabinet ministers, state ministers, and deputy ministers with PM, as its head.
    According to Article 74, There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act by such advice. The question on any advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
    Sub-clause 1A has been inserted into Article 75, which provides the total number of ministers along with the Prime Minister shall not exceed 15% of the total number of the members of the House of People.
    Members of the Council of Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. Prime Minister is free to choose anyone to be a member of the Council of Ministers.
    The PM can take in a person, who is not a Member of Parliament, but in such cases, the person has to contest and win an election to a parliamentary seat within six months of assumption of office.
    Powers and Functions
    All the executive powers of the President are exercised by the Cabinet/Council of Ministers with Prime Minister.
    It prepares all the internal and external policies.
    The Cabinet/Council of Ministers prepares the agenda for the session of the Parliament.
    It prepares the text of the Presidential address.
    The Cabinet/Council of Ministers is responsible for the issuance of Ordinances at the time when parliament is not in session.
    Even the sessions of the Parliament are convened as per the advice of the Cabinet/Council of Ministers.
17. Question 17 of 100

    17. Question

    Which of the following pairs of offices have different age requirements as their qualification criteria?
    (1) President and Vice President
    (2) Vice President and Member of Rajya Sabha
    (3) President and Member of Lok Sabha
    (4) Member of Lok Sabha and Member of Panchayat Raj Institutions
    Select the incorrect answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A citizen of India who has completed the age of 35 years is qualified for the election of both President and Vice President. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
    For a person to be qualified for the election of Vice president he must have completed the age of 35 years. But for a person to be qualified for election to be a member of the Rajya Sabha he must have completed the age of 30. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    For a person to be qualified for the election of president he must have completed the age of 35 years.
    But for a person to be qualified for election to be a member of Lok Sabha he must have completed the age of 25. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    For a person to be qualified for election to be a member of Lok Sabha he must have completed the age of 25. But for a person to be qualified for election to be a member of Panchayat he must have completed the age of 21. So, Statement 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A citizen of India who has completed the age of 35 years is qualified for the election of both President and Vice President. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
    For a person to be qualified for the election of Vice president he must have completed the age of 35 years. But for a person to be qualified for election to be a member of the Rajya Sabha he must have completed the age of 30. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    For a person to be qualified for the election of president he must have completed the age of 35 years.
    But for a person to be qualified for election to be a member of Lok Sabha he must have completed the age of 25. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    For a person to be qualified for election to be a member of Lok Sabha he must have completed the age of 25. But for a person to be qualified for election to be a member of Panchayat he must have completed the age of 21. So, Statement 4 is correct.
18. Question 18 of 100

    18. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Parliament’s power to reorganise the states:
    (1) A Bill contemplating reorganisation of any state requires prior recommendation of the Governor of state before introduction in the Parliament.
    (2) The law made for reorganising the states is not considered to be a constitutional amendment under Article 368.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:
    form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,
    increase the area of any state,
    diminish the area of any state,
    alter the boundaries of any state, and
    alter the name of any state.
    However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard:
    one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legistature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
    Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.

    Unattempted
    

    Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:
    form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,
    increase the area of any state,
    diminish the area of any state,
    alter the boundaries of any state, and
    alter the name of any state.
    However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard:
    one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legistature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
    Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.
19. Question 19 of 100

    19. Question

    In which among the following cases does the Prime Minister advise the President?
    (1) Proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament
    (2) Dissolution of the LokSabha
    (3) Appointment of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Prime Minister enjoys the following powers:
    He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    He can recommend dissolution of the LokSabha to President at any time. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    He advises the President with regard to the appointment of important officials like Attorney General of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, Chairman and members of the UPSC, election commissioners, chairman and members of the finance commission and so on. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Prime Minister enjoys the following powers:
    He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    He can recommend dissolution of the LokSabha to President at any time. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    He advises the President with regard to the appointment of important officials like Attorney General of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, Chairman and members of the UPSC, election commissioners, chairman and members of the finance commission and so on. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
20. Question 20 of 100

    20. Question

    With reference to the powers enjoyed by the Prime Minister which of the following is incorrect?
    (A) He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament.
    (B) He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office.
    (C) He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time.
    (D) He can recommend dissolution of the Rajya Sabha to President at any time.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower House. In this capacity, he enjoys the following powers:
    •He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament.
    •He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time.
    •He announces government policies on the floor of the House.
    •He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office.

    Unattempted
    

    The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower House. In this capacity, he enjoys the following powers:
    •He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament.
    •He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time.
    •He announces government policies on the floor of the House.
    •He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office.
21. Question 21 of 100

    21. Question

    According to which amendment act, the total number of number of ministers, including the Prime minister, shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total member of the house of the people?
    (A) 91st amendment act, 2003
    (B) 52nd amendment act, 1985
    (C) 42nd amendment act, 1976
    (D) 24th amendment act, 1971

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act, 2003 inserted clause 1A in Article 164, which says “the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.
    It also provided that the number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister in a State shall not be less than twelve”.
    Similar amendments were also made under Article 75.
    According to it, the PM shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the PM.
    oThe total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the COM shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
    The purpose of the 91st Amendment was to prevent jumbo Cabinets and the resultant drain on the public exchequer.

    Unattempted
    

    The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act, 2003 inserted clause 1A in Article 164, which says “the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.
    It also provided that the number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister in a State shall not be less than twelve”.
    Similar amendments were also made under Article 75.
    According to it, the PM shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the PM.
    oThe total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the COM shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
    The purpose of the 91st Amendment was to prevent jumbo Cabinets and the resultant drain on the public exchequer.
22. Question 22 of 100

    22. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding to the Model Code of Conduct Relating to Elections?
    (1) There shall be no appeal to caste or communal feelings for securing votes.
    (2) Except The Voters, no one without valid pass from the Election Commission shall enter the polling booths.
    (3) Posters issued by one party shall not be removed by workers of another party.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. When the Model Code of Conduct is in operation, there shall be no appeal to caste or communal feelings for securing votes. Mosques, Churches, Temples or other places of worship shall not be used as forum for election propaganda.
    Statement 2 is correct. Excepting the voters, no one without a valid pass from the Election Commission shall enter the polling booths. The Election Commission is appointing Observers. If the candidates or their agents have any specific complaint or problem regarding the conduct of elections, they may bring the same to the notice of the Observer.
    Statement 3 is correct. Political parties and candidates shall ensure that their supporters do not create obstructions in or break up meetings and processions organized by other parties. Workers or sympathisers of one political party shall not create disturbances at public meetings organized by another political party by putting questions orally or in writing or by distributing leaflets of their own party. Processions shall not be taken out by one party along places at which meetings are held by another party. Posters issued by one party shall not be removed by workers of another party.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. When the Model Code of Conduct is in operation, there shall be no appeal to caste or communal feelings for securing votes. Mosques, Churches, Temples or other places of worship shall not be used as forum for election propaganda.
    Statement 2 is correct. Excepting the voters, no one without a valid pass from the Election Commission shall enter the polling booths. The Election Commission is appointing Observers. If the candidates or their agents have any specific complaint or problem regarding the conduct of elections, they may bring the same to the notice of the Observer.
    Statement 3 is correct. Political parties and candidates shall ensure that their supporters do not create obstructions in or break up meetings and processions organized by other parties. Workers or sympathisers of one political party shall not create disturbances at public meetings organized by another political party by putting questions orally or in writing or by distributing leaflets of their own party. Processions shall not be taken out by one party along places at which meetings are held by another party. Posters issued by one party shall not be removed by workers of another party.
23. Question 23 of 100

    23. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the American President?
    (1) He is both the head of the State and the head of government.
    (2) He can be removed by impeachment for a grave unconstitutional act.
    (3) He possess membership in the Congress and attend its sessions.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unlike the Indian Constitution, the American Constitution provides for the presidential form of government. The features of the American presidential system of government are as follows:
    Statement 1 is correct. The American President is both the head of the State and the head of government. As the head of State, he occupies a ceremonial position. As the head of government, he leads the executive organ of government.
    Statement 2 is correct. The President is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years. He cannot be removed by the Congress except by impeachment for a grave unconstitutional act.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The President and his secretaries are not responsible to theCongress for their acts. They neither possess membership in the Congress nor attend its sessions.

    Unattempted
    

    Unlike the Indian Constitution, the American Constitution provides for the presidential form of government. The features of the American presidential system of government are as follows:
    Statement 1 is correct. The American President is both the head of the State and the head of government. As the head of State, he occupies a ceremonial position. As the head of government, he leads the executive organ of government.
    Statement 2 is correct. The President is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years. He cannot be removed by the Congress except by impeachment for a grave unconstitutional act.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The President and his secretaries are not responsible to theCongress for their acts. They neither possess membership in the Congress nor attend its sessions.
24. Question 24 of 100

    24. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.
    (2) Policy cut motion represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand.
    (3) Token cut motion represents the economy that can be affected in the proposedexpenditure.
    Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1and2only
    (B) 2and3only
    (C) 1and3only
    (D) 1,2and3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha, that is, the Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands. The voting is confined to the votable part of the budget– the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote (it can only be discussed).
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Economy Cut Motion represents the economy that can be affected in the proposed expenditure. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount (which may be either a lumpsum reduction in the demand or omission or reduction of an item in the demand).
    Token Cut Motion ventilates a specific grievance that is within the sphere of responsibility of the Government of India. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by ₹100.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha, that is, the Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands. The voting is confined to the votable part of the budget– the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote (it can only be discussed).
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Economy Cut Motion represents the economy that can be affected in the proposed expenditure. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount (which may be either a lumpsum reduction in the demand or omission or reduction of an item in the demand).
    Token Cut Motion ventilates a specific grievance that is within the sphere of responsibility of the Government of India. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by ₹100.
25. Question 25 of 100

    25. Question

    Who take the Decisions of the binding on the Council of Ministers?
    (1) Supreme Court and High Courts
    (2) Vice-President of India acting in his capacity
    (3) Union Public Service Commission
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Supreme Court and High Courts pass binding judgements, e.g. SR Bommai Case,DC Wadhwa Case, issue writs etc. So, 1 is correct.
    Vice-President of India acting in his capacity does not have any de facto authority. Only if he acts as the President, some of his decisions, for e.g. veto powers over bills may be binding. So, 2 is incorrect.
    Union Public Service Commission is an advisory body to the GoI. So, 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Supreme Court and High Courts pass binding judgements, e.g. SR Bommai Case,DC Wadhwa Case, issue writs etc. So, 1 is correct.
    Vice-President of India acting in his capacity does not have any de facto authority. Only if he acts as the President, some of his decisions, for e.g. veto powers over bills may be binding. So, 2 is incorrect.
    Union Public Service Commission is an advisory body to the GoI. So, 3 is incorrect.
26. Question 26 of 100

    26. Question

    Which one of the following countries does not border the Siliguri Corridor?
    (A) Bhutan
    (B) Nepal
    (C) Bangladesh
    (D) Myanmar

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Siliguri corridor or Chicken’s neck (West Bengal) is a stretch of land bordering Bangladesh, Bhutan and Nepal, measuring approximately 170×60 km; at the narrowest it is about 20-22 km.
    Hence, option D is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Siliguri corridor or Chicken’s neck (West Bengal) is a stretch of land bordering Bangladesh, Bhutan and Nepal, measuring approximately 170×60 km; at the narrowest it is about 20-22 km.
    Hence, option D is correct.
27. Question 27 of 100

    27. Question

    With reference to the NETRA Project, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.
    (2) It has the capability to identify, follow, and record objects measuring as tiny as 10 cm from a distance of up to 3,400 km.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Project NETRA’ is an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Once operational, it will give India its own capability in Space Situational Awareness (SSA) like the other space powers.
    With countries launching more and more satellites, each one of them being a strategic or commercial asset, avoiding collisions could become a challenge in the future.
    Under NETRA, the ISRO plans to put up many observational facilities: connected radars, telescopes, data processing units and a control centre.
    NETRA can spot, track and catalogue objects as small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and equal to a space orbit of around 2,000 km. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Project NETRA’ is an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Once operational, it will give India its own capability in Space Situational Awareness (SSA) like the other space powers.
    With countries launching more and more satellites, each one of them being a strategic or commercial asset, avoiding collisions could become a challenge in the future.
    Under NETRA, the ISRO plans to put up many observational facilities: connected radars, telescopes, data processing units and a control centre.
    NETRA can spot, track and catalogue objects as small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and equal to a space orbit of around 2,000 km. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
28. Question 28 of 100

    28. Question

    Which statementis correct about the “Leader of opposition” in either house of Parliament is
    (1) The Leader of all the Parliamentary Committees
    (2) Appointed by the Speaker of the House
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    About Leader of Opposition a politician who leads the opposition in either house of Parliament.
    The term “leader of opposition” is defined in Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
    Formal Recognition by a convention set by G.V Mavalakar- Party seeking opposition role must have atleast 10% of the total strength of the House. Criterion is 10% for single party not an alliance (pre and post election). Though the statutory and legal status is given by the above mentioned act but decision is taken by Speaker of LokSabha or Chairman of RajyaSabha, as the case may be.

