Online Sample Test: Prelims Program

Sample Test: Prelims Program 2023

Time limit: 0

0 of 100 questions completed

Questions:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29
30. 30
31. 31
32. 32
33. 33
34. 34
35. 35
36. 36
37. 37
38. 38
39. 39
40. 40
41. 41
42. 42
43. 43
44. 44
45. 45
46. 46
47. 47
48. 48
49. 49
50. 50
51. 51
52. 52
53. 53
54. 54
55. 55
56. 56
57. 57
58. 58
59. 59
60. 60
61. 61
62. 62
63. 63
64. 64
65. 65
66. 66
67. 67
68. 68
69. 69
70. 70
71. 71
72. 72
73. 73
74. 74
75. 75
76. 76
77. 77
78. 78
79. 79
80. 80
81. 81
82. 82
83. 83
84. 84
85. 85
86. 86
87. 87
88. 88
89. 89
90. 90
91. 91
92. 92
93. 93
94. 94
95. 95
96. 96
97. 97
98. 98
99. 99
100. 100

Information

.

You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.

Test is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:

Your results are here!! for" Sample Test: Prelims Program 2023 "

0 of 100 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0

1. Not categorized
   You have attempted: 0
   Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
   Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
   

Your result has been entered into leaderboard

Loading

Name: E-Mail:

Captcha:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29
30. 30
31. 31
32. 32
33. 33
34. 34
35. 35
36. 36
37. 37
38. 38
39. 39
40. 40
41. 41
42. 42
43. 43
44. 44
45. 45
46. 46
47. 47
48. 48
49. 49
50. 50
51. 51
52. 52
53. 53
54. 54
55. 55
56. 56
57. 57
58. 58
59. 59
60. 60
61. 61
62. 62
63. 63
64. 64
65. 65
66. 66
67. 67
68. 68
69. 69
70. 70
71. 71
72. 72
73. 73
74. 74
75. 75
76. 76
77. 77
78. 78
79. 79
80. 80
81. 81
82. 82
83. 83
84. 84
85. 85
86. 86
87. 87
88. 88
89. 89
90. 90
91. 91
92. 92
93. 93
94. 94
95. 95
96. 96
97. 97
98. 98
99. 99
100. 100

1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 100

   1. Question

   Consider the following statements regarding Balshastri Jambhekar
   (1) He was a pioneer of social reform through journalism in Bombay.
   (2) He founded the Bombay Native General Library.
   (3) He was the first professor of Hindi at the Elphinston College
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 and 3 only
   (B) 1 only
   (C) 3 only
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Balshastri Jambhekar
   Balshastri Jambhekar (1812-1846) was a pioneer of social reform through journalism in Bombay; he attacked Brahminical orthodoxy and tried to reform popular Hinduism. He started the newspaper Darpan in 1832.
   Known as the father of Marathi journalism, Jambhekar used the Darpan to awaken the people to awareness of social reforms, such as widow remarriage, and to instil in the masses a scientific approach to life.
   In 1840, he started Digdarshan which published articles on scientific subjects as well as history.
   Jambhekar founded the Bombay Native General Library and started the Native Improvement Society of which an offshoot was the Students Literary and Scientific Library.
   He was the first professor of Hindi at the Elphinston College, besides being a director of the Colaba Observatory.

   Unattempted
   

   Balshastri Jambhekar
   Balshastri Jambhekar (1812-1846) was a pioneer of social reform through journalism in Bombay; he attacked Brahminical orthodoxy and tried to reform popular Hinduism. He started the newspaper Darpan in 1832.
   Known as the father of Marathi journalism, Jambhekar used the Darpan to awaken the people to awareness of social reforms, such as widow remarriage, and to instil in the masses a scientific approach to life.
   In 1840, he started Digdarshan which published articles on scientific subjects as well as history.
   Jambhekar founded the Bombay Native General Library and started the Native Improvement Society of which an offshoot was the Students Literary and Scientific Library.
   He was the first professor of Hindi at the Elphinston College, besides being a director of the Colaba Observatory.
2. Question 2 of 100

   2. Question

   Consider the following statements regarding Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
   (1) Following the incident, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest.
   (2) Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind following the incident.
   (3) Udham Singh assassinated Michael O’Dwyer, the Lieutenant-Governor who presided over the brutal British suppression of the 1919 protests in Punjab.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 and 2 only
   (B) 2 and 3 only
   (C) 1 only
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919)
   Amritsar was the worst affected by violence. In the beginning there was no violence by the protestors. Indians shut down their shops and normal trade and the empty streets showed the Indians’ displeasure at the British betrayal. On April 9, two nationalist leaders, Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal, were arrested by the British officials without any provocation except that they had addressed protest meetings, and taken to some unknown destination. This caused resentment among the Indian protestors who came out in thousands on April 10 to show their solidarity with their leaders. Soon the protests turned violent because the police resorted to firing in which some of the protestors were killed. Tension ran high.
   In the riot that followed, five Englishmen are reported to have been killed and Marcella Sherwood, an English woman missionary going on a bicycle, was beaten up.
   On Baisakhi day, a large crowd of people mostly from neighbouring villages, unaware of the prohibitory orders in the city, gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh, a popular place for public events, to celebrate the Baisakhi festival. Local leaders had also called for a protest meeting at the venue.
   The entire nation was stunned. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest. Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind, bestowed by the British for his work during the Boer War. Gandhi was overwhelmed by the atmosphere of total violence and withdrew the movement on April 18,1919.
   Udham Singh, who bore the name, Ram Mohammad Singh Azad, later assassinated Michael O’Dwyer, the Lieutenant-Governor who presided over the brutal British suppression of the 1919 protests in Punjab. Udham Singh was hanged in 1940 for his deed. (His ashes were returned to India in 1974.)

   Unattempted
   

   Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919)
   Amritsar was the worst affected by violence. In the beginning there was no violence by the protestors. Indians shut down their shops and normal trade and the empty streets showed the Indians’ displeasure at the British betrayal. On April 9, two nationalist leaders, Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal, were arrested by the British officials without any provocation except that they had addressed protest meetings, and taken to some unknown destination. This caused resentment among the Indian protestors who came out in thousands on April 10 to show their solidarity with their leaders. Soon the protests turned violent because the police resorted to firing in which some of the protestors were killed. Tension ran high.
   In the riot that followed, five Englishmen are reported to have been killed and Marcella Sherwood, an English woman missionary going on a bicycle, was beaten up.
   On Baisakhi day, a large crowd of people mostly from neighbouring villages, unaware of the prohibitory orders in the city, gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh, a popular place for public events, to celebrate the Baisakhi festival. Local leaders had also called for a protest meeting at the venue.
   The entire nation was stunned. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest. Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind, bestowed by the British for his work during the Boer War. Gandhi was overwhelmed by the atmosphere of total violence and withdrew the movement on April 18,1919.
   Udham Singh, who bore the name, Ram Mohammad Singh Azad, later assassinated Michael O’Dwyer, the Lieutenant-Governor who presided over the brutal British suppression of the 1919 protests in Punjab. Udham Singh was hanged in 1940 for his deed. (His ashes were returned to India in 1974.)
3. Question 3 of 100

   3. Question

   Which of the following is/ are a part of four point agenda of Prarthana Samaj
   (1) disapproval of caste system,
   (2) women”s education
   (3) widow remarriage
   (4) raising the age of marriage for females only.
   Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
   (A) 1 and 2only
   (B) 1 and 3 only
   (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
   (D) 1,2,3 and 4

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   · Prarthana Samaj In 1863, Keshub Chandra Seri helped found the Prarthana Samaj in Bombay.
   · Earlier, the Brahmo ideas spread in Maharashtra where the Paramhansa Sabha was founded in 1849.
   · Here the emphasis was on monotheism, on “works” rather than on faith. They relied on education and persuasion and not on confrontation with Hindu orthodoxy.
   · There was a four-point social agenda also:
   ( i ) disapproval of caste system,
   (ii) women”s education,
   (iii) widow remarriage, and
   (iv) raising the age of marriage for both males and females.
   · The Prarthana Samaj had as its prominent leaders Mahadeo Govind Ranade (1842-1901), R.G. Bhandarkar (1837-1925) and N.G. Chandavarkar (1855-1923).

   Unattempted
   

   · Prarthana Samaj In 1863, Keshub Chandra Seri helped found the Prarthana Samaj in Bombay.
   · Earlier, the Brahmo ideas spread in Maharashtra where the Paramhansa Sabha was founded in 1849.
   · Here the emphasis was on monotheism, on “works” rather than on faith. They relied on education and persuasion and not on confrontation with Hindu orthodoxy.
   · There was a four-point social agenda also:
   ( i ) disapproval of caste system,
   (ii) women”s education,
   (iii) widow remarriage, and
   (iv) raising the age of marriage for both males and females.
   · The Prarthana Samaj had as its prominent leaders Mahadeo Govind Ranade (1842-1901), R.G. Bhandarkar (1837-1925) and N.G. Chandavarkar (1855-1923).
4. Question 4 of 100

   4. Question

   Consider the following events
   (1) Annexation of Burma by British
   (2) The Second Afghan War by British
   (3) Invasion of Tibet under Curzon
   Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
   (A) 1-2-3
   (B) 3-2-1
   (C) 1-3-2
   (D)2-1-3

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   After 1878, the British undertook a number of expansionist expeditions which were opposed by the nationalists. These expeditions included—
   •the Second Afghan War (1878-80);
   •the dispatch of troops by England in 1882, to suppress the nationalist uprising by Col. Arabi inEgypt;
   •annexation of Burma in 1885;
   •invasion of Tibet under Curzon in 1903; and
   •a number of annexations during the 1890s in the north-west to stop the Russian advance. The nationalists supported the tribal resistance to these adventures by the British.

   Unattempted
   

   After 1878, the British undertook a number of expansionist expeditions which were opposed by the nationalists. These expeditions included—
   •the Second Afghan War (1878-80);
   •the dispatch of troops by England in 1882, to suppress the nationalist uprising by Col. Arabi inEgypt;
   •annexation of Burma in 1885;
   •invasion of Tibet under Curzon in 1903; and
   •a number of annexations during the 1890s in the north-west to stop the Russian advance. The nationalists supported the tribal resistance to these adventures by the British.
5. Question 5 of 100

   5. Question

   Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Valley Civilisation:
   (1) People of Indus Valley Civilization were well known with the art of dancing.
   (2) Paintings from Indus Valley Civilisation represent deep similarities with “prehistoric rock paintings”.
   (3) The Indus Valley pottery consists of fine-wheel made wares with both black painted ware and polychrome pottery.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 1 and 3 only
   (C) 2 and 3 only
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1 is correct. In India, the art of dancing may be traced back to the Harappan culture. The discovery of the bronze statue of a dancing girl testifies to the fact that some women in Harappa performed dances.
   Statement 2 is incorrect. There has been very little evidence to support the art of painting from Indus Valley Civilization era. Though there are remnants of vessels with pigments and colours found all over the sites, the purposes of these are yet to be determined. There are deep similarities with ancient Indus iconography.
   Depictions of bulls with decorated horns constitute a prominent feature of Chalcolithic rock art (from around 2500 BCE, the Indus period). This symbolism is seen majorly on Indus valley seals and in paintings on Chalcolithic pottery from the early Neolithic cultures of western South Asia.
   Statement 3 is correct. The Indus Valley pottery consists chiefly of very fine wheel- made wares, very few being hand-made. Plain pottery is more common than painted ware. Plain pottery is generally of red clay, with or without a fine red or grey slip. Although polychrome pottery is rare, it is mainly comprised of small vases decorated with geometric patterns in red, black, and green, rarely white and yellow. Thus, both black painted ware and polychrome pottery were used in the Indus Valley Civilization.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1 is correct. In India, the art of dancing may be traced back to the Harappan culture. The discovery of the bronze statue of a dancing girl testifies to the fact that some women in Harappa performed dances.
   Statement 2 is incorrect. There has been very little evidence to support the art of painting from Indus Valley Civilization era. Though there are remnants of vessels with pigments and colours found all over the sites, the purposes of these are yet to be determined. There are deep similarities with ancient Indus iconography.
   Depictions of bulls with decorated horns constitute a prominent feature of Chalcolithic rock art (from around 2500 BCE, the Indus period). This symbolism is seen majorly on Indus valley seals and in paintings on Chalcolithic pottery from the early Neolithic cultures of western South Asia.
   Statement 3 is correct. The Indus Valley pottery consists chiefly of very fine wheel- made wares, very few being hand-made. Plain pottery is more common than painted ware. Plain pottery is generally of red clay, with or without a fine red or grey slip. Although polychrome pottery is rare, it is mainly comprised of small vases decorated with geometric patterns in red, black, and green, rarely white and yellow. Thus, both black painted ware and polychrome pottery were used in the Indus Valley Civilization.
6. Question 6 of 100

   6. Question

   Consider the following statements regarding the Brahmo Samaj:
   (1) It was founded by Raja Rammohan Roy
   (2) It opposed idol worship.
   (3) It supported widow remarriage.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) 1 and 2 only
   (B) 2 and 3 only
   (C) 1 and 3 only
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   All the statements given above are correct.
   •Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Sabha in 1828 which later came to be known as Brahmo Samaj. It was open to all people regardless of their colour, convictions, caste, nationality, and religion. It emphasised human dignity, opposed idol worship and condemned social evils like sati pratha. It was not meant to be a separate religious sect but only a place where all those who believed in one true God could meet and pray. No images were allowed and no sacrifices and offerings permitted.
   •It denounced polytheism, idol worship, and the faith in divine avatars (incarnations). It condemned the caste system, dogmas and superstitions. It wanted the abolition of child marriage, purdah system and the practice of sati. It supported widow remarriage.
   •Debendra Nath Tagore founder member of Brahmo Samaj, succeeded Raja Rammohan Roy as the leader of the Brahmo Samaj. He put new life in the Samaj and propagated Raja Rammohan Roy’s ideas. Keshub Chandra Sen took over the leadership of the Samaj from Tagore.

