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Review
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with regard to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO):
(1) It promotes the Comprehensive NuclearTest-Ban Treaty (CTBT) so that it can enter into force.
(2) It establishes a verification regime to monitor adherence to the treaty.
(3) India is a member of CTBTO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
Statement 1 is correct. CTBTO is the supporting organization of the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). It promotes the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) so that it can enter into force. CTBTO has been trying to build trust with India and address its concerns which have restricted India from joining it.
Statement 2 is correct. CTBTO establishes a verification regime to monitor adherence to the treaty. What is the CTBT verification regime? The CTBT verification regime is a unique, comprehensive system, consisting of the International Monitoring System (IMS), International Data Centre (IDC) and on-site inspections (OSI). It constantly monitors the planet for nuclear explosions and shares its findings with Member States.
MEMBER STATES185 (SIGNED)
TOTAL RATIFICATIONS170
LATEST STATE SIGNATORYCuba
LATEST RATIFYING STATEComoros
Statement 3 is incorrect. India is not a member of CTBTO.
India has been recently invited to join Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) in the capacity of an observer. Joining as an observer will let India know what is going on this front and obtain benefits from its information without actually binding itself to the treaty (CTBT). Being an observer would give India access to data from the International Monitoring System — a network which when complete will consist of 337 facilities (321 monitoring stations and 16 radionuclide labs) located in 89 countries. This system can detect even small nuclear explosions using seismology, hydro acoustics, infrasound and radionuclide technology.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. CTBTO is the supporting organization of the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). It promotes the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) so that it can enter into force. CTBTO has been trying to build trust with India and address its concerns which have restricted India from joining it.
Statement 2 is correct. CTBTO establishes a verification regime to monitor adherence to the treaty. What is the CTBT verification regime? The CTBT verification regime is a unique, comprehensive system, consisting of the International Monitoring System (IMS), International Data Centre (IDC) and on-site inspections (OSI). It constantly monitors the planet for nuclear explosions and shares its findings with Member States.
MEMBER STATES185 (SIGNED)
TOTAL RATIFICATIONS170
LATEST STATE SIGNATORYCuba
LATEST RATIFYING STATEComoros
Statement 3 is incorrect. India is not a member of CTBTO.
India has been recently invited to join Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) in the capacity of an observer. Joining as an observer will let India know what is going on this front and obtain benefits from its information without actually binding itself to the treaty (CTBT). Being an observer would give India access to data from the International Monitoring System — a network which when complete will consist of 337 facilities (321 monitoring stations and 16 radionuclide labs) located in 89 countries. This system can detect even small nuclear explosions using seismology, hydro acoustics, infrasound and radionuclide technology.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. CTBTO is the supporting organization of the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). It promotes the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) so that it can enter into force. CTBTO has been trying to build trust with India and address its concerns which have restricted India from joining it.
Statement 2 is correct. CTBTO establishes a verification regime to monitor adherence to the treaty. What is the CTBT verification regime? The CTBT verification regime is a unique, comprehensive system, consisting of the International Monitoring System (IMS), International Data Centre (IDC) and on-site inspections (OSI). It constantly monitors the planet for nuclear explosions and shares its findings with Member States.
MEMBER STATES185 (SIGNED)
TOTAL RATIFICATIONS170
LATEST STATE SIGNATORYCuba
LATEST RATIFYING STATEComoros
Statement 3 is incorrect. India is not a member of CTBTO.
India has been recently invited to join Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) in the capacity of an observer. Joining as an observer will let India know what is going on this front and obtain benefits from its information without actually binding itself to the treaty (CTBT). Being an observer would give India access to data from the International Monitoring System — a network which when complete will consist of 337 facilities (321 monitoring stations and 16 radionuclide labs) located in 89 countries. This system can detect even small nuclear explosions using seismology, hydro acoustics, infrasound and radionuclide technology.
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Nidhi (PMSSN):
(1) It is set up as a single non-lapsable reserve fund for share of health sector.
(2) It will be administered and maintained by Ministry of Finance.
(3) The funds under PMSSN will be utilized for Ayushman Bharat scheme and National Health Mission.
Which of the following statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
Statement 1 is correct. PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaNidhi (PMSSN) will ensure access to universal & affordable health care through a fund that does not lapse at the end of the financial year. It has been set up as a single non-lapsable reserve fund for a share of health.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The fund will be administered and maintained by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (not Ministry of Finance).
Statement 3 is correct.
The fund will be utilized for the following flagship schemes of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare:
1) Ayushman Bharat – PradhanMantri Jan ArogyaYojana (AB-PMJAY)
2) Ayushman Bharat – Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs)
3) National Health Mission
4) PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaYojana (PMSSY)
5) Emergency & disaster preparedness and responses during health emergencies
6) Any future programme/scheme that targets to achieve progress towards SDGs and the targets set out in the National Health Policy (NHP) 2017.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaNidhi (PMSSN) will ensure access to universal & affordable health care through a fund that does not lapse at the end of the financial year. It has been set up as a single non-lapsable reserve fund for a share of health.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The fund will be administered and maintained by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (not Ministry of Finance).
Statement 3 is correct.
The fund will be utilized for the following flagship schemes of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare:
1) Ayushman Bharat – PradhanMantri Jan ArogyaYojana (AB-PMJAY)
2) Ayushman Bharat – Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs)
3) National Health Mission
4) PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaYojana (PMSSY)
5) Emergency & disaster preparedness and responses during health emergencies
6) Any future programme/scheme that targets to achieve progress towards SDGs and the targets set out in the National Health Policy (NHP) 2017.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaNidhi (PMSSN) will ensure access to universal & affordable health care through a fund that does not lapse at the end of the financial year. It has been set up as a single non-lapsable reserve fund for a share of health.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The fund will be administered and maintained by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (not Ministry of Finance).
Statement 3 is correct.
The fund will be utilized for the following flagship schemes of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare:
1) Ayushman Bharat – PradhanMantri Jan ArogyaYojana (AB-PMJAY)
2) Ayushman Bharat – Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs)
3) National Health Mission
4) PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaYojana (PMSSY)
5) Emergency & disaster preparedness and responses during health emergencies
6) Any future programme/scheme that targets to achieve progress towards SDGs and the targets set out in the National Health Policy (NHP) 2017.
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
2 points
With reference to “Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA)”, consider the following statements:
(1) It aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India.
(2) It is supported by the International Climate Initiativeof the German Ministry for the Environment and Nature Conservation.
(3) It will be implemented by NITI Aayog on behalf of the Government of India.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
Statement 1 is correct. NDC Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA) aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India, Vietnam and China over the period 2020-24.
Statement 2 is correct. Nationally Determined Contributions(NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia(TIA)is supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment and Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety(BMU).
Statement 3 is correct. On behalf of the Government of India, NITI Aayog will be the implementing partner. NDC-TIA India Component will focus on establishing a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform for decarbonizing transport in India.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. NDC Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA) aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India, Vietnam and China over the period 2020-24.
Statement 2 is correct. Nationally Determined Contributions(NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia(TIA)is supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment and Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety(BMU).
Statement 3 is correct. On behalf of the Government of India, NITI Aayog will be the implementing partner. NDC-TIA India Component will focus on establishing a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform for decarbonizing transport in India.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. NDC Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA) aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India, Vietnam and China over the period 2020-24.
Statement 2 is correct. Nationally Determined Contributions(NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia(TIA)is supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment and Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety(BMU).
Statement 3 is correct. On behalf of the Government of India, NITI Aayog will be the implementing partner. NDC-TIA India Component will focus on establishing a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform for decarbonizing transport in India.
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
2 points
“Five Eyes” group has been recently seen in news. In this context, which one of the following is correct about “Five Eyes” group?
(A) It is an international grouping to monitor the digital and cyber security threats.
(B) It is an alliance between countries signatories to the UKUSA Agreement for their cooperation in signal intelligence.
(C) It is international Non-Governmental Organisation working towards promotion of healthy habits of eye-sights among youths.
(D) None of the above.
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Correct
Five Eyes (FVEY) is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States. These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence. Five Eyes Intelligence Oversight and Review Council (FIORC)was created in the spirit of the existing Five Eyes partnership, the intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. FIORC is composed of the following non-political intelligence oversight, review, and security entities of the Five Eyes countries.
Incorrect
Five Eyes (FVEY) is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States. These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence. Five Eyes Intelligence Oversight and Review Council (FIORC)was created in the spirit of the existing Five Eyes partnership, the intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. FIORC is composed of the following non-political intelligence oversight, review, and security entities of the Five Eyes countries.
Unattempted
Five Eyes (FVEY) is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States. These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence. Five Eyes Intelligence Oversight and Review Council (FIORC)was created in the spirit of the existing Five Eyes partnership, the intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. FIORC is composed of the following non-political intelligence oversight, review, and security entities of the Five Eyes countries.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
2 points
With reference to “Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) Initiative”, consider the following statements:
(1) It is an intergovernmental organisation open to only United Nations members.
(2) It was launched by India and France at UN Climate Change Summit, 2015 in Paris.
(3) The Governing Council is co-chaired by India and a representative of another member nation.
(4) Every member has an obligation to make minimum contribution to CDRI.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
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Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure(CDRI) Initiative is a multi-stakeholder global partnership of national governments, UN agencies, multilateral development banks, private sector, academic and knowledge institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Prime Minister of India launched it in 2019 at the UN Climate Change Summit.
Statement 3 is correct. The Governing Council is the highest policy-making body of the CDRI. It is co-chaired by India and a representative of another nation, nominated by rotation every two years.
Statement 4 is incorrect. There are no obligations on the part of members to make financial contributions to CDRI. However, at any point, members of the CDRI may make voluntary contributions. A large share of the fund over the first five years has been invested by India.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure(CDRI) Initiative is a multi-stakeholder global partnership of national governments, UN agencies, multilateral development banks, private sector, academic and knowledge institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Prime Minister of India launched it in 2019 at the UN Climate Change Summit.
Statement 3 is correct. The Governing Council is the highest policy-making body of the CDRI. It is co-chaired by India and a representative of another nation, nominated by rotation every two years.
Statement 4 is incorrect. There are no obligations on the part of members to make financial contributions to CDRI. However, at any point, members of the CDRI may make voluntary contributions. A large share of the fund over the first five years has been invested by India.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure(CDRI) Initiative is a multi-stakeholder global partnership of national governments, UN agencies, multilateral development banks, private sector, academic and knowledge institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Prime Minister of India launched it in 2019 at the UN Climate Change Summit.
Statement 3 is correct. The Governing Council is the highest policy-making body of the CDRI. It is co-chaired by India and a representative of another nation, nominated by rotation every two years.
Statement 4 is incorrect. There are no obligations on the part of members to make financial contributions to CDRI. However, at any point, members of the CDRI may make voluntary contributions. A large share of the fund over the first five years has been invested by India.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
2 points
16 Psyche, sometimes seen in the news, is
(A) An Artificial Intelligence-based humanoid robot developed recently.
(B) A mental health initiative launched by the World Health Organisation.
(C) An asteroid lying between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
(D) A microprocessor that achieved quantum supremacy recently.
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Correct
16 Psyche is an asteroid that orbits between Mars and Jupiter. It is located around 370 million kilometres away from Earth. New images from NASA”s Hubble Space Telescope reveal that the surface of the asteroid may mostly comprise iron and nickel, similar to the Earth”s core. The exact composition and origins of the asteroid will be uncovered in 2022, when NASA sends an unmanned spacecraft to study it up close. NASA will launch a Space X Falcon Heavy rocket from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station in Florida to orbit the asteroid for around 21 months.
Incorrect
16 Psyche is an asteroid that orbits between Mars and Jupiter. It is located around 370 million kilometres away from Earth. New images from NASA”s Hubble Space Telescope reveal that the surface of the asteroid may mostly comprise iron and nickel, similar to the Earth”s core. The exact composition and origins of the asteroid will be uncovered in 2022, when NASA sends an unmanned spacecraft to study it up close. NASA will launch a Space X Falcon Heavy rocket from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station in Florida to orbit the asteroid for around 21 months.
Unattempted
16 Psyche is an asteroid that orbits between Mars and Jupiter. It is located around 370 million kilometres away from Earth. New images from NASA”s Hubble Space Telescope reveal that the surface of the asteroid may mostly comprise iron and nickel, similar to the Earth”s core. The exact composition and origins of the asteroid will be uncovered in 2022, when NASA sends an unmanned spacecraft to study it up close. NASA will launch a Space X Falcon Heavy rocket from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station in Florida to orbit the asteroid for around 21 months.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
2 points
In the context of cyber security, consider the following statements:
(1) The content on Dark Net is encrypted and requires specific browser for net surfing.
(2) All activities associated with the deep web are nefarious.
(3) “Deep web” is part of greater “dark net” also known as “dark web”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
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Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The content on Dark Net is encrypted and requires specific browser like TOR browser for net surfing.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all activities associated with the deep web are nefarious. In most cases, these pages are not searchable through traditional channels because they are password-protected and require specific tools or authorization (like a log-in) in order to access them.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The “dark net” also known as the “dark web” is part of the greater “deep web”, a network of secret websites that exist on an encrypted network.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The content on Dark Net is encrypted and requires specific browser like TOR browser for net surfing.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all activities associated with the deep web are nefarious. In most cases, these pages are not searchable through traditional channels because they are password-protected and require specific tools or authorization (like a log-in) in order to access them.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The “dark net” also known as the “dark web” is part of the greater “deep web”, a network of secret websites that exist on an encrypted network.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. The content on Dark Net is encrypted and requires specific browser like TOR browser for net surfing.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all activities associated with the deep web are nefarious. In most cases, these pages are not searchable through traditional channels because they are password-protected and require specific tools or authorization (like a log-in) in order to access them.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The “dark net” also known as the “dark web” is part of the greater “deep web”, a network of secret websites that exist on an encrypted network.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
2 points
Project seeks to build a strong constellation of satellites aiming to supply non-stop, low-cost Internet everywhere on Earth. It will allow data to be sent twice as fast as the fibre used to connect the internet on Earth, regardless of the distance. The project mentioned here is
(A) Starlink project
(B) Spiderlink Net
(C) Skybot project
(D) Jio Net
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Correct
Option 1 is correct.Starlink Project seeks to build a strong constellation of satellites aiming to supply non-stop, low-cost Internet everywhere on Earth. It will allow data to be sent twice as fast as the fiber used to connect the internet on Earth, regardless of the distance.
Option 2 and 4 are incorrect. Spiderlink and jio net are local internet provider through fiber in India.
Option 3 is incorrect. Skybot project Russia sent the humanoid robot Fedor, to International Space Station. It will spend 10 days in space to assist astronauts.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct.Starlink Project seeks to build a strong constellation of satellites aiming to supply non-stop, low-cost Internet everywhere on Earth. It will allow data to be sent twice as fast as the fiber used to connect the internet on Earth, regardless of the distance.
Option 2 and 4 are incorrect. Spiderlink and jio net are local internet provider through fiber in India.
Option 3 is incorrect. Skybot project Russia sent the humanoid robot Fedor, to International Space Station. It will spend 10 days in space to assist astronauts.
Unattempted
Option 1 is correct.Starlink Project seeks to build a strong constellation of satellites aiming to supply non-stop, low-cost Internet everywhere on Earth. It will allow data to be sent twice as fast as the fiber used to connect the internet on Earth, regardless of the distance.
Option 2 and 4 are incorrect. Spiderlink and jio net are local internet provider through fiber in India.
Option 3 is incorrect. Skybot project Russia sent the humanoid robot Fedor, to International Space Station. It will spend 10 days in space to assist astronauts.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
2 points
Project CARE (Climate Adaptation and Resilience for South Asia) is launched by
(A) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(B) Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF)
(C) South Asia Co-operative Environment Programme (SACEP)
(D) World Bank
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Correct
Option D is correct. Climate Adaptation and Resilience for South Asia (CARE) Projectis launchedby World Bank. It will help in developing regional standards and guidelines for infrastructure, and promoting climateresilient policies and investments. The project will help develop a public platform to inform climate planning and investments, and fund technology to support resilience in South Asia.
Incorrect
Option D is correct. Climate Adaptation and Resilience for South Asia (CARE) Projectis launchedby World Bank. It will help in developing regional standards and guidelines for infrastructure, and promoting climateresilient policies and investments. The project will help develop a public platform to inform climate planning and investments, and fund technology to support resilience in South Asia.
Unattempted
Option D is correct. Climate Adaptation and Resilience for South Asia (CARE) Projectis launchedby World Bank. It will help in developing regional standards and guidelines for infrastructure, and promoting climateresilient policies and investments. The project will help develop a public platform to inform climate planning and investments, and fund technology to support resilience in South Asia.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
2 points
With reference to “Vidya Daan program” consider the following statements:
(1) It brings together academicians and organisations to develop e-learning content.
(2) It is launched by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct
Statement 1 is correct. VidyaDaan program brings together academicians and organisations to develop and contribute fun and engaging e-learning content aligned to the curriculum.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. VidyaDaan program brings together academicians and organisations to develop and contribute fun and engaging e-learning content aligned to the curriculum.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. VidyaDaan program brings together academicians and organisations to develop and contribute fun and engaging e-learning content aligned to the curriculum.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) Article 17 of the Indian Constitution defines untouchability and provides for its abolition.
(2) A person convicted of untouchability is disqualified for election to the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct
Article 17 of the constitution abolishes “untouchability” and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
The term “untouchability” however has not been defined under the constitution.
Under the Protection of Civil Rights act, 1955 a person convicted of the offence of “untouchability” is disqualified for election to the Parliament or state legislature.
“Indian Young Lawyers Association & Others vs The State of Kerala & Others” case, 2018 : A five-judge bench had delivered a landmark 4:1 ruling setting aside the decadesold restrictions on the entry of women of reproductive age inside Sabarimala Temple.
Ban on the entry of women in Sabarimala is a type of untouchability, and thus it violates Article 17.
Incorrect
Article 17 of the constitution abolishes “untouchability” and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
The term “untouchability” however has not been defined under the constitution.
Under the Protection of Civil Rights act, 1955 a person convicted of the offence of “untouchability” is disqualified for election to the Parliament or state legislature.
“Indian Young Lawyers Association & Others vs The State of Kerala & Others” case, 2018 : A five-judge bench had delivered a landmark 4:1 ruling setting aside the decadesold restrictions on the entry of women of reproductive age inside Sabarimala Temple.
Ban on the entry of women in Sabarimala is a type of untouchability, and thus it violates Article 17.
Unattempted
Article 17 of the constitution abolishes “untouchability” and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
The term “untouchability” however has not been defined under the constitution.
Under the Protection of Civil Rights act, 1955 a person convicted of the offence of “untouchability” is disqualified for election to the Parliament or state legislature.
“Indian Young Lawyers Association & Others vs The State of Kerala & Others” case, 2018 : A five-judge bench had delivered a landmark 4:1 ruling setting aside the decadesold restrictions on the entry of women of reproductive age inside Sabarimala Temple.
Ban on the entry of women in Sabarimala is a type of untouchability, and thus it violates Article 17.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with respect to resolutions:
(1) All resolutions are substantive motions.
(2) A resolution cannot contain any matter which is under adjudication by a court of law in India.
(3) A statutory resolution can be moved by a minister only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
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Correct
A substantive motion is a self-contained, independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House. All resolutions are substantive motions.
A resolution is one of the procedural devices to raise a discussion in the House on a matter of general public interest.
A resolution for being admissible should satisfy the following conditions:—
(i) it shall be clearly and precisely expressed;
(ii) it shall raise substantially one definite issue;
(iii) it shall not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory statements;
(iv) it shall not refer to the conduct or character of persons except in their official or public capacity; and
(v) it shall not relate to any matter which is under adjudication by a court of law having jurisdiction in any part of India.
Resolutions tabled in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament are termed statutory resolutions. Notice of such resolutions may be given either by a Minister or by a private member.
Private member :
Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a minister is called as a private member.
• Its introduction in the House requires one month”s notice.
• Private member”s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Friday.
• The last time a private member”s bill was passed by both Houses was in 1970.
• It was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968.
• 14 private member”s bills — five of which were introduced in Rajya Sabha — have become law so far.
• They can introduce constitutional amendment bills but not money bills.
Incorrect
A substantive motion is a self-contained, independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House. All resolutions are substantive motions.
A resolution is one of the procedural devices to raise a discussion in the House on a matter of general public interest.
A resolution for being admissible should satisfy the following conditions:—
(i) it shall be clearly and precisely expressed;
(ii) it shall raise substantially one definite issue;
(iii) it shall not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory statements;
(iv) it shall not refer to the conduct or character of persons except in their official or public capacity; and
(v) it shall not relate to any matter which is under adjudication by a court of law having jurisdiction in any part of India.
Resolutions tabled in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament are termed statutory resolutions. Notice of such resolutions may be given either by a Minister or by a private member.
Private member :
Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a minister is called as a private member.
• Its introduction in the House requires one month”s notice.
• Private member”s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Friday.
• The last time a private member”s bill was passed by both Houses was in 1970.
• It was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968.
• 14 private member”s bills — five of which were introduced in Rajya Sabha — have become law so far.
• They can introduce constitutional amendment bills but not money bills.
Unattempted
A substantive motion is a self-contained, independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House. All resolutions are substantive motions.
A resolution is one of the procedural devices to raise a discussion in the House on a matter of general public interest.
A resolution for being admissible should satisfy the following conditions:—
(i) it shall be clearly and precisely expressed;
(ii) it shall raise substantially one definite issue;
(iii) it shall not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory statements;
(iv) it shall not refer to the conduct or character of persons except in their official or public capacity; and
(v) it shall not relate to any matter which is under adjudication by a court of law having jurisdiction in any part of India.
Resolutions tabled in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament are termed statutory resolutions. Notice of such resolutions may be given either by a Minister or by a private member.
Private member :
Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a minister is called as a private member.
• Its introduction in the House requires one month”s notice.
• Private member”s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Friday.
• The last time a private member”s bill was passed by both Houses was in 1970.
• It was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968.
• 14 private member”s bills — five of which were introduced in Rajya Sabha — have become law so far.
• They can introduce constitutional amendment bills but not money bills.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
2 points
Which of the following is true regarding the qualifications required for appointment of a person as a District Judge ?
(A) He should have been an advocate or pleader for a minimum period of 10 years.
(B) He should be in the service of central or state government.
(C) He should be recommended by the high court for appointment.
(D) All of the above
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Correct
One should be an advocate for 7 years and not be in any central or state government services. High court”s recommendation is necessary for the appointment of district judge.
Incorrect
One should be an advocate for 7 years and not be in any central or state government services. High court”s recommendation is necessary for the appointment of district judge.
Unattempted
One should be an advocate for 7 years and not be in any central or state government services. High court”s recommendation is necessary for the appointment of district judge.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
2 points
With reference to Election commission of India, consider the following statements:
(1) The Parliament has the power to decide the number of election commissioners.
(2) The salary of Election Commissioner is a charged expenditure on the Consolidated fund of India.
(3) The Election Commissioners are not barred from further employment under the Government after retirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
Article 324 provides that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The salary of Election commissioner is not a charged expenditure on the consolidated fund of India and hence cannot be voted upon by the Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further employment under the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Article 324 provides that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The salary of Election commissioner is not a charged expenditure on the consolidated fund of India and hence cannot be voted upon by the Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further employment under the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
Article 324 provides that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The salary of Election commissioner is not a charged expenditure on the consolidated fund of India and hence cannot be voted upon by the Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further employment under the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
2 points
With reference to elections to Panchayats, consider the following statements:
(1) The minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats is 25 years.
(2) Elections to panchayats are conducted as per the electoral rolls prepared for the most recent state election.
(3) The chairpersons of panchayats at all three levels must be elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats is 21 years.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The preparation of electoral roll as well as the conduct of all elections to panchayats is performed under the superintendence, direction and control of the state election commission. The electoral rolls for state elections are prepared by the (Central) Election Commission.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The chairpersons of panchayats at intermediary and district levels must be elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members of the respective bodies. The process for election of the chairperson of a village level panchayat is to be prescribed by the state legislature.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats is 21 years.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The preparation of electoral roll as well as the conduct of all elections to panchayats is performed under the superintendence, direction and control of the state election commission. The electoral rolls for state elections are prepared by the (Central) Election Commission.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The chairpersons of panchayats at intermediary and district levels must be elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members of the respective bodies. The process for election of the chairperson of a village level panchayat is to be prescribed by the state legislature.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. The minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats is 21 years.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The preparation of electoral roll as well as the conduct of all elections to panchayats is performed under the superintendence, direction and control of the state election commission. The electoral rolls for state elections are prepared by the (Central) Election Commission.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The chairpersons of panchayats at intermediary and district levels must be elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members of the respective bodies. The process for election of the chairperson of a village level panchayat is to be prescribed by the state legislature.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
2 points
With reference to the bill for formation of a new state, consider the following statements:
(1) It can only be introduced on prior recommendation of the President.
(2) It is referred to the Union territory concerned if it has a legislative assembly
(3) The state legislature has to return the bill within 14 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
Correct
A bill for formation of a new state can only be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In case of a union territory, no reference need be made to concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. The period is not fixed at 14 days. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
A bill for formation of a new state can only be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In case of a union territory, no reference need be made to concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. The period is not fixed at 14 days. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Unattempted
A bill for formation of a new state can only be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In case of a union territory, no reference need be made to concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. The period is not fixed at 14 days. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
2 points
Article-262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of Inter-state water disputes. Which of the following provisions in this regards is/are correct?
(1) Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint.
(2) Parliament cannot restrict Supreme Court or any other court to exercise jurisdiction in respect of such dispute.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter State river or river valley.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause 1.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter State river or river valley.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause 1.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter State river or river valley.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause 1.
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
2 points
With reference to State Human rights commission (SHRC), consider the following statements:
(1) It can only be established for states and not for Union Territories.
(2) Its members are appointed and removed by the president.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
Under the Human rights act, a state human rights commission can be be setup in a state only and not in union territories. Cases of human rights violation in union territories are taken up by National Human rights commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
Under the Human rights act, a state human rights commission can be be setup in a state only and not in union territories. Cases of human rights violation in union territories are taken up by National Human rights commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Unattempted
Under the Human rights act, a state human rights commission can be be setup in a state only and not in union territories. Cases of human rights violation in union territories are taken up by National Human rights commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
2 points
The powers and status of Legislative Council are broadly equal to that of the Legislative Assembly of a state in which of the following matters?
(1) Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
(2) Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies.
(3) Selection of ministers including the chief minister
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:
1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
3. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
4. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Incorrect
In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:
1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
3. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
4. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Unattempted
In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:
1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
3. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
4. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
2 points
Which of the following in a Question hour can be followed by a supplementary question?
(1) Starred question
(2) Unstarred question
(3) Short Notice question
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
Questions are of four types: Starred, Unstarred, Short Notice Questions and Questions addressed to private Members:
A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally and followed by supplementary questions.
Incorrect
Questions are of four types: Starred, Unstarred, Short Notice Questions and Questions addressed to private Members:
A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally and followed by supplementary questions.
Unattempted
Questions are of four types: Starred, Unstarred, Short Notice Questions and Questions addressed to private Members:
A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally and followed by supplementary questions.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
2 points
The transfer of Judges from one High Court to another is done by:
(A) Chief Justice of India only
(B) Governor after consulting Chief Justice of India.
(C) Chief Justice of India after consulting concerned Chief Justice of High Court.
(D) President after consulting Chief Justice of India
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-
-
-
Correct
The President can transfer a Judge from one High Court to another after consulting Chief Justice of India. On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by the Parliament.
Incorrect
The President can transfer a Judge from one High Court to another after consulting Chief Justice of India. On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by the Parliament.
Unattempted
The President can transfer a Judge from one High Court to another after consulting Chief Justice of India. On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by the Parliament.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) In case of a conflict between a central law and a state law on a subject in the concurrent list, the central law always prevails over the state law.
(2) The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects lies with states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. In case of a conflict between a central law and state law on a subject in concurrent list, the central law prevails over state law, except when the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his assent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects lies with the Parliament.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. In case of a conflict between a central law and state law on a subject in concurrent list, the central law prevails over state law, except when the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his assent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects lies with the Parliament.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. In case of a conflict between a central law and state law on a subject in concurrent list, the central law prevails over state law, except when the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his assent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects lies with the Parliament.
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
2 points
With reference to Committee on Public Undertakings, consider the following statements:
(1) Its members are drawn from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(2) A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee.
(3) The Chairman has to be a member of Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members fifteen elected by the Lok Sabha and seven by the Rajya Sabha, from amongst their Members, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
A Minister is not eligible to become a Member of the Committee. If a Member after his election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
The term of the Committee does not exceed one year. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee. Only Lok Sabha member can become the chairman of the committee. Hence, 3rd statement is not correct.
Incorrect
The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members fifteen elected by the Lok Sabha and seven by the Rajya Sabha, from amongst their Members, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
A Minister is not eligible to become a Member of the Committee. If a Member after his election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
The term of the Committee does not exceed one year. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee. Only Lok Sabha member can become the chairman of the committee. Hence, 3rd statement is not correct.
Unattempted
The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members fifteen elected by the Lok Sabha and seven by the Rajya Sabha, from amongst their Members, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
A Minister is not eligible to become a Member of the Committee. If a Member after his election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
The term of the Committee does not exceed one year. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee. Only Lok Sabha member can become the chairman of the committee. Hence, 3rd statement is not correct.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
2 points
In case of conflict among two or more judgements of the Supreme Court, which of the following judgement is followed or considered as final?
(A) Latest judgment given by Supreme Court.
(B) Judgment given by larger bench.
(C) Any of the judgements as deemed fit by the court.
(D) Such situation has not been clarified by the Supreme Court or is provided under the Indian Constitution.
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-
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-
Correct
Option (B) is correct as in Pyare Mohan Lal v. state of Jharkhand, (2010) it has been clarified that in case of conflict of judgments of supreme court, the one given by larger bench would be followed. A smaller bench can not review opinion given by a larger bench.
Incorrect
Option (B) is correct as in Pyare Mohan Lal v. state of Jharkhand, (2010) it has been clarified that in case of conflict of judgments of supreme court, the one given by larger bench would be followed. A smaller bench can not review opinion given by a larger bench.
Unattempted
Option (B) is correct as in Pyare Mohan Lal v. state of Jharkhand, (2010) it has been clarified that in case of conflict of judgments of supreme court, the one given by larger bench would be followed. A smaller bench can not review opinion given by a larger bench.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
2 points
The form of government in India is termed as Parliamentary Government due to:
(1) Presence of both nominal and real executives.
(2) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
(3) Sovereignty of the parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
Presence of nominal and real executives;
Majority party rule, o Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly)
Indian parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament.
Incorrect
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
Presence of nominal and real executives;
Majority party rule, o Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly)
Indian parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament.
Unattempted
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
Presence of nominal and real executives;
Majority party rule, o Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly)
Indian parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament.
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
2 points
With reference to Consumer rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, consider the following statements.
(1) Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer.
(2) A consumer not required to pay any fee while filing a complaint in any consumer forum.
(3) In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A consumer is not required to pay any court fee but depending on the type of court and the claim amount there is a provision of a nominal fee.
Statement 3 is correct. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A consumer is not required to pay any court fee but depending on the type of court and the claim amount there is a provision of a nominal fee.
Statement 3 is correct. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A consumer is not required to pay any court fee but depending on the type of court and the claim amount there is a provision of a nominal fee.
Statement 3 is correct. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
2 points
With reference to the power of the Speaker to suspend the members from the House, consider the following statements:
(1) It is a constitutional power of the Speaker.
2. Speaker must consult the Parliamentary Affairs Minister before taking such decision.
(3) The decision of the speaker is final and binding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) None
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-
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-
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: Speaker derives this power from the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business. The Speaker may invoke Rule 374A in case of “grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House, persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise…”. The member concerned, “on being named by the Speaker, stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less”.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker can take the decision independently without consulting the Parliamentary Affairs Minister.
Statement 3 is correct: The decision to suspend the members from the House is final and binding.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: Speaker derives this power from the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business. The Speaker may invoke Rule 374A in case of “grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House, persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise…”. The member concerned, “on being named by the Speaker, stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less”.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker can take the decision independently without consulting the Parliamentary Affairs Minister.
Statement 3 is correct: The decision to suspend the members from the House is final and binding.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect: Speaker derives this power from the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business. The Speaker may invoke Rule 374A in case of “grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House, persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise…”. The member concerned, “on being named by the Speaker, stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less”.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker can take the decision independently without consulting the Parliamentary Affairs Minister.
Statement 3 is correct: The decision to suspend the members from the House is final and binding.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
2 points
With reference to the Citizen Charter consider the following statements:
(1) The term “Citizen” in the Citizen”s Charter includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders.
(2) Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable.
(3) Department of personnel and training provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
The term “Citizen” in the Citizen”s Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are addressed by the Citizen”s Charter and, therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders, i.e., citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrations etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizen”s Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.
Incorrect
The term “Citizen” in the Citizen”s Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are addressed by the Citizen”s Charter and, therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders, i.e., citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrations etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizen”s Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.
Unattempted
The term “Citizen” in the Citizen”s Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are addressed by the Citizen”s Charter and, therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders, i.e., citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrations etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizen”s Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) In order to decide the disqualification of a Member of the parliament, the President must take the opinion of the Supreme Court.