    Unattempted
    

    About Leader of Opposition a politician who leads the opposition in either house of Parliament.
    The term “leader of opposition” is defined in Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
    Formal Recognition by a convention set by G.V Mavalakar- Party seeking opposition role must have atleast 10% of the total strength of the House. Criterion is 10% for single party not an alliance (pre and post election). Though the statutory and legal status is given by the above mentioned act but decision is taken by Speaker of LokSabha or Chairman of RajyaSabha, as the case may be.
29. Question 29 of 100

    29. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the process of electing the President of India:
    (1) An elector cannot propose or second the nomination of more than one candidate.
    (2) A vote cast by each MP or MLA has equal value.
    (3) The Presidential candidate secures victory by getting the highest votes among the polled votes.
    (4) In the recently held Presidential election, only the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir, Delhi and Puducherry participated in the voting.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) 1, 2 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to Section 5B(5) of the President and Vice-President Elections Act, 1952, An elector can propose or second the name of only one candidate at a Presidential election. Suppose he subscribes as proposer or seconder to the nomination papers of more than one candidate. In that case, his signature shall be deemed operative only on the nomination paper first delivered to the Returning Officer. Hence, an elector cannot propose or second the nomination of more than one candidate. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The value of votes of MLAs would differ from State to State as the value of each such vote, as the value of votes of electors is determined based on the population of the States by the manner laid down in Article 55(2). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    According to the schedule of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Rules, 1974, the Presidential election is held following the system of proportional representation using the single transferable vote; every elector has as many preferences as candidates contesting the elections. The winning candidate has to secure the required quota of votes to be declared elected (i.e., 50% of valid votes polled +1). So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of,
    (A) the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament, and
    (B) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States [In this, “State” includes the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union territory of Pondicherry].
    To include the Union Territory Jammu and Kashmir in the electoral college of the President, an Amendment has to be made in Article 54. This amendment is yet to be done.
    In the present case, the Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir is yet to be constituted after the erstwhile State was bifurcated into the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh in 2019.
    The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, but the election is yet to be held due to various reasons.
    So, currently, only the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry were included in the electoral college of the President and took part in voting in the recently held Presidential election. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    According to Section 5B(5) of the President and Vice-President Elections Act, 1952, An elector can propose or second the name of only one candidate at a Presidential election. Suppose he subscribes as proposer or seconder to the nomination papers of more than one candidate. In that case, his signature shall be deemed operative only on the nomination paper first delivered to the Returning Officer. Hence, an elector cannot propose or second the nomination of more than one candidate. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The value of votes of MLAs would differ from State to State as the value of each such vote, as the value of votes of electors is determined based on the population of the States by the manner laid down in Article 55(2). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    According to the schedule of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Rules, 1974, the Presidential election is held following the system of proportional representation using the single transferable vote; every elector has as many preferences as candidates contesting the elections. The winning candidate has to secure the required quota of votes to be declared elected (i.e., 50% of valid votes polled +1). So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of,
    (A) the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament, and
    (B) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States [In this, “State” includes the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union territory of Pondicherry].
    To include the Union Territory Jammu and Kashmir in the electoral college of the President, an Amendment has to be made in Article 54. This amendment is yet to be done.
    In the present case, the Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir is yet to be constituted after the erstwhile State was bifurcated into the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh in 2019.
    The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, but the election is yet to be held due to various reasons.
    So, currently, only the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry were included in the electoral college of the President and took part in voting in the recently held Presidential election. So, Statement 4 is not correct.
30. Question 30 of 100

    30. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Lok Sabha general elections?
    (1) Candidates have to mention details about their Social Media accounts (if any) at the time of filing nominations.
    (2) Any political content in the form of photos or videos uploaded on the self-accounts on the website will not be treated as political advertisements.
    (3) Representation of the People Act, 1951 does not prohibit the conduct of Exit polls and dissemination of their results by means of electronic media.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to the Election commission of India, a candidate who is contesting in the election of Lok sabha, if he/she owns an Authentic social media account should be informed by the candidate in para 3 of Form-26 at the time of filing of nomination. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Any political content in the form of messages/ comments/ photos/ videos posted/uploaded on the ‘blogs/self accounts’ on the website will not be treated as a political advertisement and therefore would not require pre-certification, even if the same is posted/uploaded by the political parties/ candidates. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    According to section 126 A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, exit polls cannot be conducted or publicized through print, or electronic media disseminated in any other manner. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    According to the Election commission of India, a candidate who is contesting in the election of Lok sabha, if he/she owns an Authentic social media account should be informed by the candidate in para 3 of Form-26 at the time of filing of nomination. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Any political content in the form of messages/ comments/ photos/ videos posted/uploaded on the ‘blogs/self accounts’ on the website will not be treated as a political advertisement and therefore would not require pre-certification, even if the same is posted/uploaded by the political parties/ candidates. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    According to section 126 A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, exit polls cannot be conducted or publicized through print, or electronic media disseminated in any other manner. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
31. Question 31 of 100

    31. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the RajyaSabha :
    (1) The name ‘Rajya Sabha’ for the Council of States was proposed by Shri G.V.Mavalanker.
    (2) A member who is elected to Rajya Sabha retains his membership for six years under any circumstances.
    (3) There is no process of Bye-election to fill the vacant membership of the Rajya Sabha.
    Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    3⁄4 The Chairman of the Council of States, Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishna made an announcement in the Council about the adoption of Hindi name of the Council of States as ‘Rajya Sabha’.
    The Speaker, Lok Sabha, Shri G.V.Mavalanker made an announcement in the House that the House of the People would thereafter be known as ‘Lok Sabha’. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
    Article 80 of the Indian Constitution mentions that Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of the members retires every second year and is replaced by newly elected members.
    Each member is elected for a term of six years. A person would be ineligible for being a Member of the Rajya Sabha if the person:
    If He/she has holds any office of profit under the Government of India (other than an office permitted by the Parliament of India by law).
    It is of unsound mind.
    Is an undischarged insolvent.
    He/she has ceased to be a citizen of India.
    It is so disqualified by any law made by the Indian Parliament.
    It is so disqualified on the ground of defection.
    He/she has been convicted, among other things, for promoting enmity between different groups.
    He/she has been convicted of the offence of bribery.
    He/she has been punished for preaching and practising social crimes such as untouchability, dowry, and sati.
    He/she has been convicted for an offence and sentenced to imprisonment.
    He/she has been dismissed for corruption or disloyalty to the State (in the case of a government servant). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    In the case of vacancy of the members in the Council of States, the Election Commission of India will decide to hold bye-election to fill the vacancy for the members of the council of states. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    3⁄4 The Chairman of the Council of States, Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishna made an announcement in the Council about the adoption of Hindi name of the Council of States as ‘Rajya Sabha’.
    The Speaker, Lok Sabha, Shri G.V.Mavalanker made an announcement in the House that the House of the People would thereafter be known as ‘Lok Sabha’. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
    Article 80 of the Indian Constitution mentions that Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of the members retires every second year and is replaced by newly elected members.
    Each member is elected for a term of six years. A person would be ineligible for being a Member of the Rajya Sabha if the person:
    If He/she has holds any office of profit under the Government of India (other than an office permitted by the Parliament of India by law).
    It is of unsound mind.
    Is an undischarged insolvent.
    He/she has ceased to be a citizen of India.
    It is so disqualified by any law made by the Indian Parliament.
    It is so disqualified on the ground of defection.
    He/she has been convicted, among other things, for promoting enmity between different groups.
    He/she has been convicted of the offence of bribery.
    He/she has been punished for preaching and practising social crimes such as untouchability, dowry, and sati.
    He/she has been convicted for an offence and sentenced to imprisonment.
    He/she has been dismissed for corruption or disloyalty to the State (in the case of a government servant). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    In the case of vacancy of the members in the Council of States, the Election Commission of India will decide to hold bye-election to fill the vacancy for the members of the council of states. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
32. Question 32 of 100

    32. Question

    Select the most appropriate statement regarding the “Law Commission of India”
    (1) It is a statutory body.
    (2) It acts as the legal representative of the Government in court hearings
    (3) The Law Secretary to the Union Government is the ex-officio member of the Commission.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Law commission of India is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body. Rather, it was established by an executive resolution of the GoI to make recommendations for law reforms. So, 1 would be wrong.
    The Commission is established for a fixed tenure (generally three years) and consists of a Chairperson and four other full-time members. The Law Secy. and the Secy Legislative Department are the ex-officio members of the Commission. So, 3 would be correct. It is the Attorney general or the Solicitor generals who represent Indian government in court hearings. So, 2 is wrong.

    Unattempted
    

    Law commission of India is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body. Rather, it was established by an executive resolution of the GoI to make recommendations for law reforms. So, 1 would be wrong.
    The Commission is established for a fixed tenure (generally three years) and consists of a Chairperson and four other full-time members. The Law Secy. and the Secy Legislative Department are the ex-officio members of the Commission. So, 3 would be correct. It is the Attorney general or the Solicitor generals who represent Indian government in court hearings. So, 2 is wrong.
33. Question 33 of 100

    33. Question

    In which situation president can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for
    (A) Not following the advice of the Vice-President
    (B) Violation of the Constitution
    (C) Approving decisions that impinge on public interest
    (D) Speaking against the Council of Ministers

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The President can be removed from office only by Parliament by following the procedure for impeachment.
    This procedure requires a special majority as explained in the last chapter.
    The only ground for impeachment is violation of the Constitution. However, the phrase has not been defined in the constitution.

    Unattempted
    

    The President can be removed from office only by Parliament by following the procedure for impeachment.
    This procedure requires a special majority as explained in the last chapter.
    The only ground for impeachment is violation of the Constitution. However, the phrase has not been defined in the constitution.
34. Question 34 of 100

    34. Question

    Which of the following statements are correct About the term “Adjournment”
    (1) It only terminates a sitting of the House.
    (2) It is done by the President of India.
    (3) It does not affect the bills pending before the House.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Adjournment only terminates a sitting of the House and not a session of the House. Prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Adjournment is done by presiding officer of the House.Prorogation is done by the president of India.
    Statement 3 is correct. Adjournment does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House and the same can be resumed when the House meets again. Prorogation also does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Adjournment only terminates a sitting of the House and not a session of the House. Prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Adjournment is done by presiding officer of the House.Prorogation is done by the president of India.
    Statement 3 is correct. Adjournment does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House and the same can be resumed when the House meets again. Prorogation also does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session.
35. Question 35 of 100

    35. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG):
    (1) It was formed in 2005 through an act passed by the Parliament of India.
    (2) Former members of the Parliament can become associate members of the Group.
    (3) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the ex officio president of the Group.
    (4) It can discuss questions of public importance that are likely to come up before the Parliament.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian Parliamentary Group is an autonomous body formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Membership of IPG is open to all members of Parliament. Former members of Parliament can also become associate members of the Group, but are entitled to limited rights only. For example, they are not entitled to representation at meetings and conferences of the IPU and the CPA and they are also not entitled to the travel concessions provided to members by certain branches of the CPA
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: Speaker of The Lok Sabha is the ex officio president of the Group.
    The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are the ex officio vice-presidents of the Group. The Secretary-general of the Lok Sabha acts as the ex officio Secretary-General of the Group.
    ● Statement 4 is correct. The aims and objectives of the Group are mentioned below:
    o Promoting personal contacts between members of the Parliament of India.
    o Studying questions of public importance that are likely to come up before the Parliament; arrange seminars, discussions and orientation courses; and bring out publications for the dissemination of information to the members of the Group.
    o Arranging lectures on political, defense, economic, social and educational problems by the members of the Parliament and distinguished persons.
    o Arranging visits to foreign countries with a view to develop contacts with members of other parliaments.

    Unattempted
    

    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian Parliamentary Group is an autonomous body formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Membership of IPG is open to all members of Parliament. Former members of Parliament can also become associate members of the Group, but are entitled to limited rights only. For example, they are not entitled to representation at meetings and conferences of the IPU and the CPA and they are also not entitled to the travel concessions provided to members by certain branches of the CPA
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: Speaker of The Lok Sabha is the ex officio president of the Group.
    The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are the ex officio vice-presidents of the Group. The Secretary-general of the Lok Sabha acts as the ex officio Secretary-General of the Group.
    ● Statement 4 is correct. The aims and objectives of the Group are mentioned below:
    o Promoting personal contacts between members of the Parliament of India.
    o Studying questions of public importance that are likely to come up before the Parliament; arrange seminars, discussions and orientation courses; and bring out publications for the dissemination of information to the members of the Group.
    o Arranging lectures on political, defense, economic, social and educational problems by the members of the Parliament and distinguished persons.
    o Arranging visits to foreign countries with a view to develop contacts with members of other parliaments.
36. Question 36 of 100

    36. Question

    With reference to the Constitution of India, which of the following is/are not correct ?
    (1) The Prime Minister makes rules for the allocation of the business of the Government of India among the Ministers.
    (2) The total number of ministers in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 10% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
    (3) The Supreme Court is empowered to inquire into any advice tendered by the Central Council of Ministers to the President on the ground of malafide intent.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Constitution, it is the President not the Prime Minister who makes the rules for the allocation of the business of the Government of India among the Ministers.
    According to Article 77 of the Constitution, “The President shall make the rules for the convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among the Ministers of the said business”.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The total number of the Council of Ministers cannot exceed 15%, and not 10%, of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision was added to the Constitution by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect. Under Article 74 of the Constitution, the question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
    Thus, the Supreme court too cannot enquire into any advice given by the Council of Ministers to the President.

    Unattempted
    

    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Constitution, it is the President not the Prime Minister who makes the rules for the allocation of the business of the Government of India among the Ministers.
    According to Article 77 of the Constitution, “The President shall make the rules for the convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among the Ministers of the said business”.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The total number of the Council of Ministers cannot exceed 15%, and not 10%, of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision was added to the Constitution by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect. Under Article 74 of the Constitution, the question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
    Thus, the Supreme court too cannot enquire into any advice given by the Council of Ministers to the President.
37. Question 37 of 100

    37. Question

    Choose the correct statements about Estimates Committee?
    (1) The Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal representation in this committee.
    (2) The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from the ruling party.
    (3) A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. Originally, the Estimates Committee had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
    Statement 2 is correct. The Estimates Committee is the largest committee of the parliament. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.
    Statement 3 is correct. All parties get due representation in the Estimates Committee. The term of office is one year. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. Originally, the Estimates Committee had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
    Statement 2 is correct. The Estimates Committee is the largest committee of the parliament. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.
    Statement 3 is correct. All parties get due representation in the Estimates Committee. The term of office is one year. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
38. Question 38 of 100

    38. Question

    Which statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding the motion of no confidence?
    (1) It can be moved both in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
    (2) It can be moved by any member of the House.
    (3) It can be moved against an individual minister.
    (4) Its passage leads to the resignation of the council of ministers.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha. Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and conduct of Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for moving a no-confidence motion.
    Statement 2 is correct. A no-confidence motion can be moved by any member of the House.
    The member has to give a written notice of the motion before 10 am which will be read out by the Speaker in the House. A minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion and accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date for discussion for the motion.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. A no-confidence motion can be moved against the entire council of ministers only. Statement 4 is correct

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha. Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and conduct of Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for moving a no-confidence motion.
    Statement 2 is correct. A no-confidence motion can be moved by any member of the House.
    The member has to give a written notice of the motion before 10 am which will be read out by the Speaker in the House. A minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion and accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date for discussion for the motion.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. A no-confidence motion can be moved against the entire council of ministers only. Statement 4 is correct
39. Question 39 of 100

    39. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the ‘President’s Rule’?
    (1) The President is empowered by the Constitution to proclaim ‘State Emergency’ if he/she is satisfied that the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the directions from the Union Government.
    (2) President can proclaim the State Emergency that requires mandatory approval of the Parliament.
    (3) Maximum period of President’s rule is 3 years.
    Select the incorrect answer using the following code:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    All statements are correct.
    Grounds for the ‘President’s Rule’ in a state (Article 356)
    Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (i.e., even without the governor’s report).
    Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
    A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
    However, if the proclamation of President’s Rule is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha approves it in the mean time.
    If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months.
    It can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.

    Unattempted
    

    All statements are correct.
    Grounds for the ‘President’s Rule’ in a state (Article 356)
    Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (i.e., even without the governor’s report).
    Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
    A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
    However, if the proclamation of President’s Rule is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha approves it in the mean time.
    If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months.
    It can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
40. Question 40 of 100

    40. Question

    With respect to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), consider the following statements:
    (1) India took an active part in drafting of the UDHR.
    (2) UDHR can create legal obligations for countries.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR):
    The 30 rights and freedoms include civil and political rights, like the right to life, liberty, free speech and privacy and economic, social and cultural rights, like the right to social security, health and education, etc.
    India took an active part in drafting of the UDHR. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The UDHR is not a treaty, so it does not directly create legal obligations for countries. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The UDHR, together with the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and its two Optional Protocols (on the complaints procedure and on the death penalty) and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights and its Optional Protocol, form the so-called International Bill of Human Rights.