   Unattempted
   

   All the statements given above are correct.
   •Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Sabha in 1828 which later came to be known as Brahmo Samaj. It was open to all people regardless of their colour, convictions, caste, nationality, and religion. It emphasised human dignity, opposed idol worship and condemned social evils like sati pratha. It was not meant to be a separate religious sect but only a place where all those who believed in one true God could meet and pray. No images were allowed and no sacrifices and offerings permitted.
   •It denounced polytheism, idol worship, and the faith in divine avatars (incarnations). It condemned the caste system, dogmas and superstitions. It wanted the abolition of child marriage, purdah system and the practice of sati. It supported widow remarriage.
   •Debendra Nath Tagore founder member of Brahmo Samaj, succeeded Raja Rammohan Roy as the leader of the Brahmo Samaj. He put new life in the Samaj and propagated Raja Rammohan Roy’s ideas. Keshub Chandra Sen took over the leadership of the Samaj from Tagore.
7. Question 7 of 100

   7. Question

   As the rulers of the mahajanapadas of the Common Era were building huge forts maintaining big armies, they needed more resources for which they collected taxes. Consider the following about it.
   (1) Taxes on crop were fixed at a certain share of the total produce.
   (2) Craft persons were made to pay taxes.
   (3) Hunter gatherers and herders were exempt from taxes as it was not possible to enumerate them as a part of any specific empire.
   (4) Trade was tax-free but a surcharge was levied on special category of goods.
   Select the correct answer using the codes below.
   (A) 1 and 2 only
   (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
   (C) 2 and 3 only
   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1: Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were farmers. Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known as bhaga or a share.
   Statement 2: These could have been in the form of labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every month for the king.
   Statement 3: Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce. And hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja. So, 3 is incorrect.
   Statement 4: There were also taxes on goods that were bought and sold, through trade. So, 4 is also incorrect.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1: Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were farmers. Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known as bhaga or a share.
   Statement 2: These could have been in the form of labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every month for the king.
   Statement 3: Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce. And hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja. So, 3 is incorrect.
   Statement 4: There were also taxes on goods that were bought and sold, through trade. So, 4 is also incorrect.
8. Question 8 of 100

   8. Question

   Consider the following events:
   (1) Launch of Khilafat Movement
   (2) Formation of Ghadar party
   (3) Kakori conspiracy
   (4) Organisation of Home Rule League by Annie Besant
   Select the correct chronological order of the above given events using the code given below:
   (A) 4-3-2-1
   (B) 2-4-1-3
   (C) 2-4-3-1
   (D) 4-2-3-1

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   •The Ghadar Party was an Indian revolutionary organisation. It was formed in 1913, underthe leadership of Har Dayal, Sant Baba Wasakha Singh Dadehar, Baba Jawala Singh, Santokh Singh and Sohan Singh Bhakna as its president. The party was multi-ethnic and had Sikh, Hinduand Muslim leaders. The party was headquartered in San Francisco, United States.
   •Organisation of Home Rule League by Annie Besant – September 1916.
   •The Khilafat Movement (1919-1924), was a Pan-Islamic, political protest campaign launched by Muslims in British India to influence the British Government and to protect the Ottoman empireduring the aftermath of First World War. The First World War had ended with the defeat of Ottoman Turkey.
   •The Kakori Conspiracy was a train robbery that took place between Kakori and, near Lucknow, on 9 August 1925 during the Indian Independence Movement against the British Indian Government. The robbery was organised by the Hindustan Republican Association.

   Unattempted
   

   •The Ghadar Party was an Indian revolutionary organisation. It was formed in 1913, underthe leadership of Har Dayal, Sant Baba Wasakha Singh Dadehar, Baba Jawala Singh, Santokh Singh and Sohan Singh Bhakna as its president. The party was multi-ethnic and had Sikh, Hinduand Muslim leaders. The party was headquartered in San Francisco, United States.
   •Organisation of Home Rule League by Annie Besant – September 1916.
   •The Khilafat Movement (1919-1924), was a Pan-Islamic, political protest campaign launched by Muslims in British India to influence the British Government and to protect the Ottoman empireduring the aftermath of First World War. The First World War had ended with the defeat of Ottoman Turkey.
   •The Kakori Conspiracy was a train robbery that took place between Kakori and, near Lucknow, on 9 August 1925 during the Indian Independence Movement against the British Indian Government. The robbery was organised by the Hindustan Republican Association.
9. Question 9 of 100

   9. Question

   Which of the following is/are the missions of All India Women”s Conference founded by Margaret Cousins, in 1927
   (1) To work actively for the general progress and welfare of women and children.
   (2) To support the claim of every citizen to the right to enjoy basic civil liberties.
   (3) To work for permanent international amity and world peace.
   Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
   (A) 1 only
   (B) 1 and 2 only
   (C) 1 and 3 only
   (D) 1,2 and 3

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The All India Women”s Conference (AIWC) is a non- governmetal organisation based in Delhi. It was founded in 1927 by Margaret Cousins “as an organisation dedicated to upliftment and betterment of women and children”.
   As well as continuing its original mission, the AIWC has since diversified into various social and economic activities involving women.
   Its mission as included under societies registration act, 1860 include
   · To work for a society based on the principle of social justice, personal integrity and equal rights and opportunities for all.
   · To secure recognition of the inherent right of every human being to work and to achieve the essentials of life, which should not be determined by accident of birth or sex but by planned social distribution.
   · To support the claim of every citizen to the right to enjoy basic civil liberties.
   · To stand against all separatist tendencies and to promote greater national integration and unity.
   · To work actively for the general progress and welfare of women and children and to help women utilize to the fullest, one of the fundamental rights conferred on them by the Constitution of India.
   · To work for permanent international amity and world peace.

   Unattempted
   

   The All India Women”s Conference (AIWC) is a non- governmetal organisation based in Delhi. It was founded in 1927 by Margaret Cousins “as an organisation dedicated to upliftment and betterment of women and children”.
   As well as continuing its original mission, the AIWC has since diversified into various social and economic activities involving women.
   Its mission as included under societies registration act, 1860 include
   · To work for a society based on the principle of social justice, personal integrity and equal rights and opportunities for all.
   · To secure recognition of the inherent right of every human being to work and to achieve the essentials of life, which should not be determined by accident of birth or sex but by planned social distribution.
   · To support the claim of every citizen to the right to enjoy basic civil liberties.
   · To stand against all separatist tendencies and to promote greater national integration and unity.
   · To work actively for the general progress and welfare of women and children and to help women utilize to the fullest, one of the fundamental rights conferred on them by the Constitution of India.
   · To work for permanent international amity and world peace.
10. Question 10 of 100

    10. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Vaikom Satyagraha:
    (1) It was led by Veersalingam Pantulu in Andhra Pradesh.
    (2) It demanded the entry of untouchables in Hindu temples.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •Statement 1 is not correct: The Vaikom Satyagraha was launched in Kerala in 1924 and was led by K.P.Kesava. The Vaikom Satyagraha created enthusiasm all over the country and volunteers began to arrive from different parts of India. An Akali jatha arrived from Punjab. E.V. Ramaswami Naicker (popularly known as Periyar later) led a jatha from Madurai and underwent imprisonment. Kandukuri Veeresalingam Pantulu was the great Social Reformer from the state of Andhra Pradesh. He was not related with Vaikom Satyagraha. Veeresalingam took part in the controversy by championing women‘s education. To propagate his views effectively Veeresalingam started his journal ‘Vivekavardhini’ in 1874 at Rajahmundry.
    •Statement 2 is correct: It demanded the throwing open of Hindu temples and roads to the untouchables.Many savarna organizations such as the Nair Service Society, Nair Samajam and Kerala Hindu Sabha supported the Satyagraha. Yogakshema Sabha, the leading organization of the Nambudiri (highest Brahmins by caste), passed a resolution favoring the opening of temples to avarnas (lower castes).

    Unattempted
    

    •Statement 1 is not correct: The Vaikom Satyagraha was launched in Kerala in 1924 and was led by K.P.Kesava. The Vaikom Satyagraha created enthusiasm all over the country and volunteers began to arrive from different parts of India. An Akali jatha arrived from Punjab. E.V. Ramaswami Naicker (popularly known as Periyar later) led a jatha from Madurai and underwent imprisonment. Kandukuri Veeresalingam Pantulu was the great Social Reformer from the state of Andhra Pradesh. He was not related with Vaikom Satyagraha. Veeresalingam took part in the controversy by championing women‘s education. To propagate his views effectively Veeresalingam started his journal ‘Vivekavardhini’ in 1874 at Rajahmundry.
    •Statement 2 is correct: It demanded the throwing open of Hindu temples and roads to the untouchables.Many savarna organizations such as the Nair Service Society, Nair Samajam and Kerala Hindu Sabha supported the Satyagraha. Yogakshema Sabha, the leading organization of the Nambudiri (highest Brahmins by caste), passed a resolution favoring the opening of temples to avarnas (lower castes).
11. Question 11 of 100

    11. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Mudrarakshasa mentions the life and court of Kalashoka.
    (2) Vishnugupta was the chief advisor of Bindusara.
    (3) Hathigumpha inscription records the various conquests of Kalinga kingKharavela.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 3 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    “Mudrarakshasa” is a semi-historical play written by Vishakhadatta, who was thecourtier during Gupta Period. It narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya and gives glimpse of society and culture of that time. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    Vishnugupta, more famous as Kautilya or Chanakya was the pioneer of political science and economics and wrote the infamous book on “Arthashastra”.
    He mentored the establishment of Mauryan dynasty and was the chief advisor to the first Mauryan emperor Chandragupta and his son Bindusara.
    Hence statement 2 is correct.
    The Hathigumpha Inscription presents the details of the year-wise achievements of Kharavela, the king of Kalinga (present-day Odisha). It throws highlight on his political and religious activities and his great victory over Magadha.Hence statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    “Mudrarakshasa” is a semi-historical play written by Vishakhadatta, who was thecourtier during Gupta Period. It narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya and gives glimpse of society and culture of that time. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    Vishnugupta, more famous as Kautilya or Chanakya was the pioneer of political science and economics and wrote the infamous book on “Arthashastra”.
    He mentored the establishment of Mauryan dynasty and was the chief advisor to the first Mauryan emperor Chandragupta and his son Bindusara.
    Hence statement 2 is correct.
    The Hathigumpha Inscription presents the details of the year-wise achievements of Kharavela, the king of Kalinga (present-day Odisha). It throws highlight on his political and religious activities and his great victory over Magadha.Hence statement 3 is correct.
12. Question 12 of 100

    12. Question

    Which of the following are the architectural features of Dravidian style of Temples?
    (1) Pillared hall
    (2) Lofty gates
    (3) Shikhar
    (4) Bangla roof
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 3 and 4 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Dravidian architecture is an architectural idiom in Hindu temple architecturethat emerged in the southern part of the Indian subcontinent or South India.
    features of Dravidian style of Temples:
    (1) Vimana (pyramidal tower)
    (2) Garbhagriha (chief deity room/sanctum)
    (3) Mandapa (pillared hall)
    (4) Shikhar (crowning element of the temple)
    (5) Gopuram (lofty gates)
    (6) Sanctum (typically single storied) /multi-storied sanctum is seen in Nagar temples.
    Bangla Roof is a Bengali Hindu temple architecture style, which is unique and closely related to the paddy roofed traditional building style of rural Bengal.