(2) According to the Constitution, Parliament can make laws regarding disqualification.
(3) Election Commission can take suo-moto decision to disqualify a member of either House.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect: If any question arises regarding disqualification of a member, the President”s decision, in accordance with the opinion of the Election Commission, shall be final.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 102 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can make laws regarding disqualification.
Incorrect
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect: If any question arises regarding disqualification of a member, the President”s decision, in accordance with the opinion of the Election Commission, shall be final.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 102 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can make laws regarding disqualification.
Unattempted
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect: If any question arises regarding disqualification of a member, the President”s decision, in accordance with the opinion of the Election Commission, shall be final.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 102 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can make laws regarding disqualification.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
2 points
Which of the following directives can be used by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure “free and fair” elections in India?
(1) The election manifesto should be in consonance with the Model Code of Conduct.
(2) Manifestos should broadly reflect the financial means to fulfil the promises.
(3) ECI can declare the election of a candidate null and void on grounds of corruption even after the elction process is over.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
-
-
-
-
Correct
The Supreme Court in S. Subramaniam Balaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others has directed the mection Commission to frame guidelines with regard to the contents of election manifestos in consultation with all the recognized political parties. Accordingly, certain guidelines are issued:
1. The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct (statement 1 is correct).
2. In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it (statement 2 is correct).
Statement 3 is incorrect: After the election gets over, the power to declare an election null and void is in the hands of High Courts and not ECI.
Incorrect
The Supreme Court in S. Subramaniam Balaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others has directed the mection Commission to frame guidelines with regard to the contents of election manifestos in consultation with all the recognized political parties. Accordingly, certain guidelines are issued:
1. The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct (statement 1 is correct).
2. In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it (statement 2 is correct).
Statement 3 is incorrect: After the election gets over, the power to declare an election null and void is in the hands of High Courts and not ECI.
Unattempted
The Supreme Court in S. Subramaniam Balaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others has directed the mection Commission to frame guidelines with regard to the contents of election manifestos in consultation with all the recognized political parties. Accordingly, certain guidelines are issued:
1. The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct (statement 1 is correct).
2. In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it (statement 2 is correct).
Statement 3 is incorrect: After the election gets over, the power to declare an election null and void is in the hands of High Courts and not ECI.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
2 points
The electoral college to elect the President of India consists of:
(1) All the members of Lok Sabha
(2) All the members of Legislative Assemblies of states
(3) All the members of Rajya Sabha
(4) All the members of Legislative Councils of states
Select the correct answer using the code below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) None of the above
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-
-
-
Correct
Article 54 of the constitution says: “The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of:
(a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and
(b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th amendment Act, 1992).”
Incorrect
Article 54 of the constitution says: “The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of:
(a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and
(b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th amendment Act, 1992).”
Unattempted
Article 54 of the constitution says: “The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of:
(a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and
(b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th amendment Act, 1992).”
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
2 points
With reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements:
(1) He has a right to take part in the proceedings of the committees of the Parliament.
(2) He is debarred from private legal practice, since he is a full time counsel for the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect : Attorney general of India has the right to speak and to take part in proceedings of both the houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without right to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Attorney general of India is not debarred from private legal practiice and is not a full time counsel for government of India.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : Attorney general of India has the right to speak and to take part in proceedings of both the houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without right to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Attorney general of India is not debarred from private legal practiice and is not a full time counsel for government of India.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect : Attorney general of India has the right to speak and to take part in proceedings of both the houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without right to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Attorney general of India is not debarred from private legal practiice and is not a full time counsel for government of India.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
2 points
With reference to the power of judicial review of high courts, consider the following statements:
(1) High court can review the laws enacted by state legislatures only and not the ones enacted by the Centre.
(2) High court can not interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed by the government, as Supreme Court is the sole interpreter of Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian judiciary is an integrated judiciary with High courts and Supreme Court as higher branch which are vested with power to secure constitutionalism in our country. Supreme Court and even High courts as well can review any legislative enactment and executive order of state and central government both.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 13 and 226 require the High courts to look into the constitutionality of acts and orders passed by government. Hence even high courts can interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed government.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian judiciary is an integrated judiciary with High courts and Supreme Court as higher branch which are vested with power to secure constitutionalism in our country. Supreme Court and even High courts as well can review any legislative enactment and executive order of state and central government both.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 13 and 226 require the High courts to look into the constitutionality of acts and orders passed by government. Hence even high courts can interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed government.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian judiciary is an integrated judiciary with High courts and Supreme Court as higher branch which are vested with power to secure constitutionalism in our country. Supreme Court and even High courts as well can review any legislative enactment and executive order of state and central government both.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 13 and 226 require the High courts to look into the constitutionality of acts and orders passed by government. Hence even high courts can interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed government.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.
(2) Disputes related to the elections of the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the House of the People is determined by an election petition before the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
-
-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.
There is no special provision for the Prime Minister or the Speaker of the House, so that any dispute relating to election to these offices is to be determined only by an election petition before the High Court, according to Art.329 (b). So statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.
There is no special provision for the Prime Minister or the Speaker of the House, so that any dispute relating to election to these offices is to be determined only by an election petition before the High Court, according to Art.329 (b). So statement 2 is incorrect.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.
There is no special provision for the Prime Minister or the Speaker of the House, so that any dispute relating to election to these offices is to be determined only by an election petition before the High Court, according to Art.329 (b). So statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
2 points
With reference to the provisions of the Panchayats(Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, consider the following statements:
(1) In the Scheduled areas, atleast one-half of the seats in every panchayat are reserved for members of the scheduled tribes.
(2) The Gram Sabha shall be responsible for the coordination of planning and implementation of development projects in the scheduled areas involving acquisition of land.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. In the scheduled areas, atleast one-half of the seats in every panchayat are reserved for members of the scheduled tribes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gram Sabha or appropriate Panchayat shall be consulted before acquisition of land for development projects as well as rehabilitation and resettlement of affected persons in the Scheduled areas. The actual planning and cooridanation of projects shall be conducted at the state level.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In the scheduled areas, atleast one-half of the seats in every panchayat are reserved for members of the scheduled tribes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gram Sabha or appropriate Panchayat shall be consulted before acquisition of land for development projects as well as rehabilitation and resettlement of affected persons in the Scheduled areas. The actual planning and cooridanation of projects shall be conducted at the state level.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. In the scheduled areas, atleast one-half of the seats in every panchayat are reserved for members of the scheduled tribes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gram Sabha or appropriate Panchayat shall be consulted before acquisition of land for development projects as well as rehabilitation and resettlement of affected persons in the Scheduled areas. The actual planning and cooridanation of projects shall be conducted at the state level.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
2 points
With reference to the Advocate General of State, consider the following statements:
(1) He is appointed by the Governor but removed by the President.
(2) His term is not fixed under the Constitution.
(3) His remuneration is determined by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) None
-
-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Advocate General of State is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : The Term of Advocate General of State is not Fixed under Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect : He receives such remuneration as determined by the Governor of a State.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Advocate General of State is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : The Term of Advocate General of State is not Fixed under Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect : He receives such remuneration as determined by the Governor of a State.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Advocate General of State is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : The Term of Advocate General of State is not Fixed under Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect : He receives such remuneration as determined by the Governor of a State.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
2 points
The fundamental objectives of a social audit are to ensure which of the following?
(1) Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.
(2) Creating awareness among beneficiaries of services.
(3) Capacity building of the poor and the marginalized.
(4) Increasing the efficacy and efficiency of local development programmes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only
-
-
-
-
Correct
Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below (the list is not exhaustive).
Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.
Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.
Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.
Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of rural poor.
Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services. Hence statement 3 is incorrect as capacity building of the poor and marginalized is not a fundamental objective of social audit. All other statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Incorrect
Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below (the list is not exhaustive).
Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.
Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.
Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.
Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of rural poor.
Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services. Hence statement 3 is incorrect as capacity building of the poor and marginalized is not a fundamental objective of social audit. All other statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Unattempted
Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below (the list is not exhaustive).
Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.
Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.
Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.
Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of rural poor.
Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services. Hence statement 3 is incorrect as capacity building of the poor and marginalized is not a fundamental objective of social audit. All other statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
2 points
With reference to Central Council of Ministers, consider the following statements:
(1) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the President.
(2) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the House of the people.
(3) Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister dissolves the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 only
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect : Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha and individually responsible to President.
President can dismiss Ministers individually on PM”s advice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is correct: Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the Council of Ministers.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha and individually responsible to President.
President can dismiss Ministers individually on PM”s advice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is correct: Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the Council of Ministers.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect : Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha and individually responsible to President.
President can dismiss Ministers individually on PM”s advice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is correct: Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the Council of Ministers.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
2 points
The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is/are examined by which of the following committees?
(1) Public Accounts Committees
(2) Committee on Public Undertakings
(3) Estimates Committees
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
-
-
-
-
Correct
The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committees (PACs) and Committees on Public Undertakings (COPUs).
Incorrect
The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committees (PACs) and Committees on Public Undertakings (COPUs).
Unattempted
The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committees (PACs) and Committees on Public Undertakings (COPUs).
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
2 points
As per the directions given by the Supreme Court in S. R. Bommai case, which of the following situations is/are not considered as ground/s for proclamation of President”s rule in a state?
(1) A situation of maladministration in a state persists where duly constituted ministry enjoys support of the assembly.
(2) In case of serious allegations of corruption against the ministry of the state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
-
-
-
-
Correct
In S.R. Bommai case Supreme court endorsed Sarkaria Commission”s report finding and approved some of the situations which did not amount to “failure of constitutional machinery.” Among them, the following two included
(1) A situation of maladministration in a State where a duly constituted ministry enjoys the support of the Assembly.
(2)This power cannot be invoked, merely on the ground that there are serious allegations of corruption against the Ministry.
Incorrect
In S.R. Bommai case Supreme court endorsed Sarkaria Commission”s report finding and approved some of the situations which did not amount to “failure of constitutional machinery.” Among them, the following two included
(1) A situation of maladministration in a State where a duly constituted ministry enjoys the support of the Assembly.
(2)This power cannot be invoked, merely on the ground that there are serious allegations of corruption against the Ministry.
Unattempted
In S.R. Bommai case Supreme court endorsed Sarkaria Commission”s report finding and approved some of the situations which did not amount to “failure of constitutional machinery.” Among them, the following two included
(1) A situation of maladministration in a State where a duly constituted ministry enjoys the support of the Assembly.
(2)This power cannot be invoked, merely on the ground that there are serious allegations of corruption against the Ministry.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding difference between Article 323 A and 323 B:
(1) Tribunals under Article 323A can be established by both parliament and state legislature
(2) Tribunals under Article 323B can only be established by parliament.
(3) There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None
-
-
-
-
Correct
Tribunals under Article 323A can only be established by parliament while Tribunals under Article 323B can be established by both parliament and state legislature. So statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be created. So statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Tribunals under Article 323A can only be established by parliament while Tribunals under Article 323B can be established by both parliament and state legislature. So statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be created. So statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
Tribunals under Article 323A can only be established by parliament while Tribunals under Article 323B can be established by both parliament and state legislature. So statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be created. So statement 3 is correct.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
2 points
With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy, which of the following were added by an amendment to the Constitution of India?
(1) To make provisions for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief
(2) To prohibit slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and drought cattle
(3) To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas.
(4) To secure opportunities for healthy development of children
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
-
-
-
-
Correct
This was added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 along with three other DPSPs to the original list. The others were part of the original Constitution.
Incorrect
This was added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 along with three other DPSPs to the original list. The others were part of the original Constitution.
Unattempted
This was added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 along with three other DPSPs to the original list. The others were part of the original Constitution.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
2 points
In the electoral process in India “The model code of conduct” comes in force from:
(A) The first day for filling the nominations by candidates
(B) Day on which the dates for elections are announced by Election Commission
(C) The last day for filing the nominations by candidates.
(D) 48 hours before the polling begins in the first phase of election.
-
-
-
-
Correct
In general election to the House of the People, the President call upon the parliamentary constituencies to elect members for the purpose of constituting a new House through notifications published in the Gazette of India on such date or dates as may be recommended by the Election Commission, The model code of conduct comes into force from this instant.
Same is applicable in Vidhan sabha elctions.
Incorrect
In general election to the House of the People, the President call upon the parliamentary constituencies to elect members for the purpose of constituting a new House through notifications published in the Gazette of India on such date or dates as may be recommended by the Election Commission, The model code of conduct comes into force from this instant.
Same is applicable in Vidhan sabha elctions.
Unattempted
In general election to the House of the People, the President call upon the parliamentary constituencies to elect members for the purpose of constituting a new House through notifications published in the Gazette of India on such date or dates as may be recommended by the Election Commission, The model code of conduct comes into force from this instant.
Same is applicable in Vidhan sabha elctions.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency.
(1) It can be proclaimed on grounds of “internal disturbance”.
(2) Fundamental Rights under Article 19 get automatically suspended in case of emergency.
(3) It is only on the written advice of the Council of Ministers that the President of India can proclaim emergency.
Select the correct statement using the codes given below.
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
-
-
-
-
Correct
The six fundamental rights under article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression and not on the ground of armed rebellion. Written advice of Cabinet is required, not the full council of ministers. In fact Article 352 (3) is the only Article in the Constitution that uses the word Cabinet.
Incorrect
The six fundamental rights under article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression and not on the ground of armed rebellion. Written advice of Cabinet is required, not the full council of ministers. In fact Article 352 (3) is the only Article in the Constitution that uses the word Cabinet.
Unattempted
The six fundamental rights under article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression and not on the ground of armed rebellion. Written advice of Cabinet is required, not the full council of ministers. In fact Article 352 (3) is the only Article in the Constitution that uses the word Cabinet.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
2 points
With reference to Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:
(1) Its establishment can be traced to the Government of India Act, 1919.
(2) The Constitution does not specify the strength of the Commission.
(3) The members of UPSC hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
-
-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: The Central Public Service Commission came into being in 1926 as per the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.
Statement 2 is correct: As far as the strength of the Commission is concerned, it is left to the President to decide upon this.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed before the expiry of their term by the president in the manner as provided in the Constitution.
The President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
(a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
(b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
(c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour.
However, in this case, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the President can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: The Central Public Service Commission came into being in 1926 as per the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.
Statement 2 is correct: As far as the strength of the Commission is concerned, it is left to the President to decide upon this.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed before the expiry of their term by the president in the manner as provided in the Constitution.
The President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
(a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
(b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
(c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour.
However, in this case, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the President can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: The Central Public Service Commission came into being in 1926 as per the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.
Statement 2 is correct: As far as the strength of the Commission is concerned, it is left to the President to decide upon this.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed before the expiry of their term by the president in the manner as provided in the Constitution.
The President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
(a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
(b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
(c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour.
However, in this case, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the President can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding the fundamental duties.
(1) Fundamental duties are covered under Art. 51 of Constitution
(2) There are total of 10 fundamental duties in the Constitution.
(3) Fundamental duties have been added to the Constitution on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee.
(4) Voting in elections is a fundamental duty of every Indian citizen.
Select the correct statement using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
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-
-
-
Correct
This is an easy and simple question. Fundamental Duties have been asked in both Prelims and Mains and candidates are expected to know these. Fundamental duties are covered under Art. 51A of Constitution. There are a total of 11 fundamental duties in the Constitution, with the duty for parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward, as the case may be, between the age of six and fourteen years added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Fundamental duties have been added to the Constitution on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee. Voting in elections is a fundamental duty of every Indian citizen.
Incorrect
This is an easy and simple question. Fundamental Duties have been asked in both Prelims and Mains and candidates are expected to know these. Fundamental duties are covered under Art. 51A of Constitution. There are a total of 11 fundamental duties in the Constitution, with the duty for parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward, as the case may be, between the age of six and fourteen years added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Fundamental duties have been added to the Constitution on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee. Voting in elections is a fundamental duty of every Indian citizen.
Unattempted
This is an easy and simple question. Fundamental Duties have been asked in both Prelims and Mains and candidates are expected to know these. Fundamental duties are covered under Art. 51A of Constitution. There are a total of 11 fundamental duties in the Constitution, with the duty for parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward, as the case may be, between the age of six and fourteen years added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Fundamental duties have been added to the Constitution on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee. Voting in elections is a fundamental duty of every Indian citizen.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
2 points
With reference to Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), consider the following statements:
(1) He submits all its reports to the President.
(2) He compiles and maintains the accounts of the state governments.
(3) Governor of a state can request CAG to audit local bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the CAG submits three audit reports to the President i.e. Audit report on Appropriation accounts, audit report on Finance accounts and audit report on Public Undertakings, the audit reports relating to the accounts of state are submitted to the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments, however in 1976, CAG was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of accounts of Central Government.
Statement 3 is correct: He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor e.g. audit of local bodies on the request of Governor.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the CAG submits three audit reports to the President i.e. Audit report on Appropriation accounts, audit report on Finance accounts and audit report on Public Undertakings, the audit reports relating to the accounts of state are submitted to the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments, however in 1976, CAG was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of accounts of Central Government.
Statement 3 is correct: He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor e.g. audit of local bodies on the request of Governor.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the CAG submits three audit reports to the President i.e. Audit report on Appropriation accounts, audit report on Finance accounts and audit report on Public Undertakings, the audit reports relating to the accounts of state are submitted to the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments, however in 1976, CAG was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of accounts of Central Government.
Statement 3 is correct: He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor e.g. audit of local bodies on the request of Governor.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding the special powers of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(1) Presiding over a joint sitting of the Parliament.
(2) Appointment of chairman to the primary committees.
(3) Allowing adjournment motion in the House.
Select the INCORRECT statement using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) None of the above.
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-
-
-
Correct
All statements are correct.
The Speaker is the guardian of the rights and privileges of the House, its Committees and members.
Incorrect
All statements are correct.
The Speaker is the guardian of the rights and privileges of the House, its Committees and members.
Unattempted
All statements are correct.
The Speaker is the guardian of the rights and privileges of the House, its Committees and members.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
2 points
E-Governance” involves the use Information and Communication Technology (ICT) by the Government for which of the following purpose/s?
(1) Exchange of information with citizens and government departments only.
(2) Restructuring of administrative processes.
(3) Speedier and more efficient delivery of public services.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
E- Governance involve the use of ICTs by government agencies for any or all of the following reasons:
(a) Exchange of information with citizens, businesses or other government departments
(b) Speedier and more efficient delivery of public services
(c) Improving internal efficiency
(d) Reducing costs / increasing revenue
(e) Re-structuring of administrative processes and
(f) Improving quality of services. Hence, all statements are correct.
Hence Statement 1 is wrong. The exchange of information is not limited to citizens and government depatments, business groups are also involved in the use of ICT for E-governance.
Incorrect
E- Governance involve the use of ICTs by government agencies for any or all of the following reasons:
(a) Exchange of information with citizens, businesses or other government departments
(b) Speedier and more efficient delivery of public services
(c) Improving internal efficiency
(d) Reducing costs / increasing revenue
(e) Re-structuring of administrative processes and
(f) Improving quality of services. Hence, all statements are correct.
Hence Statement 1 is wrong. The exchange of information is not limited to citizens and government depatments, business groups are also involved in the use of ICT for E-governance.
Unattempted
E- Governance involve the use of ICTs by government agencies for any or all of the following reasons:
(a) Exchange of information with citizens, businesses or other government departments
(b) Speedier and more efficient delivery of public services
(c) Improving internal efficiency
(d) Reducing costs / increasing revenue
(e) Re-structuring of administrative processes and
(f) Improving quality of services. Hence, all statements are correct.
Hence Statement 1 is wrong. The exchange of information is not limited to citizens and government depatments, business groups are also involved in the use of ICT for E-governance.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
2 points
Which of the following criteria would change a registered party into National Party?
(1) Securing 4% of votes polled in four or more states, and it should have 4 MPs in Lok Sabha.
(2) Securing 6% of votes polled in a state and winning at least 2 seats in the Legislative Assembly.
(3) At least 9 MPs in Lok Sabha and these MPs are elected from at least 3 different states.
Select the correct statement using the codes given below.
(A) 1 Only
(B) 1 and 3 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None of the above
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 2 is a criteria to be a State Party, not a National Party. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is also incorrect as Securing 6% of votes polled in four or more states changes Party into National Party.
Statement 3 is also incorrect as at least 11 MPs in Lok Sabha required across 3 different states to become a national Party.
As per Election Commission, Criteria is as follow:
A political party shall be eligible to be recognised as a National Party if :-
(i) it secures at least six percent(6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
(ii) in addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
OR
It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
A political party shall be entitled to be recognised as a State Party , if:-
(i) it secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election, either to the House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned; and
(ii) In addition, it wins at least two seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned.
OR
It wins at least three percent (3%) of the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State, or at least three seats in the Assembly, whichever is more.
Incorrect
Statement 2 is a criteria to be a State Party, not a National Party. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is also incorrect as Securing 6% of votes polled in four or more states changes Party into National Party.
Statement 3 is also incorrect as at least 11 MPs in Lok Sabha required across 3 different states to become a national Party.
As per Election Commission, Criteria is as follow:
A political party shall be eligible to be recognised as a National Party if :-
(i) it secures at least six percent(6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
(ii) in addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
OR
It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
A political party shall be entitled to be recognised as a State Party , if:-
(i) it secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election, either to the House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned; and
(ii) In addition, it wins at least two seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned.
OR
It wins at least three percent (3%) of the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State, or at least three seats in the Assembly, whichever is more.
Unattempted
Statement 2 is a criteria to be a State Party, not a National Party. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is also incorrect as Securing 6% of votes polled in four or more states changes Party into National Party.
Statement 3 is also incorrect as at least 11 MPs in Lok Sabha required across 3 different states to become a national Party.
As per Election Commission, Criteria is as follow:
A political party shall be eligible to be recognised as a National Party if :-
(i) it secures at least six percent(6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
(ii) in addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
OR
It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
A political party shall be entitled to be recognised as a State Party , if:-
(i) it secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election, either to the House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned; and
(ii) In addition, it wins at least two seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned.
OR
It wins at least three percent (3%) of the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State, or at least three seats in the Assembly, whichever is more.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
2 points
With reference to the provisions of Citizenship under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
(1) The Constitution enumerates the provisions related to acquisition and loss of citizenship subsequent to the commencement of the Constitution.
(2) Parliament is empowered to enact laws to provide for matters related to citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. It only identitfies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
Incorrect
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. It only identitfies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
Unattempted
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. It only identitfies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
2 points
With reference to Law Commission of India, consider the following statements:
(1) The Law Commission of India is a statutory advisory body.
(2) It is established by an order of the Central Government every 5 years.
(3) Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws.
(4) Its recommendations are not binding on the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 Only
(C) 3 and 4 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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-
-
-
Correct
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body, hence statement 1 is wrong.
It is established by an order of the Central Government from time to time for a fixed tenure. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Therefore option C is correct.
Incorrect
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body, hence statement 1 is wrong.
It is established by an order of the Central Government from time to time for a fixed tenure. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Therefore option C is correct.
Unattempted
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body, hence statement 1 is wrong.
It is established by an order of the Central Government from time to time for a fixed tenure. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Therefore option C is correct.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
2 points
Which of the above is/are the features of the federal system?
(1) Pooling of resources to provide maximum benefit to the people.
(2) Supreme Court to arbitrate any disputes between the Union and the States.
(3) All powers are vested with the Central Legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) None of the above
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-
-
-
Correct
Under federal system there is an independent Supreme Court as the arbiter of the disputes between the union and the units. The federal system is also believed to bring a sense of unity among the people having diverse cultures, languages and territories. Whereas, under unitary system all powers are vested with the central legislature. Statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, statements 1st and 2nd are correct.
Incorrect
Under federal system there is an independent Supreme Court as the arbiter of the disputes between the union and the units. The federal system is also believed to bring a sense of unity among the people having diverse cultures, languages and territories. Whereas, under unitary system all powers are vested with the central legislature. Statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, statements 1st and 2nd are correct.
Unattempted
Under federal system there is an independent Supreme Court as the arbiter of the disputes between the union and the units. The federal system is also believed to bring a sense of unity among the people having diverse cultures, languages and territories. Whereas, under unitary system all powers are vested with the central legislature. Statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, statements 1st and 2nd are correct.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
2 points
In which of the following cases was the principle of “Basic Structure Doctrine” used by the Supreme Court to strike down the provisions of Constitutional Amendment Acts?
(1) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
(2) Minerva Mills vs Union of India
(3) Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record – Association and another vs Union of India, 2015
(4) Golaknath vs State of Punjab
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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-
-
-
Correct
The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1971 and laid down the principle of Basic structure. According to the Basic Structure doctrine, Parlimament can amend any part of the Constitution however formed the basis of power of the Indian judiciary to review, and strike down, amendments seek to alter this principle. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court unanimously ruled that the power of the Parliament of India to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution. The ruling struck down few sections of the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act.
Recently, in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record -Association and another v. Union of India case, Supreme Court struck down 99th constitutional amendement which proposed the formation of NJAC for selection and transfer of judges in SC and High courts. Golaknath vs State of Punjab, 1967 was before the basic structure doctrine. In this case the SC opined that fundamental rights can not be amended. After this judgement, the parliament enacted 24th amendemnt which provided that nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the constitution under Article 368.
Incorrect
The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1971 and laid down the principle of Basic structure. According to the Basic Structure doctrine, Parlimament can amend any part of the Constitution however formed the basis of power of the Indian judiciary to review, and strike down, amendments seek to alter this principle. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court unanimously ruled that the power of the Parliament of India to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution. The ruling struck down few sections of the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act.
Recently, in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record -Association and another v. Union of India case, Supreme Court struck down 99th constitutional amendement which proposed the formation of NJAC for selection and transfer of judges in SC and High courts. Golaknath vs State of Punjab, 1967 was before the basic structure doctrine. In this case the SC opined that fundamental rights can not be amended. After this judgement, the parliament enacted 24th amendemnt which provided that nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the constitution under Article 368.
Unattempted
The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1971 and laid down the principle of Basic structure. According to the Basic Structure doctrine, Parlimament can amend any part of the Constitution however formed the basis of power of the Indian judiciary to review, and strike down, amendments seek to alter this principle. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court unanimously ruled that the power of the Parliament of India to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution. The ruling struck down few sections of the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act.
Recently, in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record -Association and another v. Union of India case, Supreme Court struck down 99th constitutional amendement which proposed the formation of NJAC for selection and transfer of judges in SC and High courts. Golaknath vs State of Punjab, 1967 was before the basic structure doctrine. In this case the SC opined that fundamental rights can not be amended. After this judgement, the parliament enacted 24th amendemnt which provided that nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the constitution under Article 368.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
2 points
With reference to the service voters in India consider the following statements.
(1) A “service voter” can get enrolled at his native place even though he actually may be residing at a different place of posting.
(2) Service voter belonging to Armed Forces can vote through postal ballot or through a proxy voter duly appointed by him.
(3) Only Armed Forces / Para Military Forces are eligible to be enrolled as service voters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
While an ordinary elector is registered in the electoral roll of the constituency in which his place of ordinary residence is located, person having service qualification can get enrolled as “service voter” at his native place even though he actually may be residing at a different place (of posting). Thus statement 1 is correct.
Service voter belonging to Armed Forces or forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 are applicable, has Option of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy.
voter duly appointed by him. Thus statement 2 is also correct.
Service Voter means any person who is required to give his vote by postal ballot under clause (a) of section 60, i.e.
(a) members of the armed forces of the Union,
(b) members of a force to which the provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950) have been made applicable whether with or without modifications,
(c) members of the armed police force of a State who are serving outside that State,
(d) persons who are employed under the Government of India in a post outside India (e.g. Ambassadors and High Commissioner, of India abroad, their staff etc. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence “a” is the right answer.
Incorrect
While an ordinary elector is registered in the electoral roll of the constituency in which his place of ordinary residence is located, person having service qualification can get enrolled as “service voter” at his native place even though he actually may be residing at a different place (of posting). Thus statement 1 is correct.
Service voter belonging to Armed Forces or forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 are applicable, has Option of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy.
voter duly appointed by him. Thus statement 2 is also correct.
Service Voter means any person who is required to give his vote by postal ballot under clause (a) of section 60, i.e.
(a) members of the armed forces of the Union,
(b) members of a force to which the provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950) have been made applicable whether with or without modifications,
(c) members of the armed police force of a State who are serving outside that State,
(d) persons who are employed under the Government of India in a post outside India (e.g. Ambassadors and High Commissioner, of India abroad, their staff etc. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence “A” is the right answer.
Unattempted
While an ordinary elector is registered in the electoral roll of the constituency in which his place of ordinary residence is located, person having service qualification can get enrolled as “service voter” at his native place even though he actually may be residing at a different place (of posting). Thus statement 1 is correct.
Service voter belonging to Armed Forces or forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 are applicable, has Option of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy.
voter duly appointed by him. Thus statement 2 is also correct.
Service Voter means any person who is required to give his vote by postal ballot under clause (a) of section 60, i.e.
(a) members of the armed forces of the Union,
(b) members of a force to which the provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950) have been made applicable whether with or without modifications,
(c) members of the armed police force of a State who are serving outside that State,
(d) persons who are employed under the Government of India in a post outside India (e.g. Ambassadors and High Commissioner, of India abroad, their staff etc. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence “A” is the right answer.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with reference to “Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression” under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution:
(1) The Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property was originally a right guaranteed by Article 19.
(2) Rights guaranteed by Article 19 are protected against only state and not against private individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
All sattements are correct.
Other facts : Freedom of speech and expression through the medium of internet is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
The restrictions on internet have to follow the principles of proportionality under Article 19(2).
Freedom of trade and commerce through internet is also a constitutionally protected right under Article 19(1)(g).
Incorrect
All sattements are correct.
Other facts : Freedom of speech and expression through the medium of internet is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
The restrictions on internet have to follow the principles of proportionality under Article 19(2).
Freedom of trade and commerce through internet is also a constitutionally protected right under Article 19(1)(g).
Unattempted
All sattements are correct.
Other facts : Freedom of speech and expression through the medium of internet is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
The restrictions on internet have to follow the principles of proportionality under Article 19(2).
Freedom of trade and commerce through internet is also a constitutionally protected right under Article 19(1)(g).
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
2 points
Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy are based on Gandhian Principles?
(1) To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code. (Art 44)
(2) To promote the educational and economical interests of weaker sections in society .( Art 46)
(3) To Protect and improve the environment. (Art. 48A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
Directive principles have been classified under Socialistic Principles, Gandhian Principles and Liberal-Intellectual Principles.
Article 44 as well as Article 48 A falls under Liberal-Intellectual Principles.
Incorrect
Directive principles have been classified under Socialistic Principles, Gandhian Principles and Liberal-Intellectual Principles.
Article 44 as well as Article 48 A falls under Liberal-Intellectual Principles.
Unattempted
Directive principles have been classified under Socialistic Principles, Gandhian Principles and Liberal-Intellectual Principles.
Article 44 as well as Article 48 A falls under Liberal-Intellectual Principles.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
2 points
Which of the following statements is/are true in context of Co-operative societies?
(1) Part IX-B of the constitution deal with Co-operative Societies.
(2) Co-operative societies in constitution are mentioned in Directives Principles of State Policy.
(3) Right to form a cooperative is a fundamental Right under the constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
-
-
-
-
Correct
A19(1)(c). All citizens shall have the right to form associations or unions or co-operative socities and Article43 (DPSP) states that he State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.Part IXB of the constitution deal with Co-operative Societies.
Incorrect
A19(1)(c). All citizens shall have the right to form associations or unions or co-operative socities and Article43 (DPSP) states that he State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.Part IXB of the constitution deal with Co-operative Societies.
Unattempted
A19(1)(c). All citizens shall have the right to form associations or unions or co-operative socities and Article43 (DPSP) states that he State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.Part IXB of the constitution deal with Co-operative Societies.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Suits Against Public Officials:
(1) No civil proceedings can be started against President and Governors during their term of office in respect of their personal Act.
(2) The constitution grants immunity to the ministers for their official Acts.
(3) The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) None
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Correct
No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and the governors in respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. However, ivil proceedings can be started against President and Governors during their term of office in respect of their personal Act by giving 2 months advance notice. so statement 1 is incorrect.
The constitution does not grants any immunity to the ministers for their official Acts. so statement 2 is incorrect.
The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot be sued. The Judicial Officers Protection Act (1850) lays down that, “no judge, magistrate, justice of peace, collector or other person acting judicially shall be liable to be sued in any civil court for any act done by him in the discharge ofhis official duty”. Statement 3 in correct. Hence, “A” is the right answer.
Incorrect
No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and the governors in respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. However, ivil proceedings can be started against President and Governors during their term of office in respect of their personal Act by giving 2 months advance notice. so statement 1 is incorrect.
The constitution does not grants any immunity to the ministers for their official Acts. so statement 2 is incorrect.
The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot be sued. The Judicial Officers Protection Act (1850) lays down that, “no judge, magistrate, justice of peace, collector or other person acting judicially shall be liable to be sued in any civil court for any act done by him in the discharge ofhis official duty”. Statement 3 in correct. Hence, “A” is the right answer.
Unattempted
No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and the governors in respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. However, ivil proceedings can be started against President and Governors during their term of office in respect of their personal Act by giving 2 months advance notice. so statement 1 is incorrect.