    Unattempted
    

    Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR):
    The 30 rights and freedoms include civil and political rights, like the right to life, liberty, free speech and privacy and economic, social and cultural rights, like the right to social security, health and education, etc.
    India took an active part in drafting of the UDHR. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The UDHR is not a treaty, so it does not directly create legal obligations for countries. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The UDHR, together with the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and its two Optional Protocols (on the complaints procedure and on the death penalty) and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights and its Optional Protocol, form the so-called International Bill of Human Rights.
41. Question 41 of 100

    41. Question

    In which of the following conditions, the Parliament can make laws on subjects enumerated in State List?
    (1) When a state makes a request
    (2) To fulfil an International Agreement
    (3) During Financial emergency
    (4) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
    Select the incorrect answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : When the legislatures of two/more states pass a resolution requesting the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : No such provision is present for financial emergency.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : When the legislatures of two/more states pass a resolution requesting the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : No such provision is present for financial emergency.
42. Question 42 of 100

    42. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the office of Speaker in the Lok Sabha:
    (1) He is responsible for formulating the rules of the joint sitting of the house after consultation with Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
    (2) He must resign from his party membership upon joining the office to ensure nonpartisanship.
    (3) He cannot suspend a member of the Lok Sabha without calling for adoption of motion.
    Which of the statements given above is correct?
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2 and 3
    (C) Only 3
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •According to article 118 of the Indian constitution, the President, after consultation with the Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker of the House of the People, is responsible for making rules regarding procedure with respect to joint sittings.
    •The Speaker is looked upon as the true guardian of the traditions of parliamentary democracy. However, it is not mandatory for the speaker to resign from his party upon joining his office. In Britain, speakers remain strictly non-partisan and renounce all affiliation with their former political parties when taking office and afterward.
    •The speaker can suspend a member of the Lok Sabha without calling for adoption of motion. He may invoke Rule 374A of the Lok Sabha’s rules of procedure and conduct of business in case of grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House or persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise. In such a case, the member concerned, on being named by the Speaker, stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less.

    Unattempted
    

    •According to article 118 of the Indian constitution, the President, after consultation with the Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker of the House of the People, is responsible for making rules regarding procedure with respect to joint sittings.
    •The Speaker is looked upon as the true guardian of the traditions of parliamentary democracy. However, it is not mandatory for the speaker to resign from his party upon joining his office. In Britain, speakers remain strictly non-partisan and renounce all affiliation with their former political parties when taking office and afterward.
    •The speaker can suspend a member of the Lok Sabha without calling for adoption of motion. He may invoke Rule 374A of the Lok Sabha’s rules of procedure and conduct of business in case of grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House or persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise. In such a case, the member concerned, on being named by the Speaker, stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less.
43. Question 43 of 100

    43. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The date of election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker is decided by the President.
    (2) An appeal against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker when presiding Lok Sabha, lies with the Speaker.
    (3) The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Deputy Speaker
    • Statement 1 is not correct.
    Election of deputy speaker:
    President is not required to fix the election date:
    • The date of election of the Speaker is decided by the President who needs to go by the advice of the Union cabinet which, in fact, chooses the date.
    • In the case of the Deputy Speaker, there is no constitutional requirement for him to wait for the advice of the Union cabinet in fixing the date of election of the Deputy Speaker.
    Mandate to Speaker: As per Rule 8 of the Rules and Procedure of Lok Sabha it is the Speaker who has to fix the date of the election of the Deputy Speaker.
    • Statement 2 is not correct.
    No appeal:
    Although the Deputy Speaker gets to exercise these powers only in the absence of the Speaker his decisions are final and binding when he gives a ruling.
    It has been repeatedly held that no appeal lies to the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker.
    • Statement 3 is correct.
    Independent from Speaker: The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him, as both are elected from among the members of the House.

    Unattempted
    

    Deputy Speaker
    • Statement 1 is not correct.
    Election of deputy speaker:
    President is not required to fix the election date:
    • The date of election of the Speaker is decided by the President who needs to go by the advice of the Union cabinet which, in fact, chooses the date.
    • In the case of the Deputy Speaker, there is no constitutional requirement for him to wait for the advice of the Union cabinet in fixing the date of election of the Deputy Speaker.
    Mandate to Speaker: As per Rule 8 of the Rules and Procedure of Lok Sabha it is the Speaker who has to fix the date of the election of the Deputy Speaker.
    • Statement 2 is not correct.
    No appeal:
    Although the Deputy Speaker gets to exercise these powers only in the absence of the Speaker his decisions are final and binding when he gives a ruling.
    It has been repeatedly held that no appeal lies to the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker.
    • Statement 3 is correct.
    Independent from Speaker: The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him, as both are elected from among the members of the House.
44. Question 44 of 100

    44. Question

    In which of the following cases a legislator is disqualified from being a Member of Parliament?
    (1) If he/she is not a citizen of India.
    (2) If he/she holds any office of profit under the Union or state government.
    (3) If he/she is convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for 6 months and above.
    (4) If he/she voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (C) 3 and 4 only
    (D) 1, 3 and 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Disqualification of a legislator
    • Constitutional provisions:
    The provision for disqualification is given in Article 102 of the Constitution.
    It specifies that a person shall be disqualified for contesting elections and being a Member of Parliament under certain conditions.
    If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). Hence option 2 is correct.
    If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
    If he is an undischarged insolvent.
    If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state; and Hence option 1 is correct.
    If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament.
    Article 102 also authorises Parliament to make law determining conditions of disqualifications.
    There are analogous provisions for members of state legislatures.
    • The Representation of the People Act, 1951:
    Disqualification on imprisonment:
    The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that a person will be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
    • The person is disqualified for the period of imprisonment and a further six years.
    • A member incurs disqualification under the defection law:
    If he voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House; Hence option 4 is correct.
    If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party;
    If any independently elected member joins any political party; and
    If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.

    Unattempted
    

    Disqualification of a legislator
    • Constitutional provisions:
    The provision for disqualification is given in Article 102 of the Constitution.
    It specifies that a person shall be disqualified for contesting elections and being a Member of Parliament under certain conditions.
    If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). Hence option 2 is correct.
    If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
    If he is an undischarged insolvent.
    If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state; and Hence option 1 is correct.
    If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament.
    Article 102 also authorises Parliament to make law determining conditions of disqualifications.
    There are analogous provisions for members of state legislatures.
    • The Representation of the People Act, 1951:
    Disqualification on imprisonment:
    The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that a person will be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
    • The person is disqualified for the period of imprisonment and a further six years.
    • A member incurs disqualification under the defection law:
    If he voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House; Hence option 4 is correct.
    If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party;
    If any independently elected member joins any political party; and
    If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.
45. Question 45 of 100

    45. Question

    With reference to the Constitution of India, Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in which of the following matters ?
    (1) Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President
    (2) Removal of the Comptroller and Auditor General
    (3) Approval of ordinances issued by the President
    (4) Consideration of the reports of the Finance Commission
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (C) 2 and 4 only
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok sabha concerning the following matters such as,
    Introduction and passage of ordinary bills
    Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills.
    Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
    Election and impeachment of the President
    Election and removal of the Vice-President. However, Rajya Sabha alone can initiate the removal of the vice president. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority (which is a type of special majority) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.
    Making recommendations to the President for removing the Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme Court and high courts, chief election commissioner, comptroller, and auditor general.
    Approval of ordinances issued by the President
    Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President
    Selection of ministers, including the Prime Minister. Under the Constitution, the ministers, including the Prime Minister, can be members of either House. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
    Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like the Finance Commission, Union Public Service Commission, comptroller and auditor general, etc.
    Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission.
    RAJYA SABHA
    About 3⁄4 Under the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of three parts: the President, the Council of States, and the House of the People.
    In 1954, the Hindi names' Rajya Sabha' and 'Lok Sabha' were adopted by the Council of States and the House of People, respectively.
    The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Second Chamber or House of Elders), and the Lok Sabha is the Lower House (First Chamber or Popular House).
    The Rajya Sabha represents the states and union territories of the Indian Union, while the Lok Sabha represents the people of India as a whole.
    Unequal Status with Lok Sabha
    A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
    Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations.
    The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. In both cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses.
    A financial bill not containing solely Article 110 can also be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. But, about its passage, both Houses have equal powers.
    The final power to decide whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
    The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of both Houses.
    With a greater number, the Lok Sabha wins the battle in a joint sitting except when the combined strength of the ruling party in both Houses is less than that of the opposition parties.
    Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha).
    A resolution for discontinuing the national emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha.
    The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the Council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because the Council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha. But, the Rajya Sabha can discuss and criticize the policies and activities of the government.
    Special Powers of Rajya Sabha
    It can authorize the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249).
    It can authorize the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to the Centre and states (Article 312).
    It alone can initiate a move for the removal of the vice president. In other words, a resolution for removing the vice president can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha (Article 67).
    Suppose the President issues a proclamation for imposing a national emergency or President's rule or financial emergency at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval. In that case, the proclamation can remain effective even if it is approved by the Rajya Sabha alone (Articles 352, 356, and 360).

    Unattempted
    

    Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok sabha concerning the following matters such as,
    Introduction and passage of ordinary bills
    Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills.
    Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
    Election and impeachment of the President
    Election and removal of the Vice-President. However, Rajya Sabha alone can initiate the removal of the vice president. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority (which is a type of special majority) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.
    Making recommendations to the President for removing the Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme Court and high courts, chief election commissioner, comptroller, and auditor general.
    Approval of ordinances issued by the President
    Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President
    Selection of ministers, including the Prime Minister. Under the Constitution, the ministers, including the Prime Minister, can be members of either House. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
    Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like the Finance Commission, Union Public Service Commission, comptroller and auditor general, etc.
    Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission.
    RAJYA SABHA
    About 3⁄4 Under the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of three parts: the President, the Council of States, and the House of the People.
    In 1954, the Hindi names' Rajya Sabha' and 'Lok Sabha' were adopted by the Council of States and the House of People, respectively.
    The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Second Chamber or House of Elders), and the Lok Sabha is the Lower House (First Chamber or Popular House).
    The Rajya Sabha represents the states and union territories of the Indian Union, while the Lok Sabha represents the people of India as a whole.
    Unequal Status with Lok Sabha
    A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
    Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations.
    The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. In both cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses.
    A financial bill not containing solely Article 110 can also be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. But, about its passage, both Houses have equal powers.
    The final power to decide whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
    The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of both Houses.
    With a greater number, the Lok Sabha wins the battle in a joint sitting except when the combined strength of the ruling party in both Houses is less than that of the opposition parties.
    Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha).
    A resolution for discontinuing the national emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha.
    The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the Council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because the Council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha. But, the Rajya Sabha can discuss and criticize the policies and activities of the government.
    Special Powers of Rajya Sabha
    It can authorize the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249).
    It can authorize the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to the Centre and states (Article 312).
    It alone can initiate a move for the removal of the vice president. In other words, a resolution for removing the vice president can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha (Article 67).
    Suppose the President issues a proclamation for imposing a national emergency or President's rule or financial emergency at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval. In that case, the proclamation can remain effective even if it is approved by the Rajya Sabha alone (Articles 352, 356, and 360).
46. Question 46 of 100

    46. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding India’s membership of agreements related to nuclear power and critical minerals:
    (1) India is a member of the ‘Nuclear suppliers' group’.
    (2) India is a part of US led ‘Mineral Security Partnership’ to secure supply of Critical minerals.
    (3) India has faced international sanctions in the past for its nuclear weapons program as it is not a member of ‘Nuclear Non-Proliferation treaty’.
    Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Nuclear Non-proliferation treaty (NPT):
    The NPT is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to foster the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of disarmament.
    The treaty was signed in 1968 and entered into force in 1970. Presently, it has 191 member states.
    India is not a member and has faced international sanctions in the past for its nuclear weapons program. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    It requires countries to give up any present or future plans to build nuclear weapons in return for access to peaceful uses of nuclear energy.
    It represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
    Nuclear-weapon states parties under the NPT are defined as those that manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive devices before 1st January, 1967.
    Also , India is not a member of Nuclear Suppliers group as it is not a member of NPT. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    India has become the 14th member of the MSP. Other members : USA, Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Norway, Republic of Korea, Sweden, UK and the European Commission. The MSP seeks to strengthen critical mineral supply chains to support economic prosperity and climate objectives. It aims to ensure that critical minerals are produced, processed and recycled by catalysing investment from governments and the private sector across the entire value chain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Nuclear Non-proliferation treaty (NPT):
    The NPT is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to foster the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of disarmament.
    The treaty was signed in 1968 and entered into force in 1970. Presently, it has 191 member states.
    India is not a member and has faced international sanctions in the past for its nuclear weapons program. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    It requires countries to give up any present or future plans to build nuclear weapons in return for access to peaceful uses of nuclear energy.
    It represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
    Nuclear-weapon states parties under the NPT are defined as those that manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive devices before 1st January, 1967.
    Also , India is not a member of Nuclear Suppliers group as it is not a member of NPT. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    India has become the 14th member of the MSP. Other members : USA, Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Norway, Republic of Korea, Sweden, UK and the European Commission. The MSP seeks to strengthen critical mineral supply chains to support economic prosperity and climate objectives. It aims to ensure that critical minerals are produced, processed and recycled by catalysing investment from governments and the private sector across the entire value chain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
47. Question 47 of 100

    47. Question

    Which of the following statements best describes USTTAD Scheme?
    (A) It aims at preserving the rich heritage of traditional skills of indigenous artisans/craftsmen.
    (B) It aims promoting skill development in the country by providing free short duration skill training
    (C) It aims at promoting cultural and heritage value of the country
    (D) It aims at providing quality education in Madrasas

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development):
    Launched in May 2015 aims to preserve the rich heritage of traditional skills of indigenous artisans/craftsmen.
    Under this scheme HunnarHaats are also held all over the country to provide a nation-wide marketing platform to Minority artisans & entrepreneurs and to create employment opportunities.

    Unattempted
    

    USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development):
    Launched in May 2015 aims to preserve the rich heritage of traditional skills of indigenous artisans/craftsmen.
    Under this scheme HunnarHaats are also held all over the country to provide a nation-wide marketing platform to Minority artisans & entrepreneurs and to create employment opportunities.
48. Question 48 of 100

    48. Question

    Which of the following amendments are not considered as an Amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 ?
    (1) Lists in the Seventh schedule
    (2) Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court
    (3) Amendments to the Procedure of Amendment of the constitution
    (4) Representation of states in Parliament
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
    Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
    The representation of States in Parliament.
    The above provisions are related to the federal structure of the polity of the Constitution, which can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. So, Statements 1 and 4 are not correct.
    Article 139 of the Constitution states that the Conferment on the Supreme Court of powers to issue certain writs in this provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368; hence it is not considered as an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure of Amendment.
    The Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure provisions (Article 368 itself) can be amended by a Special Majority of Parliament and the Consent of States. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    ARTICLE 368
    Types Of Amendments
    Article 368 provides for two types of amendments,
    A special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority.
    The Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament has not been deemed an amendment to the Constitution for Article 368.
    Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:
    x Amendment by simple majority.
    Amendment by special majority.
    Amendment by Special majority with ratification of half of state.