    Unattempted
    

    Dravidian architecture is an architectural idiom in Hindu temple architecturethat emerged in the southern part of the Indian subcontinent or South India.
    features of Dravidian style of Temples:
    (1) Vimana (pyramidal tower)
    (2) Garbhagriha (chief deity room/sanctum)
    (3) Mandapa (pillared hall)
    (4) Shikhar (crowning element of the temple)
    (5) Gopuram (lofty gates)
    (6) Sanctum (typically single storied) /multi-storied sanctum is seen in Nagar temples.
    Bangla Roof is a Bengali Hindu temple architecture style, which is unique and closely related to the paddy roofed traditional building style of rural Bengal.
13. Question 13 of 100

    13. Question

    With reference to ancient India, the term Brahmadeya refers to
    (A) a kind of tax levied on brahmanas
    (B) a land belonging to non brahman peasants
    (C) a land alloted to build temples dedicated to Brahma.
    (D) a tax free land gifted to brahmanas

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Brahmadeya was tax free land gift either in form of single plot or whole villages donated to Brahmans. It was initially practiced by the ruling dynasties and was soon followed up by the chiefs, merchants, feudatories, etc. Brahmadeya was devised by the Brahmanical texts as the surest mean to achieve merit and destroy sin.
    Brahmadeya helped the expansion of agrarian economy and the emergence of urban settlements. It also helped the Kings to gain the ideological support for their rule. Brahamdeya sometimes also resulted in alienation of peasant land rights and created social tension and clash leading even to death between peasant, Brahmans and the Kings. Hence option (D) is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Brahmadeya was tax free land gift either in form of single plot or whole villages donated to Brahmans. It was initially practiced by the ruling dynasties and was soon followed up by the chiefs, merchants, feudatories, etc. Brahmadeya was devised by the Brahmanical texts as the surest mean to achieve merit and destroy sin.
    Brahmadeya helped the expansion of agrarian economy and the emergence of urban settlements. It also helped the Kings to gain the ideological support for their rule. Brahamdeya sometimes also resulted in alienation of peasant land rights and created social tension and clash leading even to death between peasant, Brahmans and the Kings. Hence option (D) is correct.
14. Question 14 of 100

    14. Question

    Who among the following carried out the first Linguistic Survey in India?
    (A) George A. Grierson
    (B) Georg Bilhler
    (C) Max Muller
    (D) James Prinsep

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Sir George Abraham Grierson OM KCIE was an Irish administrator and linguistin British India. He worked in the Indian Civil Services but an interest in philology and linguistics led him to pursue studies in the languages and folklore of India during his postings in Bengal and Bihar. He conducted the first-ever Linguistic Survey in India.

    Unattempted
    

    Sir George Abraham Grierson OM KCIE was an Irish administrator and linguistin British India. He worked in the Indian Civil Services but an interest in philology and linguistics led him to pursue studies in the languages and folklore of India during his postings in Bengal and Bihar. He conducted the first-ever Linguistic Survey in India.
15. Question 15 of 100

    15. Question

    What were the reason(s) for Lingayats not practising funerary rites?
    (1) They believed that the body was too sacred to be purified by any rites or rituals.
    (2) They observed that such rites pollute the environment.
    (3) They held the belief that after death a devotee will not return to this world.
    (4) They believed funeral rites were not sanctioned by the Vedas.
    Select the correct answer using the codes below.
    (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (B) 2 and 4 only
    (C) 3 only
    (D) 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Lingayats challenged the theory of rebirth and thus disapproved of this practice.
    Lingayats believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to this world.
    Therefore, they do not practise funerary rites such as cremation, prescribed in the Dharmashastras.
    Instead, they ceremonially bury their dead.

    Unattempted
    

    The Lingayats challenged the theory of rebirth and thus disapproved of this practice.
    Lingayats believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to this world.
    Therefore, they do not practise funerary rites such as cremation, prescribed in the Dharmashastras.
    Instead, they ceremonially bury their dead.
16. Question 16 of 100

    16. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Music:
    (1) The origin of “khayal” is attributed to Amir Khusrau.
    (2) The Kirana Gharana is the oldest and most elaborate for “khayal” form.
    (3) Thumri is based on the religious literature inspired by the bhakti movement.
    Which of the following statement is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Though the origin of “khayal” is attributed to Amir Khusrau, it is still uncertain regarding its origin. “Khayal” is a Persian word and it implies “idea” or “imagination”.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gwalior Gharana is the oldest and most elaborate in technique for “khayal” form. Its most famous exponents were Nathan Pir Bakhsh and Nathu Khan. It was founded in mid-16th century. Its main features are a wide range in taans, alankarik taans, descending sapaat taans, almost equal emphasis on melody and rhythm and preference for simple ragas.
    Statement 3 is correct. Thumri is a light form based on the romantic-religious literature inspired by the Bhakti Movement. It employs folk scales, and the text of the songs is of primary importance.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Though the origin of “khayal” is attributed to Amir Khusrau, it is still uncertain regarding its origin. “Khayal” is a Persian word and it implies “idea” or “imagination”.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gwalior Gharana is the oldest and most elaborate in technique for “khayal” form. Its most famous exponents were Nathan Pir Bakhsh and Nathu Khan. It was founded in mid-16th century. Its main features are a wide range in taans, alankarik taans, descending sapaat taans, almost equal emphasis on melody and rhythm and preference for simple ragas.
    Statement 3 is correct. Thumri is a light form based on the romantic-religious literature inspired by the Bhakti Movement. It employs folk scales, and the text of the songs is of primary importance.
17. Question 17 of 100

    17. Question

    Who among the following is known as the “Raphael of the East”?
    (A) M. F. Hussain
    (B) Abanindranath Tagore
    (C) Raja Ravi Varma
    (D) Nandalal Bose

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Raja Ravi Verma is one of the India”s greatest painters. He is considered to be the originator of the school of modern painting. The school was called “modern” because of the heavy influence of the western techniques and themes. He was unique as he brought together elements of South Indian Painting with the western techniques of colour and style. He belonged to the state of Kerala and was dubbed as the “Raphael of the East” because of his brilliant brush strokes and almost lifelike paintings. Some of his very famous works include Lady in the Moonlight, Mother India etc.

    Unattempted
    

    Raja Ravi Verma is one of the India”s greatest painters. He is considered to be the originator of the school of modern painting. The school was called “modern” because of the heavy influence of the western techniques and themes. He was unique as he brought together elements of South Indian Painting with the western techniques of colour and style. He belonged to the state of Kerala and was dubbed as the “Raphael of the East” because of his brilliant brush strokes and almost lifelike paintings. Some of his very famous works include Lady in the Moonlight, Mother India etc.
18. Question 18 of 100

    18. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Theosophical Movement?
    (1) It drew inspiration from the philosophy of the Upanishads and Samkhya school of thought.
    (2) Theosophical society worked for the Universal Brotherhood of humanity.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •Theosophical movement group of westerners led by Madame H.P. Blavatsky (1831-1891) and Colonel M.S. Olcott, who was inspired by Indian thought and culture, founded the Theosophical Society in New York City, United States in 1875. In 1882, they shifted their headquarters to Adyar, on the outskirts of Madras in India. The society believed that a special relationship could be established between a person‘s soul and God by contemplation, prayer, revelation, etc. It accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and karma and drew inspiration from the philosophy of the Upanishads and Samkhya, yoga and Vedanta schools of thought.
    •It aimed to work for the universal brotherhood of humanity without distinction of race, creed, sex, caste or colour. The society also sought to investigate the unexplained laws of nature and the powers latent in man. The Theosophical Movement came to be allied with the Hindu renaissance.
    •It opposed child marriage and advocated the abolition of caste discrimination, uplift of outcastes, and improvement in the condition of widows. In India, the movement became somewhat popular with the election of Annie Besant (1847-1933) as its president after the death of Olcott in 1907. Annie Besant had come to India in 1893. She laid the foundation of the Central Hindu College in Benaras in 1898 where both Hindu religion and Western scientific subjects were taught.
    •The college became the nucleus for the formation of Benaras Hindu University in 1916. Annie Besant also did much for the cause of the education of women. Hence both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    •Theosophical movement group of westerners led by Madame H.P. Blavatsky (1831-1891) and Colonel M.S. Olcott, who was inspired by Indian thought and culture, founded the Theosophical Society in New York City, United States in 1875. In 1882, they shifted their headquarters to Adyar, on the outskirts of Madras in India. The society believed that a special relationship could be established between a person‘s soul and God by contemplation, prayer, revelation, etc. It accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and karma and drew inspiration from the philosophy of the Upanishads and Samkhya, yoga and Vedanta schools of thought.
    •It aimed to work for the universal brotherhood of humanity without distinction of race, creed, sex, caste or colour. The society also sought to investigate the unexplained laws of nature and the powers latent in man. The Theosophical Movement came to be allied with the Hindu renaissance.
    •It opposed child marriage and advocated the abolition of caste discrimination, uplift of outcastes, and improvement in the condition of widows. In India, the movement became somewhat popular with the election of Annie Besant (1847-1933) as its president after the death of Olcott in 1907. Annie Besant had come to India in 1893. She laid the foundation of the Central Hindu College in Benaras in 1898 where both Hindu religion and Western scientific subjects were taught.
    •The college became the nucleus for the formation of Benaras Hindu University in 1916. Annie Besant also did much for the cause of the education of women. Hence both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.
19. Question 19 of 100

    19. Question

    With reference to the Delhi Sultanate, consider the following statements:
    (1) Mahmud of Ghazni made Qutbuddin Aibak the Governor of his Indian possessions after the second battle of Tarain.
    (2) After Qutbuddin Aibak assumed the title of Sultan, he made Lahore his capital.
    Which of the above statements is/are true?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Muslim invasions into India had ultimately resulted in the establishment of Delhi Sultanate which existed from 13th to 16th century.
    Statement 1 is incorrect – Qutbuddin Aibak was a slave of Muhammad Ghori, who made him the Governor of his Indian possessions. After his victory over Prithviraj after the second battle of Tarain, Muhammad Ghori returned to Ghazni leaving behind his favourite general Qutbuddin Aibak to make further conquests in India.
    Statement 2 is correct – After the death of Ghori in 1206, Aibak declared his independence.
    He severed all connections with the kingdom of Ghori and thus founded the Slave dynasty as well as the Delhi Sultanate. He assumed the title Sultan and made Lahore his capital. It was Iltutmish who shifted the capital from Lahore to Delhi.

    Unattempted
    

    The Muslim invasions into India had ultimately resulted in the establishment of Delhi Sultanate which existed from 13th to 16th century.
    Statement 1 is incorrect – Qutbuddin Aibak was a slave of Muhammad Ghori, who made him the Governor of his Indian possessions. After his victory over Prithviraj after the second battle of Tarain, Muhammad Ghori returned to Ghazni leaving behind his favourite general Qutbuddin Aibak to make further conquests in India.
    Statement 2 is correct – After the death of Ghori in 1206, Aibak declared his independence.
    He severed all connections with the kingdom of Ghori and thus founded the Slave dynasty as well as the Delhi Sultanate. He assumed the title Sultan and made Lahore his capital. It was Iltutmish who shifted the capital from Lahore to Delhi.
20. Question 20 of 100

    20. Question

    Consider the following events.
    (1) The designation of the GovernorGeneral of India was changed to that of Viceroy of India.
    (2) Trade monopoly of East India Company in India was abolished.
    (3) An open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants was introduced.
    What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
    (A) 1-2-3
    (B) 2-3-1
    (C) 3-2-1
    (D) 3-1-2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •Charter Act of 1813 abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants. However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and trade with China.
    •Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The covenanted civil service was, thus, thrown open to the Indians also. Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854.
    •Government of India Act of 1858 provided that India, henceforth, was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (Viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning, thus, became the first Viceroy of India.
    •Hence the correct chronological order is 2-3-1.