The constitution does not grants any immunity to the ministers for their official Acts. so statement 2 is incorrect.
The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot be sued. The Judicial Officers Protection Act (1850) lays down that, “no judge, magistrate, justice of peace, collector or other person acting judicially shall be liable to be sued in any civil court for any act done by him in the discharge ofhis official duty”. Statement 3 in correct. Hence, “A” is the right answer.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
2 points
With reference to provisions related to Panchayats and Muncipalities in the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
(1) The act had specifically given powers to Provincial Legislatures to enact legislation related to Panchayats.
(2) The act also provided for vesting of powers related to criminal justice in Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct
Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct. In the Government of India Act, 1935, the power to enact legislation was specifically given to Provincial Legislature by Entry 12 in the Provincial Legislative List. By virtue of this power, new Acts were enacted by many other States vesting powers of administration, including criminal justice, in the hands of the Panchayats.
Incorrect
Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct. In the Government of India Act, 1935, the power to enact legislation was specifically given to Provincial Legislature by Entry 12 in the Provincial Legislative List. By virtue of this power, new Acts were enacted by many other States vesting powers of administration, including criminal justice, in the hands of the Panchayats.
Unattempted
Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct. In the Government of India Act, 1935, the power to enact legislation was specifically given to Provincial Legislature by Entry 12 in the Provincial Legislative List. By virtue of this power, new Acts were enacted by many other States vesting powers of administration, including criminal justice, in the hands of the Panchayats.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) The Constitution (86th) Amendment Act 2002, inserted Article 21A in the constitution.
(2) Under Article 21 A of the Constitution, free and compulsory education is a fundamental right of all the children between the age of six to fourteen years.
(3) Article 21 A and Right to Education Act 2009 can be enforced against unaided minority and non-minority schools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
Only statement 3 is wrong. As 86th constitution amendment was inserted in 2002 and RTE 2009 can not be enforced against unaided minority and non-minority schools.
Incorrect
Only statement 3 is wrong. As 86th constitution amendment was inserted in 2002 and RTE 2009 can not be enforced against unaided minority and non-minority schools.
Unattempted
Only statement 3 is wrong. As 86th constitution amendment was inserted in 2002 and RTE 2009 can not be enforced against unaided minority and non-minority schools.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
2 points
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Supreme Court”s directives for police reforms in India in the Prakash Singh case?
(1) To constitute a State Security Commission to ensure that there is no undue influence or pressure on the police.
(2) To create a Police Complaints Authority, at the state level, to look into grievances of all police officers.
(3) Separation of the investigation and law and order functions of the police.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
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-
-
-
Correct
The Supreme Court, in Prakash Singh case, directed the States and the Union Territories to comply with seven binding directives for police reforms in India.
Statement 1 is correct. It directed state governments to constitute a State Security Commission to ensure that there is no undue influence or pressure on the police.
Statement 2 is incorrect the states to create a Police Complaints Authority, at the state level, to look into complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Superintendent of Police.
Statement 3 is correct. It directed the separation of the investigation and law and order functions of the police.
Extra Facts:
Policing in India is governed by the archaic Indian Police Act, 1861 which was enacted in response to the revolt of 1857 in order to check any dissent against colonial rule.
In this context supreme court laid down seven directives to states and centre in Prakash Singh case related to police reforms:
1. Constitute a State Security Commission (SSC) in all states headed by state home minister, leader of opposition in assembly, MLAs from all major political parties and eminent member of civil society.
The SSC will:
Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence on the police.
Lay down broad policy guideline and evaluate the performance of the state police.
2. Ensure that the DGP is appointed through merit based transparent process and secure a minimum tenure of two years.
3. Ensure that other police officers on operational duties including Superintendents of Police and Station House Officers of a police station are provided a minimum tenure of two years.
4. Separate the investigation and law and order functions of the police as investigations are poorly mounted, slow, done by inadequately trained staff.
5. Set up a Police Establishment Board (PEB) to decide transfers, postings, promotions and other service related matters of police officers.
6. Set up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA) at state level to inquire into public complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct.
7. Set up a National Security Commission (NSC) at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of Chiefs of the Central Police Organisations (CPO) with a minimum tenure of two years.
Incorrect
The Supreme Court, in Prakash Singh case, directed the States and the Union Territories to comply with seven binding directives for police reforms in India.
Statement 1 is correct. It directed state governments to constitute a State Security Commission to ensure that there is no undue influence or pressure on the police.
Statement 2 is incorrect the states to create a Police Complaints Authority, at the state level, to look into complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Superintendent of Police.
Statement 3 is correct. It directed the separation of the investigation and law and order functions of the police.
Extra Information:
Policing in India is governed by the archaic Indian Police Act, 1861 which was enacted in response to the revolt of 1857 in order to check any dissent against colonial rule.
In this context supreme court laid down seven directives to states and centre in Prakash Singh case related to police reforms:
1. Constitute a State Security Commission (SSC) in all states headed by state home minister, leader of opposition in assembly, MLAs from all major political parties and eminent member of civil society.
The SSC will:
Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence on the police.
Lay down broad policy guideline and evaluate the performance of the state police.
2. Ensure that the DGP is appointed through merit based transparent process and secure a minimum tenure of two years.
3. Ensure that other police officers on operational duties including Superintendents of Police and Station House Officers of a police station are provided a minimum tenure of two years.
4. Separate the investigation and law and order functions of the police as investigations are poorly mounted, slow, done by inadequately trained staff.
5. Set up a Police Establishment Board (PEB) to decide transfers, postings, promotions and other service related matters of police officers.
6. Set up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA) at state level to inquire into public complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct.
7. Set up a National Security Commission (NSC) at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of Chiefs of the Central Police Organisations (CPO) with a minimum tenure of two years.
Unattempted
The Supreme Court, in Prakash Singh case, directed the States and the Union Territories to comply with seven binding directives for police reforms in India.
Statement 1 is correct. It directed state governments to constitute a State Security Commission to ensure that there is no undue influence or pressure on the police.
Statement 2 is incorrect the states to create a Police Complaints Authority, at the state level, to look into complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Superintendent of Police.
Statement 3 is correct. It directed the separation of the investigation and law and order functions of the police.
Extra Information:
Policing in India is governed by the archaic Indian Police Act, 1861 which was enacted in response to the revolt of 1857 in order to check any dissent against colonial rule.
In this context supreme court laid down seven directives to states and centre in Prakash Singh case related to police reforms:
1. Constitute a State Security Commission (SSC) in all states headed by state home minister, leader of opposition in assembly, MLAs from all major political parties and eminent member of civil society.
The SSC will:
Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence on the police.
Lay down broad policy guideline and evaluate the performance of the state police.
2. Ensure that the DGP is appointed through merit based transparent process and secure a minimum tenure of two years.
3. Ensure that other police officers on operational duties including Superintendents of Police and Station House Officers of a police station are provided a minimum tenure of two years.
4. Separate the investigation and law and order functions of the police as investigations are poorly mounted, slow, done by inadequately trained staff.
5. Set up a Police Establishment Board (PEB) to decide transfers, postings, promotions and other service related matters of police officers.
6. Set up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA) at state level to inquire into public complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct.
7. Set up a National Security Commission (NSC) at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of Chiefs of the Central Police Organisations (CPO) with a minimum tenure of two years.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
2 points
With reference to the recommendations National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) consider the following statements:
(1) It recommended that right to privacy should be added as a fundamental right.
(2) It recommended that control of population should be added as a directive principle.
(3) It recommended that voting during the elections should be made a fundamental duty for the citizens.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
NCRWC Recommendations: The following should be added as new Fundamental Rights:
(a) Right against torture, cruelty and inhuman treatment or punishment.
(b) Right to compensation if a person is illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty.
(c) Right to leave and to return to India.
(d) Right to privacy and family life.
(e) Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of 80 days in a year.
(f) Right to access to courts and tribunals and speedy justice.
(g) Right to equal justice and free legal aid 8.
(h) Right to care and assistance and protection (in case of children).
(i) Right to safe drinking water, prevention of pollution, conservation of ecology and sustainable development.
On Directive Principles
1. The heading of Part-IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as “Directive Principles of State Policy and Action”.
2. A new Directive Principle on control of population should be added.
3. An independent National Education Commission should be set-up every five years.
4. An Inter-Faith Commission should be established to promote inter-religious harmony and social solidarity.
5. There must be a body of high status to review the level of implementation of the Directive Principles.
6. A strategic Plan of Action should be initiated to create a large number of employment opportunities in five years.
7. Implementation of the recommendations contained in the Report of the National Statistical Commission (2001).
The following new fundamental duties should be included in Article 51-A:
(a) Duty to vote at elections, actively participate in the democratic process of governance and to pay taxes.
(b) To foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood in the matter of education, physical and moral well-being of children.
(c) Duty of industrial organizations to provide education to children of their employees.
Incorrect
NCRWC Recommendations: The following should be added as new Fundamental Rights:
(a) Right against torture, cruelty and inhuman treatment or punishment.
(b) Right to compensation ifa person is illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty.
(c) Right to leave and to return to India.
(d) Right to privacy and family life.
(e) Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of 80 days in a year.
(f) Right to access to courts and tribunals and speedy justice.
(g) Right to equal justice and free legal aid 8.
(h) Right to care and assistance and protection (in case of children).
(i) Right to safe drinking water, prevention of pollution, conservation of ecology and sustainable development.
On Directive Principles
1. The heading of Part-IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as “Directive Principles of State Policy and Action”.
2. A new Directive Principle on control of population should be added.
3. An independent National Education Commission should be set-up every five years.
4. An Inter-Faith Commission should be established to promote inter-religious harmony and social solidarity.
5. There must be a body of high status to review the level of implementation of the Directive Principles.
6. A strategic Plan of Action should be initiated to create a large number of employment opportunities in five years.
7. Implementation of the recommendations contained in the Report of the National Statistical Commission (2001).
The following new fundamental duties should be included in Article 51-A:
(a) Duty to vote at elections, actively participate in the democratic process of governance and to pay taxes.
(b) To foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood in the matter of education, physical and moral well-being of children.
(c) Duty of industrial organizations to provide education to children of their employees.
Unattempted
NCRWC Recommendations: The following should be added as new Fundamental Rights:
(a) Right against torture, cruelty and inhuman treatment or punishment.
(b) Right to compensation ifa person is illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty.
(c) Right to leave and to return to India.
(d) Right to privacy and family life.
(e) Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of 80 days in a year.
(f) Right to access to courts and tribunals and speedy justice.
(g) Right to equal justice and free legal aid 8.
(h) Right to care and assistance and protection (in case of children).
(i) Right to safe drinking water, prevention of pollution, conservation of ecology and sustainable development.
On Directive Principles
1. The heading of Part-IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as “Directive Principles of State Policy and Action”.
2. A new Directive Principle on control of population should be added.
3. An independent National Education Commission should be set-up every five years.
4. An Inter-Faith Commission should be established to promote inter-religious harmony and social solidarity.
5. There must be a body of high status to review the level of implementation of the Directive Principles.
6. A strategic Plan of Action should be initiated to create a large number of employment opportunities in five years.
7. Implementation of the recommendations contained in the Report of the National Statistical Commission (2001).
The following new fundamental duties should be included in Article 51-A:
(a) Duty to vote at elections, actively participate in the democratic process of governance and to pay taxes.
(b) To foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood in the matter of education, physical and moral well-being of children.
(c) Duty of industrial organizations to provide education to children of their employees.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
2 points
With reference to office of Lieutenant Governor, consider the following statements
(1) Lieutenant Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly
(2) The Lieutenant Governor can promulgate ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended.
Choose the correct codes from the options given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None
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-
Correct
LT. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An ordinance has same force as an act of the assembly. Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time.
He cannot also promulgate ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended . Further no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
Incorrect
LT. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An ordinance has same force as an act of the assembly. Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time.
He cannot also promulgate ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended . Further no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
Unattempted
LT. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An ordinance has same force as an act of the assembly. Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time.
He cannot also promulgate ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended . Further no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding the Constitutional provisions with respect to protection in respect of conviction for offences.
(1) A person can be prosecuted and punished simultaneously for the same offence by different Courts of Law.
(2) A person accused of an offence cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.
(3) Retrospective amendment to civil and criminal law can be made in extreme cases to punish an offender.
Select the incorrect statements using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
d) None of the above
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-
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-
Correct
Article 20 of Indian Constitution provides:
Article 20 (1) – Ex-Post facto laws : No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence.
Article 20 (2) – Double Jeopardy: No Person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Article 20 (3) – Protection against self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Retrospective amendment to civil laws can be made and have been made ( Vodafone case ), but cannot be done for Criminal offences.
Incorrect
Article 20 of Indian Constitution provides:
Article 20 (1) – Ex-Post facto laws : No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence.
Article 20 (2) – Double Jeopardy: No Person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Article 20 (3) – Protection against self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Retrospective amendment to civil laws can be made and have been made ( Vodafone case ), but cannot be done for Criminal offences.
Unattempted
Article 20 of Indian Constitution provides:
Article 20 (1) – Ex-Post facto laws : No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence.
Article 20 (2) – Double Jeopardy: No Person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Article 20 (3) – Protection against self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Retrospective amendment to civil laws can be made and have been made ( Vodafone case ), but cannot be done for Criminal offences.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
2 points
Consider the various features of the administration contained in Sixth schedule:
(1) Tribal areas in the four states Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.
(2) President is empowered to organize, re-organize, increase or decrease the areas of the autonomous districts.
(3) If there are different tribes in autonomous districts then President can divide the districts into several autonomous regions.
Choose the correct codes from the below options:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2,3 and 4 only
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-
-
-
Correct
· Tribal areas in the four states Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.
· Governor is empowered to organize , re-organize, increase or decrease the areas of the autonomous districts.
· If there are different tribes in autonomous districts then Governor can divide the districts into several autonomous regions.
Incorrect
· Tribal areas in the four states Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.
· Governor is empowered to organize , re-organize, increase or decrease the areas of the autonomous districts.
· If there are different tribes in autonomous districts then Governor can divide the districts into several autonomous regions.
Unattempted
· Tribal areas in the four states Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.
· Governor is empowered to organize , re-organize, increase or decrease the areas of the autonomous districts.
· If there are different tribes in autonomous districts then Governor can divide the districts into several autonomous regions.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
2 points
With reference to Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements:
(1) All Fundamental Rights are negative in nature, that is, they place limitations on the authority of the State.
(2) All Fundamental Rights are horizontal in nature, that is, they are available against the arbitrary action of the State and not against the action of private individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct
Most of the Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State”s action and against the action of private individuals. For example, Abolishing Untouchability. When the rights that are available against the State”s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons. For eample, Article 21A, Right to education. Hence, both statements are wrong.
Incorrect
Most of the Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State”s action and against the action of private individuals. For example, Abolishing Untouchability. When the rights that are available against the State”s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons. For eample, Article 21A, Right to education. Hence, both statements are wrong.
Unattempted
Most of the Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State”s action and against the action of private individuals. For example, Abolishing Untouchability. When the rights that are available against the State”s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons. For eample, Article 21A, Right to education. Hence, both statements are wrong.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
2 points
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the special powers of Rajya Sabha?
(A) It empowers Parliament to make a law even on a State subject.
(B) It approves resolutions for the continuation of emergency when the Lok Sabha is not in session due to its dissolution.
(C) It empowers Parliament to create an All India Service by passing a resolution by a majority of not less than 2/3rd of the total strength of the House.
(D) It initiates the removal of the Vice President.
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Correct
Option A is correct: As per the article 249, Rajya sabha can empower parliament to make law on state subjects.
Option B is correct: If a Proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation remains effective, if the resolution approving it is passed by Rajya Sabha within the period specified in the Constitution under articles 352, 356 and 360.
Option C is incorrect: It should be 2/3 of the members present and voting.
Option D is correct: Only Rajya sabha can initiate the removal of Vice-president as he will be acting as the chairman of Rajyasabha.
Incorrect
Option A is correct: As per the article 249, Rajya sabha can empower parliament to make law on state subjects.
Option B is correct: If a Proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation remains effective, if the resolution approving it is passed by Rajya Sabha within the period specified in the Constitution under articles 352, 356 and 360.
Option C is incorrect: It should be 2/3 of the members present and voting.
Option D is correct: Only Rajya sabha can initiate the removal of Vice-president as he will be acting as the chairman of Rajyasabha.
Unattempted
Option A is correct: As per the article 249, Rajya sabha can empower parliament to make law on state subjects.
Option B is correct: If a Proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation remains effective, if the resolution approving it is passed by Rajya Sabha within the period specified in the Constitution under articles 352, 356 and 360.
Option C is incorrect: It should be 2/3 of the members present and voting.
Option D is correct: Only Rajya sabha can initiate the removal of Vice-president as he will be acting as the chairman of Rajyasabha.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
2 points
With reference to Fundamental Duties as enshrined in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
(1) Supreme Court may take these duties in consideration to determine the Constitutionality of any law.
(2) Supreme Court has held that the duties are obligatory for the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct
Even though fundamental duties are not enforceable, it may be taken into consideration to determine the Constitutionality of any law. This is done in order to prevent reckless citizens against anti-social activities such as burning the Constitution, destroying public property etc. Thus, both statements are correct.
Incorrect
Even though fundamental duties are not enforceable, it may be taken into consideration to determine the Constitutionality of any law. This is done in order to prevent reckless citizens against anti-social activities such as burning the Constitution, destroying public property etc. Thus, both statements are correct.
Unattempted
Even though fundamental duties are not enforceable, it may be taken into consideration to determine the Constitutionality of any law. This is done in order to prevent reckless citizens against anti-social activities such as burning the Constitution, destroying public property etc. Thus, both statements are correct.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
2 points
With reference to the Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:
(1) The cases admitted under the Appellate Jurisdiction must involve the interpretation of the constitution.
(2) Supreme Court can grant Special Leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court in India except military tribunal and court martial.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes civil and criminal cases irrespective of any constitutional question.
Statement 2 is correct. The supreme court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court in India except military tribunal and court martial. However this is a discretionary power and cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes civil and criminal cases irrespective of any constitutional question.
Statement 2 is correct. The supreme court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court in India except military tribunal and court martial. However this is a discretionary power and cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect: The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes civil and criminal cases irrespective of any constitutional question.
Statement 2 is correct. The supreme court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court in India except military tribunal and court martial. However this is a discretionary power and cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
2 points
Assertion (A): Sitting during the National Anthem mean disrespect for the National Anthem under article 51-A.
Reason (R): It is a constitutional duty of every citizen under article 51-A to respect the ideals and institutions, the national flag and the national anthem.
(A) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A and R both are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
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Correct
Sitting during the national anthem doesn”t necessarily mean the disrespect to the national flag. It is the willful act to insult the flag will fall under disrespect category.
Incorrect
Sitting during the national anthem doesn”t necessarily mean the disrespect to the national flag. It is the willful act to insult the flag will fall under disrespect category.
Unattempted
Sitting during the national anthem doesn”t necessarily mean the disrespect to the national flag. It is the willful act to insult the flag will fall under disrespect category.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
2 points
With respect to executive powers of Governor, consider the following statements
(1) The Governor acts as the Chancellor of the Universities of the state and also appoints the Vice-Chancellor of the Universities of the state
(2) Governor has powers to appoint and remove state election commissioner
Choose the correct codes from the below given options:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) None
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Correct
Governor appoints state election commissioner, chairman and members of state public service commission.
Removal:
· State election commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the grounds as a judge of high court.
· Chairman and members of state public service commission are removed only by president and not by a governor.
Incorrect
Governor appoints state election commissioner, chairman and members of state public service commission.
Removal:
· State election commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the grounds as a judge of high court.
· Chairman and members of state public service commission are removed only by president and not by a governor.
Unattempted
Governor appoints state election commissioner, chairman and members of state public service commission.
Removal:
· State election commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the grounds as a judge of high court.
· Chairman and members of state public service commission are removed only by president and not by a governor.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
2 points
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the office of Governor?
(A) He should not hold any other office of profit.
(B) He is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by State Legislature.
(C) If same person is appointed as Governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by President of India.
(D) His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office.
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Correct
Article 158 states that -The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit:
The Governor shall be entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official residences and shall be also entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law.
Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the States in such proportion as the President may by order determine.
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Incorrect
Article 158 states that -The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit:
The Governor shall be entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official residences and shall be also entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law.
Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the States in such proportion as the President may by order determine.
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Unattempted
Article 158 states that -The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit:
The Governor shall be entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official residences and shall be also entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law.
Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the States in such proportion as the President may by order determine.
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) Governor appoints only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the chief minister
(2) Chief Minister can ask a minister to resign or advise the governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.
(3) Chief Minister acts as chairman of the concerned Zonal council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.
Choose the correct codes from the below options:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
Correct
Other facts :
Article 161 states that there would be a Chief Minister of the state appointed by the Governor.
The Chief Minister holds the post of the Chairman of the State Planning Board, Member of National Development Council, Chief Spokesperson of the State Government.
Article 163 states that there shall be a council of Ministers with the chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions.
Article 164 states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen per cent.
The salary of the Chief Minister is decided by the State Legislature and not the Governor.
Incorrect
Article 161 states that there would be a Chief Minister of the state appointed by the Governor.
The Chief Minister holds the post of the Chairman of the State Planning Board, Member of National Development Council, Chief Spokesperson of the State Government.
Article 163 states that there shall be a council of Ministers with the chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions.
Article 164 states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen per cent.
The salary of the Chief Minister is decided by the State Legislature and not the Governor.
Article 164 (3) – It mandates that Governor shall administer the oaths of office and secrecy to a minister, before a Minister enters upon his/her office. • Form of oath is mentioned in Third Schedule of constitution. • Schedule requires the oath-taker either to ―”swear in the name of God” or ―”solemnly affirm”.
Unattempted
Article 161 states that there would be a Chief Minister of the state appointed by the Governor.
The Chief Minister holds the post of the Chairman of the State Planning Board, Member of National Development Council, Chief Spokesperson of the State Government.
Article 163 states that there shall be a council of Ministers with the chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions.
Article 164 states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen per cent.
The salary of the Chief Minister is decided by the State Legislature and not the Governor.
Article 164 (3) – It mandates that Governor shall administer the oaths of office and secrecy to a minister, before a Minister enters upon his/her office. • Form of oath is mentioned in Third Schedule of constitution. • Schedule requires the oath-taker either to ―”swear in the name of God” or ―”solemnly affirm”.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) In a Parliamentary system, the executive leader is elected from the legislative branch directly.
(2) In case of differing opinions of the legislature and the executive, it is easier to enact legislation under the Presidential system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct
The major difference between these two systems is that the executive leader of the Parliamentary system is elected from the legislative branch directly. In the Presidential System, it is more difficult to enact legislation, especially in the event that the President has different views than the legislative body.
Incorrect
The major difference between these two systems is that the executive leader of the Parliamentary system is elected from the legislative branch directly. In the Presidential System, it is more difficult to enact legislation, especially in the event that the President has different views than the legislative body.
Unattempted
The major difference between these two systems is that the executive leader of the Parliamentary system is elected from the legislative branch directly. In the Presidential System, it is more difficult to enact legislation, especially in the event that the President has different views than the legislative body.
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
2 points
With reference to appointment of ad hoc judges in Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:
(1) There can be ad hoc judges for a temporary period due to lack of quorum of the permanent judges.
(2) The President can appoint an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
(3) The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
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Correct
Statement 1 is correct: When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, ad hoc judges may be appointed for a temporary period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, ad hoc judges may be appointed for a temporary period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, ad hoc judges may be appointed for a temporary period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) Cabinet as a word is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.
(2) Cabinet decisions are binding on all ministers and any minister disagrees with cabinet decisions then he/she may not resign
(3) Cabinet is the chief crisis manager as it deals with all emergency situation
Choose the correct codes from the below options:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) All of the above
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Correct
Cabinet:
· It is the highest decision making authority in the politico-administrative system of a state.
· Cabinet is the nucleus of the council of ministers.
· Cabinet is mentioned once under Article 352 which says, In order to ensure that a Proclamation is issued only after due consideration, it is sought to be provided that an Emergency can be proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered to the President by the Cabinet
· It deals with all major legislative and financial matters
· Cabinet is the chief crisis manager as it deals with all emergency situation.
· Principle of collective responsibility under article 164 also means that Cabinet decision is binding on all ministers (cabinet ministers and other ministers) and any minister disagrees with cabinet decisions then he must resign.
Incorrect
Cabinet:
· It is the highest decision making authority in the politico-administrative system of a state.
· Cabinet is the nucleus of the council of ministers.
· Cabinet is mentioned once under Article 352 which says, In order to ensure that a Proclamation is issued only after due consideration, it is sought to be provided that an Emergency can be proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered to the President by the Cabinet
· It deals with all major legislative and financial matters
· Cabinet is the chief crisis manager as it deals with all emergency situation.
· Principle of collective responsibility under article 164 also means that Cabinet decision is binding on all ministers (cabinet ministers and other ministers) and any minister disagrees with cabinet decisions then he must resign.
Unattempted
Cabinet:
· It is the highest decision making authority in the politico-administrative system of a state.
· Cabinet is the nucleus of the council of ministers.
· Cabinet is mentioned once under Article 352 which says, In order to ensure that a Proclamation is issued only after due consideration, it is sought to be provided that an Emergency can be proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered to the President by the Cabinet
· It deals with all major legislative and financial matters
· Cabinet is the chief crisis manager as it deals with all emergency situation.
· Principle of collective responsibility under article 164 also means that Cabinet decision is binding on all ministers (cabinet ministers and other ministers) and any minister disagrees with cabinet decisions then he must resign.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
2 points
With reference to national emergency under article 352 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
(1) The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act replaced the term “armed rebellion” with “internal disturbance” as one of the grounds for prolamation of national emergency.
(2) Prior to 44th Amendment Act, the proclamation needed to be passed by only a simple majority.
(3) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act granted special power to Rajya sabha to discontinue national emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
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Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act replaced word “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion”.
Statement 2 is correct. 44th constitutional amendment amended simple majority with special majority to pass such resolution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act gave special power to Lok sabha to initiate proceeding for discontinuation of the emergency.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act replaced word “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion”.
Statement 2 is correct. 44th constitutional amendment amended simple majority with special majority to pass such resolution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act gave special power to Lok sabha to initiate proceeding for discontinuation of the emergency.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act replaced word “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion”.
Statement 2 is correct. 44th constitutional amendment amended simple majority with special majority to pass such resolution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act gave special power to Lok sabha to initiate proceeding for discontinuation of the emergency.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
2 points
With regard to Readjustment of seats after every census, consider the following statements
(1) Readjustment of seats in assembly of each state is frozen up to year 2026.
(2) Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 1991 census.
(3) Parliament is empowered to determine the authority and the manner in which readjustment is to be made.
Choose the correct codes from the below options:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
· Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 1991 census as per 84 th amendment act but later 87 th amendment act 2003 provided for Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 2001 census and not 1991 census.
· 42 nd amendment act 1976 had frozen total number of seats in assembly of each state till year 2000 at 1971 level. This ban on readjustment has been extended for another 25 years by 84 th amendment act 2001 (till 2026) with the same objective of encouraging population limiting measures.
· Parliament is empowered to determine the authority and the manner in which readjustment is to be made.
Incorrect
· Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 1991 census as per 84 th amendment act but later 87 th amendment act 2003 provided for Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 2001 census and not 1991 census
· 42 nd amendment act 1976 had frozen total number of seats in assembly of each state till year 2000 at 1971 level. This ban on readjustment has been extended for another 25 years by 84 th amendment act 2001 (till 2026) with the same objective of encouraging population limiting measures.
· Parliament is empowered to determine the authority and the manner in which readjustment is to be made.
Unattempted
· Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 1991 census as per 84 th amendment act but later 87 th amendment act 2003 provided for Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 2001 census and not 1991 census
· 42 nd amendment act 1976 had frozen total number of seats in assembly of each state till year 2000 at 1971 level. This ban on readjustment has been extended for another 25 years by 84 th amendment act 2001 (till 2026) with the same objective of encouraging population limiting measures.
· Parliament is empowered to determine the authority and the manner in which readjustment is to be made.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
2 points
With reference to financial emergency, consider the following statements:
(1) A resolution approving the proclamation of Financial Emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament by a simple majority.
(2) Once approved, Financial Emergency continues for six months unless it is extended by the Parliament.
(3) Financial Emergency was declared during the balance of payments crisis of 1991.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
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Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament by a simple majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Financial emergency remains in force indefinitely until revoked. Parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Financial emergency has never been imposed in India till now.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament by a simple majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Financial emergency remains in force indefinitely until revoked. Parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Financial emergency has never been imposed in India till now.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament by a simple majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Financial emergency remains in force indefinitely until revoked. Parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Financial emergency has never been imposed in India till now.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
2 points
With reference to Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements:
(1) The members of PAC are elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(2) It examines the annual audit reports of the CAG.
(3) The committee examines public expenditures from legal point of view only but not from the point of view of economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
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Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The members of the committee are elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It consists of 22 members (15 from the LS and 7 from RS).
Statement 2 correct. PAC examines the audit reports of CAG.
Statement 3 is incorrect. PAC examines public expenditures not only from legal point of view but also from the point of view of economy.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The members of the committee are elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It consists of 22 members (15 from the LS and 7 from RS).
Statement 2 correct. PAC examines the audit reports of CAG.
Statement 3 is incorrect. PAC examines public expenditures not only from legal point of view but also from the point of view of economy.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. The members of the committee are elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It consists of 22 members (15 from the LS and 7 from RS).
Statement 2 correct. PAC examines the audit reports of CAG.
Statement 3 is incorrect. PAC examines public expenditures not only from legal point of view but also from the point of view of economy.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with reference to enactment of budget:
(1) Parliament can increase, reduce or abolish a tax.
(2) The term “budget” is not mentioned in the Constitution.
(3) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on demand for grants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
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Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect :The Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax, but cannot increase it.
Statement 2 is correct: The term “budget” is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Only Lok Sabha has the power to vote on demand for grants.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect :The Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax, but cannot increase it.
Statement 2 is correct: The term “budget” is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Only Lok Sabha has the power to vote on demand for grants.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect :The Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax, but cannot increase it.
Statement 2 is correct: The term “budget” is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Only Lok Sabha has the power to vote on demand for grants.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements related to Writ Jurisdiction
(1) Writ jurisdiction of High court is concurrent and wider compared to writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
(2) Writ jurisdiction of High court cannot be issued outside of its territorial jurisdiction.
(3) Writ jurisdiction of High court and Supreme Court form the part of basic structure of the Constitution.
Choose the correct codes from the below options:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
Writ jurisdiction of High Court V/s Supreme court:
· Concurrent: When the fundamental right of a citizen is violated , the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the High court or Supreme Court directly.
· Wider: Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for enforcement of ordinary legal right but High court can issue writs to enforce both Fundamental rights and Ordinary legal rights.
· Writ jurisdiction of High court can be issued to any person , authority and government outside of its territorial jurisdiction also.
· In Chandra Kumar case (1971 ) Supreme Court ruled that writ jurisdiction of both high court and Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Writ jurisdiction of High Court V/s Supreme court:
· Concurrent: When the fundamental right of a citizen is violated , the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the High court or Supreme Court directly.
· Wider: Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for enforcement of ordinary legal right but High court can issue writs to enforce both Fundamental rights and Ordinary legal rights.
· Writ jurisdiction of High court can be issued to any person , authority and government outside of its territorial jurisdiction also.
· In Chandra Kumar case (1971 ) Supreme Court ruled that writ jurisdiction of both high court and Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Unattempted
Writ jurisdiction of High Court V/s Supreme court:
· Concurrent: When the fundamental right of a citizen is violated , the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the High court or Supreme Court directly.
· Wider: Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for enforcement of ordinary legal right but High court can issue writs to enforce both Fundamental rights and Ordinary legal rights.
· Writ jurisdiction of High court can be issued to any person , authority and government outside of its territorial jurisdiction also.
· In Chandra Kumar case (1971 ) Supreme Court ruled that writ jurisdiction of both high court and Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
2 points
As per the Indian Constitution a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a Member of the Parliament under which of the following conditions?
(1) He is convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years.
(2) He is detained under preventive detention law.
(3) He is punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry and sati.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Representation of People Act (1951) a member of parliament must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As a person cannot be disqualified for being elected if he is detained under preventive detention law.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Representation of People Act (1951) a member of parliament must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As a person cannot be disqualified for being elected if he is detained under preventive detention law.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Representation of People Act (1951) a member of parliament must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As a person cannot be disqualified for being elected if he is detained under preventive detention law.
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with regard to Union Territories (UT)
(1) If President appoints governor of a particular state as administrator of adjoining Union territory then in that capacity governor is bound by advice of the council of ministers of that state.
(2) Parliament can make laws on any subject related to the three lists namely, Union, State and Concurrent List.
Choose the correct codes from options given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None
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-
Correct
If President appoints governor of a state as administrator of adjoining Union territory then in that capacity governor is not bound by advice of the council of minister of the state.
· Every union territory is administered by president acting through an administrator appointed by him. An administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor.
· The president can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant governor ( eg -Pondicherry) or chief commissioner ( eg -Chandigarh) or administrator ( eg -Lakshadweep ) .