    Unattempted
    

    Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
    Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
    The representation of States in Parliament.
    The above provisions are related to the federal structure of the polity of the Constitution, which can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. So, Statements 1 and 4 are not correct.
    Article 139 of the Constitution states that the Conferment on the Supreme Court of powers to issue certain writs in this provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368; hence it is not considered as an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure of Amendment.
    The Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure provisions (Article 368 itself) can be amended by a Special Majority of Parliament and the Consent of States. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    ARTICLE 368
    Types Of Amendments
    Article 368 provides for two types of amendments,
    A special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority.
    The Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament has not been deemed an amendment to the Constitution for Article 368.
    Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:
    x Amendment by simple majority.
    Amendment by special majority.
    Amendment by Special majority with ratification of half of state.
49. Question 49 of 100

    49. Question

    In which of the cases the members of the Parliament is/are not disqualified under anti defection law?
    (1) If a nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House.
    (2) If not less than 2/3rd members of a Political Party break away and merge with another political party.
    (3) If there is split in the legislature party by one-third members of the party in the House.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    (A) Only 1 and 2
    (B) Only 2
    (C) Only 2 and 3
    (D) Only 1 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Tenth Schedule contains the following provisions with respect to the disqualification of members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection:
    Disqualification
    Members of Political Parties: A member of a House belonging to any political party becomes disqualified for being a member of the House,
    (A) if he voluntarily gives up his membership of such political party; or
    (B) if he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party without obtaining prior permission of such party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days.
    Independent Members: An independent member of a House (elected without being set up as a candidate by any political party) becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election.
    Nominated Members: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification.
    Exceptions
    The above disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply in the following cases:
    If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party. A merger takes place when 2/3rd of the members of the party have agreed to such merger.
    Exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of legislature party has been deleted by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.

    Unattempted
    

    The Tenth Schedule contains the following provisions with respect to the disqualification of members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection:
    Disqualification
    Members of Political Parties: A member of a House belonging to any political party becomes disqualified for being a member of the House,
    (A) if he voluntarily gives up his membership of such political party; or
    (B) if he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party without obtaining prior permission of such party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days.
    Independent Members: An independent member of a House (elected without being set up as a candidate by any political party) becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election.
    Nominated Members: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification.
    Exceptions
    The above disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply in the following cases:
    If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party. A merger takes place when 2/3rd of the members of the party have agreed to such merger.
    Exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of legislature party has been deleted by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.
50. Question 50 of 100

    50. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve.
    (2) If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.
    (3) If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should choose one .Otherwise, both seats become vacant.
    (4) If a member of state legislature is elected to Parliament, his seat in the parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 30 days.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only 1, 3 and 4
    (B) Only 1, 2 and 4
    (C) Only 1, 2 and 3
    (D) All of the Above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Double Membership
    A person cannot be a member of both Houses of Parliament at the same time. Thus, the Representation of People Act (1951) provides for the following:
    (A) If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve. In default of such intimation, his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
    (B) If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.
    (C) If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise, both seats become vacant.
    Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.

    Unattempted
    

    Double Membership
    A person cannot be a member of both Houses of Parliament at the same time. Thus, the Representation of People Act (1951) provides for the following:
    (A) If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve. In default of such intimation, his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
    (B) If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.
    (C) If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise, both seats become vacant.
    Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
51. Question 51 of 100

    51. Question

    Consider the following functional Cabinet Committees:
    (1) Cabinet committee on accommodation
    (2) Cabinet committee on Investment and growth
    (3) Cabinet committee on Employment and skill development
    (4) Cabinet committee on Parliamentary affairs
    (5) Appointment committee of the Cabinet.
    Which of the following committees are headed by the Prime minister?
    (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (C) 2, 3, and 5 only
    (D) 3, 4 and 5 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    About Cabinet Committees:
    ● Cabinet committees are extra-constitutional bodies, i.e., they are not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment.
    ● At present there are 8 functional cabinet committees. Committees headed by the Prime Minister:
    o Cabinet committee on Political affairs
    o Cabinet committee on Economic affairs
    o Appointment committee of the cabinet
    o Cabinet committee on Investment and growth
    o Cabinet committee on Security
    o Cabinet committee on Employment and Skill Development
    ● Committees headed by the home minister:
    Cabinet committee on Accommodation
    ● Committee Headed by the home minister: Cabinet committee on Parliamentary affairs

    Unattempted
    

    About Cabinet Committees:
    ● Cabinet committees are extra-constitutional bodies, i.e., they are not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment.
    ● At present there are 8 functional cabinet committees. Committees headed by the Prime Minister:
    o Cabinet committee on Political affairs
    o Cabinet committee on Economic affairs
    o Appointment committee of the cabinet
    o Cabinet committee on Investment and growth
    o Cabinet committee on Security
    o Cabinet committee on Employment and Skill Development
    ● Committees headed by the home minister:
    Cabinet committee on Accommodation
    ● Committee Headed by the home minister: Cabinet committee on Parliamentary affairs
52. Question 52 of 100

    52. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to Parliamentary Committee on Subordinate Legislation ?
    (1) The Committee examines representations made to it in regard to rules, regulations, bye-laws, etc., made or required to be made under an Act.
    (2) The Committee shall consist of not more than fifteen members, who shall be nominated by the Speaker.
    (3) The term of office of members of the Committee shall not exceed one year.
    Select the incorrect answer from the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The most effective control that Lok Sabha exercises over subordinate legislation are through its scrutiny Committee the “Committee on Subordinate Legislation”. For the first time, the Committee was constituted in December 1953 and has been constituted since then from year to year.
    The function of this committee is to scrutinize and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised within the such delegation. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Committee shall consist of not more than fifteen members who the Speaker shall nominate
    A Minister shall not be nominated as a member of the Committee. If a member, after nomination to the Committee, is appointed as Minister, such member shall cease to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
    The term of office of committee members shall not exceed one year. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The most effective control that Lok Sabha exercises over subordinate legislation are through its scrutiny Committee the “Committee on Subordinate Legislation”. For the first time, the Committee was constituted in December 1953 and has been constituted since then from year to year.
    The function of this committee is to scrutinize and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised within the such delegation. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Committee shall consist of not more than fifteen members who the Speaker shall nominate
    A Minister shall not be nominated as a member of the Committee. If a member, after nomination to the Committee, is appointed as Minister, such member shall cease to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
    The term of office of committee members shall not exceed one year. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
53. Question 53 of 100

    53. Question

    Consider the following statements
    (1) No tax can be levied or collected except under the authority and with the approval of President.
    (2) The enactment of the budget by the Parliament legalises the receipts and expenditure of the government for the ensuing financial year.
    (3) The ‘rule of lapse’ facilitates effective financial control by the Parliament.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only 1 and 2
    (B) Only 2 and 3
    (C) Only 1 and 3
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    No tax can be levied or collected and no expenditure can be incurred by the Executive except under the authority and with the approval of Parliament.
    Hence, the budget is placed before the Parliament for its approval. The enactment of the budget by the Parliament legalises the receipts and expenditure of the government for the ensuing financial year.
    The Parliament also scrutinises government spending and financial performance with the help of its financial committees. These include public accounts committee, estimates committee and committee on public undertakings.
    They bring out the cases of illegal, irregular, unauthorised, improper usage and wastage and extravagance in public expenditure.
    Therefore, parliamentary control over Executive in financial matters operates in two stages-budgetary control, that is, control before the appropriation of grants through the enactment of the budget; and post-budgetary control, that is, control after the appropriation of grants through the three financial committees.

    Unattempted
    

    No tax can be levied or collected and no expenditure can be incurred by the Executive except under the authority and with the approval of Parliament.
    Hence, the budget is placed before the Parliament for its approval. The enactment of the budget by the Parliament legalises the receipts and expenditure of the government for the ensuing financial year.
    The Parliament also scrutinises government spending and financial performance with the help of its financial committees. These include public accounts committee, estimates committee and committee on public undertakings.
    They bring out the cases of illegal, irregular, unauthorised, improper usage and wastage and extravagance in public expenditure.
    Therefore, parliamentary control over Executive in financial matters operates in two stages-budgetary control, that is, control before the appropriation of grants through the enactment of the budget; and post-budgetary control, that is, control after the appropriation of grants through the three financial committees.
54. Question 54 of 100

    54. Question

    With reference to Bharat Parv, consider the following statements:
    (1) It's an initiative of Ministry of Culture to celebrate India’s unity in diversity.
    (2) Its objective is to make India a hub of civilization, culture and spirituality.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Bharat Parv:
    The Ministry of Tourism has been designated as the nodal ministry for the event.
    The event includes a food festival, a handicraft mela, folk and tribal dance performances, cultural troupe performances, a display of Republic Day tableaux, and the illumination of the Red Fort, among other things. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Objectives:
    Branding and promotion of Dekho Apna Desh, Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat, G20 and Mission LIFE would be undertaken during the event.
    The program is a way to celebrate India’s unity in diversity and to make India a hub of civilization, culture, spirituality and inheritance in the next 25 years of Amrit Kaal. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The event is also promoting the Vocal for Local motto as many artisans across the country are also taking part in this.

    Unattempted
    

    Bharat Parv:
    The Ministry of Tourism has been designated as the nodal ministry for the event.
    The event includes a food festival, a handicraft mela, folk and tribal dance performances, cultural troupe performances, a display of Republic Day tableaux, and the illumination of the Red Fort, among other things. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Objectives:
    Branding and promotion of Dekho Apna Desh, Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat, G20 and Mission LIFE would be undertaken during the event.
    The program is a way to celebrate India’s unity in diversity and to make India a hub of civilization, culture, spirituality and inheritance in the next 25 years of Amrit Kaal. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The event is also promoting the Vocal for Local motto as many artisans across the country are also taking part in this.
55. Question 55 of 100

    55. Question

    With reference to presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:
    (1) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over a joint sitting of two Houses of Parliament.
    (2) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed from his office only if he is removed from the office of the Vice-President.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •Lok Sabha Speaker presides over a joint Sitting.
    •The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed from his office only if he is removed from the office of the Vice-President.

    Unattempted
    

    •Lok Sabha Speaker presides over a joint Sitting.
    •The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed from his office only if he is removed from the office of the Vice-President.
56. Question 56 of 100

    56. Question

    With reference to ‘Estimates Committee’, consider the following statements:
    (1) It has 30 members.
    (2) The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
    (3) The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of C D Deshmukh.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •The origin of Estimates committee can be traced to the standing financial committee set up in 1921.
    •The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950.
    •Statement 1 is correct: It has 30 members.
    •Statement 2 is correct: All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
    •These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
    •The term of office is one year.
    •A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
    •The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai.

    Unattempted
    

    •The origin of Estimates committee can be traced to the standing financial committee set up in 1921.
    •The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950.
    •Statement 1 is correct: It has 30 members.
    •Statement 2 is correct: All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
    •These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
    •The term of office is one year.
    •A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
    •The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai.
57. Question 57 of 100

    57. Question

    Which of the following are correct in respect to compositions of Parliamentary Forum.
    (1) Each Forum consists of not more than 31 members (excluding the President, Co-President and Vice-Presidents) out of whom not more than 21 are from the Lok Sabha and not more than 10 are from the Rajya Sabha.
    (2) A member of any Parliamentary Forum may resign from the forum by writing to the concerned Union Minister.
    (3) The first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was constituted in the year 2005.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (A) Only 1 and 2
    (B) Only 2 and 3
    (C) Only 1 and 3
    (D) All of the Above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •Each Forum consists of not more than 31 members (excluding the President, Co- President and Vice-Presidents) out of whom not more than 21 are from the Lok Sabha and not more than 10 are from the Rajya Sabha.
    •Members (other than the President, Co-President and Vice-Presidents) of these forums are nominated by the Speaker/ Chairman from amongst the leaders of various political parties/groups or their nominees, who have special knowledge/keen interest in the subject.
    •The duration of the office of members of the forum is coterminous with their membership in the respective Houses.
    •A member may also resign from the forum by writing to the Speaker/Chairman.
    The first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was constituted in the year 2005. Subsequently, seven more Parliamentary forums were constituted. At present, there are eight Parliamentary forums.

    Unattempted
    

    •Each Forum consists of not more than 31 members (excluding the President, Co- President and Vice-Presidents) out of whom not more than 21 are from the Lok Sabha and not more than 10 are from the Rajya Sabha.
    •Members (other than the President, Co-President and Vice-Presidents) of these forums are nominated by the Speaker/ Chairman from amongst the leaders of various political parties/groups or their nominees, who have special knowledge/keen interest in the subject.
    •The duration of the office of members of the forum is coterminous with their membership in the respective Houses.
    •A member may also resign from the forum by writing to the Speaker/Chairman.
    The first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was constituted in the year 2005. Subsequently, seven more Parliamentary forums were constituted. At present, there are eight Parliamentary forums.
58. Question 58 of 100

    58. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
    (2) The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
    (3) There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 2 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
    •The president from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet. But, the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year. There are usually three sessions in a year:
    Budget Session starts towards the end of January, and concludes by the end of April or first week of May.
    Monsoon Session (July to September); and
    Winter Session (November to December).

    Unattempted
    

    •The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
    •The president from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet. But, the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year. There are usually three sessions in a year:
    Budget Session starts towards the end of January, and concludes by the end of April or first week of May.
    Monsoon Session (July to September); and
    Winter Session (November to December).
59. Question 59 of 100

    59. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Unified Payment Interface (UPI) was developed by the National Payments Corporation of India in 2016.
    (2) Recently, the UPI and Paynow were integrated for facilitating ease of doing business between India and Bangladesh.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct – UPI is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood. It was developed by NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) in 2016.
    Statement 2 is not correct – India’s payment system Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and its equivalent network in Singapore called PayNow, were integrated to enable faster remittances between the two countries at a competitive rate.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct – UPI is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood. It was developed by NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) in 2016.
    Statement 2 is not correct – India’s payment system Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and its equivalent network in Singapore called PayNow, were integrated to enable faster remittances between the two countries at a competitive rate.
60. Question 60 of 100

    60. Question

    With reference to Vostro Accounts, sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
    (1) Under this, the exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries would be market-determined.
    (2) It can play an important role in making the country less vulnerable to external shocks.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: A vostro account is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency, in this case, the rupee.
    Three important components of SRVA are:
    • Invoicing: All exports and imports must be denominated and invoiced in INR.
    • Exchange Rate: The exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries would be market-determined.
    • Settlement: The final settlement also takes place in Indian National Rupee (INR).
    Statement 2 is correct: Vostro account would also reduce the need for holding foreign exchange reserves and dependence on foreign currencies, making the country less vulnerable to external shocks.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: A vostro account is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency, in this case, the rupee.
    Three important components of SRVA are:
    • Invoicing: All exports and imports must be denominated and invoiced in INR.
    • Exchange Rate: The exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries would be market-determined.
    • Settlement: The final settlement also takes place in Indian National Rupee (INR).
    Statement 2 is correct: Vostro account would also reduce the need for holding foreign exchange reserves and dependence on foreign currencies, making the country less vulnerable to external shocks.
61. Question 61 of 100

    61. Question

    Choose the wrong statements about the Council of Ministers
    (1) They are collectively responsible to the Parliament.
    (2) Nominated members of Parliament cannot be part of the Council of Ministers.
    (3) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Council of Ministers.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to theLok Sabha, not the Parliament. This provision means that a Ministry which loses confidence of the Lok Sabha is obliged to resign.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Any member of the Parliament can be appointed to the Council of Ministers, irrespective of whether they are nominated or elected to the Parliament.
    Statement 3 is correct. Constitution has put a limit on the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the strength of the House of the People via 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003), the size of the Council of Ministers was determined according to exigencies of time and requirements of the situation.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to theLok Sabha, not the Parliament. This provision means that a Ministry which loses confidence of the Lok Sabha is obliged to resign.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Any member of the Parliament can be appointed to the Council of Ministers, irrespective of whether they are nominated or elected to the Parliament.
    Statement 3 is correct. Constitution has put a limit on the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the strength of the House of the People via 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003), the size of the Council of Ministers was determined according to exigencies of time and requirements of the situation.
62. Question 62 of 100