    Unattempted
    

    •Charter Act of 1813 abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants. However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and trade with China.
    •Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The covenanted civil service was, thus, thrown open to the Indians also. Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854.
    •Government of India Act of 1858 provided that India, henceforth, was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (Viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning, thus, became the first Viceroy of India.
    •Hence the correct chronological order is 2-3-1.
21. Question 21 of 100

    21. Question

    Consider the following about the administrative arrangements in Mughal India.
    (1) Sarkars were further subdivided as paraganas.
    (2) In each paragana a Shiqdar and a Fotehdar were appointed.
    (3) Muqaddam acted as intermediaries between the government and the people.
    Select the correct answer using the codes below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 2: Apart from them, a Munsif, a Hindi writer and a Persian writer wereappointed.
    Statement 3: Besides the Patwari, Chaudari and the Muqaddam who acted as the intermediaries between the government and the people, the duty of the Shiqdar was to maintain law and order, to collect the revenue and also decide the legal matters.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 2: Apart from them, a Munsif, a Hindi writer and a Persian writer wereappointed.
    Statement 3: Besides the Patwari, Chaudari and the Muqaddam who acted as the intermediaries between the government and the people, the duty of the Shiqdar was to maintain law and order, to collect the revenue and also decide the legal matters.
22. Question 22 of 100

    22. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are incorrect with reference to Gupta Period?
    (1) Srigupta was the founding father of Gupta dynasty as per inscriptions of Allahabad pillars.
    (2) Samudragupta was also referred as “Dauhitra” i.e. the son of the daughter of Lichchhavis.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Sri Gupta founded the Gupta Empire during 240 CE-280 CE, and was succeeded by his son Ghatotkacha. The Allahabad pillar inscription of Samudragupta mentions maharaja Sri Gupta as the first Gupta king.
    The marriage alliance between Guptas under Chandragupta-I and daughter of Licchavis resulted in strong association between two kingdoms. His son and successor Samudragupta called himself “dauhitra” i.e the son of the daughter of the Lichchavis.
    Ujjain was conquered by Chandragupta II or as popularly known as Vikramaditya marking his high military skills and political significance. He ruled his vast empire from the court of Ujjain.
    Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Sri Gupta founded the Gupta Empire during 240 CE-280 CE, and was succeeded by his son Ghatotkacha. The Allahabad pillar inscription of Samudragupta mentions maharaja Sri Gupta as the first Gupta king.
    The marriage alliance between Guptas under Chandragupta-I and daughter of Licchavis resulted in strong association between two kingdoms. His son and successor Samudragupta called himself “dauhitra” i.e the son of the daughter of the Lichchavis.
    Ujjain was conquered by Chandragupta II or as popularly known as Vikramaditya marking his high military skills and political significance. He ruled his vast empire from the court of Ujjain.
    Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
23. Question 23 of 100

    23. Question

    The Gupta period witnessed a tremendous progress in thefield of art. Which of the following is/are specimens of Gupta period?
    (1) Temple at Deogarh
    (2) Painting at Bagh caves, Gwalior
    (3) Buddha copper statue, Sultangunj
    (4) Bhitari monolithic pillar
    (5) Delhi Iron pillar
    Select the correct answer using the codes below.
    (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (C) 3 and 5 only
    (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In the history of Indian art and architecture, the Gupta period occupies an important place. Both the Nagara and Dravidian styles ofart evolved during this period. But most of the architecture of thisperiod had been lost due to foreign invasionslike that of Huns.
    The temple at Deogarh near Jhansi and the sculptures in the temple at Garhwas near Allahabad remain important specimen of the Gupta art.
    The Buddha statue unearthed at Saranath was unique piece of Gupta art. The Bhitari monolithic pillar of Skandagupta is also remarkable.
    Metallurgy had also made a wonderful progress during the Gupta period.
    The gigantic copper statue of Buddha, originally found at Sultanganj now kept at Birmingham museum, was about seven and a half feet height and nearly a ton weight.
    The Delhi Iron pillar of the Gupta period is still free from rust though completely exposed to sun and rain for so many centuries.
    The paintings of the Gupta period are seen at Bagh caves near Gwalior. The mural paintings of Ajantha mostly illustrate the life of the Buddha as depicted in the Jataka stories.

    Unattempted
    

    In the history of Indian art and architecture, the Gupta period occupies an important place. Both the Nagara and Dravidian styles ofart evolved during this period. But most of the architecture of thisperiod had been lost due to foreign invasionslike that of Huns.
    The temple at Deogarh near Jhansi and the sculptures in the temple at Garhwas near Allahabad remain important specimen of the Gupta art.
    The Buddha statue unearthed at Saranath was unique piece of Gupta art. The Bhitari monolithic pillar of Skandagupta is also remarkable.
    Metallurgy had also made a wonderful progress during the Gupta period.
    The gigantic copper statue of Buddha, originally found at Sultanganj now kept at Birmingham museum, was about seven and a half feet height and nearly a ton weight.
    The Delhi Iron pillar of the Gupta period is still free from rust though completely exposed to sun and rain for so many centuries.
    The paintings of the Gupta period are seen at Bagh caves near Gwalior. The mural paintings of Ajantha mostly illustrate the life of the Buddha as depicted in the Jataka stories.
24. Question 24 of 100

    24. Question

    In the context of Medieval India, “Kunjali Marakkar” was
    (A) Caliphate campaigns in India when they tried to move eastward
    (B) The title given to the Muslim naval chief of the Zamorin
    (C) An earlier name for the independent Maratha zone carved out by Shivaji Bhosale
    (D) A trading strategy of the Ahom Kingdom

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    It was titled to the Hindu king of Calicut, in present-day state of Kerala, during the 16th century.
    The Marakkars are credited with organizing the first naval defence of the Indian coast, to be later succeeded in the 18th century by the Maratha Sarkhel Kanhoji Angre.
    There were four major Kunhalis who played a part in the Zamorin”s naval wars with the Portuguese from 1502 to 1600. Of the four Marakkars, Kunjali Marakkar II is the most famous.

    Unattempted
    

    It was titled to the Hindu king of Calicut, in present-day state of Kerala, during the 16th century.
    The Marakkars are credited with organizing the first naval defence of the Indian coast, to be later succeeded in the 18th century by the Maratha Sarkhel Kanhoji Angre.
    There were four major Kunhalis who played a part in the Zamorin”s naval wars with the Portuguese from 1502 to 1600. Of the four Marakkars, Kunjali Marakkar II is the most famous.
25. Question 25 of 100

    25. Question

    With reference to the ancient history of India, consider the following statements:
    (1) Brahmagupta was one of the navratnas in the court of Chandragupta-II
    (2) Harisena composed the Prayag Prasasti giving details of the braveryof Samudragupta.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Gupta emperor Chandragupta II or famous as “Vikramaditya” was a legendary emperor.
    His court in Ujjain had 9 famous scholars as per Jyotirvid Abharana, a treatise attributed to Kalidasa.
    (1) Varahamihira
    (2) Kalidasa
    (3) Dhanvantari
    (4) Amarasimha
    (5) Vararuchi
    (6) Ghatakarapara
    (7) Kshapanaka
    (8) Shanku
    (9) Vetala-Bhatta
    Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    Harisena was a learned scholar and also the court poet of Samudragupta.
    Harisena composed the Prayag Prasasti or Allahabad Pillar inscriptions describing Samudra Gupta as a God dwelling on earth.
    He details Samudragupta as a hero of hundred battles, poet and musician.Hence statement 2 is correct.
    In India, there are two commonly used calendars –
    (1) Saka Samvat: Starts from 78 AD
    ● When the Shalivahana king of South India defeated the Saka king of Malwa.
    (2) Vikram Samvat: starts from 57 BC
    However, it is not known as to why it is started from 57 BC because the king Vikramaditya has been widely accepted as Chandragupta II of the Gupta dynasty, who lived between 375 AD to 415 AD. The time span separating the king”s rule and 57 BC could not be explained by the historians.

    Unattempted
    

    Gupta emperor Chandragupta II or famous as “Vikramaditya” was a legendary emperor.
    His court in Ujjain had 9 famous scholars as per Jyotirvid Abharana, a treatise attributed to Kalidasa.
    (1) Varahamihira
    (2) Kalidasa
    (3) Dhanvantari
    (4) Amarasimha
    (5) Vararuchi
    (6) Ghatakarapara
    (7) Kshapanaka
    (8) Shanku
    (9) Vetala-Bhatta
    Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    Harisena was a learned scholar and also the court poet of Samudragupta.
    Harisena composed the Prayag Prasasti or Allahabad Pillar inscriptions describing Samudra Gupta as a God dwelling on earth.
    He details Samudragupta as a hero of hundred battles, poet and musician.Hence statement 2 is correct.
    In India, there are two commonly used calendars –
    (1) Saka Samvat: Starts from 78 AD
    ● When the Shalivahana king of South India defeated the Saka king of Malwa.
    (2) Vikram Samvat: starts from 57 BC
    However, it is not known as to why it is started from 57 BC because the king Vikramaditya has been widely accepted as Chandragupta II of the Gupta dynasty, who lived between 375 AD to 415 AD. The time span separating the king”s rule and 57 BC could not be explained by the historians.
26. Question 26 of 100

    26. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The Archaeological Survey of India is a premier organization under the Ministry of Tourism.
    (2) The Archaeological Survey of India has divided the country into 24 Circles.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the premier organization for the archaeological researches and protection of the cultural heritage of the nation, under the Ministry of Culture.
    ASI maintains ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance is the prime concern of the ASI. Besides it regulates all archaeological activities in the country as per the provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. It also regulates Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, 1972.
    For the maintenance of ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance, the entire country is divided into 24 Circles. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the premier organization for the archaeological researches and protection of the cultural heritage of the nation, under the Ministry of Culture.
    ASI maintains ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance is the prime concern of the ASI. Besides it regulates all archaeological activities in the country as per the provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. It also regulates Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, 1972.
    For the maintenance of ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance, the entire country is divided into 24 Circles. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
27. Question 27 of 100

    27. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Indian Press during the 19th century:
    (1) Newspapers were business enterprises mainly owned by political leaders.
    (2) The influence of the Press was confined to cities and large towns.
    (3) Press played a key role in criticising the acts and policies of the government.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 3 only
    (C) 1 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •From the beginning of the 19th century, politically conscious Indians had been attracted to modem civil rights, especially the freedom of the Press.
    oThe influence of the Press extended far beyond its literate subscribers. Nor was it confined to cities and large towns. A newspaper would reach remote villages and would then be read by a reader to tens of others. Gradually library movements sprung up all over the country. The newspaper not only became the political educator; reading or discussing it became a form of political participation. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    •Newspapers were not in those days business enterprises, nor were the editors and journalists professionals. Newspapers were published as a national or public service. They were often financed as objects of philanthropy. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    •It also played the institutional role of opposition to the Government. Almost every act and every policy of the Government was subjected to sharp criticism, in many cases with great care and vast learning backing it up. ‘Oppose, oppose, oppose’ was the motto of the Indian Press. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    •From the beginning of the 19th century, politically conscious Indians had been attracted to modem civil rights, especially the freedom of the Press.
    oThe influence of the Press extended far beyond its literate subscribers. Nor was it confined to cities and large towns. A newspaper would reach remote villages and would then be read by a reader to tens of others. Gradually library movements sprung up all over the country. The newspaper not only became the political educator; reading or discussing it became a form of political participation. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    •Newspapers were not in those days business enterprises, nor were the editors and journalists professionals. Newspapers were published as a national or public service. They were often financed as objects of philanthropy. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    •It also played the institutional role of opposition to the Government. Almost every act and every policy of the Government was subjected to sharp criticism, in many cases with great care and vast learning backing it up. ‘Oppose, oppose, oppose’ was the motto of the Indian Press. Hence statement 3 is correct.
28. Question 28 of 100

    28. Question

    Who among the following wrote the book “Bahubivah”?
    (A) Raja Rammohan Roy
    (B) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
    (C) Pandita Ramabai
    (D) Rabindranath Tagore

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar wrote the book Bahuvivah. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a well-known and active social reformer of the 19th century. He was a Sanskrit scholar and helped in a struggle for securing rights of women. He opposed caste devils and priestly domination as well. In 1850, he protested against child marriage and in 1856, in Kolkata, he supervised first lawful widow remarriage. He used to run as many as 35 girl”s schools, most of them at his own expenses.