· The president can also appoint the governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining union territory. In that capacity, the governor is to act independently of his council of minister( either state or UT) because an administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor
· Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists including state list for the Union territories and State Governments. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislature.
Incorrect
If President appoints governor of a state as administrator of adjoining Union territory then in that capacity governor is not bound by advice of the council of minister of the state.
· Every union territory is administered by president acting through an administrator appointed by him. An administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor.
· The president can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant governor ( eg -Pondicherry) or chief commissioner ( eg -Chandigarh) or administrator ( eg -Lakshadweep ).
· The president can also appoint the governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining union territory. In that capacity, the governor is to act independently of his council of minister( either state or UT) because an administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor
· Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists including state list for the Union territories and State Governments. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislature.
Unattempted
If President appoints governor of a state as administrator of adjoining Union territory then in that capacity governor is not bound by advice of the council of minister of the state.
· Every union territory is administered by president acting through an administrator appointed by him. An administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor.
· The president can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant governor ( eg -Pondicherry) or chief commissioner ( eg -Chandigarh) or administrator ( eg -Lakshadweep ).
· The president can also appoint the governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining union territory. In that capacity, the governor is to act independently of his council of minister( either state or UT) because an administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor
· Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists including state list for the Union territories and State Governments. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislature.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements about the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS):
(1) Under the MPLADS, each Member of the Parliament is allocated Rs. 5 crore per month,to be spent on the welfare projects of their choice in their constituency.
(2) The projects under the MPLADS are recommended to and implemented by the district-level administration.
(3) The MPLADS is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
Correct
MPLAD is a Central Sector Scheme. It was introduced in December 1993.
Under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), each Member of the Parliament (MP) is allocated Rs. 5 crore per year (in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore each.), to be spent on the welfare projects of their choice in their constituency.
The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Division is entrusted with the responsibility of the implementation of the MPLADS.
Under the Scheme, each MP has the choice to suggest to the District Collector for works to the tune of Rs.5 crore per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency.
The Rajya Sabha Member of the Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the state from where he/she has been elected.
The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha may select any one or more districts from any one state in the country for the implementation of their choice of work under the Scheme.
The Ministry has issued the guidelines on the MPLAD Scheme, including the implementation and monitoring of the Scheme.
The MPLADS is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Incorrect
MPLAD is a Central Sector Scheme. It was introduced in December 1993.
Under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), each Member of the Parliament (MP) is allocated Rs. 5 crore per year (in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore each.), to be spent on the welfare projects of their choice in their constituency.
The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Division is entrusted with the responsibility of the implementation of the MPLADS.
Under the Scheme, each MP has the choice to suggest to the District Collector for works to the tune of Rs.5 crore per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency.
The Rajya Sabha Member of the Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the state from where he/she has been elected.
The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha may select any one or more districts from any one state in the country for the implementation of their choice of work under the Scheme.
The Ministry has issued the guidelines on the MPLAD Scheme, including the implementation and monitoring of the Scheme.
The MPLADS is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Unattempted
MPLAD is a Central Sector Scheme. It was introduced in December 1993.
Under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), each Member of the Parliament (MP) is allocated Rs. 5 crore per year (in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore each.), to be spent on the welfare projects of their choice in their constituency.
The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Division is entrusted with the responsibility of the implementation of the MPLADS.
Under the Scheme, each MP has the choice to suggest to the District Collector for works to the tune of Rs.5 crore per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency.
The Rajya Sabha Member of the Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the state from where he/she has been elected.
The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha may select any one or more districts from any one state in the country for the implementation of their choice of work under the Scheme.
The Ministry has issued the guidelines on the MPLAD Scheme, including the implementation and monitoring of the Scheme.
The MPLADS is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) The theme of the World Heritage Day 2020 is “Shared Culture”, “Shared Heritage” and “Shared Responsibility”.
(2) The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) is an advisory body to the UNESCO for cultural heritage.
(3) The ICOMOS is headquartered in Rome, Italy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
The theme of the World Heritage Day 2020 is “Shared Culture”, “Shared Heritage” and “Shared Responsibility”.
The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) is a global monument conservation body (A non-governmental organization) dedicated to promoting the application of theory, methodology and scientific techniques for the conservation of the architectural and archaeological heritage across the world.
• It is also an advisory body to the UNESCO for cultural heritage, in particular for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention.
• It was founded in 1965 in Warsaw (Poland), as a result of the Venice Charter of 1964.
• It is headquartered in Paris, France.
India has 40 world heritage sites overall, which includes 32 cultural, 7 natural and one mixed property. Ramappa Temple (Telangana) was India”s 39th World Heritage Site & Dholavira in Gujarat as India”s 40th world heritage site.
Incorrect
The theme of the World Heritage Day 2020 is “Shared Culture”, “Shared Heritage” and “Shared Responsibility”.
The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) is a global monument conservation body (A non-governmental organization) dedicated to promoting the application of theory, methodology and scientific techniques for the conservation of the architectural and archaeological heritage across the world.
• It is also an advisory body to the UNESCO for cultural heritage, in particular for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention.
• It was founded in 1965 in Warsaw (Poland), as a result of the Venice Charter of 1964.
• It is headquartered in Paris, France.
India has 40 world heritage sites overall, which includes 32 cultural, 7 natural and one mixed property. Ramappa Temple (Telangana) was India”s 39th World Heritage Site & Dholavira in Gujarat as India”s 40th world heritage site.
Unattempted
The theme of the World Heritage Day 2020 is “Shared Culture”, “Shared Heritage” and “Shared Responsibility”.
The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) is a global monument conservation body (A non-governmental organization) dedicated to promoting the application of theory, methodology and scientific techniques for the conservation of the architectural and archaeological heritage across the world.
• It is also an advisory body to the UNESCO for cultural heritage, in particular for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention.
• It was founded in 1965 in Warsaw (Poland), as a result of the Venice Charter of 1964.
• It is headquartered in Paris, France.
India has 40 world heritage sites overall, which includes 32 cultural, 7 natural and one mixed property. Ramappa Temple (Telangana) was India”s 39th World Heritage Site & Dholavira in Gujarat as India”s 40th world heritage site.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
2 points
Recently, the central government has passed an ordinance to amend the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, to cope up with the present dangers posed by the unalarming spread of the Novel Corona Virus. Which of the following can be said to be the parts of the amendment?
(1) Any form of obstruction, in discharge of the duties carried out by the healthcare service personnel, can be considered as an act of violence, subject to imprisonment or fine as per the amendment.
(2) The amendment has enhanced the central government”s power to take necessary actions to contain the spread of the epidemic.
(3) The central government, apart from inspecting the vessels arriving or leaving any port, can also inspect road, rail, sea and air vessels in the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
An “act of violence” includes any of the following acts committed against the healthcare service personnel:
(i) Harassment impacting the living or working conditions;
(ii) Harm, injury, hurt or danger to life;
(iii) Obstruction in the discharge of his duties; and
(iv) Loss or damage to the property or the documents of the healthcare service personnel.
Whoever commits the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term not less than 3 months, but may extend to 5 years along with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 50,000 and may extend upto Rs. 2 lakh. Whoever, while committing the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, causes grievous hurt (defined under Section 320 of the IPC), shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 6 months, but which may extend upto 7 years with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 1 lakh, but may extend upto Rs. 5 lakh.
The Centre is empowered to take certain measures
Looking at the interventions required during the current Covid-19 outbreak, the central government has been given a concurrent role with the state governments to take any measures that may be needed to prevent the outbreak of an epidemic or the spread thereof.
In addition, the scope of inspection of the vessels arriving or leaving the country has been enlarged to include road, rail, sea and air vessels.
Incorrect
An “act of violence” includes any of the following acts committed against the healthcare service personnel:
(i) Harassment impacting the living or working conditions;
(ii) Harm, injury, hurt or danger to life;
(iii) Obstruction in the discharge of his duties; and
(iv) Loss or damage to the property or the documents of the healthcare service personnel.
Whoever commits the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term not less than 3 months, but may extend to 5 years along with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 50,000 and may extend upto Rs. 2 lakh. Whoever, while committing the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, causes grievous hurt (defined under Section 320 of the IPC), shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 6 months, but which may extend upto 7 years with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 1 lakh, but may extend upto Rs. 5 lakh.
The Centre is empowered to take certain measures
Looking at the interventions required during the current Covid-19 outbreak, the central government has been given a concurrent role with the state governments to take any measures that may be needed to prevent the outbreak of an epidemic or the spread thereof.
In addition, the scope of inspection of the vessels arriving or leaving the country has been enlarged to include road, rail, sea and air vessels.
Unattempted
An “act of violence” includes any of the following acts committed against the healthcare service personnel:
(i) Harassment impacting the living or working conditions;
(ii) Harm, injury, hurt or danger to life;
(iii) Obstruction in the discharge of his duties; and
(iv) Loss or damage to the property or the documents of the healthcare service personnel.
Whoever commits the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term not less than 3 months, but may extend to 5 years along with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 50,000 and may extend upto Rs. 2 lakh. Whoever, while committing the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, causes grievous hurt (defined under Section 320 of the IPC), shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 6 months, but which may extend upto 7 years with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 1 lakh, but may extend upto Rs. 5 lakh.
The Centre is empowered to take certain measures
Looking at the interventions required during the current Covid-19 outbreak, the central government has been given a concurrent role with the state governments to take any measures that may be needed to prevent the outbreak of an epidemic or the spread thereof.
In addition, the scope of inspection of the vessels arriving or leaving the country has been enlarged to include road, rail, sea and air vessels.
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements about the Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) :
(1) It is the initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
(2) It is to promote public understanding, awareness about sustainable agriculture and to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and environmental goods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
It is to promote public understanding, awareness about sustainable agriculture and to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and environmental goods and services these provide to family farmers, smallholders, indigenous people and local communities.
Three recognized GIAHS sites in India:
Kuttanad below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala.
Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha.
Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir.
Incorrect
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
It is to promote public understanding, awareness about sustainable agriculture and to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and environmental goods and services these provide to family farmers, smallholders, indigenous people and local communities.
Three recognized GIAHS sites in India:
Kuttanad below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala.
Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha.
Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir.
Unattempted
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
It is to promote public understanding, awareness about sustainable agriculture and to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and environmental goods and services these provide to family farmers, smallholders, indigenous people and local communities.
Three recognized GIAHS sites in India:
Kuttanad below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala.
Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha.
Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
2 points
With reference to the Li Keqiang Index, consider the following statements:
(1) This Index seeks to measure the GDP growth in a country by tracking certain indicators on a real time basis.
(2) This Index has been developed by China.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
Correct
In 2007, Li Keqiang, China”s current Prime Minister, who was then the provincial leader, had expressed concerns about overstated GDP numbers in the Chinese economy. He was of the opinion that GDP numbers were unreliable and hence, in order to measure the real economic activity, one should track 3 indicators on a real time basis- Railway cargo volume; Electricity consumption; and Loans disbursed by the banks.
Based upon this, the “Economist” magazine has constructed the Li Keqiang Index to measure the growth rate of the Chinese economy.
Incorrect
In 2007, Li Keqiang, China”s current Prime Minister, who was then the provincial leader, had expressed concerns about overstated GDP numbers in the Chinese economy. He was of the opinion that GDP numbers were unreliable and hence, in order to measure the real economic activity, one should track 3 indicators on a real time basis- Railway cargo volume; Electricity consumption; and Loans disbursed by the banks.
Based upon this, the “Economist” magazine has constructed the Li Keqiang Index to measure the growth rate of the Chinese economy.
Unattempted
In 2007, Li Keqiang, China”s current Prime Minister, who was then the provincial leader, had expressed concerns about overstated GDP numbers in the Chinese economy. He was of the opinion that GDP numbers were unreliable and hence, in order to measure the real economic activity, one should track 3 indicators on a real time basis- Railway cargo volume; Electricity consumption; and Loans disbursed by the banks.
Based upon this, the “Economist” magazine has constructed the Li Keqiang Index to measure the growth rate of the Chinese economy.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
2 points
Which of the following have been provided under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963?
(1) The Administrator shall, from time to time, summon the Legislative Assembly to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit.
(2) A Bill for imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax shall not be introduced into the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory, except on the recommendation of the Administrator.
(3) In case of difference of opinion between the Administrator and his Ministers on any matter, the Administrator shall refer it to the President for decision and act according to the decision given thereon by the President.
(4) With respect to the Special Responsibility of the Administrator under the Act, he shall, in the exercise of his functions, act as per the advice of his Council of Ministers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only
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-
-
-
Correct
With respect to the Special Responsibility of the Administrator, under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, he shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in his discretion and not as per his Council of Ministers.
The Administrator shall, from time to time, summon the Legislative Assembly to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.
Special Provisions as to the Financial Bills – A Bill or Amendment shall not be introduced into, or moved in, the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory, except on the recommendation of the Administrator, if such Bill or Amendment makes provision for any of the following matters-the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
There shall be a Council of Ministers in each Union Territory, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Administrator in the exercise of his functions in relation to the matters with respect to which the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory has the power to make laws, except in so far as he is required by or under this Act to act in his discretion or by or under any law to exercise any judicial or quasi-judicial functions.
Provided that, in case of difference of opinion between the Administrator and his Ministers on any matter, the Administrator shall refer it to the President for decision and act according to the decision given thereon by the President and pending such decision, it shall be competent for the Administrator in any case, where the matter, is in his opinion, is so urgent, that it is necessary for him to take immediate action, to take such action or to give such direction in the matter, as he deems necessary.
Incorrect
With respect to the Special Responsibility of the Administrator, under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, he shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in his discretion and not as per his Council of Ministers.
The Administrator shall, from time to time, summon the Legislative Assembly to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.
Special Provisions as to the Financial Bills – A Bill or Amendment shall not be introduced into, or moved in, the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory, except on the recommendation of the Administrator, if such Bill or Amendment makes provision for any of the following matters-the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
There shall be a Council of Ministers in each Union Territory, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Administrator in the exercise of his functions in relation to the matters with respect to which the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory has the power to make laws, except in so far as he is required by or under this Act to act in his discretion or by or under any law to exercise any judicial or quasi-judicial functions.
Provided that, in case of difference of opinion between the Administrator and his Ministers on any matter, the Administrator shall refer it to the President for decision and act according to the decision given thereon by the President and pending such decision, it shall be competent for the Administrator in any case, where the matter, is in his opinion, is so urgent, that it is necessary for him to take immediate action, to take such action or to give such direction in the matter, as he deems necessary.
Unattempted
With respect to the Special Responsibility of the Administrator, under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, he shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in his discretion and not as per his Council of Ministers.
The Administrator shall, from time to time, summon the Legislative Assembly to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.
Special Provisions as to the Financial Bills – A Bill or Amendment shall not be introduced into, or moved in, the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory, except on the recommendation of the Administrator, if such Bill or Amendment makes provision for any of the following matters-the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
There shall be a Council of Ministers in each Union Territory, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Administrator in the exercise of his functions in relation to the matters with respect to which the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory has the power to make laws, except in so far as he is required by or under this Act to act in his discretion or by or under any law to exercise any judicial or quasi-judicial functions.
Provided that, in case of difference of opinion between the Administrator and his Ministers on any matter, the Administrator shall refer it to the President for decision and act according to the decision given thereon by the President and pending such decision, it shall be competent for the Administrator in any case, where the matter, is in his opinion, is so urgent, that it is necessary for him to take immediate action, to take such action or to give such direction in the matter, as he deems necessary.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
2 points
What does the KIRAN Scheme of the Government deal with?
(A) Electrification of the villages through solar energy.
(B) Financial inclusion of the visually disabled people.
(C) Promotion of women”s participation in science and technology.
(D) Enhancement in the learning outcomes at the primary school level.
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Correct
KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing) is an initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It addresses various issues related to the women scientists, such as unemployment, break-in career, relocation, etc. Further, it also provides opportunities to the women in the field of research and entrepreneurship.
Incorrect
KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing) is an initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It addresses various issues related to the women scientists, such as unemployment, break-in career, relocation, etc. Further, it also provides opportunities to the women in the field of research and entrepreneurship.
Unattempted
KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing) is an initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It addresses various issues related to the women scientists, such as unemployment, break-in career, relocation, etc. Further, it also provides opportunities to the women in the field of research and entrepreneurship.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
2 points
Recently, National Institute of Oceanography has launched first-of-its-kind project of Genome Mapping in the Indian Ocean. In this context, which of the following will be the significance of the project?
(1) It will help in identifying mineral or element concentration in parts of ocean.
(2) It will enable commercial biotechnology applications from anticancer treatments
(3) It will enable scientists to identify the factors controlling the changes in RNA, DNA in the oceans.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) has launched its first-of-its-kind project of Genome Mapping in the Indian Ocean. The aim of the Project is to reveal the internal working of the body of the ocean at a cellular level and understand the biochemistry and the response of the ocean to climate change, nutrient stress and increasing pollution.
Statement 1 is correct. The project will help in identifying which part of the ocean has a greater concentration of which mineral or element. Scientists will then use these as tracers to tackle the causative factors for excess or lack of a certain mineral or element and suggest possible solutions for their mitigation.
Statement 2 is correct. The genome mapping of oceans will enable commercial biotechnology applications from anticancer treatments and industrial enzymes to antiviral molecules.
Statement 3 is correct. The genome mapping will enable scientists to identify the factors controlling the changes in RNA, DNA in the oceans and various stressors impacting them.
Incorrect
National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) has launched its first-of-its-kind project of Genome Mapping in the Indian Ocean. The aim of the Project is to reveal the internal working of the body of the ocean at a cellular level and understand the biochemistry and the response of the ocean to climate change, nutrient stress and increasing pollution.
Statement 1 is correct. The project will help in identifying which part of the ocean has a greater concentration of which mineral or element. Scientists will then use these as tracers to tackle the causative factors for excess or lack of a certain mineral or element and suggest possible solutions for their mitigation.
Statement 2 is correct. The genome mapping of oceans will enable commercial biotechnology applications from anticancer treatments and industrial enzymes to antiviral molecules.
Statement 3 is correct. The genome mapping will enable scientists to identify the factors controlling the changes in RNA, DNA in the oceans and various stressors impacting them.
Unattempted
National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) has launched its first-of-its-kind project of Genome Mapping in the Indian Ocean. The aim of the Project is to reveal the internal working of the body of the ocean at a cellular level and understand the biochemistry and the response of the ocean to climate change, nutrient stress and increasing pollution.
Statement 1 is correct. The project will help in identifying which part of the ocean has a greater concentration of which mineral or element. Scientists will then use these as tracers to tackle the causative factors for excess or lack of a certain mineral or element and suggest possible solutions for their mitigation.
Statement 2 is correct. The genome mapping of oceans will enable commercial biotechnology applications from anticancer treatments and industrial enzymes to antiviral molecules.
Statement 3 is correct. The genome mapping will enable scientists to identify the factors controlling the changes in RNA, DNA in the oceans and various stressors impacting them.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
2 points
Which of the following changes has/have been brought through the Mineral Laws (Amendment) Act, 2020?
(1) It has allowed the companies with no prior experience to participate in auction of coal/lignite blocks.
(2) It has lifted end-use-restriction for coal mines to end captive mining regime in India.
(3) It has enabled auction of lease of mines to be started before the expiry of the lease period.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Act, 2020 has allowed for the following :
Companies with no prior experience can apply – Companies, which do not possess any prior coal mining experience in India and/or have mining experience in other minerals or in other countries, can participate in the auction of coal/lignite blocks.
Lifting end-use-restriction – The government has lifted end-userestriction for coal mines to end captive mining regime. Now, the companies which are not “engaged in specified end-use” can also participate in the auctions of Schedule II and III coal mines.
PL-cum-ML – The act also allows prospecting licence-cum-mining lease (PL-cum-ML) for coal/lignite, which increases the availability of coal and lignite blocks, and coal blocks of varying grades in a wide geographical distribution will be available for allocation.
Deciding about new lease holders before the expiry of the term – The auction of lease of mines can now be started before the expiry of the lease period. It will enable the state government to take advance action for auction of mineral blocks, so that the new lease holder could be decided before the existing lease gets expired. Composite license allowed – The new provisions will also augment the exploration of the deep seated minerals and minerals of national interest by allowing Non Exclusive Reconnaissance Permit (NERP) holders.
Incorrect
The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Act, 2020 has allowed for the following :
Companies with no prior experience can apply – Companies, which do not possess any prior coal mining experience in India and/or have mining experience in other minerals or in other countries, can participate in the auction of coal/lignite blocks.
Lifting end-use-restriction – The government has lifted end-userestriction for coal mines to end captive mining regime. Now, the companies which are not “engaged in specified end-use” can also participate in the auctions of Schedule II and III coal mines.
PL-cum-ML – The act also allows prospecting licence-cum-mining lease (PL-cum-ML) for coal/lignite, which increases the availability of coal and lignite blocks, and coal blocks of varying grades in a wide geographical distribution will be available for allocation.
Deciding about new lease holders before the expiry of the term – The auction of lease of mines can now be started before the expiry of the lease period. It will enable the state government to take advance action for auction of mineral blocks, so that the new lease holder could be decided before the existing lease gets expired. Composite license allowed – The new provisions will also augment the exploration of the deep seated minerals and minerals of national interest by allowing Non Exclusive Reconnaissance Permit (NERP) holders.
Unattempted
The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Act, 2020 has allowed for the following :
Companies with no prior experience can apply – Companies, which do not possess any prior coal mining experience in India and/or have mining experience in other minerals or in other countries, can participate in the auction of coal/lignite blocks.
Lifting end-use-restriction – The government has lifted end-userestriction for coal mines to end captive mining regime. Now, the companies which are not “engaged in specified end-use” can also participate in the auctions of Schedule II and III coal mines.
PL-cum-ML – The act also allows prospecting licence-cum-mining lease (PL-cum-ML) for coal/lignite, which increases the availability of coal and lignite blocks, and coal blocks of varying grades in a wide geographical distribution will be available for allocation.
Deciding about new lease holders before the expiry of the term – The auction of lease of mines can now be started before the expiry of the lease period. It will enable the state government to take advance action for auction of mineral blocks, so that the new lease holder could be decided before the existing lease gets expired. Composite license allowed – The new provisions will also augment the exploration of the deep seated minerals and minerals of national interest by allowing Non Exclusive Reconnaissance Permit (NERP) holders.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding “National Honey Mission”:
(1) It is launched by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) under Ministry of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers” Welfare.
(2) It aims to promote beekeeping for increasing crop productivity and pollination services avenue for beekeepers and farmers.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Honey Mission is launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) and not by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium.
Statement 2 is correct. The aim of the mission is to provide sustainable employment and income to rural and urban unemployed youth. It also aims to conserve the honeybee habitat and tapping untapped natural resources.
Moreover, it promotes beekeeping for increasing crop productivity and pollination services avenue for beekeepers and farmers.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Honey Mission is launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) and not by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium.
Statement 2 is correct. The aim of the mission is to provide sustainable employment and income to rural and urban unemployed youth. It also aims to conserve the honeybee habitat and tapping untapped natural resources.
Moreover, it promotes beekeeping for increasing crop productivity and pollination services avenue for beekeepers and farmers.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Honey Mission is launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) and not by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium.
Statement 2 is correct. The aim of the mission is to provide sustainable employment and income to rural and urban unemployed youth. It also aims to conserve the honeybee habitat and tapping untapped natural resources.
Moreover, it promotes beekeeping for increasing crop productivity and pollination services avenue for beekeepers and farmers.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) Granting of equal citizenship to all members of the society provides for political equality in a society.
(2) Lack of safety for women in public places and workplaces points to the existence of social inequality in India.
(3) Marxism and Liberalism both argue for bringing economic equality in society by abolishing private ownership of economic resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. In democratic societies political equality would normally include granting equal citizenship to all the members of the state. Equal citizenship brings with it certain basic rights such as the right to vote, freedom of expression, movement and association and freedom of belief. These are rights which are considered necessary to enable citizens to develop themselves and participate in the affairs of the state.
Statement 2 is correct. In India social inequality manifests itself in the form various customs which deprive certain groups and communities equal opportunities. And one of the major deprived sections belongs to women. Lack of safety in public places and work places for women is a manifestation of social inequality faced by women in India.
In India, women may not enjoy equal rights of inheritance in some groups, or there may be social prohibitions regarding their taking part in certain kinds of activities, or they may even be discouraged from obtaining higher education. The state has a significant role in such matters. It should make policies to prevent discrimination or harassment of women in public places or employment, to provide incentives to open up education or certain professions to women, and other such measures. But social groups and individuals also have a role to play in raising awareness and supporting those who want to exercise their rights.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While Marxism sees private ownership of important economic resources as a source of inequality in the society, Liberalism does not.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In democratic societies political equality would normally include granting equal citizenship to all the members of the state. Equal citizenship brings with it certain basic rights such as the right to vote, freedom of expression, movement and association and freedom of belief. These are rights which are considered necessary to enable citizens to develop themselves and participate in the affairs of the state.
Statement 2 is correct. In India social inequality manifests itself in the form various customs which deprive certain groups and communities equal opportunities. And one of the major deprived sections belongs to women. Lack of safety in public places and work places for women is a manifestation of social inequality faced by women in India.
In India, women may not enjoy equal rights of inheritance in some groups, or there may be social prohibitions regarding their taking part in certain kinds of activities, or they may even be discouraged from obtaining higher education. The state has a significant role in such matters. It should make policies to prevent discrimination or harassment of women in public places or employment, to provide incentives to open up education or certain professions to women, and other such measures. But social groups and individuals also have a role to play in raising awareness and supporting those who want to exercise their rights.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While Marxism sees private ownership of important economic resources as a source of inequality in the society, Liberalism does not.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. In democratic societies political equality would normally include granting equal citizenship to all the members of the state. Equal citizenship brings with it certain basic rights such as the right to vote, freedom of expression, movement and association and freedom of belief. These are rights which are considered necessary to enable citizens to develop themselves and participate in the affairs of the state.
Statement 2 is correct. In India social inequality manifests itself in the form various customs which deprive certain groups and communities equal opportunities. And one of the major deprived sections belongs to women. Lack of safety in public places and work places for women is a manifestation of social inequality faced by women in India.
In India, women may not enjoy equal rights of inheritance in some groups, or there may be social prohibitions regarding their taking part in certain kinds of activities, or they may even be discouraged from obtaining higher education. The state has a significant role in such matters. It should make policies to prevent discrimination or harassment of women in public places or employment, to provide incentives to open up education or certain professions to women, and other such measures. But social groups and individuals also have a role to play in raising awareness and supporting those who want to exercise their rights.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While Marxism sees private ownership of important economic resources as a source of inequality in the society, Liberalism does not.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
2 points
The term “Iron Dome”, sometimes seen in the news, is
(A) an anti-missile system indigenously developed by India.
(B) a mobile all-weather air defence system developed by Israel.
(C) a nuclear research facility located in France.
(D) an air raid shelter developed by North Korea.
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-
-
-
Correct
The Iron Dome is a mobile all-weather air defence system developed by Israel to intercept and destroy shortrange rockets and artillery shells fired from short distances. The Dome has three central components – detection and tracking radar, the weapon control system and missile firing unit.
Amid the Israel-Palestine conflict, the night sky over Israel has been ablaze with interceptor missiles from Iron Dome shooting down the incoming rockets in the sky.
Incorrect
The Iron Dome is a mobile all-weather air defence system developed by Israel to intercept and destroy shortrange rockets and artillery shells fired from short distances. The Dome has three central components – detection and tracking radar, the weapon control system and missile firing unit.
Amid the Israel-Palestine conflict, the night sky over Israel has been ablaze with interceptor missiles from Iron Dome shooting down the incoming rockets in the sky.
Unattempted
The Iron Dome is a mobile all-weather air defence system developed by Israel to intercept and destroy shortrange rockets and artillery shells fired from short distances. The Dome has three central components – detection and tracking radar, the weapon control system and missile firing unit.
Amid the Israel-Palestine conflict, the night sky over Israel has been ablaze with interceptor missiles from Iron Dome shooting down the incoming rockets in the sky.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with respect to the recent developments in cyber policing:
(1) The Crime Multi Agency Centre (CriMAC) will help in sharing of information on heinous crimes among the states.
(2) The National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC) is a professional quality eLearning services on cybercrime investigation.
(3) The National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) is a network based pan India system for recording and sharing of the fingerprints of the criminals in various crimes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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-
-
-
Correct
The Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) – For sharing of information on heinous crime and other issues related to inter-state coordination.
The National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC) – For professional quality eLearning services on cybercrime investigation on large scale to the police officers, judges, prosecutors and other stakeholders, was also launched.
The National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) is being setup by the NCRB (The National Crime Records Bureau), which is a network based pan India system for recording and sharing of the fingerprints of the criminals in various crimes. Implementation of NAFIS will not only help the police in solving crime cases quickly, but will also enhance skilled human resources in State Fingerprint Bureaus.
Incorrect
The Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) – For sharing of information on heinous crime and other issues related to inter-state coordination.
The National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC) – For professional quality eLearning services on cybercrime investigation on large scale to the police officers, judges, prosecutors and other stakeholders, was also launched.
The National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) is being setup by the NCRB (The National Crime Records Bureau), which is a network based pan India system for recording and sharing of the fingerprints of the criminals in various crimes. Implementation of NAFIS will not only help the police in solving crime cases quickly, but will also enhance skilled human resources in State Fingerprint Bureaus.
Unattempted
The Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) – For sharing of information on heinous crime and other issues related to inter-state coordination.
The National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC) – For professional quality eLearning services on cybercrime investigation on large scale to the police officers, judges, prosecutors and other stakeholders, was also launched.
The National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) is being setup by the NCRB (The National Crime Records Bureau), which is a network based pan India system for recording and sharing of the fingerprints of the criminals in various crimes. Implementation of NAFIS will not only help the police in solving crime cases quickly, but will also enhance skilled human resources in State Fingerprint Bureaus.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
(1) The National Statistical Commission of India is an autonomous body.
(2) The Central Statistics Office and National Sample Survey Office have been merged to form National Statistical Office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The National Statistical Commission (NSC) of India is an autonomous body which was set up in 2005.The objective of its commission is to reduce the problems faced by statistical agencies in the country in relation to collection of data.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central government merged the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) into the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The proposed National Statistical Office (NSO) would be headed by Secretary of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The National Statistical Commission (NSC) of India is an autonomous body which was set up in 2005.The objective of its commission is to reduce the problems faced by statistical agencies in the country in relation to collection of data.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central government merged the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) into the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The proposed National Statistical Office (NSO) would be headed by Secretary of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. The National Statistical Commission (NSC) of India is an autonomous body which was set up in 2005.The objective of its commission is to reduce the problems faced by statistical agencies in the country in relation to collection of data.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central government merged the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) into the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The proposed National Statistical Office (NSO) would be headed by Secretary of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with regard to New Space India Limited (NSIL):
(1) It is the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organization.
(2) It aims at enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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-
-
-
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The setting up of New Space India Limited (NSIL) was announced in 2019 budget. It is a public sector company that would serve as a commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). Its main purpose is to market the technologies developed by ISRO and bring it more clients that need space-based services. This role has already been performed by Antrix Corporation, another PSU working under the Department of Space, which still exists.
Statement 2 is correct. It is incorporated with the primary responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the Indian space programme.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The setting up of New Space India Limited (NSIL) was announced in 2019 budget. It is a public sector company that would serve as a commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). Its main purpose is to market the technologies developed by ISRO and bring it more clients that need space-based services. This role has already been performed by Antrix Corporation, another PSU working under the Department of Space, which still exists.
Statement 2 is correct. It is incorporated with the primary responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the Indian space programme.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. The setting up of New Space India Limited (NSIL) was announced in 2019 budget. It is a public sector company that would serve as a commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). Its main purpose is to market the technologies developed by ISRO and bring it more clients that need space-based services. This role has already been performed by Antrix Corporation, another PSU working under the Department of Space, which still exists.
Statement 2 is correct. It is incorporated with the primary responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the Indian space programme.
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements with regard to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO):
(1) It promotes the Comprehensive NuclearTest-Ban Treaty (CTBT) so that it can enter into force.
(2) It establishes a verification regime to monitor adherence to the treaty.
(3) India is a member of CTBTO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Statement 1 is correct. CTBTO is the supporting organization of the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). It promotes the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) so that it can enter into force. CTBTO has been trying to build trust with India and address its concerns which have restricted India from joining it.
Statement 2 is correct. CTBTO establishes a verification regime to monitor adherence to the treaty. What is the CTBT verification regime? The CTBT verification regime is a unique, comprehensive system, consisting of the International Monitoring System (IMS), International Data Centre (IDC) and on-site inspections (OSI). It constantly monitors the planet for nuclear explosions and shares its findings with Member States.
MEMBER STATES185 (SIGNED)
TOTAL RATIFICATIONS170
LATEST STATE SIGNATORYCuba
LATEST RATIFYING STATEComoros
Statement 3 is incorrect. India is not a member of CTBTO.