    62. Question

    With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
    (1) A Private member bill is introduced by a legislator who is not acting on behalf of the executive branch.
    (2) Any member of the Parliament can introduce a Constitutional Amendment bill.
    (3) A Private member cannot introduce more than four bills during a session.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The law-making process begins with introducing a Bill in either House of Parliament. A Bill can be introduced either by a Minister who is acting on behalf of the executive branch or by a member other than a Minister. In the former case, it is called a Government Bill and in the latter case, it is known as a Private Member's Bill. Every member of Parliament, who is not a Minister, is called a Private Member and they not acting on behalf of the executive branch. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Constitution vests in Parliament the power to amend it. Constitution Amendment Bills can be introduced in either House of Parliament by both ministers and private members.
    The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    As the Committee on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions (Third Lok Sabha) recommended in their Fourteenth Report, a private member cannot introduce more than four Bills during a session. So, Statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The law-making process begins with introducing a Bill in either House of Parliament. A Bill can be introduced either by a Minister who is acting on behalf of the executive branch or by a member other than a Minister. In the former case, it is called a Government Bill and in the latter case, it is known as a Private Member's Bill. Every member of Parliament, who is not a Minister, is called a Private Member and they not acting on behalf of the executive branch. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Constitution vests in Parliament the power to amend it. Constitution Amendment Bills can be introduced in either House of Parliament by both ministers and private members.
    The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    As the Committee on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions (Third Lok Sabha) recommended in their Fourteenth Report, a private member cannot introduce more than four Bills during a session. So, Statement 3 is correct.
63. Question 63 of 100

    63. Question

    Consider the following statements :
    (1) Parliamentary law made in the concurrent list should be executed by states.
    (2) The President of India can exercise absolute veto if the cabinet resigns before the bill gets his/her assent.
    (3) Since the enactment of the Constitution of India, the pocket veto has not been exercised by the President.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Articles 256 to 263 of the Indian Constitution deal with the administrative relations between the Centre and the states. The Constitution has delimited the scope of legislative and executive authority of the union and the states. When an act of a subject in the concurrent list is made by the parliament, usually it is executed by states unless or until the parliamentary law mentions that it should be executed by the centre. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Absolute Veto is used by the president in two scenarios,
    In the case of Private Member Bills.
    In the case of a government bill when a situation arises where the cabinet resigns after the passage of the bill and before President could give his assent to the bill. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    According to Article 111 of the Indian Constitution, when a bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the President. He / She may, as soon as possible take action on that bill (either he assents to the Bill, or that he withholds assent).
    So, there is no time limit conferred on the President to take action on the bill presented to him. This situation is known as “Pocket Veto” where the president may simply keep the bill on the desk for an indefinite time without taking any action.
    But in 1986, President Zail Singh exercised the pocket veto concerning the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    VETO POWERS OF THE PRESIDENT
    The veto power of the Indian President is a combination of the absolute, suspensive, and pocket vetos.
    Suspensive Veto
    A veto is suspensive when the executive veto can be overridden by the Legislature by an ordinary majority.
    The suspensive veto is exercised by the President when he returns the bill for reconsideration by the Parliament.
    However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament, with or without amendments, the President has to give his/her assent to the bill.
    This power is not applicable in the case of a money bill.

    Unattempted
    

    Articles 256 to 263 of the Indian Constitution deal with the administrative relations between the Centre and the states. The Constitution has delimited the scope of legislative and executive authority of the union and the states. When an act of a subject in the concurrent list is made by the parliament, usually it is executed by states unless or until the parliamentary law mentions that it should be executed by the centre. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    Absolute Veto is used by the president in two scenarios,
    In the case of Private Member Bills.
    In the case of a government bill when a situation arises where the cabinet resigns after the passage of the bill and before President could give his assent to the bill. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    According to Article 111 of the Indian Constitution, when a bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the President. He / She may, as soon as possible take action on that bill (either he assents to the Bill, or that he withholds assent).
    So, there is no time limit conferred on the President to take action on the bill presented to him. This situation is known as “Pocket Veto” where the president may simply keep the bill on the desk for an indefinite time without taking any action.
    But in 1986, President Zail Singh exercised the pocket veto concerning the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    VETO POWERS OF THE PRESIDENT
    The veto power of the Indian President is a combination of the absolute, suspensive, and pocket vetos.
    Suspensive Veto
    A veto is suspensive when the executive veto can be overridden by the Legislature by an ordinary majority.
    The suspensive veto is exercised by the President when he returns the bill for reconsideration by the Parliament.
    However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament, with or without amendments, the President has to give his/her assent to the bill.
    This power is not applicable in the case of a money bill.
64. Question 64 of 100

    64. Question

    Consider the following statements with regard to Universal Adult Franchise in India:
    (1) President has the authority to decide the minimum age for voting in the elections to State as well as Union legislature.
    (2) All citizens of India above the age of 18 years are eligible to vote in the elections to the Lok Sabha.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    statement 1 is incorrect. Minimum age for eligibility to exercising the right to vote isdetermined by the Constitution of India (Article 326) and not by the President. Adult franchise ensures that all citizens are able to participate in the process of selecting their representative.
    Statement 2 is correct. Till 1989, the voting age was 21 years. The Constitution (Sixty first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.

    Unattempted
    

    statement 1 is incorrect. Minimum age for eligibility to exercising the right to vote isdetermined by the Constitution of India (Article 326) and not by the President. Adult franchise ensures that all citizens are able to participate in the process of selecting their representative.
    Statement 2 is correct. Till 1989, the voting age was 21 years. The Constitution (Sixty first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.
65. Question 65 of 100

    65. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committees:
    (1) All Bills other than Money Bills are automatically referred to the Parliamentary Committees.
    (2) Recommendations of the Parliamentary Committees are not binding in nature.
    (3) Parliamentary standing committees are permanent and are constituted every five years.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Parliamentary Committees are an instrument of Parliament for its own effective functioning.
    Parliament is not bound by the recommendations of committees. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ● Types of parliamentary committees:
    ○ Broadly, parliamentary committees are of two kinds:
    ■ Standing Committees – They are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
    ■ Ad Hoc Committees – They are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them. For instance, to deliberate on a particular bill.
    ● Referring bill to the committee:
    ○ Currently, it is not mandatory to refer a Bill to a Committee.
    ○ In some Parliamentary systems like the UK, all Bills other than Money Bills are automatically referred to Committees.
    ○ However, in India, it depends on the decision of the Speaker or Chairman, in consultation with the Minister putting forth the Bill, whether a Bill should be referred to a Committee.
    Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Parliamentary Committees are an instrument of Parliament for its own effective functioning.
    Parliament is not bound by the recommendations of committees. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ● Types of parliamentary committees:
    ○ Broadly, parliamentary committees are of two kinds:
    ■ Standing Committees – They are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
    ■ Ad Hoc Committees – They are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them. For instance, to deliberate on a particular bill.
    ● Referring bill to the committee:
    ○ Currently, it is not mandatory to refer a Bill to a Committee.
    ○ In some Parliamentary systems like the UK, all Bills other than Money Bills are automatically referred to Committees.
    ○ However, in India, it depends on the decision of the Speaker or Chairman, in consultation with the Minister putting forth the Bill, whether a Bill should be referred to a Committee.
    Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
66. Question 66 of 100

    66. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Nominated members in Rajya Sabha:
    (1) They are not allowed to vote in the election of the Vice-President.
    (2) They can not join any political party as technically they are independent members.
    (3) They can take part in the proceedings of the House.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Nominated Members in Rajya Sabha
    ● The president nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service.
    ○ A nominated member can join a political party within six months of taking his/ her seat in the House. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    ● Role of nominated members:
    ○ Powers and privileges:
    ■ Nominated members of Rajya Sabha enjoy all the powers and privileges to which the elected MPs are entitled.
    ■ They can take part in the proceedings of the House in a normal manner. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    ○ Election of President and Vice-President:
    ■ Nominated members are not allowed to vote in the election of the President.
    ■ However, they do have the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Nominated Members in Rajya Sabha
    ● The president nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service.
    ○ A nominated member can join a political party within six months of taking his/ her seat in the House. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    ● Role of nominated members:
    ○ Powers and privileges:
    ■ Nominated members of Rajya Sabha enjoy all the powers and privileges to which the elected MPs are entitled.
    ■ They can take part in the proceedings of the House in a normal manner. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    ○ Election of President and Vice-President:
    ■ Nominated members are not allowed to vote in the election of the President.
    ■ However, they do have the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
67. Question 67 of 100

    67. Question

    Which of these statements are correct
    (1) The resolution for removal of Vice President can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only.
    (2) Unlike the President, there is no process of impeachment of the Vice President.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The term of office of the Vice President is five years. The term may end earlier by resignation which should be addressed to the President. The term of the office of the Vice President may also be terminated earlier through the process of removal.
    The Vice President may be removed by a resolution by the members of the Rajya Sabha. Such a resolution for removal of Vice President can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only.
    Statement 2 is correct. To move such a resolution, a 14 days” notice is to be given. Such a resolution, though passed by the Rajya Sabha only must be agreeable to the Lok Sabha. Unlike the President, there is no process of impeachment of the Vice President. Vice President is removed by a resolution passed by Rajya Sabha by effective majority (i.e. majority of all the then members of Rajya Sabha) and agreed by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The term of office of the Vice President is five years. The term may end earlier by resignation which should be addressed to the President. The term of the office of the Vice President may also be terminated earlier through the process of removal.
    The Vice President may be removed by a resolution by the members of the Rajya Sabha. Such a resolution for removal of Vice President can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only.
    Statement 2 is correct. To move such a resolution, a 14 days” notice is to be given. Such a resolution, though passed by the Rajya Sabha only must be agreeable to the Lok Sabha. Unlike the President, there is no process of impeachment of the Vice President. Vice President is removed by a resolution passed by Rajya Sabha by effective majority (i.e. majority of all the then members of Rajya Sabha) and agreed by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha.
68. Question 68 of 100

    68. Question

    With reference to the Eighth Schedule in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a list of the official languages of the republic of India.
    (2) It provides a commission appointed by the President for the promotion of tribal languages.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    About Eighth Schedule:
    It lists the official languages of the republic of India. Part XVII of the Indian constitution deals with the official languages in Articles 343 to 351. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Constitutional provisions related to the Eighth Schedule are:
    Article 344: Article 344(1) provides for the constitution of a Commission by the President on expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution.
    Article 351: It provides for the spread of the Hindi language to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.
    Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    However, It can be noted that there is no fixed criteria for any language to be considered for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule.

    Unattempted
    

    About Eighth Schedule:
    It lists the official languages of the republic of India. Part XVII of the Indian constitution deals with the official languages in Articles 343 to 351. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Constitutional provisions related to the Eighth Schedule are:
    Article 344: Article 344(1) provides for the constitution of a Commission by the President on expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution.
    Article 351: It provides for the spread of the Hindi language to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.
    Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    However, It can be noted that there is no fixed criteria for any language to be considered for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule.
69. Question 69 of 100

    69. Question

    Which of the following countries border the Black Sea:
    (1) Russia
    (2) Kazakhstan
    (3) Lithuania
    (4) Georgia
    (5) Turkey
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Bordering Countries of Black sea: Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria and Romania. Hence, option C is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Bordering Countries of Black sea: Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria and Romania. Hence, option C is correct.
70. Question 70 of 100

    70. Question

    Which of the following statements about the Pro Tem Speaker are correct?
    (1) He is not appointed for the newly constituted State Legislative Assemblies.
    (2) He can be appointed only when the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant.
    (3) The Pro Tem Speaker for the newly constituted Lok Sabha is appointed by the President.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Pro Tem Speaker is also appointed for the newly State Legislative Assemblies – Article 1802.
    During the absence of the Speaker from any sitting of the Assembly, the Deputy Speaker or, if he is also absent, such person as may be determined by the Rules of Procedure of the Assembly, or, if no such person is present, such other person, as may be determined by the Assembly, shall act as the Speaker.
    When the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant, the duties of the office of the Speaker are performed by such member of the Lok Sabha, as the President may appoint for the purpose. The person so appointed is known as the Speaker pro tem.

    Unattempted
    

    The Pro Tem Speaker is also appointed for the newly State Legislative Assemblies – Article 1802.
    During the absence of the Speaker from any sitting of the Assembly, the Deputy Speaker or, if he is also absent, such person as may be determined by the Rules of Procedure of the Assembly, or, if no such person is present, such other person, as may be determined by the Assembly, shall act as the Speaker.
    When the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant, the duties of the office of the Speaker are performed by such member of the Lok Sabha, as the President may appoint for the purpose. The person so appointed is known as the Speaker pro tem.
71. Question 71 of 100

    71. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding land monetisation in India:
    (1) Land Monetisation means transferring the revenue rights of the asset to a private player for a specified period of time.
    (2) The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana provides financial support to farmers who agree to monetize their land.
    (3) The monetization of land can lead to social and environmental consequences, such as displacement of communities and loss of natural resources.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Land Monetisation means transferring the revenue rights of the asset (could be idle land, infrastructure, PSU) to a private player for a specified period of time.
    ○ The government gets in return payment from the private entity, a share of the revenue generated from the asset, a promise of steady investment into the asset, and the title rights to the monetized asset.
    ● Statement 2 is not correct: The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana provides crop insurance to farmers, but it does not provide financial support to farmers who agree to monetize their land.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: The monetization of land can lead to social and environmental consequences, such as displacement of communities and loss of natural resources.
    ○ The government needs to address these concerns of local communities, environmental activists, and other interest groups before taking up land monetisation.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Land Monetisation means transferring the revenue rights of the asset (could be idle land, infrastructure, PSU) to a private player for a specified period of time.
    ○ The government gets in return payment from the private entity, a share of the revenue generated from the asset, a promise of steady investment into the asset, and the title rights to the monetized asset.
    ● Statement 2 is not correct: The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana provides crop insurance to farmers, but it does not provide financial support to farmers who agree to monetize their land.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: The monetization of land can lead to social and environmental consequences, such as displacement of communities and loss of natural resources.
    ○ The government needs to address these concerns of local communities, environmental activists, and other interest groups before taking up land monetisation.
72. Question 72 of 100

    72. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the role/powers of the Deputy Speaker?
    (1) The Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the Speaker.
    (2) Whenever the Deputy Speaker is appointed as a parliamentary committee member, he automatically becomes its Chairman.
    (3) He does not preside over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: The Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House.
    Statement 2 is correct: Whenever the Deputy speaker is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes its chairman.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting. He can speak in the House, participate in its proceedings and vote on any question before the House.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: The Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House.
    Statement 2 is correct: Whenever the Deputy speaker is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes its chairman.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting. He can speak in the House, participate in its proceedings and vote on any question before the House.
73. Question 73 of 100

    73. Question

    Which of the following suggestions were given by the IMF in its “nine-point action plan for countries to treat crypto assets”?
    (1) Granting cryptocurrency legal status for better regulation of currency.
    (2) Establishing international collaborative arrangements to enhance supervision and enforcement of crypto asset regulations.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    IMF’s “Elements of Effective Policies for Crypto Assets”
    ● IMF – The global lender of last resort said its Executive Board had discussed a paper, “Elements of Effective Policies for Crypto Assets,” that provided “guidance to IMF member countries on key elements of an appropriate policy response to crypto assets.”
    ○ The paper sets forth a framework of nine elements to help members develop a comprehensive, consistent, and coordinated policy response.
    ● The nine elements or policy actions are:
    ■ Safeguard monetary sovereignty and stability by strengthening monetary policy frameworks and do not grant crypto assets official currency or legal tender status. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    ■ Guard against excessive capital flow volatility and maintain effectiveness of capital flow management measures.
    ■ Analyze and disclose fiscal risks and adopt unambiguous tax treatment of crypto assets.
    ■ Establish legal certainty of crypto assets and address legal risks.
    ■ Develop and enforce prudential, conduct, and oversight requirements to all crypto market actors.
    ■ Establish a joint monitoring framework across different domestic agencies and authorities.
    ■ Establish international collaborative arrangements to enhance supervision and enforcement of crypto asset regulations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ■ Monitor the impact of crypto assets on the stability of the international monetary system.
    ■ Strengthen global cooperation to develop digital infrastructures and alternative solutions for cross-border payments and finance.