    Unattempted
    

    Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar wrote the book Bahuvivah. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a well-known and active social reformer of the 19th century. He was a Sanskrit scholar and helped in a struggle for securing rights of women. He opposed caste devils and priestly domination as well. In 1850, he protested against child marriage and in 1856, in Kolkata, he supervised first lawful widow remarriage. He used to run as many as 35 girl”s schools, most of them at his own expenses.
29. Question 29 of 100

    29. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the “Jhumar”:
    (1) It is a popular harvest dance of Rajasthan.
    (2) The dance is performed only by veiled women who wear flowing dresses called ghagra.
    Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Jhumar dance is an ancient tribal folk dance from thatwas prevalent in various Eastern states of India like Jharkhand, Bihar, Orissa (Now Odisha) and West Bengal. It was initially a dance of harvest for the agricultural tribes but later became performed for entertainment in the daily lives.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The Jhumar dance of Jharkhand is performed by both men and women, by only men and only women. The dance is graceful or energetic based on the gender.
    The music accompanied by the Jhumar dance is well developed and are local folk songs of Jharkhand. The dancers hold each other by locking hands between the torsos of the adjacent partners to form a circle and then dancing with deft footwork and articulate expressions. The attire of the performers is also very rich and colorful, which may also include, at times, the elements of tribal clothes like leaves and feather crowns.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Jhumar dance is an ancient tribal folk dance from thatwas prevalent in various Eastern states of India like Jharkhand, Bihar, Orissa (Now Odisha) and West Bengal. It was initially a dance of harvest for the agricultural tribes but later became performed for entertainment in the daily lives.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The Jhumar dance of Jharkhand is performed by both men and women, by only men and only women. The dance is graceful or energetic based on the gender.
    The music accompanied by the Jhumar dance is well developed and are local folk songs of Jharkhand. The dancers hold each other by locking hands between the torsos of the adjacent partners to form a circle and then dancing with deft footwork and articulate expressions. The attire of the performers is also very rich and colorful, which may also include, at times, the elements of tribal clothes like leaves and feather crowns.
30. Question 30 of 100

    30. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The 1857 revolt spread to the whole of British India.
    (2) Lord Dalhousie was the GovernorGeneral of India during the 1857 revolt.
    (3) After the suppression of the revolt, Lord Stanley became the first Secretary of State of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 2 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •The Revolt of 1857 gave a severe jolt to the British administration in India and made its reorganisation inevitable. The control of Indian administration was transferred from the East India Company to the Crown by the Government of India Act, 1858. The authority over India, wielded by the Directors of the Company and the Board of Control, was now to be exercised by a Secretary of State for India aided by a Council. Lord Stanley (Edward Henry Stanley) became the first Secretary of State for India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    •Lord Canning became Governor-General at a time when tensions between the ruling elite and the Indian people reached its lowest ebb, which ultimately resulted in the revolt of 1857. Thus Lord Canning was the Governor-General during the 1857 revolt and not Lord Dalhousie. Under the Government of India Act, 1858, Lord Canning became the first Viceroy of India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    •The 1857 revolt was localised, restricted and poorly organised. The Bombay and Madras armies remained loyal. India south of the Narmada was very little disturbed. Sind and Rajasthan remained quiet. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    •Hence option (A) is the correct answer.

    Unattempted
    

    •The Revolt of 1857 gave a severe jolt to the British administration in India and made its reorganisation inevitable. The control of Indian administration was transferred from the East India Company to the Crown by the Government of India Act, 1858. The authority over India, wielded by the Directors of the Company and the Board of Control, was now to be exercised by a Secretary of State for India aided by a Council. Lord Stanley (Edward Henry Stanley) became the first Secretary of State for India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    •Lord Canning became Governor-General at a time when tensions between the ruling elite and the Indian people reached its lowest ebb, which ultimately resulted in the revolt of 1857. Thus Lord Canning was the Governor-General during the 1857 revolt and not Lord Dalhousie. Under the Government of India Act, 1858, Lord Canning became the first Viceroy of India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    •The 1857 revolt was localised, restricted and poorly organised. The Bombay and Madras armies remained loyal. India south of the Narmada was very little disturbed. Sind and Rajasthan remained quiet. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    •Hence option (A) is the correct answer.
31. Question 31 of 100

    31. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Battle of Wandiwash:
    (1) It was fought between the British and the Dutch.
    (2) The outbreak of the Seven Years' War in Europe provided the context for the battle.
    (3) After the battle, the British had no European rival in India.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •The outbreak of the Seven Years' War in Europe between England and France in 1756 provided the context for the third and decisive round of Anglo-French conflict in south India. The most decisive battle of the Third Carnatic War was the Battle of Wandiwash in 1760. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
    •In the Battle of Wandiwash, General Eyre Coote of the English defeated the French army under Count Thomas Arthur de Lally and took Bussy as a prisoner. French also lost Pondicherry to the British.
    •During the Third Carnatic War, French lost their positions in India, such as Chandernagore in Bengal, settlements at Masulipatnam and Yanam etc. However, by the Peace of Paris in 1763 France got back all the factories and settlements that it possessed in India prior to 1749, with the provision that it could not any more fortify Chandernagore. But the balance of power in India had by now decisively changed with the steady expansion of the power of the English company. The French East India Company was finally wound up in 1769.
    •The Treaty of Peace of Paris (1763) restored to the French their factories in India but not allowed to fortify them. Also, the French ceased to be a political power in India. The victory at Wandiwash left the English East India Company with no European rival in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    •The outbreak of the Seven Years' War in Europe between England and France in 1756 provided the context for the third and decisive round of Anglo-French conflict in south India. The most decisive battle of the Third Carnatic War was the Battle of Wandiwash in 1760. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
    •In the Battle of Wandiwash, General Eyre Coote of the English defeated the French army under Count Thomas Arthur de Lally and took Bussy as a prisoner. French also lost Pondicherry to the British.
    •During the Third Carnatic War, French lost their positions in India, such as Chandernagore in Bengal, settlements at Masulipatnam and Yanam etc. However, by the Peace of Paris in 1763 France got back all the factories and settlements that it possessed in India prior to 1749, with the provision that it could not any more fortify Chandernagore. But the balance of power in India had by now decisively changed with the steady expansion of the power of the English company. The French East India Company was finally wound up in 1769.
    •The Treaty of Peace of Paris (1763) restored to the French their factories in India but not allowed to fortify them. Also, the French ceased to be a political power in India. The victory at Wandiwash left the English East India Company with no European rival in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
32. Question 32 of 100

    32. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the women freedom fighter Kamala Devi Chattopadhyay?
    (1) She was the first woman in India to contest for elections in a state legislative assembly.
    (2) She attended the Second Round Table Conference in 1931 as an official representative of the women of India.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •Kamala Devi Chattopadhyay was freedom fighter, actor, social activist, art enthusiast, politician and feminist.
    •She enrolled herself in the nationalist struggle as a member of the Congress party. She had the unique distinction of being the first woman in India to run for political office. Kamaladevi competed for a seat in the Madras Legislative Assembly and lost by a mere 55 votes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    •During the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930, she addressed meetings and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. She had persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the protests to men alone. As a result of her persuasion, this March became the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers. Kamaladevi was herself one of the numerous women who courted arrest by breaking the salt or liquor laws during this movement.
    •She was in-charge of the women‘s wing of the Hindustan Seva Dal.
    •She was also a key figure in the international socialist feminist movement. From the late 1920s to the 1940s and beyond, she became an emissary for Indian women and political independence. She also advocated transnational causes – such as racism and political and economic equity between nations. She also attended the International Alliance of Women in Berlin in 1929.
    •In 1931 Sarojini Naidu attended the Second Round Table Conference as an official representative of the women of India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    •She was the very first among educated women in India to appear on the public stage and to tour with a drama troupe all over the country to popularise theatre. Smt. Kamaladevi is Founder- President of the National Theatre Centre of India, which is affiliated to the International Theatre Institute of UNESCO.
    •She has received many national and international honours, which include the Watumall Foundation Award, the Ramon Magsaysay International Award, the Desikottama from Viswabharati and the Padma Bhushan.
    •She also set up the Indian National Theatre (INT) in 1944, what we today know as National School of Drama.

    Unattempted
    

    •Kamala Devi Chattopadhyay was freedom fighter, actor, social activist, art enthusiast, politician and feminist.
    •She enrolled herself in the nationalist struggle as a member of the Congress party. She had the unique distinction of being the first woman in India to run for political office. Kamaladevi competed for a seat in the Madras Legislative Assembly and lost by a mere 55 votes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    •During the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930, she addressed meetings and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. She had persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the protests to men alone. As a result of her persuasion, this March became the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers. Kamaladevi was herself one of the numerous women who courted arrest by breaking the salt or liquor laws during this movement.
    •She was in-charge of the women‘s wing of the Hindustan Seva Dal.
    •She was also a key figure in the international socialist feminist movement. From the late 1920s to the 1940s and beyond, she became an emissary for Indian women and political independence. She also advocated transnational causes – such as racism and political and economic equity between nations. She also attended the International Alliance of Women in Berlin in 1929.
    •In 1931 Sarojini Naidu attended the Second Round Table Conference as an official representative of the women of India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    •She was the very first among educated women in India to appear on the public stage and to tour with a drama troupe all over the country to popularise theatre. Smt. Kamaladevi is Founder- President of the National Theatre Centre of India, which is affiliated to the International Theatre Institute of UNESCO.
    •She has received many national and international honours, which include the Watumall Foundation Award, the Ramon Magsaysay International Award, the Desikottama from Viswabharati and the Padma Bhushan.
    •She also set up the Indian National Theatre (INT) in 1944, what we today know as National School of Drama.
33. Question 33 of 100

    33. Question

    Arrange the following(ascending order)
    (1) Ban of sati
    (2) Widow remarriage act
    (3) The arms act
    (4) Ilbert bill
    (A) 1243
    (B) 2134
    (C) 4321
    (D) 1234

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Ban of sati 1829
    Widow remarriage act 1856
    The arms act 1878
    Ilbert bill 1883.

    Unattempted
    

    Ban of sati 1829
    Widow remarriage act 1856
    The arms act 1878
    Ilbert bill 1883.
34. Question 34 of 100

    34. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Akali Movement was an offshoot of the Singh Sabha movement.
    (2) Objective of the Singh Sabha Movement was to propagate western education among the Sikhs.
    (3) Akali Movement aimed at liberating the Sikh gurudwaras from the control of corrupt Udasi mahants.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •The aim of the Singh Sabha Movement was to make available modern western education to the Sikhs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    •The Akali movement was an offshoot of the Singh Sabha Movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    •The Akali movement aimed at liberating the Sikh gurudwaras from the control of corrupt Udasi mahants. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    •Sikh Reform Movements: The Singh Sabha Movement was founded at Amritsar in 1873 with a two-fold objective—
    oto make available modern western education to the Sikhs, and
    oto counter the proselytizing activities of Christian missionaries as well as the Brahmo Samajists, Arya Samajists and Muslim maulvis.
    •For the first objective, a network of Khalsa schools was established by the Sabha throughout Punjab. In the second direction, everything that went against the Gurus’ teachings was rejected, and rites and customs considered to be consistent with Sikh doctrine were sought to be established.
    •The Akali movement (also known as Gurudwara Reform Movement) was an offshoot of the Singh Sabha Movement. It aimed at liberating the Sikh gurudwaras from the control of corrupt Udasi mahants (the post having become hereditary). These mahants were a loyalist and reactionary lot, enjoying government patronage.
    •The government tried its repressive policies against the non-violent non-cooperation satyagraha launched by the Akalis in 1921, but had to bow before popular demands; it passed the Sikh Gurudwaras Act in 1922 (amended in 1925) which gave them control of gurudwaras to the Sikh masses to be administered through Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) as the apex body.
    •The Akali Movement was a regional movement but not a communal one. The Akali leaders played a notable role in the national liberation struggle though some dissenting voices were heard occasionally.