India has been recently invited to join Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) in the capacity of an observer. Joining as an observer will let India know what is going on this front and obtain benefits from its information without actually binding itself to the treaty (CTBT). Being an observer would give India access to data from the International Monitoring System — a network which when complete will consist of 337 facilities (321 monitoring stations and 16 radionuclide labs) located in 89 countries. This system can detect even small nuclear explosions using seismology, hydro acoustics, infrasound and radionuclide technology.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. CTBTO is the supporting organization of the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). It promotes the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) so that it can enter into force. CTBTO has been trying to build trust with India and address its concerns which have restricted India from joining it.
Statement 2 is correct. CTBTO establishes a verification regime to monitor adherence to the treaty. What is the CTBT verification regime? The CTBT verification regime is a unique, comprehensive system, consisting of the International Monitoring System (IMS), International Data Centre (IDC) and on-site inspections (OSI). It constantly monitors the planet for nuclear explosions and shares its findings with Member States.
MEMBER STATES185 (SIGNED)
TOTAL RATIFICATIONS170
LATEST STATE SIGNATORYCuba
LATEST RATIFYING STATEComoros
Statement 3 is incorrect. India is not a member of CTBTO.
India has been recently invited to join Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) in the capacity of an observer. Joining as an observer will let India know what is going on this front and obtain benefits from its information without actually binding itself to the treaty (CTBT). Being an observer would give India access to data from the International Monitoring System — a network which when complete will consist of 337 facilities (321 monitoring stations and 16 radionuclide labs) located in 89 countries. This system can detect even small nuclear explosions using seismology, hydro acoustics, infrasound and radionuclide technology.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. CTBTO is the supporting organization of the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). It promotes the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) so that it can enter into force. CTBTO has been trying to build trust with India and address its concerns which have restricted India from joining it.
Statement 2 is correct. CTBTO establishes a verification regime to monitor adherence to the treaty. What is the CTBT verification regime? The CTBT verification regime is a unique, comprehensive system, consisting of the International Monitoring System (IMS), International Data Centre (IDC) and on-site inspections (OSI). It constantly monitors the planet for nuclear explosions and shares its findings with Member States.
MEMBER STATES185 (SIGNED)
TOTAL RATIFICATIONS170
LATEST STATE SIGNATORYCuba
LATEST RATIFYING STATEComoros
Statement 3 is incorrect. India is not a member of CTBTO.
India has been recently invited to join Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) in the capacity of an observer. Joining as an observer will let India know what is going on this front and obtain benefits from its information without actually binding itself to the treaty (CTBT). Being an observer would give India access to data from the International Monitoring System — a network which when complete will consist of 337 facilities (321 monitoring stations and 16 radionuclide labs) located in 89 countries. This system can detect even small nuclear explosions using seismology, hydro acoustics, infrasound and radionuclide technology. -
Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Nidhi (PMSSN):
(1) It is set up as a single non-lapsable reserve fund for share of health sector.
(2) It will be administered and maintained by Ministry of Finance.
(3) The funds under PMSSN will be utilized for Ayushman Bharat scheme and National Health Mission.
Which of the following statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Statement 1 is correct. PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaNidhi (PMSSN) will ensure access to universal & affordable health care through a fund that does not lapse at the end of the financial year. It has been set up as a single non-lapsable reserve fund for a share of health.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The fund will be administered and maintained by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (not Ministry of Finance).
Statement 3 is correct.
The fund will be utilized for the following flagship schemes of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare:
1) Ayushman Bharat – PradhanMantri Jan ArogyaYojana (AB-PMJAY)
2) Ayushman Bharat – Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs)
3) National Health Mission
4) PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaYojana (PMSSY)
5) Emergency & disaster preparedness and responses during health emergencies
6) Any future programme/scheme that targets to achieve progress towards SDGs and the targets set out in the National Health Policy (NHP) 2017.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaNidhi (PMSSN) will ensure access to universal & affordable health care through a fund that does not lapse at the end of the financial year. It has been set up as a single non-lapsable reserve fund for a share of health.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The fund will be administered and maintained by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (not Ministry of Finance).
Statement 3 is correct.
The fund will be utilized for the following flagship schemes of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare:
1) Ayushman Bharat – PradhanMantri Jan ArogyaYojana (AB-PMJAY)
2) Ayushman Bharat – Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs)
3) National Health Mission
4) PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaYojana (PMSSY)
5) Emergency & disaster preparedness and responses during health emergencies
6) Any future programme/scheme that targets to achieve progress towards SDGs and the targets set out in the National Health Policy (NHP) 2017.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaNidhi (PMSSN) will ensure access to universal & affordable health care through a fund that does not lapse at the end of the financial year. It has been set up as a single non-lapsable reserve fund for a share of health.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The fund will be administered and maintained by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (not Ministry of Finance).
Statement 3 is correct.
The fund will be utilized for the following flagship schemes of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare:
1) Ayushman Bharat – PradhanMantri Jan ArogyaYojana (AB-PMJAY)
2) Ayushman Bharat – Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs)
3) National Health Mission
4) PradhanMantriSwasthyaSurakshaYojana (PMSSY)
5) Emergency & disaster preparedness and responses during health emergencies
6) Any future programme/scheme that targets to achieve progress towards SDGs and the targets set out in the National Health Policy (NHP) 2017. -
Question 3 of 100
3. Question
2 pointsWith reference to “Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA)”, consider the following statements:
(1) It aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India.
(2) It is supported by the International Climate Initiativeof the German Ministry for the Environment and Nature Conservation.
(3) It will be implemented by NITI Aayog on behalf of the Government of India.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Statement 1 is correct. NDC Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA) aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India, Vietnam and China over the period 2020-24.
Statement 2 is correct. Nationally Determined Contributions(NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia(TIA)is supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment and Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety(BMU).
Statement 3 is correct. On behalf of the Government of India, NITI Aayog will be the implementing partner. NDC-TIA India Component will focus on establishing a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform for decarbonizing transport in India.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. NDC Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA) aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India, Vietnam and China over the period 2020-24.
Statement 2 is correct. Nationally Determined Contributions(NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia(TIA)is supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment and Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety(BMU).
Statement 3 is correct. On behalf of the Government of India, NITI Aayog will be the implementing partner. NDC-TIA India Component will focus on establishing a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform for decarbonizing transport in India.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. NDC Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA) aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India, Vietnam and China over the period 2020-24.
Statement 2 is correct. Nationally Determined Contributions(NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia(TIA)is supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment and Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety(BMU).
Statement 3 is correct. On behalf of the Government of India, NITI Aayog will be the implementing partner. NDC-TIA India Component will focus on establishing a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform for decarbonizing transport in India. -
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
2 points“Five Eyes” group has been recently seen in news. In this context, which one of the following is correct about “Five Eyes” group?
(A) It is an international grouping to monitor the digital and cyber security threats.
(B) It is an alliance between countries signatories to the UKUSA Agreement for their cooperation in signal intelligence.
(C) It is international Non-Governmental Organisation working towards promotion of healthy habits of eye-sights among youths.
(D) None of the above.Correct
Five Eyes (FVEY) is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States. These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence. Five Eyes Intelligence Oversight and Review Council (FIORC)was created in the spirit of the existing Five Eyes partnership, the intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. FIORC is composed of the following non-political intelligence oversight, review, and security entities of the Five Eyes countries.
Incorrect
Five Eyes (FVEY) is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States. These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence. Five Eyes Intelligence Oversight and Review Council (FIORC)was created in the spirit of the existing Five Eyes partnership, the intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. FIORC is composed of the following non-political intelligence oversight, review, and security entities of the Five Eyes countries.
Unattempted
Five Eyes (FVEY) is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States. These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence. Five Eyes Intelligence Oversight and Review Council (FIORC)was created in the spirit of the existing Five Eyes partnership, the intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. FIORC is composed of the following non-political intelligence oversight, review, and security entities of the Five Eyes countries.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
2 pointsWith reference to “Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) Initiative”, consider the following statements:
(1) It is an intergovernmental organisation open to only United Nations members.
(2) It was launched by India and France at UN Climate Change Summit, 2015 in Paris.
(3) The Governing Council is co-chaired by India and a representative of another member nation.
(4) Every member has an obligation to make minimum contribution to CDRI.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 3 and 4 onlyCorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure(CDRI) Initiative is a multi-stakeholder global partnership of national governments, UN agencies, multilateral development banks, private sector, academic and knowledge institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Prime Minister of India launched it in 2019 at the UN Climate Change Summit.
Statement 3 is correct. The Governing Council is the highest policy-making body of the CDRI. It is co-chaired by India and a representative of another nation, nominated by rotation every two years.
Statement 4 is incorrect. There are no obligations on the part of members to make financial contributions to CDRI. However, at any point, members of the CDRI may make voluntary contributions. A large share of the fund over the first five years has been invested by India.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure(CDRI) Initiative is a multi-stakeholder global partnership of national governments, UN agencies, multilateral development banks, private sector, academic and knowledge institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Prime Minister of India launched it in 2019 at the UN Climate Change Summit.
Statement 3 is correct. The Governing Council is the highest policy-making body of the CDRI. It is co-chaired by India and a representative of another nation, nominated by rotation every two years.
Statement 4 is incorrect. There are no obligations on the part of members to make financial contributions to CDRI. However, at any point, members of the CDRI may make voluntary contributions. A large share of the fund over the first five years has been invested by India.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure(CDRI) Initiative is a multi-stakeholder global partnership of national governments, UN agencies, multilateral development banks, private sector, academic and knowledge institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Prime Minister of India launched it in 2019 at the UN Climate Change Summit.
Statement 3 is correct. The Governing Council is the highest policy-making body of the CDRI. It is co-chaired by India and a representative of another nation, nominated by rotation every two years.
Statement 4 is incorrect. There are no obligations on the part of members to make financial contributions to CDRI. However, at any point, members of the CDRI may make voluntary contributions. A large share of the fund over the first five years has been invested by India. -
Question 6 of 100
6. Question
2 points16 Psyche, sometimes seen in the news, is
(A) An Artificial Intelligence-based humanoid robot developed recently.
(B) A mental health initiative launched by the World Health Organisation.
(C) An asteroid lying between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
(D) A microprocessor that achieved quantum supremacy recently.Correct
16 Psyche is an asteroid that orbits between Mars and Jupiter. It is located around 370 million kilometres away from Earth. New images from NASA”s Hubble Space Telescope reveal that the surface of the asteroid may mostly comprise iron and nickel, similar to the Earth”s core. The exact composition and origins of the asteroid will be uncovered in 2022, when NASA sends an unmanned spacecraft to study it up close. NASA will launch a Space X Falcon Heavy rocket from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station in Florida to orbit the asteroid for around 21 months.
Incorrect
16 Psyche is an asteroid that orbits between Mars and Jupiter. It is located around 370 million kilometres away from Earth. New images from NASA”s Hubble Space Telescope reveal that the surface of the asteroid may mostly comprise iron and nickel, similar to the Earth”s core. The exact composition and origins of the asteroid will be uncovered in 2022, when NASA sends an unmanned spacecraft to study it up close. NASA will launch a Space X Falcon Heavy rocket from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station in Florida to orbit the asteroid for around 21 months.
Unattempted
16 Psyche is an asteroid that orbits between Mars and Jupiter. It is located around 370 million kilometres away from Earth. New images from NASA”s Hubble Space Telescope reveal that the surface of the asteroid may mostly comprise iron and nickel, similar to the Earth”s core. The exact composition and origins of the asteroid will be uncovered in 2022, when NASA sends an unmanned spacecraft to study it up close. NASA will launch a Space X Falcon Heavy rocket from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station in Florida to orbit the asteroid for around 21 months.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
2 pointsIn the context of cyber security, consider the following statements:
(1) The content on Dark Net is encrypted and requires specific browser for net surfing.
(2) All activities associated with the deep web are nefarious.
(3) “Deep web” is part of greater “dark net” also known as “dark web”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 onlyCorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The content on Dark Net is encrypted and requires specific browser like TOR browser for net surfing.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all activities associated with the deep web are nefarious. In most cases, these pages are not searchable through traditional channels because they are password-protected and require specific tools or authorization (like a log-in) in order to access them.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The “dark net” also known as the “dark web” is part of the greater “deep web”, a network of secret websites that exist on an encrypted network.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The content on Dark Net is encrypted and requires specific browser like TOR browser for net surfing.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all activities associated with the deep web are nefarious. In most cases, these pages are not searchable through traditional channels because they are password-protected and require specific tools or authorization (like a log-in) in order to access them.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The “dark net” also known as the “dark web” is part of the greater “deep web”, a network of secret websites that exist on an encrypted network.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. The content on Dark Net is encrypted and requires specific browser like TOR browser for net surfing.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all activities associated with the deep web are nefarious. In most cases, these pages are not searchable through traditional channels because they are password-protected and require specific tools or authorization (like a log-in) in order to access them.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The “dark net” also known as the “dark web” is part of the greater “deep web”, a network of secret websites that exist on an encrypted network. -
Question 8 of 100
8. Question
2 pointsProject seeks to build a strong constellation of satellites aiming to supply non-stop, low-cost Internet everywhere on Earth. It will allow data to be sent twice as fast as the fibre used to connect the internet on Earth, regardless of the distance. The project mentioned here is
(A) Starlink project
(B) Spiderlink Net
(C) Skybot project
(D) Jio NetCorrect
Option 1 is correct.Starlink Project seeks to build a strong constellation of satellites aiming to supply non-stop, low-cost Internet everywhere on Earth. It will allow data to be sent twice as fast as the fiber used to connect the internet on Earth, regardless of the distance.
Option 2 and 4 are incorrect. Spiderlink and jio net are local internet provider through fiber in India.
Option 3 is incorrect. Skybot project Russia sent the humanoid robot Fedor, to International Space Station. It will spend 10 days in space to assist astronauts.Incorrect
Option 1 is correct.Starlink Project seeks to build a strong constellation of satellites aiming to supply non-stop, low-cost Internet everywhere on Earth. It will allow data to be sent twice as fast as the fiber used to connect the internet on Earth, regardless of the distance.
Option 2 and 4 are incorrect. Spiderlink and jio net are local internet provider through fiber in India.
Option 3 is incorrect. Skybot project Russia sent the humanoid robot Fedor, to International Space Station. It will spend 10 days in space to assist astronauts.Unattempted
Option 1 is correct.Starlink Project seeks to build a strong constellation of satellites aiming to supply non-stop, low-cost Internet everywhere on Earth. It will allow data to be sent twice as fast as the fiber used to connect the internet on Earth, regardless of the distance.
Option 2 and 4 are incorrect. Spiderlink and jio net are local internet provider through fiber in India.
Option 3 is incorrect. Skybot project Russia sent the humanoid robot Fedor, to International Space Station. It will spend 10 days in space to assist astronauts. -
Question 9 of 100
9. Question
2 pointsProject CARE (Climate Adaptation and Resilience for South Asia) is launched by
(A) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(B) Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF)
(C) South Asia Co-operative Environment Programme (SACEP)
(D) World BankCorrect
Option D is correct. Climate Adaptation and Resilience for South Asia (CARE) Projectis launchedby World Bank. It will help in developing regional standards and guidelines for infrastructure, and promoting climateresilient policies and investments. The project will help develop a public platform to inform climate planning and investments, and fund technology to support resilience in South Asia.
Incorrect
Option D is correct. Climate Adaptation and Resilience for South Asia (CARE) Projectis launchedby World Bank. It will help in developing regional standards and guidelines for infrastructure, and promoting climateresilient policies and investments. The project will help develop a public platform to inform climate planning and investments, and fund technology to support resilience in South Asia.
Unattempted
Option D is correct. Climate Adaptation and Resilience for South Asia (CARE) Projectis launchedby World Bank. It will help in developing regional standards and guidelines for infrastructure, and promoting climateresilient policies and investments. The project will help develop a public platform to inform climate planning and investments, and fund technology to support resilience in South Asia.
-
Question 10 of 100
10. Question
2 pointsWith reference to “Vidya Daan program” consider the following statements:
(1) It brings together academicians and organisations to develop e-learning content.
(2) It is launched by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is correct. VidyaDaan program brings together academicians and organisations to develop and contribute fun and engaging e-learning content aligned to the curriculum.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. VidyaDaan program brings together academicians and organisations to develop and contribute fun and engaging e-learning content aligned to the curriculum.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. VidyaDaan program brings together academicians and organisations to develop and contribute fun and engaging e-learning content aligned to the curriculum.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development. -
Question 11 of 100
11. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) Article 17 of the Indian Constitution defines untouchability and provides for its abolition.
(2) A person convicted of untouchability is disqualified for election to the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Article 17 of the constitution abolishes “untouchability” and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
The term “untouchability” however has not been defined under the constitution.
Under the Protection of Civil Rights act, 1955 a person convicted of the offence of “untouchability” is disqualified for election to the Parliament or state legislature.
“Indian Young Lawyers Association & Others vs The State of Kerala & Others” case, 2018 : A five-judge bench had delivered a landmark 4:1 ruling setting aside the decadesold restrictions on the entry of women of reproductive age inside Sabarimala Temple.
Ban on the entry of women in Sabarimala is a type of untouchability, and thus it violates Article 17.Incorrect
Article 17 of the constitution abolishes “untouchability” and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
The term “untouchability” however has not been defined under the constitution.
Under the Protection of Civil Rights act, 1955 a person convicted of the offence of “untouchability” is disqualified for election to the Parliament or state legislature.
“Indian Young Lawyers Association & Others vs The State of Kerala & Others” case, 2018 : A five-judge bench had delivered a landmark 4:1 ruling setting aside the decadesold restrictions on the entry of women of reproductive age inside Sabarimala Temple.
Ban on the entry of women in Sabarimala is a type of untouchability, and thus it violates Article 17.Unattempted
Article 17 of the constitution abolishes “untouchability” and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
The term “untouchability” however has not been defined under the constitution.
Under the Protection of Civil Rights act, 1955 a person convicted of the offence of “untouchability” is disqualified for election to the Parliament or state legislature.
“Indian Young Lawyers Association & Others vs The State of Kerala & Others” case, 2018 : A five-judge bench had delivered a landmark 4:1 ruling setting aside the decadesold restrictions on the entry of women of reproductive age inside Sabarimala Temple.
Ban on the entry of women in Sabarimala is a type of untouchability, and thus it violates Article 17. -
Question 12 of 100
12. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to resolutions:
(1) All resolutions are substantive motions.
(2) A resolution cannot contain any matter which is under adjudication by a court of law in India.
(3) A statutory resolution can be moved by a minister only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 onlyCorrect
A substantive motion is a self-contained, independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House. All resolutions are substantive motions.
A resolution is one of the procedural devices to raise a discussion in the House on a matter of general public interest.
A resolution for being admissible should satisfy the following conditions:—
(i) it shall be clearly and precisely expressed;
(ii) it shall raise substantially one definite issue;
(iii) it shall not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory statements;
(iv) it shall not refer to the conduct or character of persons except in their official or public capacity; and
(v) it shall not relate to any matter which is under adjudication by a court of law having jurisdiction in any part of India.
Resolutions tabled in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament are termed statutory resolutions. Notice of such resolutions may be given either by a Minister or by a private member.
Private member :
Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a minister is called as a private member.
• Its introduction in the House requires one month”s notice.
• Private member”s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Friday.
• The last time a private member”s bill was passed by both Houses was in 1970.
• It was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968.
• 14 private member”s bills — five of which were introduced in Rajya Sabha — have become law so far.
• They can introduce constitutional amendment bills but not money bills.Incorrect
A substantive motion is a self-contained, independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House. All resolutions are substantive motions.
A resolution is one of the procedural devices to raise a discussion in the House on a matter of general public interest.
A resolution for being admissible should satisfy the following conditions:—
(i) it shall be clearly and precisely expressed;
(ii) it shall raise substantially one definite issue;
(iii) it shall not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory statements;
(iv) it shall not refer to the conduct or character of persons except in their official or public capacity; and
(v) it shall not relate to any matter which is under adjudication by a court of law having jurisdiction in any part of India.
Resolutions tabled in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament are termed statutory resolutions. Notice of such resolutions may be given either by a Minister or by a private member.
Private member :
Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a minister is called as a private member.
• Its introduction in the House requires one month”s notice.
• Private member”s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Friday.
• The last time a private member”s bill was passed by both Houses was in 1970.
• It was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968.
• 14 private member”s bills — five of which were introduced in Rajya Sabha — have become law so far.
• They can introduce constitutional amendment bills but not money bills.Unattempted
A substantive motion is a self-contained, independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House. All resolutions are substantive motions.
A resolution is one of the procedural devices to raise a discussion in the House on a matter of general public interest.
A resolution for being admissible should satisfy the following conditions:—
(i) it shall be clearly and precisely expressed;
(ii) it shall raise substantially one definite issue;
(iii) it shall not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory statements;
(iv) it shall not refer to the conduct or character of persons except in their official or public capacity; and
(v) it shall not relate to any matter which is under adjudication by a court of law having jurisdiction in any part of India.
Resolutions tabled in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament are termed statutory resolutions. Notice of such resolutions may be given either by a Minister or by a private member.
Private member :
Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a minister is called as a private member.
• Its introduction in the House requires one month”s notice.
• Private member”s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Friday.
• The last time a private member”s bill was passed by both Houses was in 1970.
• It was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968.
• 14 private member”s bills — five of which were introduced in Rajya Sabha — have become law so far.
• They can introduce constitutional amendment bills but not money bills. -
Question 13 of 100
13. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is true regarding the qualifications required for appointment of a person as a District Judge ?
(A) He should have been an advocate or pleader for a minimum period of 10 years.
(B) He should be in the service of central or state government.
(C) He should be recommended by the high court for appointment.
(D) All of the aboveCorrect
One should be an advocate for 7 years and not be in any central or state government services. High court”s recommendation is necessary for the appointment of district judge.
Incorrect
One should be an advocate for 7 years and not be in any central or state government services. High court”s recommendation is necessary for the appointment of district judge.
Unattempted
One should be an advocate for 7 years and not be in any central or state government services. High court”s recommendation is necessary for the appointment of district judge.
-
Question 14 of 100
14. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Election commission of India, consider the following statements:
(1) The Parliament has the power to decide the number of election commissioners.
(2) The salary of Election Commissioner is a charged expenditure on the Consolidated fund of India.
(3) The Election Commissioners are not barred from further employment under the Government after retirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Article 324 provides that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The salary of Election commissioner is not a charged expenditure on the consolidated fund of India and hence cannot be voted upon by the Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further employment under the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
Article 324 provides that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The salary of Election commissioner is not a charged expenditure on the consolidated fund of India and hence cannot be voted upon by the Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further employment under the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.Unattempted
Article 324 provides that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The salary of Election commissioner is not a charged expenditure on the consolidated fund of India and hence cannot be voted upon by the Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further employment under the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct. -
Question 15 of 100
15. Question
2 pointsWith reference to elections to Panchayats, consider the following statements:
(1) The minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats is 25 years.
(2) Elections to panchayats are conducted as per the electoral rolls prepared for the most recent state election.
(3) The chairpersons of panchayats at all three levels must be elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats is 21 years.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The preparation of electoral roll as well as the conduct of all elections to panchayats is performed under the superintendence, direction and control of the state election commission. The electoral rolls for state elections are prepared by the (Central) Election Commission.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The chairpersons of panchayats at intermediary and district levels must be elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members of the respective bodies. The process for election of the chairperson of a village level panchayat is to be prescribed by the state legislature.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats is 21 years.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The preparation of electoral roll as well as the conduct of all elections to panchayats is performed under the superintendence, direction and control of the state election commission. The electoral rolls for state elections are prepared by the (Central) Election Commission.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The chairpersons of panchayats at intermediary and district levels must be elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members of the respective bodies. The process for election of the chairperson of a village level panchayat is to be prescribed by the state legislature.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. The minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats is 21 years.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The preparation of electoral roll as well as the conduct of all elections to panchayats is performed under the superintendence, direction and control of the state election commission. The electoral rolls for state elections are prepared by the (Central) Election Commission.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The chairpersons of panchayats at intermediary and district levels must be elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members of the respective bodies. The process for election of the chairperson of a village level panchayat is to be prescribed by the state legislature. -
Question 16 of 100
16. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the bill for formation of a new state, consider the following statements:
(1) It can only be introduced on prior recommendation of the President.
(2) It is referred to the Union territory concerned if it has a legislative assembly
(3) The state legislature has to return the bill within 14 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
A bill for formation of a new state can only be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In case of a union territory, no reference need be made to concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. The period is not fixed at 14 days. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.Incorrect
A bill for formation of a new state can only be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In case of a union territory, no reference need be made to concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. The period is not fixed at 14 days. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.Unattempted
A bill for formation of a new state can only be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In case of a union territory, no reference need be made to concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. The period is not fixed at 14 days. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. -
Question 17 of 100
17. Question
2 pointsArticle-262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of Inter-state water disputes. Which of the following provisions in this regards is/are correct?
(1) Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint.
(2) Parliament cannot restrict Supreme Court or any other court to exercise jurisdiction in respect of such dispute.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is correct: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter State river or river valley.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause 1.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter State river or river valley.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause 1.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter State river or river valley.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause 1. -
Question 18 of 100
18. Question
2 pointsWith reference to State Human rights commission (SHRC), consider the following statements:
(1) It can only be established for states and not for Union Territories.
(2) Its members are appointed and removed by the president.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Under the Human rights act, a state human rights commission can be be setup in a state only and not in union territories. Cases of human rights violation in union territories are taken up by National Human rights commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.Incorrect
Under the Human rights act, a state human rights commission can be be setup in a state only and not in union territories. Cases of human rights violation in union territories are taken up by National Human rights commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.Unattempted
Under the Human rights act, a state human rights commission can be be setup in a state only and not in union territories. Cases of human rights violation in union territories are taken up by National Human rights commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. -
Question 19 of 100
19. Question
2 pointsThe powers and status of Legislative Council are broadly equal to that of the Legislative Assembly of a state in which of the following matters?
(1) Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
(2) Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies.
(3) Selection of ministers including the chief minister
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:
1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
3. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
4. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.Incorrect
In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:
1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
3. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
4. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.Unattempted
In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:
1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
3. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
4. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India. -
Question 20 of 100
20. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following in a Question hour can be followed by a supplementary question?
(1) Starred question
(2) Unstarred question
(3) Short Notice question
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Questions are of four types: Starred, Unstarred, Short Notice Questions and Questions addressed to private Members:
A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally and followed by supplementary questions.Incorrect
Questions are of four types: Starred, Unstarred, Short Notice Questions and Questions addressed to private Members:
A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally and followed by supplementary questions.Unattempted
Questions are of four types: Starred, Unstarred, Short Notice Questions and Questions addressed to private Members:
A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally and followed by supplementary questions. -
Question 21 of 100
21. Question
2 pointsThe transfer of Judges from one High Court to another is done by:
(A) Chief Justice of India only
(B) Governor after consulting Chief Justice of India.
(C) Chief Justice of India after consulting concerned Chief Justice of High Court.
(D) President after consulting Chief Justice of IndiaCorrect
The President can transfer a Judge from one High Court to another after consulting Chief Justice of India. On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by the Parliament.
Incorrect
The President can transfer a Judge from one High Court to another after consulting Chief Justice of India. On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by the Parliament.
Unattempted
The President can transfer a Judge from one High Court to another after consulting Chief Justice of India. On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by the Parliament.
-
Question 22 of 100
22. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) In case of a conflict between a central law and a state law on a subject in the concurrent list, the central law always prevails over the state law.
(2) The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects lies with states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. In case of a conflict between a central law and state law on a subject in concurrent list, the central law prevails over state law, except when the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his assent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects lies with the Parliament.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. In case of a conflict between a central law and state law on a subject in concurrent list, the central law prevails over state law, except when the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his assent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects lies with the Parliament.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. In case of a conflict between a central law and state law on a subject in concurrent list, the central law prevails over state law, except when the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his assent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects lies with the Parliament. -
Question 23 of 100
23. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Committee on Public Undertakings, consider the following statements:
(1) Its members are drawn from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(2) A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee.
(3) The Chairman has to be a member of Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members fifteen elected by the Lok Sabha and seven by the Rajya Sabha, from amongst their Members, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
A Minister is not eligible to become a Member of the Committee. If a Member after his election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
The term of the Committee does not exceed one year. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee. Only Lok Sabha member can become the chairman of the committee. Hence, 3rd statement is not correct.Incorrect
The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members fifteen elected by the Lok Sabha and seven by the Rajya Sabha, from amongst their Members, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
A Minister is not eligible to become a Member of the Committee. If a Member after his election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
The term of the Committee does not exceed one year. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee. Only Lok Sabha member can become the chairman of the committee. Hence, 3rd statement is not correct.Unattempted
The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members fifteen elected by the Lok Sabha and seven by the Rajya Sabha, from amongst their Members, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
A Minister is not eligible to become a Member of the Committee. If a Member after his election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
The term of the Committee does not exceed one year. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee. Only Lok Sabha member can become the chairman of the committee. Hence, 3rd statement is not correct. -
Question 24 of 100
24. Question
2 pointsIn case of conflict among two or more judgements of the Supreme Court, which of the following judgement is followed or considered as final?
(A) Latest judgment given by Supreme Court.
(B) Judgment given by larger bench.
(C) Any of the judgements as deemed fit by the court.
(D) Such situation has not been clarified by the Supreme Court or is provided under the Indian Constitution.Correct
Option (B) is correct as in Pyare Mohan Lal v. state of Jharkhand, (2010) it has been clarified that in case of conflict of judgments of supreme court, the one given by larger bench would be followed. A smaller bench can not review opinion given by a larger bench.
Incorrect
Option (B) is correct as in Pyare Mohan Lal v. state of Jharkhand, (2010) it has been clarified that in case of conflict of judgments of supreme court, the one given by larger bench would be followed. A smaller bench can not review opinion given by a larger bench.
Unattempted
Option (B) is correct as in Pyare Mohan Lal v. state of Jharkhand, (2010) it has been clarified that in case of conflict of judgments of supreme court, the one given by larger bench would be followed. A smaller bench can not review opinion given by a larger bench.
-
Question 25 of 100
25. Question
2 pointsThe form of government in India is termed as Parliamentary Government due to:
(1) Presence of both nominal and real executives.
(2) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
(3) Sovereignty of the parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
Presence of nominal and real executives;
Majority party rule, o Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly)
Indian parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament.Incorrect
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
Presence of nominal and real executives;
Majority party rule, o Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly)
Indian parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament.Unattempted
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
Presence of nominal and real executives;
Majority party rule, o Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly)
Indian parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. -
Question 26 of 100
26. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Consumer rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, consider the following statements.
(1) Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer.
(2) A consumer not required to pay any fee while filing a complaint in any consumer forum.
(3) In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A consumer is not required to pay any court fee but depending on the type of court and the claim amount there is a provision of a nominal fee.
Statement 3 is correct. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A consumer is not required to pay any court fee but depending on the type of court and the claim amount there is a provision of a nominal fee.
Statement 3 is correct. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A consumer is not required to pay any court fee but depending on the type of court and the claim amount there is a provision of a nominal fee.
Statement 3 is correct. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf. -
Question 27 of 100
27. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the power of the Speaker to suspend the members from the House, consider the following statements:
(1) It is a constitutional power of the Speaker.
2. Speaker must consult the Parliamentary Affairs Minister before taking such decision.
(3) The decision of the speaker is final and binding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) NoneCorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: Speaker derives this power from the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business. The Speaker may invoke Rule 374A in case of “grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House, persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise…”. The member concerned, “on being named by the Speaker, stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less”.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker can take the decision independently without consulting the Parliamentary Affairs Minister.
Statement 3 is correct: The decision to suspend the members from the House is final and binding.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: Speaker derives this power from the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business. The Speaker may invoke Rule 374A in case of “grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House, persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise…”. The member concerned, “on being named by the Speaker, stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less”.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker can take the decision independently without consulting the Parliamentary Affairs Minister.
Statement 3 is correct: The decision to suspend the members from the House is final and binding.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect: Speaker derives this power from the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business. The Speaker may invoke Rule 374A in case of “grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House, persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise…”. The member concerned, “on being named by the Speaker, stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less”.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker can take the decision independently without consulting the Parliamentary Affairs Minister.
Statement 3 is correct: The decision to suspend the members from the House is final and binding. -
Question 28 of 100
28. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Citizen Charter consider the following statements:
(1) The term “Citizen” in the Citizen”s Charter includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders.
(2) Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable.
(3) Department of personnel and training provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
The term “Citizen” in the Citizen”s Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are addressed by the Citizen”s Charter and, therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders, i.e., citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrations etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizen”s Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.Incorrect
The term “Citizen” in the Citizen”s Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are addressed by the Citizen”s Charter and, therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders, i.e., citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrations etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizen”s Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.Unattempted
The term “Citizen” in the Citizen”s Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are addressed by the Citizen”s Charter and, therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders, i.e., citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrations etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizen”s Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation. -
Question 29 of 100
29. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) In order to decide the disqualification of a Member of the parliament, the President must take the opinion of the Supreme Court.
(2) According to the Constitution, Parliament can make laws regarding disqualification.
(3) Election Commission can take suo-moto decision to disqualify a member of either House.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect: If any question arises regarding disqualification of a member, the President”s decision, in accordance with the opinion of the Election Commission, shall be final.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 102 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can make laws regarding disqualification.Incorrect
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect: If any question arises regarding disqualification of a member, the President”s decision, in accordance with the opinion of the Election Commission, shall be final.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 102 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can make laws regarding disqualification.Unattempted
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect: If any question arises regarding disqualification of a member, the President”s decision, in accordance with the opinion of the Election Commission, shall be final.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 102 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can make laws regarding disqualification. -
Question 30 of 100
30. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following directives can be used by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure “free and fair” elections in India?