    Unattempted
    

    IMF’s “Elements of Effective Policies for Crypto Assets”
    ● IMF – The global lender of last resort said its Executive Board had discussed a paper, “Elements of Effective Policies for Crypto Assets,” that provided “guidance to IMF member countries on key elements of an appropriate policy response to crypto assets.”
    ○ The paper sets forth a framework of nine elements to help members develop a comprehensive, consistent, and coordinated policy response.
    ● The nine elements or policy actions are:
    ■ Safeguard monetary sovereignty and stability by strengthening monetary policy frameworks and do not grant crypto assets official currency or legal tender status. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    ■ Guard against excessive capital flow volatility and maintain effectiveness of capital flow management measures.
    ■ Analyze and disclose fiscal risks and adopt unambiguous tax treatment of crypto assets.
    ■ Establish legal certainty of crypto assets and address legal risks.
    ■ Develop and enforce prudential, conduct, and oversight requirements to all crypto market actors.
    ■ Establish a joint monitoring framework across different domestic agencies and authorities.
    ■ Establish international collaborative arrangements to enhance supervision and enforcement of crypto asset regulations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ■ Monitor the impact of crypto assets on the stability of the international monetary system.
    ■ Strengthen global cooperation to develop digital infrastructures and alternative solutions for cross-border payments and finance.
74. Question 74 of 100

    74. Question

    With reference to Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is for a one-time settlement of contractual disputes in which an arbitral award is under challenge.
    (2) It will cover all organisations where the central government has a shareholding of 50%.
    (3) The scheme will also cover selective Private entities for dispute resolution.
    Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Finance has circulated the draft scheme for a one-time settlement of contractual disputes in which an arbitral award is under challenge called Vivad se Vishwas.
    It is aimed at promoting ease of doing business.
    Statement 2 is correct: The Scheme will apply to disputes where one of the parties is either the Government of India or its bodies like public sector banks, public sector financial institutions, central public sector enterprises, Union territories, National Capital Territory of Delhi.
    It will also cover all organisations where the central government has a shareholding of 50% like Metro Corporation.
    Statement 3 is not correct – Disputes, where claims are raised against procuring entities along with some other party like the State Government or private party will not be eligible under the scheme.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Finance has circulated the draft scheme for a one-time settlement of contractual disputes in which an arbitral award is under challenge called Vivad se Vishwas.
    It is aimed at promoting ease of doing business.
    Statement 2 is correct: The Scheme will apply to disputes where one of the parties is either the Government of India or its bodies like public sector banks, public sector financial institutions, central public sector enterprises, Union territories, National Capital Territory of Delhi.
    It will also cover all organisations where the central government has a shareholding of 50% like Metro Corporation.
    Statement 3 is not correct – Disputes, where claims are raised against procuring entities along with some other party like the State Government or private party will not be eligible under the scheme.
75. Question 75 of 100

    75. Question

    Which of the following is/are features of Indian parliamentary system?
    (1) Majority party rule
    (2) Presence of real and nominal Executive
    (3) Membership of the ministers in the legislature
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1, 2 and 3
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o The parliamentary system is also known as the Westminster” model of government, responsible government, and cabinet government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states. The features of the parliamentary system in India are:
    Presence of nominal and real executives.
    Majority party rule.
    Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
    Membership of the ministers in the legislature.
    The leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister.
    Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly)

    Unattempted
    

    o The parliamentary system is also known as the Westminster” model of government, responsible government, and cabinet government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states. The features of the parliamentary system in India are:
    Presence of nominal and real executives.
    Majority party rule.
    Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
    Membership of the ministers in the legislature.
    The leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister.
    Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly)
76. Question 76 of 100

    76. Question

    Which of the following statements with respect to the pardoning power of the President is/are incorrect?
    (1) It is a discretionary power of the President.
    (2) He is bound to give reasons for his decisions.
    (3) It is not subject to judicial review.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 3 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Supreme Court examined the pardoning power of the President under different cases and laid down the following principles:
    (1) The petitioner for mercy has no right to an oral hearing by the President.
    (2) The President can examine the evidence afresh and take a view different from the view taken by the court.
    (3) The power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
    (4) The President is not bound to give reasons for his order.
    (5) The President can afford relief not only from a sentence that he regards as unduly harsh, but also from an evident mistake.
    (6) There is no need for the Supreme Court to lay down specific guidelines for the exercise of the power by the President.
    (7) The exercise of the power by the President is not subject to judicial review, except where the Presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.
    (8) Where the earlier petition for mercy has been rejected by the President, stay cannot be obtained by filing another petition.

    Unattempted
    

    The Supreme Court examined the pardoning power of the President under different cases and laid down the following principles:
    (1) The petitioner for mercy has no right to an oral hearing by the President.
    (2) The President can examine the evidence afresh and take a view different from the view taken by the court.
    (3) The power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
    (4) The President is not bound to give reasons for his order.
    (5) The President can afford relief not only from a sentence that he regards as unduly harsh, but also from an evident mistake.
    (6) There is no need for the Supreme Court to lay down specific guidelines for the exercise of the power by the President.
    (7) The exercise of the power by the President is not subject to judicial review, except where the Presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.
    (8) Where the earlier petition for mercy has been rejected by the President, stay cannot be obtained by filing another petition.
77. Question 77 of 100

    77. Question

    Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the Central Council of Ministers?
    (1) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to both the Houses of the Parliament.
    (2) The Council of Ministers ceases to hold office when the Lok Sabha is dissolved.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The fundamental principle underlying the working of the parliamentary system of government is the principle of collective responsibility. Article 75 states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission and commission. They work as a team and swim or sink together.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1971, the Supreme Court held that “even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers does not cease to hold office. The President cannot exercise the executive power without the aid and advise of the council of ministers.
    Any exercise of executive power without the aid and advice will be unconstitutional as being violative of Article 74. Again in 1974, the court held that “wherever the Constitution requires the satisfaction of the President, the satisfaction is not the personal satisfaction of the President but it is the satisfaction of the council of ministers with whose aid and on whose advice the President exercises his powers and functions”.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The fundamental principle underlying the working of the parliamentary system of government is the principle of collective responsibility. Article 75 states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission and commission. They work as a team and swim or sink together.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1971, the Supreme Court held that “even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers does not cease to hold office. The President cannot exercise the executive power without the aid and advise of the council of ministers.
    Any exercise of executive power without the aid and advice will be unconstitutional as being violative of Article 74. Again in 1974, the court held that “wherever the Constitution requires the satisfaction of the President, the satisfaction is not the personal satisfaction of the President but it is the satisfaction of the council of ministers with whose aid and on whose advice the President exercises his powers and functions”.
78. Question 78 of 100

    78. Question

    In which of the following subjects, both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha enjoy equal powers?
    (1) Introduction and passage of ordinary bills and constitutional amendment bills.
    (2) Making a recommendation to the President for the removal of judges of the high courts.
    (3) Passing of resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency.
    Select the incorrect answer using the codes given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers to that of the Lok Sabha in introduction and passage of ordinary bills, Constitutional amendment bills and Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
    Statement 2 is correct. Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers to that of the Lok Sabha in making a recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and auditor general.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. A resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers to that of the Lok Sabha in introduction and passage of ordinary bills, Constitutional amendment bills and Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
    Statement 2 is correct. Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers to that of the Lok Sabha in making a recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and auditor general.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. A resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha.
79. Question 79 of 100

    79. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Estimates Committee?
    (1) All the members if this Committee are from the Lok Sabha only.
    (2) It examines the budget estimates before they are voted upon by the Parliament.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Estimates Committee has 30 members. All the 30 members are from the Lok Sabha only.
    The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this Committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all the parties get due representation in it. The term of office is one year. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee. The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.
    It examines the budget estimates only after they have been voted by the Parliament and not before that. Its recommendations are advisory and not binding on the ministries.

    Unattempted
    

    The Estimates Committee has 30 members. All the 30 members are from the Lok Sabha only.
    The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this Committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all the parties get due representation in it. The term of office is one year. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee. The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.
    It examines the budget estimates only after they have been voted by the Parliament and not before that. Its recommendations are advisory and not binding on the ministries.
80. Question 80 of 100

    80. Question

    In which of the following situations, the President can exercise the powers using his/her own discretion?
    (1) Sending back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision.
    (2) Appointment of the Prime Minister after the Lok Sabha elections.
    (3) Keeping a Bill pending for an indefinite time-period.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    There are at least three situations where the President can exercise the powers using his/her own discretion. The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. In doing this, the President acts on his/her own discretion.
    The President also has veto power, by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to the Bills (other than the Money Bills) passed by the Parliament. Every Bill passed by the Parliament goes to the President for his assent before it becomes a law. The President can send the Bill back to the Parliament asking it to reconsider the Bill.
    This “veto” power is limited because, if the Parliament passes the same Bill again and sends it back to the President, then, the President has to give assent to that Bill.
    However, there is no mention in the Constitution about the time limit within which the President must send the Bill back for reconsideration. This means that the President can just keep the Bill pending with him without any time limit.
    This gives the President an informal power to use the veto in a very effective manner. This is sometimes referred to as “pocket veto”.
    Then, the third kind of discretion arises more out of political circumstances.
    Formally, the President appoints the Prime Minister. Normally, in the Parliamentary System, a leader who has the support of the majority in the Lok Sabha would be appointed as the Prime Minister and the question of discretion would not arise. But imagine a situation when after an election, no leader has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. Imagine further that after attempts to forge alliances, two or three leaders are claiming that they have the support of the majority in the House. Now, the President has to decide whom to appoint as the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President has to use his own discretion in judging who really may have the support of the majority or who can actually form and run the government.

    Unattempted
    

    There are at least three situations where the President can exercise the powers using his/her own discretion. The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. In doing this, the President acts on his/her own discretion.
    The President also has veto power, by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to the Bills (other than the Money Bills) passed by the Parliament. Every Bill passed by the Parliament goes to the President for his assent before it becomes a law. The President can send the Bill back to the Parliament asking it to reconsider the Bill.
    This “veto” power is limited because, if the Parliament passes the same Bill again and sends it back to the President, then, the President has to give assent to that Bill.
    However, there is no mention in the Constitution about the time limit within which the President must send the Bill back for reconsideration. This means that the President can just keep the Bill pending with him without any time limit.
    This gives the President an informal power to use the veto in a very effective manner. This is sometimes referred to as “pocket veto”.
    Then, the third kind of discretion arises more out of political circumstances.
    Formally, the President appoints the Prime Minister. Normally, in the Parliamentary System, a leader who has the support of the majority in the Lok Sabha would be appointed as the Prime Minister and the question of discretion would not arise. But imagine a situation when after an election, no leader has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. Imagine further that after attempts to forge alliances, two or three leaders are claiming that they have the support of the majority in the House. Now, the President has to decide whom to appoint as the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President has to use his own discretion in judging who really may have the support of the majority or who can actually form and run the government.
81. Question 81 of 100

    81. Question

    Which one of the following best describes the term “Funcusvermis gilmorei” sometimes seen in news?
    (A) A newly found fossil
    (B) Name of newly discovered crocodile skeleton
    (C) A newly found plant species
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A team of paleontologists from the US have discovered the first Triassic-era (about 250-200 MYA) caecilian fossil that could help fill an 87-million-year gap in the historical record of caecilians having amphibian-like structure (no fossils have been found before).
    The fossil has been named Funcusvermis gilmorei. Hence, option A is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A team of paleontologists from the US have discovered the first Triassic-era (about 250-200 MYA) caecilian fossil that could help fill an 87-million-year gap in the historical record of caecilians having amphibian-like structure (no fossils have been found before).
    The fossil has been named Funcusvermis gilmorei. Hence, option A is correct.
82. Question 82 of 100

    82. Question

    With reference to the economic survey, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is an annual document released by the Ministry of Finance.
    (2) It represents the current state of the Indian economy including trade and inflation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Economic Survey:
    The Economic Survey of India is an annual document released by the Ministry of Finance. It is usually presented in Parliament the day before the Union Budget. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor.
    It reviews the developments in the Indian economy over the previous 12 months and presents the economic outlook for the current fiscal year.
    It also presents the current state of the Indian economy, including data on the gross domestic product (GDP), inflation, employment, and trade. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The first Economic Survey in India was presented in the year 1950-51.
    Up to 1964, it was presented along with the Union Budget. From 1964 onwards, it has been delinked from the Budget.

    Unattempted
    

    Economic Survey:
    The Economic Survey of India is an annual document released by the Ministry of Finance. It is usually presented in Parliament the day before the Union Budget. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor.
    It reviews the developments in the Indian economy over the previous 12 months and presents the economic outlook for the current fiscal year.
    It also presents the current state of the Indian economy, including data on the gross domestic product (GDP), inflation, employment, and trade. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The first Economic Survey in India was presented in the year 1950-51.
    Up to 1964, it was presented along with the Union Budget. From 1964 onwards, it has been delinked from the Budget.
83. Question 83 of 100

    83. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The Public Accounts Committee examines the annual receipts and disbursements of the Union Government.
    (2) The Chairman of the Committee on Public Undertakings is appointed from the Lok Sabha only.
    (3) Both the Estimates Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings work under the expert guidance of the Comptroller and AuditorGeneral of India.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The function of the Public Accounts Committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President, namely, audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public undertakings. The appropriation accounts compare the actual expenditure with the expendituresanctioned by the Parliament through the Appropriation Act, while the finance accounts show the annual receipts and disbursements of the Union Government.
    Statement 2 is correct. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Undertakings is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, from amongst its members, who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. Thus, the members of the committee who are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The Estimates Committee lacks the expert assistance of the CAG which is available to the Public Accounts Committee. In the fulfilment of the functions assigned to the Public Accounts Committee, the committee is assisted by the CAG. Thus, the CAG acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the committee.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The function of the Public Accounts Committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President, namely, audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public undertakings. The appropriation accounts compare the actual expenditure with the expendituresanctioned by the Parliament through the Appropriation Act, while the finance accounts show the annual receipts and disbursements of the Union Government.
    Statement 2 is correct. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Undertakings is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, from amongst its members, who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. Thus, the members of the committee who are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The Estimates Committee lacks the expert assistance of the CAG which is available to the Public Accounts Committee. In the fulfilment of the functions assigned to the Public Accounts Committee, the committee is assisted by the CAG. Thus, the CAG acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the committee.
84. Question 84 of 100

    84. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Sardar Swaran Singh committee, 1976 on fundamental duties:
    (1) All the duties recommended by the committee were included under Fundamental duties of Indian constitution.
    (2) It provided for the implementation of fundamental duties to be kept out of the judicial review.
    Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o Statement 1 is not correct: Swaran Singh committee was constituted in 1976 to study constitution and suggest amendments.
    It was also referred to as Committee on constitutional amendments. It formed the basis for Part IVA i.e. Fundamental duties of Indian Constitution. The committee recommended an eight point code of fundamental duties. While, a number of these recommendations were accepted, some of them were not, like -:
    To respect every democratic institutions enshrined in the Constitution and to avoid doing anything that may impair their dignity and authority.
    To abjure communalism in any form or manner.
    To pay taxes as is required by laws of the land.
    o Statement 2 is correct: The committee recommended that no law imposing such penalty or punishment for implementing fundamental duties shall be called in question in any court or on the ground of infringement of any of fundamental rights or on the ground of repugnancy to any other provision of the constitution. Hence, it provided for implementation of fundamental duties to be kept out of judicial review.