    Unattempted
    

    •The aim of the Singh Sabha Movement was to make available modern western education to the Sikhs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    •The Akali movement was an offshoot of the Singh Sabha Movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    •The Akali movement aimed at liberating the Sikh gurudwaras from the control of corrupt Udasi mahants. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    •Sikh Reform Movements: The Singh Sabha Movement was founded at Amritsar in 1873 with a two-fold objective—
    oto make available modern western education to the Sikhs, and
    oto counter the proselytizing activities of Christian missionaries as well as the Brahmo Samajists, Arya Samajists and Muslim maulvis.
    •For the first objective, a network of Khalsa schools was established by the Sabha throughout Punjab. In the second direction, everything that went against the Gurus’ teachings was rejected, and rites and customs considered to be consistent with Sikh doctrine were sought to be established.
    •The Akali movement (also known as Gurudwara Reform Movement) was an offshoot of the Singh Sabha Movement. It aimed at liberating the Sikh gurudwaras from the control of corrupt Udasi mahants (the post having become hereditary). These mahants were a loyalist and reactionary lot, enjoying government patronage.
    •The government tried its repressive policies against the non-violent non-cooperation satyagraha launched by the Akalis in 1921, but had to bow before popular demands; it passed the Sikh Gurudwaras Act in 1922 (amended in 1925) which gave them control of gurudwaras to the Sikh masses to be administered through Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) as the apex body.
    •The Akali Movement was a regional movement but not a communal one. The Akali leaders played a notable role in the national liberation struggle though some dissenting voices were heard occasionally.
35. Question 35 of 100

    35. Question

    Buddhism religious provide base for the reform of religious in indian subcontinent, with reference to this consider the following statements:
    (1) The fourth buddhist council was organised by ashoka.
    (2) Ashokghosh composed the biography of buddha called buddh charita.
    select the correct statement
    (A) only 1
    (B) only 2
    (C) both 1 and 2
    (D) neither 1 and 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Kanishk had organised the fourth Buddhist council.
    ● Ashokghosh a poet who composed a biography of Buddha called Buddhacharitra.
    ● Hinyan Buddhism developed into the the lower portion of Indian subcontinent.
    ● The concept of bodhisattva was given by Buddhism.
    ● The first lecture of mahatma buddh was known as dharamchakraparivartan.

    Unattempted
    

    ● Kanishk had organised the fourth Buddhist council.
    ● Ashokghosh a poet who composed a biography of Buddha called Buddhacharitra.
    ● Hinyan Buddhism developed into the the lower portion of Indian subcontinent.
    ● The concept of bodhisattva was given by Buddhism.
    ● The first lecture of mahatma buddh was known as dharamchakraparivartan.
36. Question 36 of 100

    36. Question

    Which of the following are judicial reforms undertaken under Warren Hastings?
    (1) English translation of a digest of Hindu law was prepared by Halhed.
    (2) Each district was provided with a civil court and a criminal court under the Collector.
    (3) The highest appellate criminal court was known as Sadar Nizamat Adalat which was to function with Governor-in-Council as chief judge.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Reorganization of the Judicial System
    •The judicial system at the time of Warren Hastings’ ascendancy was a store-house of abuses. The Nawab who was hitherto the chief administrator of justice, misused his powers. Often, his judgments were careless. The zamindars who acted as judges at lower levels within their own areas were highly corrupt and prejudiced. On the whole, the judicial institution suffered from extreme corruption. Warren Hastings felt the necessity of reorganizing the judicial system. Each district was provided with a civil court under the Collector and a criminal court under an Indian Judge. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    •To hear appeals from the district courts two appellate courts, one for civil cases and another for criminal cases, were established at Calcutta. The highest civil court of appeal was called Sadar Diwani Adalat, which was to be presided over by the Governor and two judges recruited from among the members of his council. Similarly, the highest appellate criminal court was known as Sadar Nizamat Adalat which was to function under an Indian judge appointed by the Governor-in-Council. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    •Experts in Hindu and Muslim laws were provided to assist the judges. A digest of Hindu law was prepared in Sanskrit by learned Pandits and it was translated into Persian. An English translation of it – Code of Hindu Laws – was prepared by Halhed.

    Unattempted
    

    Reorganization of the Judicial System
    •The judicial system at the time of Warren Hastings’ ascendancy was a store-house of abuses. The Nawab who was hitherto the chief administrator of justice, misused his powers. Often, his judgments were careless. The zamindars who acted as judges at lower levels within their own areas were highly corrupt and prejudiced. On the whole, the judicial institution suffered from extreme corruption. Warren Hastings felt the necessity of reorganizing the judicial system. Each district was provided with a civil court under the Collector and a criminal court under an Indian Judge. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    •To hear appeals from the district courts two appellate courts, one for civil cases and another for criminal cases, were established at Calcutta. The highest civil court of appeal was called Sadar Diwani Adalat, which was to be presided over by the Governor and two judges recruited from among the members of his council. Similarly, the highest appellate criminal court was known as Sadar Nizamat Adalat which was to function under an Indian judge appointed by the Governor-in-Council. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    •Experts in Hindu and Muslim laws were provided to assist the judges. A digest of Hindu law was prepared in Sanskrit by learned Pandits and it was translated into Persian. An English translation of it – Code of Hindu Laws – was prepared by Halhed.
37. Question 37 of 100

    37. Question

    Match the following
    (1) Silambam : Dance
    (2) Kalbelia : Martial Art
    (3) Channapatna : Wooden Toys
    (4) ChadarBadar : Performing Art
    Select the correct match
    (A) 1 and 2
    (B) 2, 3 and 4
    (C) 2 and 3
    (D) 3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Silambam is a weapon based martial art. Uses animal movements of tiger, snake, eagle forms and foot work patterns plays an important role; Kuttuvarasai – part of silambam – unarmed version.
    Kalbelia : The dance form consists of swirling, graceful movements that make this dance a treat to behold. Women dance while men provide music for the performance. Kalbelia dance and songs are a part of UNESCO”s representative list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
    The Channapatna handcraft can be traced to the reign of Tipu Sultan who invited artisans from Persia to train local artisans in the making of the wooden toys.
    ChadarBadar- Performing Art – Puppetry that tells stories of Santhal way of life and migration.

    Unattempted
    

    Silambam is a weapon based martial art. Uses animal movements of tiger, snake, eagle forms and foot work patterns plays an important role; Kuttuvarasai – part of silambam – unarmed version.
    Kalbelia : The dance form consists of swirling, graceful movements that make this dance a treat to behold. Women dance while men provide music for the performance. Kalbelia dance and songs are a part of UNESCO”s representative list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
    The Channapatna handcraft can be traced to the reign of Tipu Sultan who invited artisans from Persia to train local artisans in the making of the wooden toys.
    ChadarBadar- Performing Art – Puppetry that tells stories of Santhal way of life and migration.
38. Question 38 of 100

    38. Question

    With reference to the Wahhabi Movement, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was an Islamic revivalist movement founded by Abdul Wahab.
    (2) The Wahabis spread Pro-British sentiments but condemned western influence on Islam.
    (3) It wanted to convert Dar-ul-Harb into Dar-ul-Islam.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 3 only
    (D) 1 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Wahhabi Movement was an Islamic revivalist movement founded by Syed Ahmed of Rai Bareilly, who was inspired by the teachings of Abdul Wahab (1703-87) of Saudi Arabia and Shah Waliullah of Delhi.
    He condemned the Western influence on Islam and advocated a return to pure Islam.
    The Wahabis played an important role in spreading anti-British sentiments.
    In India, its important center was at Patna though it had its missions in Hyderabad, Madras, Bengal, UP and Bombay.
    To convert Dar-ul-Harb (the land of kafirs) into Dar-ul-Islam (the land of Islam), it declared a jihad against the Sikh kingdom of Punjab.
    A series of military operations by the British in 1860s on the Wahabi base in Sithana weakened the Wahabi resistance.

    Unattempted
    

    The Wahhabi Movement was an Islamic revivalist movement founded by Syed Ahmed of Rai Bareilly, who was inspired by the teachings of Abdul Wahab (1703-87) of Saudi Arabia and Shah Waliullah of Delhi.
    He condemned the Western influence on Islam and advocated a return to pure Islam.
    The Wahabis played an important role in spreading anti-British sentiments.
    In India, its important center was at Patna though it had its missions in Hyderabad, Madras, Bengal, UP and Bombay.
    To convert Dar-ul-Harb (the land of kafirs) into Dar-ul-Islam (the land of Islam), it declared a jihad against the Sikh kingdom of Punjab.
    A series of military operations by the British in 1860s on the Wahabi base in Sithana weakened the Wahabi resistance.
39. Question 39 of 100

    39. Question

    Which of the following personalities started underground activities, after the arrest of top Congress leaders on August 9, 1942?
    (1) Rammanohar Lohia
    (2) Achyut Patwardhan
    (3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    (4) R. P. Goenka
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (D) 1 and 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● The Quit India Resolution was ratified at the Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank,Bombay, on August 8, 1942.
    ● In the early hours of August 9, 1942, in a single sweep, all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested and taken to unknown destinations. The Congress Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the Provincial Congress Committees were declared unlawful associations under the Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908.
    ● Many nationalists went underground and took to subversive activities. The main personalities taking up underground activity were Rammanohar Lohia, Jayaprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali, Usha Mehta, Biju Patnaik, Chhotubhai Puranik, Achyut Patwardhan, Sucheta Kripalani and R.P. Goenka.
    ● The phase of underground activity was meant to keep up popular morale by continuing to provide a line of command and guidance to distribute arms and ammunition.
    ● Bal Gangadhar Tilak died on August 1, 1920.

    Unattempted
    

    ● The Quit India Resolution was ratified at the Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank,Bombay, on August 8, 1942.
    ● In the early hours of August 9, 1942, in a single sweep, all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested and taken to unknown destinations. The Congress Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the Provincial Congress Committees were declared unlawful associations under the Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908.
    ● Many nationalists went underground and took to subversive activities. The main personalities taking up underground activity were Rammanohar Lohia, Jayaprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali, Usha Mehta, Biju Patnaik, Chhotubhai Puranik, Achyut Patwardhan, Sucheta Kripalani and R.P. Goenka.
    ● The phase of underground activity was meant to keep up popular morale by continuing to provide a line of command and guidance to distribute arms and ammunition.
    ● Bal Gangadhar Tilak died on August 1, 1920.
40. Question 40 of 100

    40. Question

    Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw Bombs in the Central LegislativeAssembly against the passing of:
    (1) Trade Disputes bill
    (2) Public Safety Bill
    (3) Indian Press (Emergency Powers) Bill
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In 1929, in order to court arrest, Shaheed Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw political handouts and smoke bombs at the Delhi Central Legislative Assembly. The aim behind the bombing was not to cause harm but protest against the passing of two repressive bills, the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Dispute Bill.

    Unattempted
    

    In 1929, in order to court arrest, Shaheed Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw political handouts and smoke bombs at the Delhi Central Legislative Assembly. The aim behind the bombing was not to cause harm but protest against the passing of two repressive bills, the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Dispute Bill.
41. Question 41 of 100

    41. Question

    Which of the following were the reasons for downfall of Mughal Empire?
    (1) The Rise of Marathas.
    (2) The invasion of Ahmad Shah Abdali and Amir Timur.
    (3) The Rajput policy of Akbar.
    (4) Religious policy of Aurangzeb.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (B) 2 and 4 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1 and 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Reasons for the downfall of the Mughal Empire:
    (1) Religious policy of Aurangzeb.
    (2) Weak successors of Aurangzeb.
    (3) Degeneration of Mughal nobility.
    (4) Factionalism in the Mughal court.
    (5) Feudal organisation of Mughal military.
    (6) Economic bankruptcy of the Mughals.
    (7) The invasion of Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali.
    (8) The rise of Marathas.
    9) Coming of the Europeans.
    Akbar”s Rajput policy of matrimonial alliance and allowing them into his nobility cemented the bond between the Rajput kings and Mughals. This contributed to the integration of Mughal Empire and political stability. Thus, it was not the reason for the downfall of Mughal Empire.