(1) The election manifesto should be in consonance with the Model Code of Conduct.
(2) Manifestos should broadly reflect the financial means to fulfil the promises.
(3) ECI can declare the election of a candidate null and void on grounds of corruption even after the elction process is over.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
The Supreme Court in S. Subramaniam Balaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others has directed the mection Commission to frame guidelines with regard to the contents of election manifestos in consultation with all the recognized political parties. Accordingly, certain guidelines are issued:
1. The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct (statement 1 is correct).
2. In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it (statement 2 is correct).
Statement 3 is incorrect: After the election gets over, the power to declare an election null and void is in the hands of High Courts and not ECI.Incorrect
The Supreme Court in S. Subramaniam Balaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others has directed the mection Commission to frame guidelines with regard to the contents of election manifestos in consultation with all the recognized political parties. Accordingly, certain guidelines are issued:
1. The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct (statement 1 is correct).
2. In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it (statement 2 is correct).
Statement 3 is incorrect: After the election gets over, the power to declare an election null and void is in the hands of High Courts and not ECI.Unattempted
The Supreme Court in S. Subramaniam Balaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others has directed the mection Commission to frame guidelines with regard to the contents of election manifestos in consultation with all the recognized political parties. Accordingly, certain guidelines are issued:
1. The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct (statement 1 is correct).
2. In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it (statement 2 is correct).
Statement 3 is incorrect: After the election gets over, the power to declare an election null and void is in the hands of High Courts and not ECI. -
Question 31 of 100
31. Question
2 pointsThe electoral college to elect the President of India consists of:
(1) All the members of Lok Sabha
(2) All the members of Legislative Assemblies of states
(3) All the members of Rajya Sabha
(4) All the members of Legislative Councils of states
Select the correct answer using the code below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) None of the aboveCorrect
Article 54 of the constitution says: “The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of:
(a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and
(b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th amendment Act, 1992).”Incorrect
Article 54 of the constitution says: “The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of:
(a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and
(b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th amendment Act, 1992).”Unattempted
Article 54 of the constitution says: “The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of:
(a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and
(b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th amendment Act, 1992).” -
Question 32 of 100
32. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements:
(1) He has a right to take part in the proceedings of the committees of the Parliament.
(2) He is debarred from private legal practice, since he is a full time counsel for the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect : Attorney general of India has the right to speak and to take part in proceedings of both the houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without right to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Attorney general of India is not debarred from private legal practiice and is not a full time counsel for government of India.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : Attorney general of India has the right to speak and to take part in proceedings of both the houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without right to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Attorney general of India is not debarred from private legal practiice and is not a full time counsel for government of India.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect : Attorney general of India has the right to speak and to take part in proceedings of both the houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without right to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Attorney general of India is not debarred from private legal practiice and is not a full time counsel for government of India. -
Question 33 of 100
33. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the power of judicial review of high courts, consider the following statements:
(1) High court can review the laws enacted by state legislatures only and not the ones enacted by the Centre.
(2) High court can not interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed by the government, as Supreme Court is the sole interpreter of Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian judiciary is an integrated judiciary with High courts and Supreme Court as higher branch which are vested with power to secure constitutionalism in our country. Supreme Court and even High courts as well can review any legislative enactment and executive order of state and central government both.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 13 and 226 require the High courts to look into the constitutionality of acts and orders passed by government. Hence even high courts can interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed government.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian judiciary is an integrated judiciary with High courts and Supreme Court as higher branch which are vested with power to secure constitutionalism in our country. Supreme Court and even High courts as well can review any legislative enactment and executive order of state and central government both.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 13 and 226 require the High courts to look into the constitutionality of acts and orders passed by government. Hence even high courts can interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed government.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian judiciary is an integrated judiciary with High courts and Supreme Court as higher branch which are vested with power to secure constitutionalism in our country. Supreme Court and even High courts as well can review any legislative enactment and executive order of state and central government both.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 13 and 226 require the High courts to look into the constitutionality of acts and orders passed by government. Hence even high courts can interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed government. -
Question 34 of 100
34. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.
(2) Disputes related to the elections of the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the House of the People is determined by an election petition before the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.
There is no special provision for the Prime Minister or the Speaker of the House, so that any dispute relating to election to these offices is to be determined only by an election petition before the High Court, according to Art.329 (b). So statement 2 is incorrect.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.
There is no special provision for the Prime Minister or the Speaker of the House, so that any dispute relating to election to these offices is to be determined only by an election petition before the High Court, according to Art.329 (b). So statement 2 is incorrect.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.
There is no special provision for the Prime Minister or the Speaker of the House, so that any dispute relating to election to these offices is to be determined only by an election petition before the High Court, according to Art.329 (b). So statement 2 is incorrect. -
Question 35 of 100
35. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the provisions of the Panchayats(Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, consider the following statements:
(1) In the Scheduled areas, atleast one-half of the seats in every panchayat are reserved for members of the scheduled tribes.
(2) The Gram Sabha shall be responsible for the coordination of planning and implementation of development projects in the scheduled areas involving acquisition of land.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is correct. In the scheduled areas, atleast one-half of the seats in every panchayat are reserved for members of the scheduled tribes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gram Sabha or appropriate Panchayat shall be consulted before acquisition of land for development projects as well as rehabilitation and resettlement of affected persons in the Scheduled areas. The actual planning and cooridanation of projects shall be conducted at the state level.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In the scheduled areas, atleast one-half of the seats in every panchayat are reserved for members of the scheduled tribes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gram Sabha or appropriate Panchayat shall be consulted before acquisition of land for development projects as well as rehabilitation and resettlement of affected persons in the Scheduled areas. The actual planning and cooridanation of projects shall be conducted at the state level.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. In the scheduled areas, atleast one-half of the seats in every panchayat are reserved for members of the scheduled tribes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gram Sabha or appropriate Panchayat shall be consulted before acquisition of land for development projects as well as rehabilitation and resettlement of affected persons in the Scheduled areas. The actual planning and cooridanation of projects shall be conducted at the state level. -
Question 36 of 100
36. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Advocate General of State, consider the following statements:
(1) He is appointed by the Governor but removed by the President.
(2) His term is not fixed under the Constitution.
(3) His remuneration is determined by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) NoneCorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Advocate General of State is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : The Term of Advocate General of State is not Fixed under Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect : He receives such remuneration as determined by the Governor of a State.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Advocate General of State is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : The Term of Advocate General of State is not Fixed under Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect : He receives such remuneration as determined by the Governor of a State.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Advocate General of State is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : The Term of Advocate General of State is not Fixed under Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect : He receives such remuneration as determined by the Governor of a State. -
Question 37 of 100
37. Question
2 pointsThe fundamental objectives of a social audit are to ensure which of the following?
(1) Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.
(2) Creating awareness among beneficiaries of services.
(3) Capacity building of the poor and the marginalized.
(4) Increasing the efficacy and efficiency of local development programmes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 onlyCorrect
Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below (the list is not exhaustive).
Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.
Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.
Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.
Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of rural poor.
Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services. Hence statement 3 is incorrect as capacity building of the poor and marginalized is not a fundamental objective of social audit. All other statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.Incorrect
Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below (the list is not exhaustive).
Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.
Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.
Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.
Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of rural poor.
Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services. Hence statement 3 is incorrect as capacity building of the poor and marginalized is not a fundamental objective of social audit. All other statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.Unattempted
Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below (the list is not exhaustive).
Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.
Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.
Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.
Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of rural poor.
Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services. Hence statement 3 is incorrect as capacity building of the poor and marginalized is not a fundamental objective of social audit. All other statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. -
Question 38 of 100
38. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Central Council of Ministers, consider the following statements:
(1) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the President.
(2) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the House of the people.
(3) Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister dissolves the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 onlyCorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha and individually responsible to President.
President can dismiss Ministers individually on PM”s advice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is correct: Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the Council of Ministers.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha and individually responsible to President.
President can dismiss Ministers individually on PM”s advice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is correct: Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the Council of Ministers.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect : Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha and individually responsible to President.
President can dismiss Ministers individually on PM”s advice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is correct: Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the Council of Ministers. -
Question 39 of 100
39. Question
2 pointsThe reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is/are examined by which of the following committees?
(1) Public Accounts Committees
(2) Committee on Public Undertakings
(3) Estimates Committees
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committees (PACs) and Committees on Public Undertakings (COPUs).
Incorrect
The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committees (PACs) and Committees on Public Undertakings (COPUs).
Unattempted
The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committees (PACs) and Committees on Public Undertakings (COPUs).
-
Question 40 of 100
40. Question
2 pointsAs per the directions given by the Supreme Court in S. R. Bommai case, which of the following situations is/are not considered as ground/s for proclamation of President”s rule in a state?
(1) A situation of maladministration in a state persists where duly constituted ministry enjoys support of the assembly.
(2) In case of serious allegations of corruption against the ministry of the state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
In S.R. Bommai case Supreme court endorsed Sarkaria Commission”s report finding and approved some of the situations which did not amount to “failure of constitutional machinery.” Among them, the following two included
(1) A situation of maladministration in a State where a duly constituted ministry enjoys the support of the Assembly.
(2)This power cannot be invoked, merely on the ground that there are serious allegations of corruption against the Ministry.Incorrect
In S.R. Bommai case Supreme court endorsed Sarkaria Commission”s report finding and approved some of the situations which did not amount to “failure of constitutional machinery.” Among them, the following two included
(1) A situation of maladministration in a State where a duly constituted ministry enjoys the support of the Assembly.
(2)This power cannot be invoked, merely on the ground that there are serious allegations of corruption against the Ministry.Unattempted
In S.R. Bommai case Supreme court endorsed Sarkaria Commission”s report finding and approved some of the situations which did not amount to “failure of constitutional machinery.” Among them, the following two included
(1) A situation of maladministration in a State where a duly constituted ministry enjoys the support of the Assembly.
(2)This power cannot be invoked, merely on the ground that there are serious allegations of corruption against the Ministry. -
Question 41 of 100
41. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding difference between Article 323 A and 323 B:
(1) Tribunals under Article 323A can be established by both parliament and state legislature
(2) Tribunals under Article 323B can only be established by parliament.
(3) There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) NoneCorrect
Tribunals under Article 323A can only be established by parliament while Tribunals under Article 323B can be established by both parliament and state legislature. So statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be created. So statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
Tribunals under Article 323A can only be established by parliament while Tribunals under Article 323B can be established by both parliament and state legislature. So statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be created. So statement 3 is correct.Unattempted
Tribunals under Article 323A can only be established by parliament while Tribunals under Article 323B can be established by both parliament and state legislature. So statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be created. So statement 3 is correct. -
Question 42 of 100
42. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy, which of the following were added by an amendment to the Constitution of India?
(1) To make provisions for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief
(2) To prohibit slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and drought cattle
(3) To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas.
(4) To secure opportunities for healthy development of children
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyCorrect
This was added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 along with three other DPSPs to the original list. The others were part of the original Constitution.
Incorrect
This was added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 along with three other DPSPs to the original list. The others were part of the original Constitution.
Unattempted
This was added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 along with three other DPSPs to the original list. The others were part of the original Constitution.
-
Question 43 of 100
43. Question
2 pointsIn the electoral process in India “The model code of conduct” comes in force from:
(A) The first day for filling the nominations by candidates
(B) Day on which the dates for elections are announced by Election Commission
(C) The last day for filing the nominations by candidates.
(D) 48 hours before the polling begins in the first phase of election.Correct
In general election to the House of the People, the President call upon the parliamentary constituencies to elect members for the purpose of constituting a new House through notifications published in the Gazette of India on such date or dates as may be recommended by the Election Commission, The model code of conduct comes into force from this instant.
Same is applicable in Vidhan sabha elctions.Incorrect
In general election to the House of the People, the President call upon the parliamentary constituencies to elect members for the purpose of constituting a new House through notifications published in the Gazette of India on such date or dates as may be recommended by the Election Commission, The model code of conduct comes into force from this instant.
Same is applicable in Vidhan sabha elctions.Unattempted
In general election to the House of the People, the President call upon the parliamentary constituencies to elect members for the purpose of constituting a new House through notifications published in the Gazette of India on such date or dates as may be recommended by the Election Commission, The model code of conduct comes into force from this instant.
Same is applicable in Vidhan sabha elctions. -
Question 44 of 100
44. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Emergency.
(1) It can be proclaimed on grounds of “internal disturbance”.
(2) Fundamental Rights under Article 19 get automatically suspended in case of emergency.
(3) It is only on the written advice of the Council of Ministers that the President of India can proclaim emergency.
Select the correct statement using the codes given below.
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
The six fundamental rights under article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression and not on the ground of armed rebellion. Written advice of Cabinet is required, not the full council of ministers. In fact Article 352 (3) is the only Article in the Constitution that uses the word Cabinet.
Incorrect
The six fundamental rights under article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression and not on the ground of armed rebellion. Written advice of Cabinet is required, not the full council of ministers. In fact Article 352 (3) is the only Article in the Constitution that uses the word Cabinet.
Unattempted
The six fundamental rights under article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression and not on the ground of armed rebellion. Written advice of Cabinet is required, not the full council of ministers. In fact Article 352 (3) is the only Article in the Constitution that uses the word Cabinet.
-
Question 45 of 100
45. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:
(1) Its establishment can be traced to the Government of India Act, 1919.
(2) The Constitution does not specify the strength of the Commission.
(3) The members of UPSC hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Statement 1 is correct: The Central Public Service Commission came into being in 1926 as per the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.
Statement 2 is correct: As far as the strength of the Commission is concerned, it is left to the President to decide upon this.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed before the expiry of their term by the president in the manner as provided in the Constitution.
The President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
(a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
(b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
(c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour.
However, in this case, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the President can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: The Central Public Service Commission came into being in 1926 as per the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.
Statement 2 is correct: As far as the strength of the Commission is concerned, it is left to the President to decide upon this.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed before the expiry of their term by the president in the manner as provided in the Constitution.
The President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
(a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
(b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
(c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour.
However, in this case, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the President can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: The Central Public Service Commission came into being in 1926 as per the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.
Statement 2 is correct: As far as the strength of the Commission is concerned, it is left to the President to decide upon this.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed before the expiry of their term by the president in the manner as provided in the Constitution.
The President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
(a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
(b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
(c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour.
However, in this case, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the President can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC. -
Question 46 of 100
46. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the fundamental duties.
(1) Fundamental duties are covered under Art. 51 of Constitution
(2) There are total of 10 fundamental duties in the Constitution.
(3) Fundamental duties have been added to the Constitution on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee.
(4) Voting in elections is a fundamental duty of every Indian citizen.
Select the correct statement using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the aboveCorrect
This is an easy and simple question. Fundamental Duties have been asked in both Prelims and Mains and candidates are expected to know these. Fundamental duties are covered under Art. 51A of Constitution. There are a total of 11 fundamental duties in the Constitution, with the duty for parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward, as the case may be, between the age of six and fourteen years added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Fundamental duties have been added to the Constitution on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee. Voting in elections is a fundamental duty of every Indian citizen.Incorrect
This is an easy and simple question. Fundamental Duties have been asked in both Prelims and Mains and candidates are expected to know these. Fundamental duties are covered under Art. 51A of Constitution. There are a total of 11 fundamental duties in the Constitution, with the duty for parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward, as the case may be, between the age of six and fourteen years added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Fundamental duties have been added to the Constitution on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee. Voting in elections is a fundamental duty of every Indian citizen.Unattempted
This is an easy and simple question. Fundamental Duties have been asked in both Prelims and Mains and candidates are expected to know these. Fundamental duties are covered under Art. 51A of Constitution. There are a total of 11 fundamental duties in the Constitution, with the duty for parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward, as the case may be, between the age of six and fourteen years added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Fundamental duties have been added to the Constitution on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee. Voting in elections is a fundamental duty of every Indian citizen. -
Question 47 of 100
47. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), consider the following statements:
(1) He submits all its reports to the President.
(2) He compiles and maintains the accounts of the state governments.
(3) Governor of a state can request CAG to audit local bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the CAG submits three audit reports to the President i.e. Audit report on Appropriation accounts, audit report on Finance accounts and audit report on Public Undertakings, the audit reports relating to the accounts of state are submitted to the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments, however in 1976, CAG was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of accounts of Central Government.
Statement 3 is correct: He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor e.g. audit of local bodies on the request of Governor.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the CAG submits three audit reports to the President i.e. Audit report on Appropriation accounts, audit report on Finance accounts and audit report on Public Undertakings, the audit reports relating to the accounts of state are submitted to the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments, however in 1976, CAG was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of accounts of Central Government.
Statement 3 is correct: He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor e.g. audit of local bodies on the request of Governor.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the CAG submits three audit reports to the President i.e. Audit report on Appropriation accounts, audit report on Finance accounts and audit report on Public Undertakings, the audit reports relating to the accounts of state are submitted to the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments, however in 1976, CAG was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of accounts of Central Government.
Statement 3 is correct: He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor e.g. audit of local bodies on the request of Governor. -
Question 48 of 100
48. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the special powers of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(1) Presiding over a joint sitting of the Parliament.
(2) Appointment of chairman to the primary committees.
(3) Allowing adjournment motion in the House.
Select the INCORRECT statement using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) None of the above.Correct
All statements are correct.
The Speaker is the guardian of the rights and privileges of the House, its Committees and members.Incorrect
All statements are correct.
The Speaker is the guardian of the rights and privileges of the House, its Committees and members.Unattempted
All statements are correct.
The Speaker is the guardian of the rights and privileges of the House, its Committees and members. -
Question 49 of 100
49. Question
2 pointsE-Governance” involves the use Information and Communication Technology (ICT) by the Government for which of the following purpose/s?
(1) Exchange of information with citizens and government departments only.
(2) Restructuring of administrative processes.
(3) Speedier and more efficient delivery of public services.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
E- Governance involve the use of ICTs by government agencies for any or all of the following reasons:
(a) Exchange of information with citizens, businesses or other government departments
(b) Speedier and more efficient delivery of public services
(c) Improving internal efficiency
(d) Reducing costs / increasing revenue
(e) Re-structuring of administrative processes and
(f) Improving quality of services. Hence, all statements are correct.
Hence Statement 1 is wrong. The exchange of information is not limited to citizens and government depatments, business groups are also involved in the use of ICT for E-governance.Incorrect
E- Governance involve the use of ICTs by government agencies for any or all of the following reasons:
(a) Exchange of information with citizens, businesses or other government departments
(b) Speedier and more efficient delivery of public services
(c) Improving internal efficiency
(d) Reducing costs / increasing revenue
(e) Re-structuring of administrative processes and
(f) Improving quality of services. Hence, all statements are correct.
Hence Statement 1 is wrong. The exchange of information is not limited to citizens and government depatments, business groups are also involved in the use of ICT for E-governance.Unattempted
E- Governance involve the use of ICTs by government agencies for any or all of the following reasons:
(a) Exchange of information with citizens, businesses or other government departments
(b) Speedier and more efficient delivery of public services
(c) Improving internal efficiency
(d) Reducing costs / increasing revenue
(e) Re-structuring of administrative processes and
(f) Improving quality of services. Hence, all statements are correct.
Hence Statement 1 is wrong. The exchange of information is not limited to citizens and government depatments, business groups are also involved in the use of ICT for E-governance. -
Question 50 of 100
50. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following criteria would change a registered party into National Party?
(1) Securing 4% of votes polled in four or more states, and it should have 4 MPs in Lok Sabha.
(2) Securing 6% of votes polled in a state and winning at least 2 seats in the Legislative Assembly.
(3) At least 9 MPs in Lok Sabha and these MPs are elected from at least 3 different states.
Select the correct statement using the codes given below.
(A) 1 Only
(B) 1 and 3 Only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None of the aboveCorrect
Statement 2 is a criteria to be a State Party, not a National Party. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is also incorrect as Securing 6% of votes polled in four or more states changes Party into National Party.
Statement 3 is also incorrect as at least 11 MPs in Lok Sabha required across 3 different states to become a national Party.
As per Election Commission, Criteria is as follow:
A political party shall be eligible to be recognised as a National Party if :-
(i) it secures at least six percent(6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
(ii) in addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
OR
It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
A political party shall be entitled to be recognised as a State Party , if:-
(i) it secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election, either to the House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned; and
(ii) In addition, it wins at least two seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned.
OR
It wins at least three percent (3%) of the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State, or at least three seats in the Assembly, whichever is more.Incorrect
Statement 2 is a criteria to be a State Party, not a National Party. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is also incorrect as Securing 6% of votes polled in four or more states changes Party into National Party.
Statement 3 is also incorrect as at least 11 MPs in Lok Sabha required across 3 different states to become a national Party.
As per Election Commission, Criteria is as follow:
A political party shall be eligible to be recognised as a National Party if :-
(i) it secures at least six percent(6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
(ii) in addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
OR
It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
A political party shall be entitled to be recognised as a State Party , if:-
(i) it secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election, either to the House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned; and
(ii) In addition, it wins at least two seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned.
OR
It wins at least three percent (3%) of the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State, or at least three seats in the Assembly, whichever is more.Unattempted
Statement 2 is a criteria to be a State Party, not a National Party. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is also incorrect as Securing 6% of votes polled in four or more states changes Party into National Party.
Statement 3 is also incorrect as at least 11 MPs in Lok Sabha required across 3 different states to become a national Party.
As per Election Commission, Criteria is as follow:
A political party shall be eligible to be recognised as a National Party if :-
(i) it secures at least six percent(6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
(ii) in addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
OR
It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
A political party shall be entitled to be recognised as a State Party , if:-
(i) it secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election, either to the House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned; and
(ii) In addition, it wins at least two seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned.
OR
It wins at least three percent (3%) of the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State, or at least three seats in the Assembly, whichever is more. -
Question 51 of 100
51. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the provisions of Citizenship under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
(1) The Constitution enumerates the provisions related to acquisition and loss of citizenship subsequent to the commencement of the Constitution.
(2) Parliament is empowered to enact laws to provide for matters related to citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. It only identitfies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
Incorrect
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. It only identitfies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
Unattempted
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. It only identitfies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
-
Question 52 of 100
52. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Law Commission of India, consider the following statements:
(1) The Law Commission of India is a statutory advisory body.
(2) It is established by an order of the Central Government every 5 years.
(3) Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws.
(4) Its recommendations are not binding on the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 Only
(C) 3 and 4 Only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4Correct
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body, hence statement 1 is wrong.
It is established by an order of the Central Government from time to time for a fixed tenure. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Therefore option C is correct.Incorrect
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body, hence statement 1 is wrong.
It is established by an order of the Central Government from time to time for a fixed tenure. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Therefore option C is correct.Unattempted
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body, hence statement 1 is wrong.
It is established by an order of the Central Government from time to time for a fixed tenure. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Therefore option C is correct. -
Question 53 of 100
53. Question
2 pointsWhich of the above is/are the features of the federal system?
(1) Pooling of resources to provide maximum benefit to the people.
(2) Supreme Court to arbitrate any disputes between the Union and the States.
(3) All powers are vested with the Central Legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) None of the aboveCorrect
Under federal system there is an independent Supreme Court as the arbiter of the disputes between the union and the units. The federal system is also believed to bring a sense of unity among the people having diverse cultures, languages and territories. Whereas, under unitary system all powers are vested with the central legislature. Statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, statements 1st and 2nd are correct.
Incorrect
Under federal system there is an independent Supreme Court as the arbiter of the disputes between the union and the units. The federal system is also believed to bring a sense of unity among the people having diverse cultures, languages and territories. Whereas, under unitary system all powers are vested with the central legislature. Statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, statements 1st and 2nd are correct.
Unattempted
Under federal system there is an independent Supreme Court as the arbiter of the disputes between the union and the units. The federal system is also believed to bring a sense of unity among the people having diverse cultures, languages and territories. Whereas, under unitary system all powers are vested with the central legislature. Statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, statements 1st and 2nd are correct.
-
Question 54 of 100
54. Question
2 pointsIn which of the following cases was the principle of “Basic Structure Doctrine” used by the Supreme Court to strike down the provisions of Constitutional Amendment Acts?
(1) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
(2) Minerva Mills vs Union of India
(3) Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record – Association and another vs Union of India, 2015
(4) Golaknath vs State of Punjab
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4Correct
The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1971 and laid down the principle of Basic structure. According to the Basic Structure doctrine, Parlimament can amend any part of the Constitution however formed the basis of power of the Indian judiciary to review, and strike down, amendments seek to alter this principle. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court unanimously ruled that the power of the Parliament of India to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution. The ruling struck down few sections of the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act.
Recently, in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record -Association and another v. Union of India case, Supreme Court struck down 99th constitutional amendement which proposed the formation of NJAC for selection and transfer of judges in SC and High courts. Golaknath vs State of Punjab, 1967 was before the basic structure doctrine. In this case the SC opined that fundamental rights can not be amended. After this judgement, the parliament enacted 24th amendemnt which provided that nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the constitution under Article 368.Incorrect
The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1971 and laid down the principle of Basic structure. According to the Basic Structure doctrine, Parlimament can amend any part of the Constitution however formed the basis of power of the Indian judiciary to review, and strike down, amendments seek to alter this principle. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court unanimously ruled that the power of the Parliament of India to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution. The ruling struck down few sections of the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act.
Recently, in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record -Association and another v. Union of India case, Supreme Court struck down 99th constitutional amendement which proposed the formation of NJAC for selection and transfer of judges in SC and High courts. Golaknath vs State of Punjab, 1967 was before the basic structure doctrine. In this case the SC opined that fundamental rights can not be amended. After this judgement, the parliament enacted 24th amendemnt which provided that nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the constitution under Article 368.Unattempted
The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1971 and laid down the principle of Basic structure. According to the Basic Structure doctrine, Parlimament can amend any part of the Constitution however formed the basis of power of the Indian judiciary to review, and strike down, amendments seek to alter this principle. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court unanimously ruled that the power of the Parliament of India to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution. The ruling struck down few sections of the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act.
Recently, in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record -Association and another v. Union of India case, Supreme Court struck down 99th constitutional amendement which proposed the formation of NJAC for selection and transfer of judges in SC and High courts. Golaknath vs State of Punjab, 1967 was before the basic structure doctrine. In this case the SC opined that fundamental rights can not be amended. After this judgement, the parliament enacted 24th amendemnt which provided that nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the constitution under Article 368. -
Question 55 of 100
55. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the service voters in India consider the following statements.
(1) A “service voter” can get enrolled at his native place even though he actually may be residing at a different place of posting.
(2) Service voter belonging to Armed Forces can vote through postal ballot or through a proxy voter duly appointed by him.
(3) Only Armed Forces / Para Military Forces are eligible to be enrolled as service voters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
While an ordinary elector is registered in the electoral roll of the constituency in which his place of ordinary residence is located, person having service qualification can get enrolled as “service voter” at his native place even though he actually may be residing at a different place (of posting). Thus statement 1 is correct.
Service voter belonging to Armed Forces or forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 are applicable, has Option of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy.
voter duly appointed by him. Thus statement 2 is also correct.
Service Voter means any person who is required to give his vote by postal ballot under clause (a) of section 60, i.e.
(a) members of the armed forces of the Union,
(b) members of a force to which the provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950) have been made applicable whether with or without modifications,
(c) members of the armed police force of a State who are serving outside that State,
(d) persons who are employed under the Government of India in a post outside India (e.g. Ambassadors and High Commissioner, of India abroad, their staff etc. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence “a” is the right answer.Incorrect
While an ordinary elector is registered in the electoral roll of the constituency in which his place of ordinary residence is located, person having service qualification can get enrolled as “service voter” at his native place even though he actually may be residing at a different place (of posting). Thus statement 1 is correct.
Service voter belonging to Armed Forces or forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 are applicable, has Option of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy.
voter duly appointed by him. Thus statement 2 is also correct.
Service Voter means any person who is required to give his vote by postal ballot under clause (a) of section 60, i.e.
(a) members of the armed forces of the Union,
(b) members of a force to which the provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950) have been made applicable whether with or without modifications,
(c) members of the armed police force of a State who are serving outside that State,
(d) persons who are employed under the Government of India in a post outside India (e.g. Ambassadors and High Commissioner, of India abroad, their staff etc. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence “A” is the right answer.Unattempted
While an ordinary elector is registered in the electoral roll of the constituency in which his place of ordinary residence is located, person having service qualification can get enrolled as “service voter” at his native place even though he actually may be residing at a different place (of posting). Thus statement 1 is correct.
Service voter belonging to Armed Forces or forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 are applicable, has Option of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy.
voter duly appointed by him. Thus statement 2 is also correct.
Service Voter means any person who is required to give his vote by postal ballot under clause (a) of section 60, i.e.
(a) members of the armed forces of the Union,
(b) members of a force to which the provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950) have been made applicable whether with or without modifications,
(c) members of the armed police force of a State who are serving outside that State,
(d) persons who are employed under the Government of India in a post outside India (e.g. Ambassadors and High Commissioner, of India abroad, their staff etc. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence “A” is the right answer. -
Question 56 of 100
56. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to “Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression” under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution:
(1) The Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property was originally a right guaranteed by Article 19.
(2) Rights guaranteed by Article 19 are protected against only state and not against private individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
All sattements are correct.
Other facts : Freedom of speech and expression through the medium of internet is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
The restrictions on internet have to follow the principles of proportionality under Article 19(2).
Freedom of trade and commerce through internet is also a constitutionally protected right under Article 19(1)(g).Incorrect
All sattements are correct.
Other facts : Freedom of speech and expression through the medium of internet is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
The restrictions on internet have to follow the principles of proportionality under Article 19(2).
Freedom of trade and commerce through internet is also a constitutionally protected right under Article 19(1)(g).Unattempted
All sattements are correct.
Other facts : Freedom of speech and expression through the medium of internet is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
The restrictions on internet have to follow the principles of proportionality under Article 19(2).
Freedom of trade and commerce through internet is also a constitutionally protected right under Article 19(1)(g). -
Question 57 of 100
57. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Directive Principles of State Policy are based on Gandhian Principles?
(1) To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code. (Art 44)
(2) To promote the educational and economical interests of weaker sections in society .( Art 46)
(3) To Protect and improve the environment. (Art. 48A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Directive principles have been classified under Socialistic Principles, Gandhian Principles and Liberal-Intellectual Principles.
Article 44 as well as Article 48 A falls under Liberal-Intellectual Principles.Incorrect
Directive principles have been classified under Socialistic Principles, Gandhian Principles and Liberal-Intellectual Principles.
Article 44 as well as Article 48 A falls under Liberal-Intellectual Principles.Unattempted
Directive principles have been classified under Socialistic Principles, Gandhian Principles and Liberal-Intellectual Principles.
Article 44 as well as Article 48 A falls under Liberal-Intellectual Principles. -
Question 58 of 100
58. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are true in context of Co-operative societies?
(1) Part IX-B of the constitution deal with Co-operative Societies.
(2) Co-operative societies in constitution are mentioned in Directives Principles of State Policy.
(3) Right to form a cooperative is a fundamental Right under the constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
A19(1)(c). All citizens shall have the right to form associations or unions or co-operative socities and Article43 (DPSP) states that he State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.Part IXB of the constitution deal with Co-operative Societies.
Incorrect
A19(1)(c). All citizens shall have the right to form associations or unions or co-operative socities and Article43 (DPSP) states that he State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.Part IXB of the constitution deal with Co-operative Societies.
Unattempted
A19(1)(c). All citizens shall have the right to form associations or unions or co-operative socities and Article43 (DPSP) states that he State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.Part IXB of the constitution deal with Co-operative Societies.
-
Question 59 of 100
59. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Suits Against Public Officials:
(1) No civil proceedings can be started against President and Governors during their term of office in respect of their personal Act.
(2) The constitution grants immunity to the ministers for their official Acts.
(3) The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) NoneCorrect
No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and the governors in respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. However, ivil proceedings can be started against President and Governors during their term of office in respect of their personal Act by giving 2 months advance notice. so statement 1 is incorrect.
The constitution does not grants any immunity to the ministers for their official Acts. so statement 2 is incorrect.
The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot be sued. The Judicial Officers Protection Act (1850) lays down that, “no judge, magistrate, justice of peace, collector or other person acting judicially shall be liable to be sued in any civil court for any act done by him in the discharge ofhis official duty”. Statement 3 in correct. Hence, “A” is the right answer.Incorrect
No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and the governors in respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. However, ivil proceedings can be started against President and Governors during their term of office in respect of their personal Act by giving 2 months advance notice. so statement 1 is incorrect.
The constitution does not grants any immunity to the ministers for their official Acts. so statement 2 is incorrect.
The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot be sued. The Judicial Officers Protection Act (1850) lays down that, “no judge, magistrate, justice of peace, collector or other person acting judicially shall be liable to be sued in any civil court for any act done by him in the discharge ofhis official duty”. Statement 3 in correct. Hence, “A” is the right answer.Unattempted
No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and the governors in respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. However, ivil proceedings can be started against President and Governors during their term of office in respect of their personal Act by giving 2 months advance notice. so statement 1 is incorrect.