    Unattempted
    

    o Statement 1 is not correct: Swaran Singh committee was constituted in 1976 to study constitution and suggest amendments.
    It was also referred to as Committee on constitutional amendments. It formed the basis for Part IVA i.e. Fundamental duties of Indian Constitution. The committee recommended an eight point code of fundamental duties. While, a number of these recommendations were accepted, some of them were not, like -:
    To respect every democratic institutions enshrined in the Constitution and to avoid doing anything that may impair their dignity and authority.
    To abjure communalism in any form or manner.
    To pay taxes as is required by laws of the land.
    o Statement 2 is correct: The committee recommended that no law imposing such penalty or punishment for implementing fundamental duties shall be called in question in any court or on the ground of infringement of any of fundamental rights or on the ground of repugnancy to any other provision of the constitution. Hence, it provided for implementation of fundamental duties to be kept out of judicial review.
85. Question 85 of 100

    85. Question

    With reference to BHASHINI, consider the following statements:
    (1) Its mission is to ensure that more Indians can access global content in their own languages.
    (2) Its aim is to provide Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources to only large enterprises.
    (3) It will create an ecosystem involving Central/State government agencies to provide innovative products and services in Indian languages.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    About:Digital India BHASHINI is India’s Artificial Intelligence (AI) led language translation platform.
    A Bhashini Platform will make Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources available to MSMEs (Medium, Small and Micro Enterprises), Startups and Individual Innovators in the public domain. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    Bhashini Platform is a part of the National Language Translation Mission.
    The mission aims to ensure that as more Indians connect to the internet, they are able to access global content in their own languages. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Significance:
    Digital Inclusion:
    It will empower Indian citizens by connecting them to the Digital Initiatives of the country in their own language thereby leading to digital inclusion.
    It will also encourage participation of startups.
    Digital Government:
    Mission will create and nurture an ecosystem involving Central/State government agencies and start-ups, working together to develop and deploy innovative products and services in Indian languages. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    It is a giant step to realize the goal of Digital Government.
    Increase the Content in Indian Languages:
    It also aims to increase the content in Indian languages on the Internet substantially in the domains of public interest, particularly, governance-and-policy, science & technology, etc., thus will encourage citizens to use the Internet in their own language.

    Unattempted
    

    About:Digital India BHASHINI is India’s Artificial Intelligence (AI) led language translation platform.
    A Bhashini Platform will make Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources available to MSMEs (Medium, Small and Micro Enterprises), Startups and Individual Innovators in the public domain. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    Bhashini Platform is a part of the National Language Translation Mission.
    The mission aims to ensure that as more Indians connect to the internet, they are able to access global content in their own languages. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Significance:
    Digital Inclusion:
    It will empower Indian citizens by connecting them to the Digital Initiatives of the country in their own language thereby leading to digital inclusion.
    It will also encourage participation of startups.
    Digital Government:
    Mission will create and nurture an ecosystem involving Central/State government agencies and start-ups, working together to develop and deploy innovative products and services in Indian languages. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    It is a giant step to realize the goal of Digital Government.
    Increase the Content in Indian Languages:
    It also aims to increase the content in Indian languages on the Internet substantially in the domains of public interest, particularly, governance-and-policy, science & technology, etc., thus will encourage citizens to use the Internet in their own language.
86. Question 86 of 100

    86. Question

    Which of the following countries borders Caspian Sea:
    (1) Russia
    (2) Turkmenistan
    (3) Kyrgyzstan
    (4) Iran
    (5) Armenia
    Select the correct answer using the code given above:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only three
    (C) Only five
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Caspian Sea is bordered by Russia (northwest), Azerbaijan (west), Iran (south), Turkmenistan (southeast) and Kazakhstan (northeast). Hence, option B is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Caspian Sea is bordered by Russia (northwest), Azerbaijan (west), Iran (south), Turkmenistan (southeast) and Kazakhstan (northeast). Hence, option B is correct.
87. Question 87 of 100

    87. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Anti-Defection Law:
    (1) The law applies to both the Members of the Parliament and State Assemblies.
    (2) It does not penalise political parties for encouraging or accepting defecting legislators.
    (3) The Speakers should decide on a defection petition within three months under the law.
    (4) It does not restrict a legislator from voting in line with his conscience, judgement and interests of his electorate.
    Which of the statements given above are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Anti-defection law was passed in 1985 through the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution. The law was contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution. It was formulated to bring stability to the Indian political system.
    It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on the grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. This law applies to both the Parliament and State Legislature. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up his party's membership or disobeys the party leadership's directives on a vote. This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership in the House. But this law does not penalize the political parties for encouraging or accepting defecting legislators. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    This law does not provide a time frame for the presiding officer to decide on a defection case.
    There have been many instances when a Speaker has not determined the case of a defecting MLA until the end of the legislature term. There have also been instances of defecting MLAs becoming ministers while a defection petition against them has been pending before the Speaker. The court held that Speakers should decide on a defection petition within three months, but it is not a mandatory provision mentioned in the law. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    Anti-Defection law restricts a legislator from voting in line with his conscience, judgement and interests of his electorate. Such a situation obstructs the legislature's function over the government by ensuring that members vote based on the decisions taken by the party leadership and not to achieve the interest of their constituents would like them to vote for. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Anti-defection law was passed in 1985 through the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution. The law was contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution. It was formulated to bring stability to the Indian political system.
    It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on the grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. This law applies to both the Parliament and State Legislature. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up his party's membership or disobeys the party leadership's directives on a vote. This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership in the House. But this law does not penalize the political parties for encouraging or accepting defecting legislators. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    This law does not provide a time frame for the presiding officer to decide on a defection case.
    There have been many instances when a Speaker has not determined the case of a defecting MLA until the end of the legislature term. There have also been instances of defecting MLAs becoming ministers while a defection petition against them has been pending before the Speaker. The court held that Speakers should decide on a defection petition within three months, but it is not a mandatory provision mentioned in the law. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
    Anti-Defection law restricts a legislator from voting in line with his conscience, judgement and interests of his electorate. Such a situation obstructs the legislature's function over the government by ensuring that members vote based on the decisions taken by the party leadership and not to achieve the interest of their constituents would like them to vote for. So, Statement 4 is not correct.
88. Question 88 of 100

    88. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Leader of the Opposition :
    (1) Until 1977, there were no emoluments attached to the position of Leader of the Opposition.
    (2) The Leader of the opposition in the houses of the Indian Parliament is a statutory post.
    (3) In general, the Chief Whip of the opposition party will be appointed as the Leader of the Opposition in the House.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The post of Leader of the Opposition was not mentioned in the constitution. In 1969, for the first time, the Leader of the Opposition was officially recognized. Later it was given statutory recognition after passing “The Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977”. This act is enacted to provide for the Salary and allowances of Leaders of the Opposition in Parliament. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    Both the ruling and opposition party will have their own Whip. The office of Whip is neither mentioned in the constitution nor the rules of procedure. It is a post-by-parliamentary convention. The Whip is appointed to assist the party leader in the house and maintain the party members' attendance. Heregulates and monitors the behaviour of the party members in the Parliament. It is not mandatory to appoint the opposition party's chief Whip as the Opposition's Leader. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The post of Leader of the Opposition was not mentioned in the constitution. In 1969, for the first time, the Leader of the Opposition was officially recognized. Later it was given statutory recognition after passing “The Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977”. This act is enacted to provide for the Salary and allowances of Leaders of the Opposition in Parliament. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    Both the ruling and opposition party will have their own Whip. The office of Whip is neither mentioned in the constitution nor the rules of procedure. It is a post-by-parliamentary convention. The Whip is appointed to assist the party leader in the house and maintain the party members' attendance. Heregulates and monitors the behaviour of the party members in the Parliament. It is not mandatory to appoint the opposition party's chief Whip as the Opposition's Leader. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
89. Question 89 of 100

    89. Question

    Which of the following Parliamentary Committees are represented jointly with the members of both the House of Parliament ?
    (1) Committee on Office of Profit
    (2) Committee on Public Accounts
    (3) Committee on Government Assurances
    (4) Committee on Public Undertakings
    (5) Committee on Private members bills and resolutions
    (6) Committee on Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) Scheme
    (7) Committee on Ethics
    Select the correct answer from the code given below :
    (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
    (B) 2, 3 and 7 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (D) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Joint Committee on Offices of Profit:
    This committee examines the composition and character of committees and other bodies appointed by the Central, state and union territory governments and recommends whether persons holding these offices should be disqualified from being elected as members of Parliament or not. It comprises 15 members (10 from Lok Sabha and 5 from Rajya Sabha).
    Public Accounts Committee :
    This committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence. At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha).
    Committee on Government Assurances:
    The committee was constituted in 1953, and it examines the assurances, promises and undertakings given by ministers from time to time on the floor of the House and reports on the extent to which they have been carried through.
    In the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members, and in the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members. Thus, it is not represented jointly by both the houses of the Parliament.
    Committee on Public Undertakings:
    This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.
    Originally, it had 15 members (10 from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in 1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha).
    Committee on Private members bills and resolutions:
    This Committee consists of 15 members and the Deputy Speaker is its Chairman. The Committee is nominated by the Speaker. The functions of the Committee are to allot time to Private Members' Bills and Resolutions, to examine Private Members' Bills seeking to amend the Constitution before their introduction in Lok Sabha, to examine all private members' Bills after they are introduced and before they are taken up for consideration in the House.
    Committee on Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) Scheme:
    The Committee on Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme is an ad hoc Committee consisting of 24 Members who are nominated by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Lok Sabha to serve the Committee for a period not exceeding one year. The Committee is reconstituted by the Speaker every year.
    Committee on Ethics:
    The Ethics Committee of Rajya Sabha was constituted by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha on 4 March 1997, with the mandate to oversee the moral and ethical conduct of members and to examine cases referred to it with reference to ethical and other misconduct of members.
    For each newly elected Lok Sabha(since the 13th Lok Sabha), the Ethics Committee has been established. The Committee investigates each allegation of unethical behaviour by a Lok Sabha member that the Speaker refers to and makes any recommendations it may deem fit.

    Unattempted
    

    Joint Committee on Offices of Profit:
    This committee examines the composition and character of committees and other bodies appointed by the Central, state and union territory governments and recommends whether persons holding these offices should be disqualified from being elected as members of Parliament or not. It comprises 15 members (10 from Lok Sabha and 5 from Rajya Sabha).
    Public Accounts Committee :
    This committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence. At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha).
    Committee on Government Assurances:
    The committee was constituted in 1953, and it examines the assurances, promises and undertakings given by ministers from time to time on the floor of the House and reports on the extent to which they have been carried through.
    In the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members, and in the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members. Thus, it is not represented jointly by both the houses of the Parliament.
    Committee on Public Undertakings:
    This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.
    Originally, it had 15 members (10 from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in 1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha).
    Committee on Private members bills and resolutions:
    This Committee consists of 15 members and the Deputy Speaker is its Chairman. The Committee is nominated by the Speaker. The functions of the Committee are to allot time to Private Members' Bills and Resolutions, to examine Private Members' Bills seeking to amend the Constitution before their introduction in Lok Sabha, to examine all private members' Bills after they are introduced and before they are taken up for consideration in the House.
    Committee on Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) Scheme:
    The Committee on Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme is an ad hoc Committee consisting of 24 Members who are nominated by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Lok Sabha to serve the Committee for a period not exceeding one year. The Committee is reconstituted by the Speaker every year.
    Committee on Ethics:
    The Ethics Committee of Rajya Sabha was constituted by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha on 4 March 1997, with the mandate to oversee the moral and ethical conduct of members and to examine cases referred to it with reference to ethical and other misconduct of members.
    For each newly elected Lok Sabha(since the 13th Lok Sabha), the Ethics Committee has been established. The Committee investigates each allegation of unethical behaviour by a Lok Sabha member that the Speaker refers to and makes any recommendations it may deem fit.
90. Question 90 of 100

    90. Question

    Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976?
    (1) It made, for the first time, a distinction between Union and State laws based on their constitutionality.
    (2) It immunized the Constitutional Amendment Acts from being challenged in a court of law.
    (3) It abolished the fundamental right to property under Article 19 (1) (f) and Article 31 (2).
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 made, for the first time, a distinction between Union and State laws, for the purpose of challenging their constitutionality on the ground of contravention of any provision of the Constitution. In this context, it provided, broadly,
    (A) that a High Court could not pronounce invalid any central law, including subordinate legislation under such law, on the ground of unconstitutionality;
    (B) that the Supreme Court could not in its jurisdiction under Art 32, pronounce a state law as unconstitutional, unless a central law has been challenged I such proceeding.
    Statement 2 is correct. By amending Article 368, it was provided that a law, which is described as a Constitutional Amendment Act, would be completely immune from challenge in a court of law, whether on a procedural or a substantive ground.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19 (1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading “Right to Property”. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. Thus, the right to property still remains a legal right or a constitutional right, though no longer a fundamental right. It is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 made, for the first time, a distinction between Union and State laws, for the purpose of challenging their constitutionality on the ground of contravention of any provision of the Constitution. In this context, it provided, broadly,
    (A) that a High Court could not pronounce invalid any central law, including subordinate legislation under such law, on the ground of unconstitutionality;
    (B) that the Supreme Court could not in its jurisdiction under Art 32, pronounce a state law as unconstitutional, unless a central law has been challenged I such proceeding.
    Statement 2 is correct. By amending Article 368, it was provided that a law, which is described as a Constitutional Amendment Act, would be completely immune from challenge in a court of law, whether on a procedural or a substantive ground.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19 (1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading “Right to Property”. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. Thus, the right to property still remains a legal right or a constitutional right, though no longer a fundamental right. It is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
91. Question 91 of 100

    91. Question

    The 86th constitutional amendment inserted/ changed articles in which of the following parts of the constitution?
    (1) Part III
    (2) Part V
    (3) Part IV-A
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o 86th Amendment:
    o Insertion of new Article 21A- After article 21 of the Constitution, the following article shall be inserted, namely:
    o Right to education: “21A. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine”.
    o Substitution of new article for article 45. – For article 45 of the Constitution, the following article shall be substituted, namely: Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years. “45.
    The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years”.
    o Amendment of article 51A. In article 51A of the Constitution, after clause
    , the following clause shall be added, namely:
    “who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years”.
    o Thus it has bearing on part III, IV and IVA of the constitution.