    Unattempted
    

    Reasons for the downfall of the Mughal Empire:
    (1) Religious policy of Aurangzeb.
    (2) Weak successors of Aurangzeb.
    (3) Degeneration of Mughal nobility.
    (4) Factionalism in the Mughal court.
    (5) Feudal organisation of Mughal military.
    (6) Economic bankruptcy of the Mughals.
    (7) The invasion of Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali.
    (8) The rise of Marathas.
    9) Coming of the Europeans.
    Akbar”s Rajput policy of matrimonial alliance and allowing them into his nobility cemented the bond between the Rajput kings and Mughals. This contributed to the integration of Mughal Empire and political stability. Thus, it was not the reason for the downfall of Mughal Empire.
42. Question 42 of 100

    42. Question

    With reference to the “Communal Award”, consider the following statements:
    (1) Congress was against the principle of separate electorate and thus outrightly rejected it.
    (2) Gandhiji signed Poona Pact with the British government to resolve the issue of separate electorate for depressed class.
    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Although, Congress was opposed to separate electorates, it was not in favour of challenging the Award without the consent of minorities.
    Thus, Congress decided neither to accept it nor to reject it.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Gandhiji signed Poona Pact with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
    As a result, separate electorate for depressed classes was abandoned but the seats reserved for them was increased from 71 to 147.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Although, Congress was opposed to separate electorates, it was not in favour of challenging the Award without the consent of minorities.
    Thus, Congress decided neither to accept it nor to reject it.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Gandhiji signed Poona Pact with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
    As a result, separate electorate for depressed classes was abandoned but the seats reserved for them was increased from 71 to 147.
43. Question 43 of 100

    43. Question

    The Nagpur session of the Congress in December 1920 is important because:
    (1) It was for the first time swaraj was clearly defined at the Congress session.
    (2) At this, Gandhiji emphasised on the use of Non-violence and Constitutionalmeasures for attaining swaraj.
    (3) Gandhiji called for Individual satyagraha to create atmosphere for mass movement.
    Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 2 only
    (D) 1 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Nagpur session of the Congress in December 1920 is important because of:
    • Changed Aim: though the Congress aim of Swaraj was reaffirmed but now explained, to mean Self-Government. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
    • Changed Methods: The earlier emphasis on the use of “constitutional means” was substituted by “all peaceful and legitimate methods”. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
    • Changed Leadership: After the death of Tilak in August 1920, the leadership went into the hands of Gandhi and it marked the beginning of Gandhian era in Indian Politics.
    • Structural Change: The Congress party was organised on modern lines with local Congress Committees at the grass root village level through sub-divisional, district and provincial Committees with the All-India Congress Committee at the apex.
    Gandhiji called for Individual Satyagraha in 1940 after the August Offer (and not in 1920, at Nagpur Session), which rejected the demands of the Congress. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The Nagpur session of the Congress in December 1920 is important because of:
    • Changed Aim: though the Congress aim of Swaraj was reaffirmed but now explained, to mean Self-Government. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
    • Changed Methods: The earlier emphasis on the use of “constitutional means” was substituted by “all peaceful and legitimate methods”. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
    • Changed Leadership: After the death of Tilak in August 1920, the leadership went into the hands of Gandhi and it marked the beginning of Gandhian era in Indian Politics.
    • Structural Change: The Congress party was organised on modern lines with local Congress Committees at the grass root village level through sub-divisional, district and provincial Committees with the All-India Congress Committee at the apex.
    Gandhiji called for Individual Satyagraha in 1940 after the August Offer (and not in 1920, at Nagpur Session), which rejected the demands of the Congress. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
44. Question 44 of 100

    44. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The first French factory was established at Surat
    (2) Pondicherry was restored to the French from the Dutch through the treaty of Ryswick.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Berber, a French agent in India obtained a firman [a royal command or authorization] on September 4, 1666 from Aurangzeb and the first French factory was established at Surat in December 1668.
    In 1697, according to the treaty of Ryswick, Pondicherry was restored to the French. However, it was handed over to the French only in 1699. Francis Martin remained as its governor till his death in 1706.

    Unattempted
    

    Berber, a French agent in India obtained a firman [a royal command or authorization] on September 4, 1666 from Aurangzeb and the first French factory was established at Surat in December 1668.
    In 1697, according to the treaty of Ryswick, Pondicherry was restored to the French. However, it was handed over to the French only in 1699. Francis Martin remained as its governor till his death in 1706.
45. Question 45 of 100

    45. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Electoral Bonds:
    (1) An Electoral Bond is like a promissory note.
    (2) It can be purchased in cash or digitally through any commercial bank.
    (3) All the Political Parties are eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
    Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 3 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 1,2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: An Electoral Bond is like a promissory note that may be purchased by a person who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: One can purchase these bonds only digitally or through cheques. As of now, only SBI is authorised to issue the Electoral Bonds.
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 (43 of 1951) and which secured not less than one percent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: An Electoral Bond is like a promissory note that may be purchased by a person who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: One can purchase these bonds only digitally or through cheques. As of now, only SBI is authorised to issue the Electoral Bonds.
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 (43 of 1951) and which secured not less than one percent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
46. Question 46 of 100

    46. Question

    India is signatory to which of the following conventions on efforts to control the spread of Weapons of Mass Destruction?
    (1) Biological Weapons Convention
    (2) Chemical Weapons Convention
    (3) Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 3 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 2 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the Weapons Of Mass Destruction (WMD) Bill was passed by voice vote in Rajya Sabha.
    India is signatory to both, Biological Weapons Convention of 1972, and Chemical Weapons Convention of 1993, but is not signatory to the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty, which is another international arrangement to fight the growth of WMDs.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the Weapons Of Mass Destruction (WMD) Bill was passed by voice vote in Rajya Sabha.
    India is signatory to both, Biological Weapons Convention of 1972, and Chemical Weapons Convention of 1993, but is not signatory to the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty, which is another international arrangement to fight the growth of WMDs.
47. Question 47 of 100

    47. Question

    With reference to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC), consider the following statements:
    (1) It is defined in Article 44 of the Indian Constitution.
    (2) Goa and Arunachal Pradesh are the only states to have it.
    (3) The Law Commission favoured its adoption throughout India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 1 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Article 44 of the Indian Constitution defines a Uniform Civil Code. Article 44 says, ‘The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.’ The article is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
    Statements 2 and 3 are not correct: Goa has a common family law, thus being the only Indian state to have a uniform civil code and the 1954 Special Marriage Act allows any citizen to marry outside the realm of any special religious personal law. The Law Commission (2018) was against the implementation of the Uniform Civil Code, stating that it is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Article 44 of the Indian Constitution defines a Uniform Civil Code. Article 44 says, ‘The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.’ The article is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
    Statements 2 and 3 are not correct: Goa has a common family law, thus being the only Indian state to have a uniform civil code and the 1954 Special Marriage Act allows any citizen to marry outside the realm of any special religious personal law. The Law Commission (2018) was against the implementation of the Uniform Civil Code, stating that it is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage.
48. Question 48 of 100

    48. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act 2021:
    (1) It increases the gestational limit for legal abortion from 20 to 24 weeks of all the categories of women without requiring the medical advice of doctor.
    (2) The Act decriminalises the action of “intentionally causing a miscarriage”.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Salient features of the “Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 2021”:
    ● Abortions before 20 weeks of pregnancy:
    ○ Terminating a pregnancy up to 20 weeks will only require the medical advice of one doctor.
    Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    ● Abortions upto or beyond 24 of pregnancy:
    ○ Abortion is legal for women in certain circumstances up to 24 weeks.
    ○ It would include:
    ■ survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (like differently-abled women, minors) etc.
    ○ Opinion of 2 providers is required for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks ofgestation.
    ○ A state-level medical board will be set up to decide:
    ■ if pregnancy may be terminated beyond 20 months till 24 months.
    ■ Such a decision can be taken by the medical board only after
    ● due consideration and
    ● ensuring that the procedure would be safe for the woman.
    ● The time frame available to the Medical Board is 3 days.
    ○ The upper gestation limit does not apply in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by the Medical Board.
    ● Increase in Gestational limit only in certain cases:
    ○ It enhances the gestational limit for legal abortion from 20 to 24 weeks only for specific categories of women.
    ○ A woman who does not fall into these categories would not be able to seek an abortion beyond 20 weeks.
    ● Intentionally causing a miscarriage:
    ○ Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code holds intentionally causing a miscarriage as acriminal offence. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Salient features of the “Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 2021”:
    ● Abortions before 20 weeks of pregnancy:
    ○ Terminating a pregnancy up to 20 weeks will only require the medical advice of one doctor.
    Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    ● Abortions upto or beyond 24 of pregnancy:
    ○ Abortion is legal for women in certain circumstances up to 24 weeks.
    ○ It would include:
    ■ survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (like differently-abled women, minors) etc.
    ○ Opinion of 2 providers is required for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks ofgestation.
    ○ A state-level medical board will be set up to decide:
    ■ if pregnancy may be terminated beyond 20 months till 24 months.
    ■ Such a decision can be taken by the medical board only after
    ● due consideration and
    ● ensuring that the procedure would be safe for the woman.
    ● The time frame available to the Medical Board is 3 days.
    ○ The upper gestation limit does not apply in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by the Medical Board.
    ● Increase in Gestational limit only in certain cases:
    ○ It enhances the gestational limit for legal abortion from 20 to 24 weeks only for specific categories of women.
    ○ A woman who does not fall into these categories would not be able to seek an abortion beyond 20 weeks.
    ● Intentionally causing a miscarriage:
    ○ Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code holds intentionally causing a miscarriage as acriminal offence. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
49. Question 49 of 100

    49. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the recent reforms in civil services:
    (1) Mission Karmayogi focuses on promoting ease of living and ease of doing business, by enhancing the citizen-government interface.
    (2) The lateral entrants into the civil service will be offered a three-year contract, which the government can extend to five years.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mission Karmayogi:
    ○ It was launched in 2020 with the objective of enhancing governance through “Civil Service Capacity Building”.
    ○ Focus:
    ■ On promoting ease of living and ease of doing business, by considerably enhancing the citizen-government interface. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    ■ This involves creation of both functional and behavioural competencies among the civil servants.
    ○ Significance:
    ■ It will improve human resource management practices among the officers.
    ■ It will focus more on role based management. It will aim to allocate roles and jobs based on competencies of the officers.
    ● ‘Lateral Entry’ into Bureaucracy:
    ○ The term lateral entry means the appointment of specialists and experts, mainly those from the private sector, in government organizations and ministries.
    ○ Aim:
    ■ To recruit outstanding individuals, with expertise in revenue, financial services, economic affairs, agriculture, cooperation and farmers’ welfare, road transport and highway, civil aviation, commerce among many other sectors to serve for the benefit of the country.
    ○ Details:
    ■ These lateral entrants into the civil service will be offered a three-year contract, which the government can extend to five years depending on performance. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Mission Karmayogi:
    ○ It was launched in 2020 with the objective of enhancing governance through “Civil Service Capacity Building”.
    ○ Focus:
    ■ On promoting ease of living and ease of doing business, by considerably enhancing the citizen-government interface. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    ■ This involves creation of both functional and behavioural competencies among the civil servants.
    ○ Significance:
    ■ It will improve human resource management practices among the officers.
    ■ It will focus more on role based management. It will aim to allocate roles and jobs based on competencies of the officers.
    ● ‘Lateral Entry’ into Bureaucracy:
    ○ The term lateral entry means the appointment of specialists and experts, mainly those from the private sector, in government organizations and ministries.
    ○ Aim:
    ■ To recruit outstanding individuals, with expertise in revenue, financial services, economic affairs, agriculture, cooperation and farmers’ welfare, road transport and highway, civil aviation, commerce among many other sectors to serve for the benefit of the country.
    ○ Details:
    ■ These lateral entrants into the civil service will be offered a three-year contract, which the government can extend to five years depending on performance. Hence statement 2 is correct.
50. Question 50 of 100

    50. Question

    Which of the following were Set up for Empowerment of Denotified tribes (DNTs)?
    (1) Ayyangar Committee
    (2) Kalelkar Committee
    (3) Idate Commission
    (4) Raja Chelliah Committee
    (5) KV Kamath Committee
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 2 and 3 only
    (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (C) 1,3 and 4 only
    (D) 1,2,3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Various Committees Set up for Empowerment of DNTs
    ● Ayyangar Committee, 1949:
    ○ After the independence of India, there had been a persistent demand by the CentralLegislature that the Criminal Tribes Act be repealed as it seeks to classify particular classes of people as criminals and is not aligned with the dignity of free India.
    ○ For this, The Criminal Tribes Enquiry Committee was set-up 1949-1950 chaired by M. Ananthsayanam Ayyangar.
    ○ After a detailed study of the working of the Criminal Tribes Act throughout the country, it submitted its report in 1950, in which it made several recommendations for the repeal of the Act.
    ○ The Committee also emphasized the need for allocation of adequate funds for their welfare and rehabilitation.
    ○ The Government of India accepted some of the recommendations of the Ayyangar Committee. It repealed the Criminal Tribes Act with effect from 31 August 1952 by the Criminal Tribes (Repeal) Act, 1952 (Act No XXIV of 1952).
    ● Kalelkar Committee, 1953:
    ○ The first Backward Class Commission was appointed on 29 January 1953 under theChairmanship of Mr. Kakasaheb Kalelkar.
    ○ This Commission suggested that the erstwhile Criminal Tribes should not be called Tribes‟ nor should the names Criminal or Ex-Criminal be attached to them. They couldbe called Denotified Communities.
    ○ It further recommended that “these groups may be distributed in small groups in towns and villages where they would come in contact with other people, and get an opportunity for turning a new leaf.
    ○ This would help in their eventual assimilation in society”.
    ● Idate Commission, 2014:
    ○ In February 2014, the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment took a historic decision to constitute a National Commission for De-Notified, Nomadic and Semi Nomadic Tribes for a period of three years.
    ○ The Commission gave its report in December, 2017. In its report, the commission prepared draft lists of DNT/NT/SNT Communities.
    ○ This Commission was tasked among others to identify and proper listing of these communities in different states, to evaluate the progress of development of these communities in the states so that a systematic approach can be developed for the development of these communities.
    ○ Based on the recommendations of the Idate Commission, the Government of India constituted the Development and Welfare Board for DNTs, SNTs &NTs (DWBDNCs) in 2019.