The constitution does not grants any immunity to the ministers for their official Acts. so statement 2 is incorrect.
The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot be sued. The Judicial Officers Protection Act (1850) lays down that, “no judge, magistrate, justice of peace, collector or other person acting judicially shall be liable to be sued in any civil court for any act done by him in the discharge ofhis official duty”. Statement 3 in correct. Hence, “A” is the right answer. -
Question 60 of 100
60. Question
2 pointsWith reference to provisions related to Panchayats and Muncipalities in the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
(1) The act had specifically given powers to Provincial Legislatures to enact legislation related to Panchayats.
(2) The act also provided for vesting of powers related to criminal justice in Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct. In the Government of India Act, 1935, the power to enact legislation was specifically given to Provincial Legislature by Entry 12 in the Provincial Legislative List. By virtue of this power, new Acts were enacted by many other States vesting powers of administration, including criminal justice, in the hands of the Panchayats.
Incorrect
Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct. In the Government of India Act, 1935, the power to enact legislation was specifically given to Provincial Legislature by Entry 12 in the Provincial Legislative List. By virtue of this power, new Acts were enacted by many other States vesting powers of administration, including criminal justice, in the hands of the Panchayats.
Unattempted
Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct. In the Government of India Act, 1935, the power to enact legislation was specifically given to Provincial Legislature by Entry 12 in the Provincial Legislative List. By virtue of this power, new Acts were enacted by many other States vesting powers of administration, including criminal justice, in the hands of the Panchayats.
-
Question 61 of 100
61. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) The Constitution (86th) Amendment Act 2002, inserted Article 21A in the constitution.
(2) Under Article 21 A of the Constitution, free and compulsory education is a fundamental right of all the children between the age of six to fourteen years.
(3) Article 21 A and Right to Education Act 2009 can be enforced against unaided minority and non-minority schools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Only statement 3 is wrong. As 86th constitution amendment was inserted in 2002 and RTE 2009 can not be enforced against unaided minority and non-minority schools.
Incorrect
Only statement 3 is wrong. As 86th constitution amendment was inserted in 2002 and RTE 2009 can not be enforced against unaided minority and non-minority schools.
Unattempted
Only statement 3 is wrong. As 86th constitution amendment was inserted in 2002 and RTE 2009 can not be enforced against unaided minority and non-minority schools.
-
Question 62 of 100
62. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Supreme Court”s directives for police reforms in India in the Prakash Singh case?
(1) To constitute a State Security Commission to ensure that there is no undue influence or pressure on the police.
(2) To create a Police Complaints Authority, at the state level, to look into grievances of all police officers.
(3) Separation of the investigation and law and order functions of the police.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 onlyCorrect
The Supreme Court, in Prakash Singh case, directed the States and the Union Territories to comply with seven binding directives for police reforms in India.
Statement 1 is correct. It directed state governments to constitute a State Security Commission to ensure that there is no undue influence or pressure on the police.
Statement 2 is incorrect the states to create a Police Complaints Authority, at the state level, to look into complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Superintendent of Police.
Statement 3 is correct. It directed the separation of the investigation and law and order functions of the police.
Extra Facts:
Policing in India is governed by the archaic Indian Police Act, 1861 which was enacted in response to the revolt of 1857 in order to check any dissent against colonial rule.
In this context supreme court laid down seven directives to states and centre in Prakash Singh case related to police reforms:
1. Constitute a State Security Commission (SSC) in all states headed by state home minister, leader of opposition in assembly, MLAs from all major political parties and eminent member of civil society.
The SSC will:
Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence on the police.
Lay down broad policy guideline and evaluate the performance of the state police.
2. Ensure that the DGP is appointed through merit based transparent process and secure a minimum tenure of two years.
3. Ensure that other police officers on operational duties including Superintendents of Police and Station House Officers of a police station are provided a minimum tenure of two years.
4. Separate the investigation and law and order functions of the police as investigations are poorly mounted, slow, done by inadequately trained staff.
5. Set up a Police Establishment Board (PEB) to decide transfers, postings, promotions and other service related matters of police officers.
6. Set up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA) at state level to inquire into public complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct.
7. Set up a National Security Commission (NSC) at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of Chiefs of the Central Police Organisations (CPO) with a minimum tenure of two years.Incorrect
The Supreme Court, in Prakash Singh case, directed the States and the Union Territories to comply with seven binding directives for police reforms in India.
Statement 1 is correct. It directed state governments to constitute a State Security Commission to ensure that there is no undue influence or pressure on the police.
Statement 2 is incorrect the states to create a Police Complaints Authority, at the state level, to look into complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Superintendent of Police.
Statement 3 is correct. It directed the separation of the investigation and law and order functions of the police.
Extra Information:
Policing in India is governed by the archaic Indian Police Act, 1861 which was enacted in response to the revolt of 1857 in order to check any dissent against colonial rule.
In this context supreme court laid down seven directives to states and centre in Prakash Singh case related to police reforms:
1. Constitute a State Security Commission (SSC) in all states headed by state home minister, leader of opposition in assembly, MLAs from all major political parties and eminent member of civil society.
The SSC will:
Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence on the police.
Lay down broad policy guideline and evaluate the performance of the state police.
2. Ensure that the DGP is appointed through merit based transparent process and secure a minimum tenure of two years.
3. Ensure that other police officers on operational duties including Superintendents of Police and Station House Officers of a police station are provided a minimum tenure of two years.
4. Separate the investigation and law and order functions of the police as investigations are poorly mounted, slow, done by inadequately trained staff.
5. Set up a Police Establishment Board (PEB) to decide transfers, postings, promotions and other service related matters of police officers.
6. Set up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA) at state level to inquire into public complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct.
7. Set up a National Security Commission (NSC) at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of Chiefs of the Central Police Organisations (CPO) with a minimum tenure of two years.Unattempted
The Supreme Court, in Prakash Singh case, directed the States and the Union Territories to comply with seven binding directives for police reforms in India.
Statement 1 is correct. It directed state governments to constitute a State Security Commission to ensure that there is no undue influence or pressure on the police.
Statement 2 is incorrect the states to create a Police Complaints Authority, at the state level, to look into complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Superintendent of Police.
Statement 3 is correct. It directed the separation of the investigation and law and order functions of the police.
Extra Information:
Policing in India is governed by the archaic Indian Police Act, 1861 which was enacted in response to the revolt of 1857 in order to check any dissent against colonial rule.
In this context supreme court laid down seven directives to states and centre in Prakash Singh case related to police reforms:
1. Constitute a State Security Commission (SSC) in all states headed by state home minister, leader of opposition in assembly, MLAs from all major political parties and eminent member of civil society.
The SSC will:
Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence on the police.
Lay down broad policy guideline and evaluate the performance of the state police.
2. Ensure that the DGP is appointed through merit based transparent process and secure a minimum tenure of two years.
3. Ensure that other police officers on operational duties including Superintendents of Police and Station House Officers of a police station are provided a minimum tenure of two years.
4. Separate the investigation and law and order functions of the police as investigations are poorly mounted, slow, done by inadequately trained staff.
5. Set up a Police Establishment Board (PEB) to decide transfers, postings, promotions and other service related matters of police officers.
6. Set up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA) at state level to inquire into public complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct.
7. Set up a National Security Commission (NSC) at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of Chiefs of the Central Police Organisations (CPO) with a minimum tenure of two years. -
Question 63 of 100
63. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the recommendations National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) consider the following statements:
(1) It recommended that right to privacy should be added as a fundamental right.
(2) It recommended that control of population should be added as a directive principle.
(3) It recommended that voting during the elections should be made a fundamental duty for the citizens.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
NCRWC Recommendations: The following should be added as new Fundamental Rights:
(a) Right against torture, cruelty and inhuman treatment or punishment.
(b) Right to compensation if a person is illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty.
(c) Right to leave and to return to India.
(d) Right to privacy and family life.
(e) Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of 80 days in a year.
(f) Right to access to courts and tribunals and speedy justice.
(g) Right to equal justice and free legal aid 8.
(h) Right to care and assistance and protection (in case of children).
(i) Right to safe drinking water, prevention of pollution, conservation of ecology and sustainable development.
On Directive Principles
1. The heading of Part-IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as “Directive Principles of State Policy and Action”.
2. A new Directive Principle on control of population should be added.
3. An independent National Education Commission should be set-up every five years.
4. An Inter-Faith Commission should be established to promote inter-religious harmony and social solidarity.
5. There must be a body of high status to review the level of implementation of the Directive Principles.
6. A strategic Plan of Action should be initiated to create a large number of employment opportunities in five years.
7. Implementation of the recommendations contained in the Report of the National Statistical Commission (2001).
The following new fundamental duties should be included in Article 51-A:
(a) Duty to vote at elections, actively participate in the democratic process of governance and to pay taxes.
(b) To foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood in the matter of education, physical and moral well-being of children.
(c) Duty of industrial organizations to provide education to children of their employees.Incorrect
NCRWC Recommendations: The following should be added as new Fundamental Rights:
(a) Right against torture, cruelty and inhuman treatment or punishment.
(b) Right to compensation ifa person is illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty.
(c) Right to leave and to return to India.
(d) Right to privacy and family life.
(e) Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of 80 days in a year.
(f) Right to access to courts and tribunals and speedy justice.
(g) Right to equal justice and free legal aid 8.
(h) Right to care and assistance and protection (in case of children).
(i) Right to safe drinking water, prevention of pollution, conservation of ecology and sustainable development.
On Directive Principles
1. The heading of Part-IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as “Directive Principles of State Policy and Action”.
2. A new Directive Principle on control of population should be added.
3. An independent National Education Commission should be set-up every five years.
4. An Inter-Faith Commission should be established to promote inter-religious harmony and social solidarity.
5. There must be a body of high status to review the level of implementation of the Directive Principles.
6. A strategic Plan of Action should be initiated to create a large number of employment opportunities in five years.
7. Implementation of the recommendations contained in the Report of the National Statistical Commission (2001).
The following new fundamental duties should be included in Article 51-A:
(a) Duty to vote at elections, actively participate in the democratic process of governance and to pay taxes.
(b) To foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood in the matter of education, physical and moral well-being of children.
(c) Duty of industrial organizations to provide education to children of their employees.Unattempted
NCRWC Recommendations: The following should be added as new Fundamental Rights:
(a) Right against torture, cruelty and inhuman treatment or punishment.
(b) Right to compensation ifa person is illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty.
(c) Right to leave and to return to India.
(d) Right to privacy and family life.
(e) Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of 80 days in a year.
(f) Right to access to courts and tribunals and speedy justice.
(g) Right to equal justice and free legal aid 8.
(h) Right to care and assistance and protection (in case of children).
(i) Right to safe drinking water, prevention of pollution, conservation of ecology and sustainable development.
On Directive Principles
1. The heading of Part-IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as “Directive Principles of State Policy and Action”.
2. A new Directive Principle on control of population should be added.
3. An independent National Education Commission should be set-up every five years.
4. An Inter-Faith Commission should be established to promote inter-religious harmony and social solidarity.
5. There must be a body of high status to review the level of implementation of the Directive Principles.
6. A strategic Plan of Action should be initiated to create a large number of employment opportunities in five years.
7. Implementation of the recommendations contained in the Report of the National Statistical Commission (2001).
The following new fundamental duties should be included in Article 51-A:
(a) Duty to vote at elections, actively participate in the democratic process of governance and to pay taxes.
(b) To foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood in the matter of education, physical and moral well-being of children.
(c) Duty of industrial organizations to provide education to children of their employees. -
Question 64 of 100
64. Question
2 pointsWith reference to office of Lieutenant Governor, consider the following statements
(1) Lieutenant Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly
(2) The Lieutenant Governor can promulgate ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended.
Choose the correct codes from the options given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) NoneCorrect
LT. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An ordinance has same force as an act of the assembly. Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time.
He cannot also promulgate ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended . Further no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.Incorrect
LT. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An ordinance has same force as an act of the assembly. Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time.
He cannot also promulgate ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended . Further no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.Unattempted
LT. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An ordinance has same force as an act of the assembly. Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time.
He cannot also promulgate ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended . Further no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President. -
Question 65 of 100
65. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Constitutional provisions with respect to protection in respect of conviction for offences.
(1) A person can be prosecuted and punished simultaneously for the same offence by different Courts of Law.
(2) A person accused of an offence cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.
(3) Retrospective amendment to civil and criminal law can be made in extreme cases to punish an offender.
Select the incorrect statements using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
d) None of the aboveCorrect
Article 20 of Indian Constitution provides:
Article 20 (1) – Ex-Post facto laws : No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence.
Article 20 (2) – Double Jeopardy: No Person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Article 20 (3) – Protection against self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Retrospective amendment to civil laws can be made and have been made ( Vodafone case ), but cannot be done for Criminal offences.Incorrect
Article 20 of Indian Constitution provides:
Article 20 (1) – Ex-Post facto laws : No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence.
Article 20 (2) – Double Jeopardy: No Person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Article 20 (3) – Protection against self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Retrospective amendment to civil laws can be made and have been made ( Vodafone case ), but cannot be done for Criminal offences.Unattempted
Article 20 of Indian Constitution provides:
Article 20 (1) – Ex-Post facto laws : No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence.
Article 20 (2) – Double Jeopardy: No Person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Article 20 (3) – Protection against self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Retrospective amendment to civil laws can be made and have been made ( Vodafone case ), but cannot be done for Criminal offences. -
Question 66 of 100
66. Question
2 pointsConsider the various features of the administration contained in Sixth schedule:
(1) Tribal areas in the four states Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.
(2) President is empowered to organize, re-organize, increase or decrease the areas of the autonomous districts.
(3) If there are different tribes in autonomous districts then President can divide the districts into several autonomous regions.
Choose the correct codes from the below options:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2,3 and 4 onlyCorrect
· Tribal areas in the four states Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.
· Governor is empowered to organize , re-organize, increase or decrease the areas of the autonomous districts.
· If there are different tribes in autonomous districts then Governor can divide the districts into several autonomous regions.Incorrect
· Tribal areas in the four states Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.
· Governor is empowered to organize , re-organize, increase or decrease the areas of the autonomous districts.
· If there are different tribes in autonomous districts then Governor can divide the districts into several autonomous regions.Unattempted
· Tribal areas in the four states Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.
· Governor is empowered to organize , re-organize, increase or decrease the areas of the autonomous districts.
· If there are different tribes in autonomous districts then Governor can divide the districts into several autonomous regions. -
Question 67 of 100
67. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements:
(1) All Fundamental Rights are negative in nature, that is, they place limitations on the authority of the State.
(2) All Fundamental Rights are horizontal in nature, that is, they are available against the arbitrary action of the State and not against the action of private individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Most of the Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State”s action and against the action of private individuals. For example, Abolishing Untouchability. When the rights that are available against the State”s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons. For eample, Article 21A, Right to education. Hence, both statements are wrong.
Incorrect
Most of the Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State”s action and against the action of private individuals. For example, Abolishing Untouchability. When the rights that are available against the State”s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons. For eample, Article 21A, Right to education. Hence, both statements are wrong.
Unattempted
Most of the Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State”s action and against the action of private individuals. For example, Abolishing Untouchability. When the rights that are available against the State”s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons. For eample, Article 21A, Right to education. Hence, both statements are wrong.
-
Question 68 of 100
68. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements is not correct regarding the special powers of Rajya Sabha?
(A) It empowers Parliament to make a law even on a State subject.
(B) It approves resolutions for the continuation of emergency when the Lok Sabha is not in session due to its dissolution.
(C) It empowers Parliament to create an All India Service by passing a resolution by a majority of not less than 2/3rd of the total strength of the House.
(D) It initiates the removal of the Vice President.Correct
Option A is correct: As per the article 249, Rajya sabha can empower parliament to make law on state subjects.
Option B is correct: If a Proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation remains effective, if the resolution approving it is passed by Rajya Sabha within the period specified in the Constitution under articles 352, 356 and 360.
Option C is incorrect: It should be 2/3 of the members present and voting.
Option D is correct: Only Rajya sabha can initiate the removal of Vice-president as he will be acting as the chairman of Rajyasabha.Incorrect
Option A is correct: As per the article 249, Rajya sabha can empower parliament to make law on state subjects.
Option B is correct: If a Proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation remains effective, if the resolution approving it is passed by Rajya Sabha within the period specified in the Constitution under articles 352, 356 and 360.
Option C is incorrect: It should be 2/3 of the members present and voting.
Option D is correct: Only Rajya sabha can initiate the removal of Vice-president as he will be acting as the chairman of Rajyasabha.Unattempted
Option A is correct: As per the article 249, Rajya sabha can empower parliament to make law on state subjects.
Option B is correct: If a Proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation remains effective, if the resolution approving it is passed by Rajya Sabha within the period specified in the Constitution under articles 352, 356 and 360.
Option C is incorrect: It should be 2/3 of the members present and voting.
Option D is correct: Only Rajya sabha can initiate the removal of Vice-president as he will be acting as the chairman of Rajyasabha. -
Question 69 of 100
69. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Fundamental Duties as enshrined in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
(1) Supreme Court may take these duties in consideration to determine the Constitutionality of any law.
(2) Supreme Court has held that the duties are obligatory for the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Even though fundamental duties are not enforceable, it may be taken into consideration to determine the Constitutionality of any law. This is done in order to prevent reckless citizens against anti-social activities such as burning the Constitution, destroying public property etc. Thus, both statements are correct.
Incorrect
Even though fundamental duties are not enforceable, it may be taken into consideration to determine the Constitutionality of any law. This is done in order to prevent reckless citizens against anti-social activities such as burning the Constitution, destroying public property etc. Thus, both statements are correct.
Unattempted
Even though fundamental duties are not enforceable, it may be taken into consideration to determine the Constitutionality of any law. This is done in order to prevent reckless citizens against anti-social activities such as burning the Constitution, destroying public property etc. Thus, both statements are correct.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:
(1) The cases admitted under the Appellate Jurisdiction must involve the interpretation of the constitution.
(2) Supreme Court can grant Special Leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court in India except military tribunal and court martial.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes civil and criminal cases irrespective of any constitutional question.
Statement 2 is correct. The supreme court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court in India except military tribunal and court martial. However this is a discretionary power and cannot be claimed as a matter of right.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes civil and criminal cases irrespective of any constitutional question.
Statement 2 is correct. The supreme court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court in India except military tribunal and court martial. However this is a discretionary power and cannot be claimed as a matter of right.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect: The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes civil and criminal cases irrespective of any constitutional question.
Statement 2 is correct. The supreme court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court in India except military tribunal and court martial. However this is a discretionary power and cannot be claimed as a matter of right. -
Question 71 of 100
71. Question
2 pointsAssertion (A): Sitting during the National Anthem mean disrespect for the National Anthem under article 51-A.
Reason (R): It is a constitutional duty of every citizen under article 51-A to respect the ideals and institutions, the national flag and the national anthem.
(A) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A and R both are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.Correct
Sitting during the national anthem doesn”t necessarily mean the disrespect to the national flag. It is the willful act to insult the flag will fall under disrespect category.
Incorrect
Sitting during the national anthem doesn”t necessarily mean the disrespect to the national flag. It is the willful act to insult the flag will fall under disrespect category.
Unattempted
Sitting during the national anthem doesn”t necessarily mean the disrespect to the national flag. It is the willful act to insult the flag will fall under disrespect category.
-
Question 72 of 100
72. Question
2 pointsWith respect to executive powers of Governor, consider the following statements
(1) The Governor acts as the Chancellor of the Universities of the state and also appoints the Vice-Chancellor of the Universities of the state
(2) Governor has powers to appoint and remove state election commissioner
Choose the correct codes from the below given options:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) NoneCorrect
Governor appoints state election commissioner, chairman and members of state public service commission.
Removal:· State election commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the grounds as a judge of high court.
· Chairman and members of state public service commission are removed only by president and not by a governor.Incorrect
Governor appoints state election commissioner, chairman and members of state public service commission.
Removal:· State election commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the grounds as a judge of high court.
· Chairman and members of state public service commission are removed only by president and not by a governor.Unattempted
Governor appoints state election commissioner, chairman and members of state public service commission.
Removal:· State election commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the grounds as a judge of high court.
· Chairman and members of state public service commission are removed only by president and not by a governor. -
Question 73 of 100
73. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements is not correct regarding the office of Governor?
(A) He should not hold any other office of profit.
(B) He is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by State Legislature.
(C) If same person is appointed as Governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by President of India.
(D) His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office.Correct
Article 158 states that -The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit:
The Governor shall be entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official residences and shall be also entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law.
Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the States in such proportion as the President may by order determine.
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.Incorrect
Article 158 states that -The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit:
The Governor shall be entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official residences and shall be also entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law.
Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the States in such proportion as the President may by order determine.
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.Unattempted
Article 158 states that -The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit:
The Governor shall be entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official residences and shall be also entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law.
Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the States in such proportion as the President may by order determine.
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office. -
Question 74 of 100
74. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) Governor appoints only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the chief minister
(2) Chief Minister can ask a minister to resign or advise the governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.
(3) Chief Minister acts as chairman of the concerned Zonal council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.
Choose the correct codes from the below options:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Other facts :
Article 161 states that there would be a Chief Minister of the state appointed by the Governor.
The Chief Minister holds the post of the Chairman of the State Planning Board, Member of National Development Council, Chief Spokesperson of the State Government.
Article 163 states that there shall be a council of Ministers with the chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions.
Article 164 states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen per cent.
The salary of the Chief Minister is decided by the State Legislature and not the Governor.Incorrect
Article 161 states that there would be a Chief Minister of the state appointed by the Governor.
The Chief Minister holds the post of the Chairman of the State Planning Board, Member of National Development Council, Chief Spokesperson of the State Government.
Article 163 states that there shall be a council of Ministers with the chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions.
Article 164 states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen per cent.
The salary of the Chief Minister is decided by the State Legislature and not the Governor.
Article 164 (3) – It mandates that Governor shall administer the oaths of office and secrecy to a minister, before a Minister enters upon his/her office. • Form of oath is mentioned in Third Schedule of constitution. • Schedule requires the oath-taker either to ―”swear in the name of God” or ―”solemnly affirm”.Unattempted
Article 161 states that there would be a Chief Minister of the state appointed by the Governor.
The Chief Minister holds the post of the Chairman of the State Planning Board, Member of National Development Council, Chief Spokesperson of the State Government.
Article 163 states that there shall be a council of Ministers with the chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions.
Article 164 states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen per cent.
The salary of the Chief Minister is decided by the State Legislature and not the Governor.
Article 164 (3) – It mandates that Governor shall administer the oaths of office and secrecy to a minister, before a Minister enters upon his/her office. • Form of oath is mentioned in Third Schedule of constitution. • Schedule requires the oath-taker either to ―”swear in the name of God” or ―”solemnly affirm”. -
Question 75 of 100
75. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) In a Parliamentary system, the executive leader is elected from the legislative branch directly.
(2) In case of differing opinions of the legislature and the executive, it is easier to enact legislation under the Presidential system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
The major difference between these two systems is that the executive leader of the Parliamentary system is elected from the legislative branch directly. In the Presidential System, it is more difficult to enact legislation, especially in the event that the President has different views than the legislative body.
Incorrect
The major difference between these two systems is that the executive leader of the Parliamentary system is elected from the legislative branch directly. In the Presidential System, it is more difficult to enact legislation, especially in the event that the President has different views than the legislative body.
Unattempted
The major difference between these two systems is that the executive leader of the Parliamentary system is elected from the legislative branch directly. In the Presidential System, it is more difficult to enact legislation, especially in the event that the President has different views than the legislative body.
-
Question 76 of 100
76. Question
2 pointsWith reference to appointment of ad hoc judges in Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:
(1) There can be ad hoc judges for a temporary period due to lack of quorum of the permanent judges.
(2) The President can appoint an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
(3) The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 onlyCorrect
Statement 1 is correct: When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, ad hoc judges may be appointed for a temporary period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, ad hoc judges may be appointed for a temporary period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, ad hoc judges may be appointed for a temporary period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. -
Question 77 of 100
77. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) Cabinet as a word is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.
(2) Cabinet decisions are binding on all ministers and any minister disagrees with cabinet decisions then he/she may not resign
(3) Cabinet is the chief crisis manager as it deals with all emergency situation
Choose the correct codes from the below options:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) All of the aboveCorrect
Cabinet:
· It is the highest decision making authority in the politico-administrative system of a state.
· Cabinet is the nucleus of the council of ministers.
· Cabinet is mentioned once under Article 352 which says, In order to ensure that a Proclamation is issued only after due consideration, it is sought to be provided that an Emergency can be proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered to the President by the Cabinet
· It deals with all major legislative and financial matters
· Cabinet is the chief crisis manager as it deals with all emergency situation.
· Principle of collective responsibility under article 164 also means that Cabinet decision is binding on all ministers (cabinet ministers and other ministers) and any minister disagrees with cabinet decisions then he must resign.Incorrect
Cabinet:
· It is the highest decision making authority in the politico-administrative system of a state.
· Cabinet is the nucleus of the council of ministers.
· Cabinet is mentioned once under Article 352 which says, In order to ensure that a Proclamation is issued only after due consideration, it is sought to be provided that an Emergency can be proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered to the President by the Cabinet
· It deals with all major legislative and financial matters
· Cabinet is the chief crisis manager as it deals with all emergency situation.
· Principle of collective responsibility under article 164 also means that Cabinet decision is binding on all ministers (cabinet ministers and other ministers) and any minister disagrees with cabinet decisions then he must resign.Unattempted
Cabinet:
· It is the highest decision making authority in the politico-administrative system of a state.
· Cabinet is the nucleus of the council of ministers.
· Cabinet is mentioned once under Article 352 which says, In order to ensure that a Proclamation is issued only after due consideration, it is sought to be provided that an Emergency can be proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered to the President by the Cabinet
· It deals with all major legislative and financial matters
· Cabinet is the chief crisis manager as it deals with all emergency situation.
· Principle of collective responsibility under article 164 also means that Cabinet decision is binding on all ministers (cabinet ministers and other ministers) and any minister disagrees with cabinet decisions then he must resign. -
Question 78 of 100
78. Question
2 pointsWith reference to national emergency under article 352 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
(1) The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act replaced the term “armed rebellion” with “internal disturbance” as one of the grounds for prolamation of national emergency.
(2) Prior to 44th Amendment Act, the proclamation needed to be passed by only a simple majority.
(3) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act granted special power to Rajya sabha to discontinue national emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 onlyCorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act replaced word “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion”.
Statement 2 is correct. 44th constitutional amendment amended simple majority with special majority to pass such resolution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act gave special power to Lok sabha to initiate proceeding for discontinuation of the emergency.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act replaced word “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion”.
Statement 2 is correct. 44th constitutional amendment amended simple majority with special majority to pass such resolution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act gave special power to Lok sabha to initiate proceeding for discontinuation of the emergency.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act replaced word “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion”.
Statement 2 is correct. 44th constitutional amendment amended simple majority with special majority to pass such resolution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act gave special power to Lok sabha to initiate proceeding for discontinuation of the emergency. -
Question 79 of 100
79. Question
2 pointsWith regard to Readjustment of seats after every census, consider the following statements
(1) Readjustment of seats in assembly of each state is frozen up to year 2026.
(2) Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 1991 census.
(3) Parliament is empowered to determine the authority and the manner in which readjustment is to be made.
Choose the correct codes from the below options:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
· Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 1991 census as per 84 th amendment act but later 87 th amendment act 2003 provided for Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 2001 census and not 1991 census.
· 42 nd amendment act 1976 had frozen total number of seats in assembly of each state till year 2000 at 1971 level. This ban on readjustment has been extended for another 25 years by 84 th amendment act 2001 (till 2026) with the same objective of encouraging population limiting measures.
· Parliament is empowered to determine the authority and the manner in which readjustment is to be made.Incorrect
· Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 1991 census as per 84 th amendment act but later 87 th amendment act 2003 provided for Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 2001 census and not 1991 census
· 42 nd amendment act 1976 had frozen total number of seats in assembly of each state till year 2000 at 1971 level. This ban on readjustment has been extended for another 25 years by 84 th amendment act 2001 (till 2026) with the same objective of encouraging population limiting measures.
· Parliament is empowered to determine the authority and the manner in which readjustment is to be made.Unattempted
· Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 1991 census as per 84 th amendment act but later 87 th amendment act 2003 provided for Delimitation of constituencies is on the basis of 2001 census and not 1991 census
· 42 nd amendment act 1976 had frozen total number of seats in assembly of each state till year 2000 at 1971 level. This ban on readjustment has been extended for another 25 years by 84 th amendment act 2001 (till 2026) with the same objective of encouraging population limiting measures.
· Parliament is empowered to determine the authority and the manner in which readjustment is to be made. -
Question 80 of 100
80. Question
2 pointsWith reference to financial emergency, consider the following statements:
(1) A resolution approving the proclamation of Financial Emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament by a simple majority.
(2) Once approved, Financial Emergency continues for six months unless it is extended by the Parliament.
(3) Financial Emergency was declared during the balance of payments crisis of 1991.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 onlyCorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament by a simple majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Financial emergency remains in force indefinitely until revoked. Parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Financial emergency has never been imposed in India till now.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament by a simple majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Financial emergency remains in force indefinitely until revoked. Parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Financial emergency has never been imposed in India till now.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament by a simple majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Financial emergency remains in force indefinitely until revoked. Parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Financial emergency has never been imposed in India till now. -
Question 81 of 100
81. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements:
(1) The members of PAC are elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(2) It examines the annual audit reports of the CAG.
(3) The committee examines public expenditures from legal point of view only but not from the point of view of economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 onlyCorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The members of the committee are elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It consists of 22 members (15 from the LS and 7 from RS).
Statement 2 correct. PAC examines the audit reports of CAG.
Statement 3 is incorrect. PAC examines public expenditures not only from legal point of view but also from the point of view of economy.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The members of the committee are elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It consists of 22 members (15 from the LS and 7 from RS).
Statement 2 correct. PAC examines the audit reports of CAG.
Statement 3 is incorrect. PAC examines public expenditures not only from legal point of view but also from the point of view of economy.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. The members of the committee are elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It consists of 22 members (15 from the LS and 7 from RS).
Statement 2 correct. PAC examines the audit reports of CAG.
Statement 3 is incorrect. PAC examines public expenditures not only from legal point of view but also from the point of view of economy. -
Question 82 of 100
82. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to enactment of budget:
(1) Parliament can increase, reduce or abolish a tax.
(2) The term “budget” is not mentioned in the Constitution.
(3) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on demand for grants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 onlyCorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect :The Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax, but cannot increase it.
Statement 2 is correct: The term “budget” is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Only Lok Sabha has the power to vote on demand for grants.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect :The Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax, but cannot increase it.
Statement 2 is correct: The term “budget” is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Only Lok Sabha has the power to vote on demand for grants.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect :The Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax, but cannot increase it.
Statement 2 is correct: The term “budget” is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Only Lok Sabha has the power to vote on demand for grants. -
Question 83 of 100
83. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements related to Writ Jurisdiction
(1) Writ jurisdiction of High court is concurrent and wider compared to writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
(2) Writ jurisdiction of High court cannot be issued outside of its territorial jurisdiction.
(3) Writ jurisdiction of High court and Supreme Court form the part of basic structure of the Constitution.
Choose the correct codes from the below options:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Writ jurisdiction of High Court V/s Supreme court:
· Concurrent: When the fundamental right of a citizen is violated , the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the High court or Supreme Court directly.
· Wider: Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for enforcement of ordinary legal right but High court can issue writs to enforce both Fundamental rights and Ordinary legal rights.
· Writ jurisdiction of High court can be issued to any person , authority and government outside of its territorial jurisdiction also.
· In Chandra Kumar case (1971 ) Supreme Court ruled that writ jurisdiction of both high court and Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.Incorrect
Writ jurisdiction of High Court V/s Supreme court:
· Concurrent: When the fundamental right of a citizen is violated , the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the High court or Supreme Court directly.
· Wider: Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for enforcement of ordinary legal right but High court can issue writs to enforce both Fundamental rights and Ordinary legal rights.
· Writ jurisdiction of High court can be issued to any person , authority and government outside of its territorial jurisdiction also.
· In Chandra Kumar case (1971 ) Supreme Court ruled that writ jurisdiction of both high court and Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.Unattempted
Writ jurisdiction of High Court V/s Supreme court:
· Concurrent: When the fundamental right of a citizen is violated , the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the High court or Supreme Court directly.
· Wider: Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for enforcement of ordinary legal right but High court can issue writs to enforce both Fundamental rights and Ordinary legal rights.
· Writ jurisdiction of High court can be issued to any person , authority and government outside of its territorial jurisdiction also.
· In Chandra Kumar case (1971 ) Supreme Court ruled that writ jurisdiction of both high court and Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. -
Question 84 of 100
84. Question
2 pointsAs per the Indian Constitution a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a Member of the Parliament under which of the following conditions?
(1) He is convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years.
(2) He is detained under preventive detention law.
(3) He is punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry and sati.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Representation of People Act (1951) a member of parliament must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As a person cannot be disqualified for being elected if he is detained under preventive detention law.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Representation of People Act (1951) a member of parliament must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As a person cannot be disqualified for being elected if he is detained under preventive detention law.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Representation of People Act (1951) a member of parliament must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As a person cannot be disqualified for being elected if he is detained under preventive detention law. -
Question 85 of 100
85. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements with regard to Union Territories (UT)
(1) If President appoints governor of a particular state as administrator of adjoining Union territory then in that capacity governor is bound by advice of the council of ministers of that state.