    Unattempted
    

    o 86th Amendment:
    o Insertion of new Article 21A- After article 21 of the Constitution, the following article shall be inserted, namely:
    o Right to education: “21A. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine”.
    o Substitution of new article for article 45. – For article 45 of the Constitution, the following article shall be substituted, namely: Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years. “45.
    The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years”.
    o Amendment of article 51A. In article 51A of the Constitution, after clause
    , the following clause shall be added, namely:
    “who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years”.
    o Thus it has bearing on part III, IV and IVA of the constitution.
92. Question 92 of 100

    92. Question

    The 91st amendment of the Constitution is associated with
    (1) Limiting the size of the Council of Ministers.
    (2) Barring the appointment of a person disqualified under the anti-defection law as a minister.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Both the provisions are associated with the 91st Amendment Act of 2003. The Act has made provisions to limit the size of Council of Ministers, to debar defectors from holding public offices, and to strengthen the anti-defection law.
    Few main provisions of the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 are:
    (1) The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers, shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (Article 75).
    (2) A member of either House of Parliament belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister (Article 75).
    (3) The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state. But, the number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12 (Article 164).
    (4) A member of either House of a state legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister (Article 164).
    (5) A member of either House of Parliament or either House of a State Legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political post.
    (6) The provision of the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of a split by one-third members of legislature party has been deleted.

    Unattempted
    

    Both the provisions are associated with the 91st Amendment Act of 2003. The Act has made provisions to limit the size of Council of Ministers, to debar defectors from holding public offices, and to strengthen the anti-defection law.
    Few main provisions of the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 are:
    (1) The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers, shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (Article 75).
    (2) A member of either House of Parliament belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister (Article 75).
    (3) The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state. But, the number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12 (Article 164).
    (4) A member of either House of a state legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister (Article 164).
    (5) A member of either House of Parliament or either House of a State Legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political post.
    (6) The provision of the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of a split by one-third members of legislature party has been deleted.
93. Question 93 of 100

    93. Question

    With reference to the powers and functions of the Prime Minister, consider the following statements:
    (1) He appoints other ministers.
    (2) He allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the ministers.
    (3) He presides over the meetings of the council of ministers.
    Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Prime Minister cannot appoint a minister. The Prime Minister recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the President. The President can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.
    Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the ministers.
    Statement 3 is correct. The Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the council of ministers and influences its decisions.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Prime Minister cannot appoint a minister. The Prime Minister recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the President. The President can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.
    Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the ministers.
    Statement 3 is correct. The Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the council of ministers and influences its decisions.
94. Question 94 of 100

    94. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding fundamental duties as provided under Indian Constitution:
    (1) Constitution authorizes Parliament for enforcement of the fundamental duties.
    (2) While some fundamental duties are applicable to citizens, few are applicable to foreigners and private organizations.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o Statement 1 is not correct: the Constitution doesn”t prescribe any measures or authority for enforcing fundamental duties. It is incumbent on all organs of State i.e. legislature, executive, judiciary and society at large to nurture and enforce fundamental duties.
    o Statement 2 is not correct: All the provisions of fundamental duties are applicable to only citizens.

    Unattempted
    

    o Statement 1 is not correct: the Constitution doesn”t prescribe any measures or authority for enforcing fundamental duties. It is incumbent on all organs of State i.e. legislature, executive, judiciary and society at large to nurture and enforce fundamental duties.
    o Statement 2 is not correct: All the provisions of fundamental duties are applicable to only citizens.
95. Question 95 of 100

    95. Question

    With reference to the Cultural and Educational Rights of minorities, considerthe following statements:
    (1) Only the religious and linguistic minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
    (2) Only the rights of religious and linguistic minorities have been constitutionally safeguarded to preserve their distinct culture.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    o Statement 1 is correct: Article 30 grants the rights to the minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. The protection under Article 30 is confined only to religious and linguistic minorities and not to any sections of citizens.
    o Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
    All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice(1A) In making any law providing for the compulsory acquisition of any property of an educational institution established and administered by a minority, referred to in clause (1) , the State shall ensure that the amount fixed by or determined under such law for the acquisition of such property is such as would not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed under that clause.
    The state shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language.
    o Statement 2 is not correct. According to Article 29 any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same (29 (1) ). Further, no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste,language or any of them. (29 (2) ).
    o The first provision protects the right of a group while the second provision guarantees the right of a citizen as an individual irrespective of the community to which he belongs.
    o Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. However, the Supreme Court held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only, as it is commonly assumed to be. This is because of the use of words section of citizens” in the Article that include minorities as well as majority.

    Unattempted
    

    o Statement 1 is correct: Article 30 grants the rights to the minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. The protection under Article 30 is confined only to religious and linguistic minorities and not to any sections of citizens.
    o Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
    All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice(1A) In making any law providing for the compulsory acquisition of any property of an educational institution established and administered by a minority, referred to in clause (1) , the State shall ensure that the amount fixed by or determined under such law for the acquisition of such property is such as would not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed under that clause.
    The state shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language.
    o Statement 2 is not correct. According to Article 29 any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same (29 (1) ). Further, no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste,language or any of them. (29 (2) ).
    o The first provision protects the right of a group while the second provision guarantees the right of a citizen as an individual irrespective of the community to which he belongs.
    o Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. However, the Supreme Court held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only, as it is commonly assumed to be. This is because of the use of words section of citizens” in the Article that include minorities as well as majority.
96. Question 96 of 100

    96. Question

    With reference to the Veto power of Indian President, consider the following statements:
    (1) The suspensive veto of the President can be overridden by a re-passage of the bill with the simple majority.
    (2) The President does not possess the power of suspensive veto in the case of money bills and private member”s bill.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The President exercises suspensive veto when he returns a bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments and again presented to the President, it is obligatory for the President to give his assent to the bill. This means that the presidential veto is overridden by a re-passage of the bill by the same ordinary majority.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The President of India does not possess Suspensive Veto in case of money bills. The President can either give his assent to a money bill or withhold his assent to a money bill but cannot return it for the reconsideration of the Parliament. Normally, the President gives his assent to money bill as it is introduced in the Parliament with his previous permission.
    Absolute Veto refers to the power of the President to withhold his assent to a bill passed by the Parliament. The bill then ends and does not become an act. Usually, this veto is exercised in the following two cases:
    (A) With respect to private members” bills (i.e. bills introduced by any member of Parliament who is not a minister); and
    (B) With respect to the government bills when the cabinet resigns (after the passage of the bills but before the assent by the President) and the new cabinet advises the President not to give his assent to such bills.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The President exercises suspensive veto when he returns a bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments and again presented to the President, it is obligatory for the President to give his assent to the bill. This means that the presidential veto is overridden by a re-passage of the bill by the same ordinary majority.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The President of India does not possess Suspensive Veto in case of money bills. The President can either give his assent to a money bill or withhold his assent to a money bill but cannot return it for the reconsideration of the Parliament. Normally, the President gives his assent to money bill as it is introduced in the Parliament with his previous permission.
    Absolute Veto refers to the power of the President to withhold his assent to a bill passed by the Parliament. The bill then ends and does not become an act. Usually, this veto is exercised in the following two cases:
    (A) With respect to private members” bills (i.e. bills introduced by any member of Parliament who is not a minister); and
    (B) With respect to the government bills when the cabinet resigns (after the passage of the bills but before the assent by the President) and the new cabinet advises the President not to give his assent to such bills.
97. Question 97 of 100

    97. Question

    The Prime Minister recently unveiled the National Emblem cast on the roof of the New Parliament Building. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the National Emblem of India ?
    (1) It is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka at Sarnath.
    (2) It was adopted on January 26, 1950.
    (3) The abacus of the emblem has a Dharma Chakra in the Centre, a galloping horse on the left and a bull on the right.
    (4) The motto ‘Satyameva Jayate’ also forms part of the emblem.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The State Emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka at Sarnath. In the original, four lions are mounted back to back on a circular abacus, which rests on a bell-shaped lotus. The frieze of the abacus has sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening Dharma Chakras. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The profile of the Lion Capital shows three lions mounted on the abacus with a Dharma Chakra in the center, a bull on the right and a galloping horse on the left, and outlines of Dharma Chakras on the extreme right and left were adopted as the State Emblem of India on January 26, 1950. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
    The motto Satyameva Jayate, which means 'Truth Alone Triumphs', written in Devanagari script below the profile of the Lion Capital, is part of the State Emblem of India. So, Statement 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The State Emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka at Sarnath. In the original, four lions are mounted back to back on a circular abacus, which rests on a bell-shaped lotus. The frieze of the abacus has sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening Dharma Chakras. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The profile of the Lion Capital shows three lions mounted on the abacus with a Dharma Chakra in the center, a bull on the right and a galloping horse on the left, and outlines of Dharma Chakras on the extreme right and left were adopted as the State Emblem of India on January 26, 1950. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
    The motto Satyameva Jayate, which means 'Truth Alone Triumphs', written in Devanagari script below the profile of the Lion Capital, is part of the State Emblem of India. So, Statement 4 is correct.
98. Question 98 of 100

    98. Question

    We adopted the post of the Vice President based on the model of the United States of America, but how does our model differ from that model?
    (1) The term of the Vice President of India differs from the term of the Vice President of the United States of America.
    (2) The Vice President of India is indirectly elected, while the Vice President of the United States of America is directly elected.
    (3) In the United States of America, when the office of President falls vacant, the Vice President becomes President and remains President for the remaining term of President.
    Select the incorrect answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The vice president of India holds office for five years and can be re-elected any number of times.
    However, the office may be terminated earlier by death, resignation, or removal.
    The vice president of the United States of America holds office for four years and can be re-elected any number of times (22nd Amendment of the US constitution). So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Vice-President of India, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but indirectly. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament.
    The vice president of the United States of America is indirectly elected together with the president by the people of the United States through the Electoral College. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    When the office of the President in the United States becomes vacant, the vice president assumes the role and serves out the remaining of the previous President's term as President.
    In contrast, The Indian Vice-President does not assume the office of the President when it falls vacant for the remaining term. He merely serves as an acting President until the new President assumes charge. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    VICE PRESIDENT
    About
    Article 63 of the Indian Constitution mentions the post of Vice-President.
    The Constitutional Articles from 63-73 deal with the qualifications, election, and removal of the Vice-President of India.
    Constitutional Provisions
    Article 63 – There shall be a Vice President of India.
    Article 64- The Vice-President shall be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
    Article 65- The Vice-President to act as President or to discharge his functions during casual vacancies in the office, or during the absence, of the President.
    Article 66- The Vice-President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. The Vice-President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the Legislature of any State.
    Article 67- The Vice-President shall hold office for five years from the date of his appointment.
    Article 68- An election to fill a vacancy created because of the completion of the term of office of Vice-President shall be completed before the expiry of the term. The election to fill a vacancy created because of the death, resignation, or removal of Vice-President shall be held as soon as possible.
    Article 69- Every Vice-President shall make an Oath or Affirmation upon entering his office before the President, or some person appointed on that behalf by him.
    Article 70- Discharge of President’s functions in other contingencies
    Article 71- Matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a president or vice-president.
    Powers And Functions
    Acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
    Acts as President when a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, removal, and death or otherwise.
    He can act as President only for a maximum period of six months, within which a new President has to be elected.

    Unattempted
    

    The vice president of India holds office for five years and can be re-elected any number of times.
    However, the office may be terminated earlier by death, resignation, or removal.
    The vice president of the United States of America holds office for four years and can be re-elected any number of times (22nd Amendment of the US constitution). So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Vice-President of India, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but indirectly. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament.
    The vice president of the United States of America is indirectly elected together with the president by the people of the United States through the Electoral College. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    When the office of the President in the United States becomes vacant, the vice president assumes the role and serves out the remaining of the previous President's term as President.
    In contrast, The Indian Vice-President does not assume the office of the President when it falls vacant for the remaining term. He merely serves as an acting President until the new President assumes charge. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    VICE PRESIDENT
    About
    Article 63 of the Indian Constitution mentions the post of Vice-President.
    The Constitutional Articles from 63-73 deal with the qualifications, election, and removal of the Vice-President of India.
    Constitutional Provisions
    Article 63 – There shall be a Vice President of India.
    Article 64- The Vice-President shall be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
    Article 65- The Vice-President to act as President or to discharge his functions during casual vacancies in the office, or during the absence, of the President.
    Article 66- The Vice-President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. The Vice-President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the Legislature of any State.
    Article 67- The Vice-President shall hold office for five years from the date of his appointment.
    Article 68- An election to fill a vacancy created because of the completion of the term of office of Vice-President shall be completed before the expiry of the term. The election to fill a vacancy created because of the death, resignation, or removal of Vice-President shall be held as soon as possible.
    Article 69- Every Vice-President shall make an Oath or Affirmation upon entering his office before the President, or some person appointed on that behalf by him.
    Article 70- Discharge of President’s functions in other contingencies
    Article 71- Matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a president or vice-president.
    Powers And Functions
    Acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
    Acts as President when a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, removal, and death or otherwise.
    He can act as President only for a maximum period of six months, within which a new President has to be elected.
99. Question 99 of 100

    99. Question

    consider the following statements about 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 :
    (1) It has added the Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.
    (2) It has brought panchayati raj institutions under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.
    Which of the statements given above is incorrect?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) None
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 2 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 has added a new Part IX and a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled as “The Panchayats” and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
    Statement 2 is correct. The73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gives aconstitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution. In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government any more.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 has added a new Part IX and a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled as “The Panchayats” and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
    Statement 2 is correct. The73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gives aconstitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution. In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government any more.
100. Question 100 of 100

     100. Question

     With reference to Vice President of India , consider the following statements:
     (1) The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of Rajya Sabha only .
     (2) The Election Commission of India conducts the election to the office of the Vice-President.
     (3) All doubts and disputes arising in connection with the election of the Vice-President are enquired by the Supreme Court of India.
     Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
     (A) Only one
     (B) Only two
     (C) All
     (D) None

     • A
     • B
     • C
     • D
     Correct
     

     Incorrect
     

     Statement 1 is not correct : The Vice-President of India is the second highest constitutional office in the country.
     ● He serves for a five-year term, but can continue to be in office, irrespective of the expiry of the term, until the successor assumes office.
     ● The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot(Article 66 (1)).
     Statements 2 and 3 are correct : The Election Commission of India conducts the election to the office of the Vice-President.
     ● The Election Commission is mandated to ensure that the election to the office of the VicePresident of India must be a free and fair election and the Commission is taking all necessary steps for discharging its constitutional responsibility.
     ● All doubts and disputes arising in connection with the election of the Vice-President are enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India whose decision is final.
     ■ A petition challenging the election of the Vice-President is heard by a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India.

     Unattempted
     

     Statement 1 is not correct : The Vice-President of India is the second highest constitutional office in the country.
     ● He serves for a five-year term, but can continue to be in office, irrespective of the expiry of the term, until the successor assumes office.
     ● The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot(Article 66 (1)).
     Statements 2 and 3 are correct : The Election Commission of India conducts the election to the office of the Vice-President.
     ● The Election Commission is mandated to ensure that the election to the office of the VicePresident of India must be a free and fair election and the Commission is taking all necessary steps for discharging its constitutional responsibility.
     ● All doubts and disputes arising in connection with the election of the Vice-President are enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India whose decision is final.
     ■ A petition challenging the election of the Vice-President is heard by a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India.