(2) Parliament can make laws on any subject related to the three lists namely, Union, State and Concurrent List.
Choose the correct codes from options given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) NoneCorrect
If President appoints governor of a state as administrator of adjoining Union territory then in that capacity governor is not bound by advice of the council of minister of the state.
· Every union territory is administered by president acting through an administrator appointed by him. An administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor.
· The president can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant governor ( eg -Pondicherry) or chief commissioner ( eg -Chandigarh) or administrator ( eg -Lakshadweep ) .
· The president can also appoint the governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining union territory. In that capacity, the governor is to act independently of his council of minister( either state or UT) because an administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor
· Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists including state list for the Union territories and State Governments. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislature.Incorrect
If President appoints governor of a state as administrator of adjoining Union territory then in that capacity governor is not bound by advice of the council of minister of the state.
· Every union territory is administered by president acting through an administrator appointed by him. An administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor.
· The president can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant governor ( eg -Pondicherry) or chief commissioner ( eg -Chandigarh) or administrator ( eg -Lakshadweep ).
· The president can also appoint the governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining union territory. In that capacity, the governor is to act independently of his council of minister( either state or UT) because an administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor
· Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists including state list for the Union territories and State Governments. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislature.Unattempted
If President appoints governor of a state as administrator of adjoining Union territory then in that capacity governor is not bound by advice of the council of minister of the state.
· Every union territory is administered by president acting through an administrator appointed by him. An administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor.
· The president can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant governor ( eg -Pondicherry) or chief commissioner ( eg -Chandigarh) or administrator ( eg -Lakshadweep ).
· The president can also appoint the governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining union territory. In that capacity, the governor is to act independently of his council of minister( either state or UT) because an administrator of UT is the agent of the president and not head of state like governor
· Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists including state list for the Union territories and State Governments. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislature. -
Question 86 of 100
86. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS):
(1) Under the MPLADS, each Member of the Parliament is allocated Rs. 5 crore per month,to be spent on the welfare projects of their choice in their constituency.
(2) The projects under the MPLADS are recommended to and implemented by the district-level administration.
(3) The MPLADS is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
MPLAD is a Central Sector Scheme. It was introduced in December 1993.
Under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), each Member of the Parliament (MP) is allocated Rs. 5 crore per year (in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore each.), to be spent on the welfare projects of their choice in their constituency.
The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Division is entrusted with the responsibility of the implementation of the MPLADS.
Under the Scheme, each MP has the choice to suggest to the District Collector for works to the tune of Rs.5 crore per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency.
The Rajya Sabha Member of the Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the state from where he/she has been elected.
The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha may select any one or more districts from any one state in the country for the implementation of their choice of work under the Scheme.
The Ministry has issued the guidelines on the MPLAD Scheme, including the implementation and monitoring of the Scheme.
The MPLADS is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).Incorrect
MPLAD is a Central Sector Scheme. It was introduced in December 1993.
Under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), each Member of the Parliament (MP) is allocated Rs. 5 crore per year (in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore each.), to be spent on the welfare projects of their choice in their constituency.
The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Division is entrusted with the responsibility of the implementation of the MPLADS.
Under the Scheme, each MP has the choice to suggest to the District Collector for works to the tune of Rs.5 crore per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency.
The Rajya Sabha Member of the Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the state from where he/she has been elected.
The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha may select any one or more districts from any one state in the country for the implementation of their choice of work under the Scheme.
The Ministry has issued the guidelines on the MPLAD Scheme, including the implementation and monitoring of the Scheme.
The MPLADS is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).Unattempted
MPLAD is a Central Sector Scheme. It was introduced in December 1993.
Under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), each Member of the Parliament (MP) is allocated Rs. 5 crore per year (in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore each.), to be spent on the welfare projects of their choice in their constituency.
The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Division is entrusted with the responsibility of the implementation of the MPLADS.
Under the Scheme, each MP has the choice to suggest to the District Collector for works to the tune of Rs.5 crore per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency.
The Rajya Sabha Member of the Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the state from where he/she has been elected.
The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha may select any one or more districts from any one state in the country for the implementation of their choice of work under the Scheme.
The Ministry has issued the guidelines on the MPLAD Scheme, including the implementation and monitoring of the Scheme.
The MPLADS is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). -
Question 87 of 100
87. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) The theme of the World Heritage Day 2020 is “Shared Culture”, “Shared Heritage” and “Shared Responsibility”.
(2) The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) is an advisory body to the UNESCO for cultural heritage.
(3) The ICOMOS is headquartered in Rome, Italy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
The theme of the World Heritage Day 2020 is “Shared Culture”, “Shared Heritage” and “Shared Responsibility”.
The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) is a global monument conservation body (A non-governmental organization) dedicated to promoting the application of theory, methodology and scientific techniques for the conservation of the architectural and archaeological heritage across the world.
• It is also an advisory body to the UNESCO for cultural heritage, in particular for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention.
• It was founded in 1965 in Warsaw (Poland), as a result of the Venice Charter of 1964.
• It is headquartered in Paris, France.
India has 40 world heritage sites overall, which includes 32 cultural, 7 natural and one mixed property. Ramappa Temple (Telangana) was India”s 39th World Heritage Site & Dholavira in Gujarat as India”s 40th world heritage site.Incorrect
The theme of the World Heritage Day 2020 is “Shared Culture”, “Shared Heritage” and “Shared Responsibility”.
The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) is a global monument conservation body (A non-governmental organization) dedicated to promoting the application of theory, methodology and scientific techniques for the conservation of the architectural and archaeological heritage across the world.
• It is also an advisory body to the UNESCO for cultural heritage, in particular for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention.
• It was founded in 1965 in Warsaw (Poland), as a result of the Venice Charter of 1964.
• It is headquartered in Paris, France.
India has 40 world heritage sites overall, which includes 32 cultural, 7 natural and one mixed property. Ramappa Temple (Telangana) was India”s 39th World Heritage Site & Dholavira in Gujarat as India”s 40th world heritage site.Unattempted
The theme of the World Heritage Day 2020 is “Shared Culture”, “Shared Heritage” and “Shared Responsibility”.
The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) is a global monument conservation body (A non-governmental organization) dedicated to promoting the application of theory, methodology and scientific techniques for the conservation of the architectural and archaeological heritage across the world.
• It is also an advisory body to the UNESCO for cultural heritage, in particular for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention.
• It was founded in 1965 in Warsaw (Poland), as a result of the Venice Charter of 1964.
• It is headquartered in Paris, France.
India has 40 world heritage sites overall, which includes 32 cultural, 7 natural and one mixed property. Ramappa Temple (Telangana) was India”s 39th World Heritage Site & Dholavira in Gujarat as India”s 40th world heritage site. -
Question 88 of 100
88. Question
2 pointsRecently, the central government has passed an ordinance to amend the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, to cope up with the present dangers posed by the unalarming spread of the Novel Corona Virus. Which of the following can be said to be the parts of the amendment?
(1) Any form of obstruction, in discharge of the duties carried out by the healthcare service personnel, can be considered as an act of violence, subject to imprisonment or fine as per the amendment.
(2) The amendment has enhanced the central government”s power to take necessary actions to contain the spread of the epidemic.
(3) The central government, apart from inspecting the vessels arriving or leaving any port, can also inspect road, rail, sea and air vessels in the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
An “act of violence” includes any of the following acts committed against the healthcare service personnel:
(i) Harassment impacting the living or working conditions;
(ii) Harm, injury, hurt or danger to life;
(iii) Obstruction in the discharge of his duties; and
(iv) Loss or damage to the property or the documents of the healthcare service personnel.
Whoever commits the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term not less than 3 months, but may extend to 5 years along with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 50,000 and may extend upto Rs. 2 lakh. Whoever, while committing the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, causes grievous hurt (defined under Section 320 of the IPC), shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 6 months, but which may extend upto 7 years with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 1 lakh, but may extend upto Rs. 5 lakh.
The Centre is empowered to take certain measures
Looking at the interventions required during the current Covid-19 outbreak, the central government has been given a concurrent role with the state governments to take any measures that may be needed to prevent the outbreak of an epidemic or the spread thereof.
In addition, the scope of inspection of the vessels arriving or leaving the country has been enlarged to include road, rail, sea and air vessels.Incorrect
An “act of violence” includes any of the following acts committed against the healthcare service personnel:
(i) Harassment impacting the living or working conditions;
(ii) Harm, injury, hurt or danger to life;
(iii) Obstruction in the discharge of his duties; and
(iv) Loss or damage to the property or the documents of the healthcare service personnel.
Whoever commits the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term not less than 3 months, but may extend to 5 years along with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 50,000 and may extend upto Rs. 2 lakh. Whoever, while committing the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, causes grievous hurt (defined under Section 320 of the IPC), shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 6 months, but which may extend upto 7 years with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 1 lakh, but may extend upto Rs. 5 lakh.
The Centre is empowered to take certain measures
Looking at the interventions required during the current Covid-19 outbreak, the central government has been given a concurrent role with the state governments to take any measures that may be needed to prevent the outbreak of an epidemic or the spread thereof.
In addition, the scope of inspection of the vessels arriving or leaving the country has been enlarged to include road, rail, sea and air vessels.Unattempted
An “act of violence” includes any of the following acts committed against the healthcare service personnel:
(i) Harassment impacting the living or working conditions;
(ii) Harm, injury, hurt or danger to life;
(iii) Obstruction in the discharge of his duties; and
(iv) Loss or damage to the property or the documents of the healthcare service personnel.
Whoever commits the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term not less than 3 months, but may extend to 5 years along with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 50,000 and may extend upto Rs. 2 lakh. Whoever, while committing the act of violence against the healthcare service personnel, causes grievous hurt (defined under Section 320 of the IPC), shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 6 months, but which may extend upto 7 years with fine. The fine shall not be less than Rs. 1 lakh, but may extend upto Rs. 5 lakh.
The Centre is empowered to take certain measures
Looking at the interventions required during the current Covid-19 outbreak, the central government has been given a concurrent role with the state governments to take any measures that may be needed to prevent the outbreak of an epidemic or the spread thereof.
In addition, the scope of inspection of the vessels arriving or leaving the country has been enlarged to include road, rail, sea and air vessels. -
Question 89 of 100
89. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) :
(1) It is the initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
(2) It is to promote public understanding, awareness about sustainable agriculture and to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and environmental goods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
It is to promote public understanding, awareness about sustainable agriculture and to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and environmental goods and services these provide to family farmers, smallholders, indigenous people and local communities.
Three recognized GIAHS sites in India:
Kuttanad below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala.
Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha.
Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir.Incorrect
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
It is to promote public understanding, awareness about sustainable agriculture and to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and environmental goods and services these provide to family farmers, smallholders, indigenous people and local communities.
Three recognized GIAHS sites in India:
Kuttanad below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala.
Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha.
Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir.Unattempted
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
It is to promote public understanding, awareness about sustainable agriculture and to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and environmental goods and services these provide to family farmers, smallholders, indigenous people and local communities.
Three recognized GIAHS sites in India:
Kuttanad below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala.
Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha.
Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir. -
Question 90 of 100
90. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Li Keqiang Index, consider the following statements:
(1) This Index seeks to measure the GDP growth in a country by tracking certain indicators on a real time basis.
(2) This Index has been developed by China.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
In 2007, Li Keqiang, China”s current Prime Minister, who was then the provincial leader, had expressed concerns about overstated GDP numbers in the Chinese economy. He was of the opinion that GDP numbers were unreliable and hence, in order to measure the real economic activity, one should track 3 indicators on a real time basis- Railway cargo volume; Electricity consumption; and Loans disbursed by the banks.
Based upon this, the “Economist” magazine has constructed the Li Keqiang Index to measure the growth rate of the Chinese economy.Incorrect
In 2007, Li Keqiang, China”s current Prime Minister, who was then the provincial leader, had expressed concerns about overstated GDP numbers in the Chinese economy. He was of the opinion that GDP numbers were unreliable and hence, in order to measure the real economic activity, one should track 3 indicators on a real time basis- Railway cargo volume; Electricity consumption; and Loans disbursed by the banks.
Based upon this, the “Economist” magazine has constructed the Li Keqiang Index to measure the growth rate of the Chinese economy.Unattempted
In 2007, Li Keqiang, China”s current Prime Minister, who was then the provincial leader, had expressed concerns about overstated GDP numbers in the Chinese economy. He was of the opinion that GDP numbers were unreliable and hence, in order to measure the real economic activity, one should track 3 indicators on a real time basis- Railway cargo volume; Electricity consumption; and Loans disbursed by the banks.
Based upon this, the “Economist” magazine has constructed the Li Keqiang Index to measure the growth rate of the Chinese economy. -
Question 91 of 100
91. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following have been provided under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963?
(1) The Administrator shall, from time to time, summon the Legislative Assembly to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit.
(2) A Bill for imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax shall not be introduced into the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory, except on the recommendation of the Administrator.
(3) In case of difference of opinion between the Administrator and his Ministers on any matter, the Administrator shall refer it to the President for decision and act according to the decision given thereon by the President.
(4) With respect to the Special Responsibility of the Administrator under the Act, he shall, in the exercise of his functions, act as per the advice of his Council of Ministers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 onlyCorrect
With respect to the Special Responsibility of the Administrator, under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, he shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in his discretion and not as per his Council of Ministers.
The Administrator shall, from time to time, summon the Legislative Assembly to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.
Special Provisions as to the Financial Bills – A Bill or Amendment shall not be introduced into, or moved in, the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory, except on the recommendation of the Administrator, if such Bill or Amendment makes provision for any of the following matters-the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
There shall be a Council of Ministers in each Union Territory, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Administrator in the exercise of his functions in relation to the matters with respect to which the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory has the power to make laws, except in so far as he is required by or under this Act to act in his discretion or by or under any law to exercise any judicial or quasi-judicial functions.
Provided that, in case of difference of opinion between the Administrator and his Ministers on any matter, the Administrator shall refer it to the President for decision and act according to the decision given thereon by the President and pending such decision, it shall be competent for the Administrator in any case, where the matter, is in his opinion, is so urgent, that it is necessary for him to take immediate action, to take such action or to give such direction in the matter, as he deems necessary.Incorrect
With respect to the Special Responsibility of the Administrator, under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, he shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in his discretion and not as per his Council of Ministers.
The Administrator shall, from time to time, summon the Legislative Assembly to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.
Special Provisions as to the Financial Bills – A Bill or Amendment shall not be introduced into, or moved in, the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory, except on the recommendation of the Administrator, if such Bill or Amendment makes provision for any of the following matters-the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
There shall be a Council of Ministers in each Union Territory, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Administrator in the exercise of his functions in relation to the matters with respect to which the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory has the power to make laws, except in so far as he is required by or under this Act to act in his discretion or by or under any law to exercise any judicial or quasi-judicial functions.
Provided that, in case of difference of opinion between the Administrator and his Ministers on any matter, the Administrator shall refer it to the President for decision and act according to the decision given thereon by the President and pending such decision, it shall be competent for the Administrator in any case, where the matter, is in his opinion, is so urgent, that it is necessary for him to take immediate action, to take such action or to give such direction in the matter, as he deems necessary.Unattempted
With respect to the Special Responsibility of the Administrator, under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, he shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in his discretion and not as per his Council of Ministers.
The Administrator shall, from time to time, summon the Legislative Assembly to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.
Special Provisions as to the Financial Bills – A Bill or Amendment shall not be introduced into, or moved in, the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory, except on the recommendation of the Administrator, if such Bill or Amendment makes provision for any of the following matters-the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
There shall be a Council of Ministers in each Union Territory, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Administrator in the exercise of his functions in relation to the matters with respect to which the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory has the power to make laws, except in so far as he is required by or under this Act to act in his discretion or by or under any law to exercise any judicial or quasi-judicial functions.
Provided that, in case of difference of opinion between the Administrator and his Ministers on any matter, the Administrator shall refer it to the President for decision and act according to the decision given thereon by the President and pending such decision, it shall be competent for the Administrator in any case, where the matter, is in his opinion, is so urgent, that it is necessary for him to take immediate action, to take such action or to give such direction in the matter, as he deems necessary. -
Question 92 of 100
92. Question
2 pointsWhat does the KIRAN Scheme of the Government deal with?
(A) Electrification of the villages through solar energy.
(B) Financial inclusion of the visually disabled people.
(C) Promotion of women”s participation in science and technology.
(D) Enhancement in the learning outcomes at the primary school level.Correct
KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing) is an initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It addresses various issues related to the women scientists, such as unemployment, break-in career, relocation, etc. Further, it also provides opportunities to the women in the field of research and entrepreneurship.
Incorrect
KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing) is an initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It addresses various issues related to the women scientists, such as unemployment, break-in career, relocation, etc. Further, it also provides opportunities to the women in the field of research and entrepreneurship.
Unattempted
KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing) is an initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It addresses various issues related to the women scientists, such as unemployment, break-in career, relocation, etc. Further, it also provides opportunities to the women in the field of research and entrepreneurship.
-
Question 93 of 100
93. Question
2 pointsRecently, National Institute of Oceanography has launched first-of-its-kind project of Genome Mapping in the Indian Ocean. In this context, which of the following will be the significance of the project?
(1) It will help in identifying mineral or element concentration in parts of ocean.
(2) It will enable commercial biotechnology applications from anticancer treatments
(3) It will enable scientists to identify the factors controlling the changes in RNA, DNA in the oceans.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) has launched its first-of-its-kind project of Genome Mapping in the Indian Ocean. The aim of the Project is to reveal the internal working of the body of the ocean at a cellular level and understand the biochemistry and the response of the ocean to climate change, nutrient stress and increasing pollution.
Statement 1 is correct. The project will help in identifying which part of the ocean has a greater concentration of which mineral or element. Scientists will then use these as tracers to tackle the causative factors for excess or lack of a certain mineral or element and suggest possible solutions for their mitigation.
Statement 2 is correct. The genome mapping of oceans will enable commercial biotechnology applications from anticancer treatments and industrial enzymes to antiviral molecules.
Statement 3 is correct. The genome mapping will enable scientists to identify the factors controlling the changes in RNA, DNA in the oceans and various stressors impacting them.Incorrect
National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) has launched its first-of-its-kind project of Genome Mapping in the Indian Ocean. The aim of the Project is to reveal the internal working of the body of the ocean at a cellular level and understand the biochemistry and the response of the ocean to climate change, nutrient stress and increasing pollution.
Statement 1 is correct. The project will help in identifying which part of the ocean has a greater concentration of which mineral or element. Scientists will then use these as tracers to tackle the causative factors for excess or lack of a certain mineral or element and suggest possible solutions for their mitigation.
Statement 2 is correct. The genome mapping of oceans will enable commercial biotechnology applications from anticancer treatments and industrial enzymes to antiviral molecules.
Statement 3 is correct. The genome mapping will enable scientists to identify the factors controlling the changes in RNA, DNA in the oceans and various stressors impacting them.Unattempted
National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) has launched its first-of-its-kind project of Genome Mapping in the Indian Ocean. The aim of the Project is to reveal the internal working of the body of the ocean at a cellular level and understand the biochemistry and the response of the ocean to climate change, nutrient stress and increasing pollution.
Statement 1 is correct. The project will help in identifying which part of the ocean has a greater concentration of which mineral or element. Scientists will then use these as tracers to tackle the causative factors for excess or lack of a certain mineral or element and suggest possible solutions for their mitigation.
Statement 2 is correct. The genome mapping of oceans will enable commercial biotechnology applications from anticancer treatments and industrial enzymes to antiviral molecules.
Statement 3 is correct. The genome mapping will enable scientists to identify the factors controlling the changes in RNA, DNA in the oceans and various stressors impacting them. -
Question 94 of 100
94. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following changes has/have been brought through the Mineral Laws (Amendment) Act, 2020?
(1) It has allowed the companies with no prior experience to participate in auction of coal/lignite blocks.
(2) It has lifted end-use-restriction for coal mines to end captive mining regime in India.
(3) It has enabled auction of lease of mines to be started before the expiry of the lease period.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Act, 2020 has allowed for the following :
Companies with no prior experience can apply – Companies, which do not possess any prior coal mining experience in India and/or have mining experience in other minerals or in other countries, can participate in the auction of coal/lignite blocks.
Lifting end-use-restriction – The government has lifted end-userestriction for coal mines to end captive mining regime. Now, the companies which are not “engaged in specified end-use” can also participate in the auctions of Schedule II and III coal mines.
PL-cum-ML – The act also allows prospecting licence-cum-mining lease (PL-cum-ML) for coal/lignite, which increases the availability of coal and lignite blocks, and coal blocks of varying grades in a wide geographical distribution will be available for allocation.
Deciding about new lease holders before the expiry of the term – The auction of lease of mines can now be started before the expiry of the lease period. It will enable the state government to take advance action for auction of mineral blocks, so that the new lease holder could be decided before the existing lease gets expired. Composite license allowed – The new provisions will also augment the exploration of the deep seated minerals and minerals of national interest by allowing Non Exclusive Reconnaissance Permit (NERP) holders.Incorrect
The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Act, 2020 has allowed for the following :
Companies with no prior experience can apply – Companies, which do not possess any prior coal mining experience in India and/or have mining experience in other minerals or in other countries, can participate in the auction of coal/lignite blocks.
Lifting end-use-restriction – The government has lifted end-userestriction for coal mines to end captive mining regime. Now, the companies which are not “engaged in specified end-use” can also participate in the auctions of Schedule II and III coal mines.
PL-cum-ML – The act also allows prospecting licence-cum-mining lease (PL-cum-ML) for coal/lignite, which increases the availability of coal and lignite blocks, and coal blocks of varying grades in a wide geographical distribution will be available for allocation.
Deciding about new lease holders before the expiry of the term – The auction of lease of mines can now be started before the expiry of the lease period. It will enable the state government to take advance action for auction of mineral blocks, so that the new lease holder could be decided before the existing lease gets expired. Composite license allowed – The new provisions will also augment the exploration of the deep seated minerals and minerals of national interest by allowing Non Exclusive Reconnaissance Permit (NERP) holders.Unattempted
The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Act, 2020 has allowed for the following :
Companies with no prior experience can apply – Companies, which do not possess any prior coal mining experience in India and/or have mining experience in other minerals or in other countries, can participate in the auction of coal/lignite blocks.
Lifting end-use-restriction – The government has lifted end-userestriction for coal mines to end captive mining regime. Now, the companies which are not “engaged in specified end-use” can also participate in the auctions of Schedule II and III coal mines.
PL-cum-ML – The act also allows prospecting licence-cum-mining lease (PL-cum-ML) for coal/lignite, which increases the availability of coal and lignite blocks, and coal blocks of varying grades in a wide geographical distribution will be available for allocation.
Deciding about new lease holders before the expiry of the term – The auction of lease of mines can now be started before the expiry of the lease period. It will enable the state government to take advance action for auction of mineral blocks, so that the new lease holder could be decided before the existing lease gets expired. Composite license allowed – The new provisions will also augment the exploration of the deep seated minerals and minerals of national interest by allowing Non Exclusive Reconnaissance Permit (NERP) holders. -
Question 95 of 100
95. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding “National Honey Mission”:
(1) It is launched by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) under Ministry of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers” Welfare.
(2) It aims to promote beekeeping for increasing crop productivity and pollination services avenue for beekeepers and farmers.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Honey Mission is launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) and not by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium.
Statement 2 is correct. The aim of the mission is to provide sustainable employment and income to rural and urban unemployed youth. It also aims to conserve the honeybee habitat and tapping untapped natural resources.
Moreover, it promotes beekeeping for increasing crop productivity and pollination services avenue for beekeepers and farmers.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Honey Mission is launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) and not by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium.
Statement 2 is correct. The aim of the mission is to provide sustainable employment and income to rural and urban unemployed youth. It also aims to conserve the honeybee habitat and tapping untapped natural resources.
Moreover, it promotes beekeeping for increasing crop productivity and pollination services avenue for beekeepers and farmers.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Honey Mission is launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) and not by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium.
Statement 2 is correct. The aim of the mission is to provide sustainable employment and income to rural and urban unemployed youth. It also aims to conserve the honeybee habitat and tapping untapped natural resources.
Moreover, it promotes beekeeping for increasing crop productivity and pollination services avenue for beekeepers and farmers. -
Question 96 of 100
96. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) Granting of equal citizenship to all members of the society provides for political equality in a society.
(2) Lack of safety for women in public places and workplaces points to the existence of social inequality in India.
(3) Marxism and Liberalism both argue for bringing economic equality in society by abolishing private ownership of economic resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1 and 3 onlyCorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In democratic societies political equality would normally include granting equal citizenship to all the members of the state. Equal citizenship brings with it certain basic rights such as the right to vote, freedom of expression, movement and association and freedom of belief. These are rights which are considered necessary to enable citizens to develop themselves and participate in the affairs of the state.
Statement 2 is correct. In India social inequality manifests itself in the form various customs which deprive certain groups and communities equal opportunities. And one of the major deprived sections belongs to women. Lack of safety in public places and work places for women is a manifestation of social inequality faced by women in India.
In India, women may not enjoy equal rights of inheritance in some groups, or there may be social prohibitions regarding their taking part in certain kinds of activities, or they may even be discouraged from obtaining higher education. The state has a significant role in such matters. It should make policies to prevent discrimination or harassment of women in public places or employment, to provide incentives to open up education or certain professions to women, and other such measures. But social groups and individuals also have a role to play in raising awareness and supporting those who want to exercise their rights.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While Marxism sees private ownership of important economic resources as a source of inequality in the society, Liberalism does not.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In democratic societies political equality would normally include granting equal citizenship to all the members of the state. Equal citizenship brings with it certain basic rights such as the right to vote, freedom of expression, movement and association and freedom of belief. These are rights which are considered necessary to enable citizens to develop themselves and participate in the affairs of the state.
Statement 2 is correct. In India social inequality manifests itself in the form various customs which deprive certain groups and communities equal opportunities. And one of the major deprived sections belongs to women. Lack of safety in public places and work places for women is a manifestation of social inequality faced by women in India.
In India, women may not enjoy equal rights of inheritance in some groups, or there may be social prohibitions regarding their taking part in certain kinds of activities, or they may even be discouraged from obtaining higher education. The state has a significant role in such matters. It should make policies to prevent discrimination or harassment of women in public places or employment, to provide incentives to open up education or certain professions to women, and other such measures. But social groups and individuals also have a role to play in raising awareness and supporting those who want to exercise their rights.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While Marxism sees private ownership of important economic resources as a source of inequality in the society, Liberalism does not.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. In democratic societies political equality would normally include granting equal citizenship to all the members of the state. Equal citizenship brings with it certain basic rights such as the right to vote, freedom of expression, movement and association and freedom of belief. These are rights which are considered necessary to enable citizens to develop themselves and participate in the affairs of the state.
Statement 2 is correct. In India social inequality manifests itself in the form various customs which deprive certain groups and communities equal opportunities. And one of the major deprived sections belongs to women. Lack of safety in public places and work places for women is a manifestation of social inequality faced by women in India.
In India, women may not enjoy equal rights of inheritance in some groups, or there may be social prohibitions regarding their taking part in certain kinds of activities, or they may even be discouraged from obtaining higher education. The state has a significant role in such matters. It should make policies to prevent discrimination or harassment of women in public places or employment, to provide incentives to open up education or certain professions to women, and other such measures. But social groups and individuals also have a role to play in raising awareness and supporting those who want to exercise their rights.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While Marxism sees private ownership of important economic resources as a source of inequality in the society, Liberalism does not. -
Question 97 of 100
97. Question
2 pointsThe term “Iron Dome”, sometimes seen in the news, is
(A) an anti-missile system indigenously developed by India.
(B) a mobile all-weather air defence system developed by Israel.
(C) a nuclear research facility located in France.
(D) an air raid shelter developed by North Korea.Correct
The Iron Dome is a mobile all-weather air defence system developed by Israel to intercept and destroy shortrange rockets and artillery shells fired from short distances. The Dome has three central components – detection and tracking radar, the weapon control system and missile firing unit.
Amid the Israel-Palestine conflict, the night sky over Israel has been ablaze with interceptor missiles from Iron Dome shooting down the incoming rockets in the sky.Incorrect
The Iron Dome is a mobile all-weather air defence system developed by Israel to intercept and destroy shortrange rockets and artillery shells fired from short distances. The Dome has three central components – detection and tracking radar, the weapon control system and missile firing unit.
Amid the Israel-Palestine conflict, the night sky over Israel has been ablaze with interceptor missiles from Iron Dome shooting down the incoming rockets in the sky.Unattempted
The Iron Dome is a mobile all-weather air defence system developed by Israel to intercept and destroy shortrange rockets and artillery shells fired from short distances. The Dome has three central components – detection and tracking radar, the weapon control system and missile firing unit.
Amid the Israel-Palestine conflict, the night sky over Israel has been ablaze with interceptor missiles from Iron Dome shooting down the incoming rockets in the sky. -
Question 98 of 100
98. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the recent developments in cyber policing:
(1) The Crime Multi Agency Centre (CriMAC) will help in sharing of information on heinous crimes among the states.
(2) The National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC) is a professional quality eLearning services on cybercrime investigation.
(3) The National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) is a network based pan India system for recording and sharing of the fingerprints of the criminals in various crimes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3Correct
The Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) – For sharing of information on heinous crime and other issues related to inter-state coordination.
The National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC) – For professional quality eLearning services on cybercrime investigation on large scale to the police officers, judges, prosecutors and other stakeholders, was also launched.
The National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) is being setup by the NCRB (The National Crime Records Bureau), which is a network based pan India system for recording and sharing of the fingerprints of the criminals in various crimes. Implementation of NAFIS will not only help the police in solving crime cases quickly, but will also enhance skilled human resources in State Fingerprint Bureaus.Incorrect
The Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) – For sharing of information on heinous crime and other issues related to inter-state coordination.
The National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC) – For professional quality eLearning services on cybercrime investigation on large scale to the police officers, judges, prosecutors and other stakeholders, was also launched.
The National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) is being setup by the NCRB (The National Crime Records Bureau), which is a network based pan India system for recording and sharing of the fingerprints of the criminals in various crimes. Implementation of NAFIS will not only help the police in solving crime cases quickly, but will also enhance skilled human resources in State Fingerprint Bureaus.Unattempted
The Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) – For sharing of information on heinous crime and other issues related to inter-state coordination.
The National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC) – For professional quality eLearning services on cybercrime investigation on large scale to the police officers, judges, prosecutors and other stakeholders, was also launched.
The National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) is being setup by the NCRB (The National Crime Records Bureau), which is a network based pan India system for recording and sharing of the fingerprints of the criminals in various crimes. Implementation of NAFIS will not only help the police in solving crime cases quickly, but will also enhance skilled human resources in State Fingerprint Bureaus. -
Question 99 of 100
99. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
(1) The National Statistical Commission of India is an autonomous body.
(2) The Central Statistics Office and National Sample Survey Office have been merged to form National Statistical Office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The National Statistical Commission (NSC) of India is an autonomous body which was set up in 2005.The objective of its commission is to reduce the problems faced by statistical agencies in the country in relation to collection of data.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central government merged the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) into the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The proposed National Statistical Office (NSO) would be headed by Secretary of Statistics and Programme Implementation.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The National Statistical Commission (NSC) of India is an autonomous body which was set up in 2005.The objective of its commission is to reduce the problems faced by statistical agencies in the country in relation to collection of data.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central government merged the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) into the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The proposed National Statistical Office (NSO) would be headed by Secretary of Statistics and Programme Implementation.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. The National Statistical Commission (NSC) of India is an autonomous body which was set up in 2005.The objective of its commission is to reduce the problems faced by statistical agencies in the country in relation to collection of data.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central government merged the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) into the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The proposed National Statistical Office (NSO) would be headed by Secretary of Statistics and Programme Implementation. -
Question 100 of 100
100. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements with regard to New Space India Limited (NSIL):
(1) It is the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organization.
(2) It aims at enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The setting up of New Space India Limited (NSIL) was announced in 2019 budget. It is a public sector company that would serve as a commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). Its main purpose is to market the technologies developed by ISRO and bring it more clients that need space-based services. This role has already been performed by Antrix Corporation, another PSU working under the Department of Space, which still exists.
Statement 2 is correct. It is incorporated with the primary responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the Indian space programme.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The setting up of New Space India Limited (NSIL) was announced in 2019 budget. It is a public sector company that would serve as a commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). Its main purpose is to market the technologies developed by ISRO and bring it more clients that need space-based services. This role has already been performed by Antrix Corporation, another PSU working under the Department of Space, which still exists.
Statement 2 is correct. It is incorporated with the primary responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the Indian space programme.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. The setting up of New Space India Limited (NSIL) was announced in 2019 budget. It is a public sector company that would serve as a commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). Its main purpose is to market the technologies developed by ISRO and bring it more clients that need space-based services. This role has already been performed by Antrix Corporation, another PSU working under the Department of Space, which still exists.
Statement 2 is correct. It is incorporated with the primary responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the Indian space programme.