    Unattempted
    

    Various Committees Set up for Empowerment of DNTs
    ● Ayyangar Committee, 1949:
    ○ After the independence of India, there had been a persistent demand by the CentralLegislature that the Criminal Tribes Act be repealed as it seeks to classify particular classes of people as criminals and is not aligned with the dignity of free India.
    ○ For this, The Criminal Tribes Enquiry Committee was set-up 1949-1950 chaired by M. Ananthsayanam Ayyangar.
    ○ After a detailed study of the working of the Criminal Tribes Act throughout the country, it submitted its report in 1950, in which it made several recommendations for the repeal of the Act.
    ○ The Committee also emphasized the need for allocation of adequate funds for their welfare and rehabilitation.
    ○ The Government of India accepted some of the recommendations of the Ayyangar Committee. It repealed the Criminal Tribes Act with effect from 31 August 1952 by the Criminal Tribes (Repeal) Act, 1952 (Act No XXIV of 1952).
    ● Kalelkar Committee, 1953:
    ○ The first Backward Class Commission was appointed on 29 January 1953 under theChairmanship of Mr. Kakasaheb Kalelkar.
    ○ This Commission suggested that the erstwhile Criminal Tribes should not be called Tribes‟ nor should the names Criminal or Ex-Criminal be attached to them. They couldbe called Denotified Communities.
    ○ It further recommended that “these groups may be distributed in small groups in towns and villages where they would come in contact with other people, and get an opportunity for turning a new leaf.
    ○ This would help in their eventual assimilation in society”.
    ● Idate Commission, 2014:
    ○ In February 2014, the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment took a historic decision to constitute a National Commission for De-Notified, Nomadic and Semi Nomadic Tribes for a period of three years.
    ○ The Commission gave its report in December, 2017. In its report, the commission prepared draft lists of DNT/NT/SNT Communities.
    ○ This Commission was tasked among others to identify and proper listing of these communities in different states, to evaluate the progress of development of these communities in the states so that a systematic approach can be developed for the development of these communities.
    ○ Based on the recommendations of the Idate Commission, the Government of India constituted the Development and Welfare Board for DNTs, SNTs &NTs (DWBDNCs) in 2019.
51. Question 51 of 100

    51. Question

    Which of the following crop nutrients is/are covered under One Nation-One Fertilizer (ONOF) initiative ?
    (1) Urea
    (2) Di-ammonium phosphate (DAP)
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the ministry of chemicals and fertilizer has issued directions to all companies to use the new brand name, Bharat, and logo of the subsidy scheme on the bags.
    ● The concept of One Nation-One Fertilizer (ONOF) was implemented from October 2,2022.
    ● As part of the initiative, crop nutrients — urea, di-ammonium phosphate (DAP) or muriate of potash (MOP) will be sold under a single brand name, ‘Bharat’ irrespective of the manufacturing companies.
    ○ All fertilizer bags, whether containing urea or di-ammonium phosphate (DAP) or muriate of potash (MOP) or NPK will sport the brand name ‘Bharat Urea’, ‘Bharat DAP’, ‘Bharat MOP’ and ‘Bharat NPK’ irrespective of the company that manufacturers (private or public).

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the ministry of chemicals and fertilizer has issued directions to all companies to use the new brand name, Bharat, and logo of the subsidy scheme on the bags.
    ● The concept of One Nation-One Fertilizer (ONOF) was implemented from October 2,2022.
    ● As part of the initiative, crop nutrients — urea, di-ammonium phosphate (DAP) or muriate of potash (MOP) will be sold under a single brand name, ‘Bharat’ irrespective of the manufacturing companies.
    ○ All fertilizer bags, whether containing urea or di-ammonium phosphate (DAP) or muriate of potash (MOP) or NPK will sport the brand name ‘Bharat Urea’, ‘Bharat DAP’, ‘Bharat MOP’ and ‘Bharat NPK’ irrespective of the company that manufacturers (private or public).
52. Question 52 of 100

    52. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) “Net Zero” is when a country’s emissions are compensated by the absorption and removal of greenhouse gases (GHGs) from the atmosphere.
    (2) ‘Getting India to Net Zero’ report was recently released by NITI Aayog.
    (3) Panchamrit strategy envisages ‘Net Zero’ targets to be achieved by 2050 in India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Net Zero: A state in which a country’s emissions are compensated by absorption and removal of greenhouse gases (GHGs) from the atmosphere is called Net Zero State; it is also referred to as carbon-neutrality. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    “Getting India to Net Zero” report”:
    ● The report is recently released in New Delhi and it is named as ‘Getting India to NetZero’.
    ○ Statement 2 is incorrect. The report was released by:
    ■ Former Australian prime minister Kevin Rudd, also the president of Asia Society Policy Institute,
    ■ Former UN Secretary-General and Global Green Growth Institute President & Chair Ban Ki-moon,
    ■ International Finance Corporation’s Head and Director of Climate Business, Vivek Pathak and
    ■ Former Indian foreign secretary Shyam Saran.
    Panchamrit strategy:
    ● Hon. PM Narendra Modi's Panchamrit strategy was announced at the COP 26 in Glasgow conference into enhanced climate targets.
    ○ India will increase its non-fossil fuel energy capacity to 500 gigawatt (GW) by 2030.
    ○ It will meet 50 percent of its energy requirements from renewable sources by 2030.
    ○ The total projected carbon emissions will be reduced by 1 billion tonnes from now through 2030.
    ○ The carbon intensity of its economy will be brought down to less than 45 percent.
    ○ India will achieve its target of net zero by 2070. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Net Zero: A state in which a country’s emissions are compensated by absorption and removal of greenhouse gases (GHGs) from the atmosphere is called Net Zero State; it is also referred to as carbon-neutrality. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    “Getting India to Net Zero” report”:
    ● The report is recently released in New Delhi and it is named as ‘Getting India to NetZero’.
    ○ Statement 2 is incorrect. The report was released by:
    ■ Former Australian prime minister Kevin Rudd, also the president of Asia Society Policy Institute,
    ■ Former UN Secretary-General and Global Green Growth Institute President & Chair Ban Ki-moon,
    ■ International Finance Corporation’s Head and Director of Climate Business, Vivek Pathak and
    ■ Former Indian foreign secretary Shyam Saran.
    Panchamrit strategy:
    ● Hon. PM Narendra Modi's Panchamrit strategy was announced at the COP 26 in Glasgow conference into enhanced climate targets.
    ○ India will increase its non-fossil fuel energy capacity to 500 gigawatt (GW) by 2030.
    ○ It will meet 50 percent of its energy requirements from renewable sources by 2030.
    ○ The total projected carbon emissions will be reduced by 1 billion tonnes from now through 2030.
    ○ The carbon intensity of its economy will be brought down to less than 45 percent.
    ○ India will achieve its target of net zero by 2070. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
53. Question 53 of 100

    53. Question

    With reference to Geological Survey of India (GSI), consider the following statements:
    (1) It is an organization under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
    (2) GSI is the prime provider of basic earth science information to the government and industry.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a scientific agency of India. It was founded in 1851, is a Government of India organization under the Ministry of Mines, one of the oldest of such organisations in the world and the second oldest survey in India after Survey of India (founded in 1767), for conducting geological surveys and studies of India.
    Statement 2 is correct: GSI is the official participant in steel, coal, metals, cement, power industries and international geoscientific forums. It is also the prime provider of basic earth science information to the government, industry and general public.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a scientific agency of India. It was founded in 1851, is a Government of India organization under the Ministry of Mines, one of the oldest of such organisations in the world and the second oldest survey in India after Survey of India (founded in 1767), for conducting geological surveys and studies of India.
    Statement 2 is correct: GSI is the official participant in steel, coal, metals, cement, power industries and international geoscientific forums. It is also the prime provider of basic earth science information to the government, industry and general public.
54. Question 54 of 100

    54. Question

    With reference to Lumpy Skin Disease, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
    (1) It is a zoonotic bacterial illness that causes prolonged morbidity in cattle and buffaloes.
    (2) It is confined to Africa only.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: It is caused by the infection of cattle or buffalo with the poxvirus Lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV). The virus is one of three closely related species within the genus capripoxvirus, the other two species being Sheeppox virus and Goatpox virus.
    Historically, LSD has remained confined to Africa, where it was first discovered in 1929, and parts of West Asia. LSD was first reported in Asia and the Pacific region in 2019 in northwest China, Bangladesh and India.

    Unattempted
    

    Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: It is caused by the infection of cattle or buffalo with the poxvirus Lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV). The virus is one of three closely related species within the genus capripoxvirus, the other two species being Sheeppox virus and Goatpox virus.
    Historically, LSD has remained confined to Africa, where it was first discovered in 1929, and parts of West Asia. LSD was first reported in Asia and the Pacific region in 2019 in northwest China, Bangladesh and India.
55. Question 55 of 100

    55. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding freedom fighters:
    (1) He was born in Wardha, Maharashtra.
    (2) He was one of the founding members of the Ghadar Party.
    (3) He was a professor at the National School of Agriculture in Chapingo, in Mexico.
    (4) He was also revered as an agricultural scientist in Mexico.
    The statements given above are related to which of the following?
    (A) Anant Laxman Kanhere
    (B) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
    (C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
    (D) Pandurang Khankhoje

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pandurang Khankhoje:
    ● He was born in 1884 at Wardha, Maharashtra.
    ● Association with the Indian independence movement:
    ○ Meeting Lala Har Dayal:
    ■ While in the US, Khankhoje met Lala Har Dayal, an Indian intellectual teaching at Stanford University.
    ■ This was the seed from which the Ghadar Party would emerge.
    ■ Ghadar Party:
    ● Khankhoje was one of the founding members of the Ghadar Party.
    ○ It was established by Indians living abroad in 1914, mostly belonging to Punjab.
    ○ Its aim was to lead a revolutionary fight against the British in India.
    ○ Agricultural research:
    ■ He was appointed a professor at the National School of Agriculture in Chapingo, near Mexico City.
    ■ He researched corn, wheat, pulses and rubber, developing frost and drought-resistant varieties.
    ■ It was part of efforts to bring in the Green Revolution in Mexico.
    ○ Recognition:
    ■ Khankhoje was revered as an agricultural scientist in Mexico.
    ● Legacy:
    ○ The statue of freedom fighter and agricultural scientist Pandurang Khankhoje unveiled in Mexico.

    Unattempted
    

    Pandurang Khankhoje:
    ● He was born in 1884 at Wardha, Maharashtra.
    ● Association with the Indian independence movement:
    ○ Meeting Lala Har Dayal:
    ■ While in the US, Khankhoje met Lala Har Dayal, an Indian intellectual teaching at Stanford University.
    ■ This was the seed from which the Ghadar Party would emerge.
    ■ Ghadar Party:
    ● Khankhoje was one of the founding members of the Ghadar Party.
    ○ It was established by Indians living abroad in 1914, mostly belonging to Punjab.
    ○ Its aim was to lead a revolutionary fight against the British in India.
    ○ Agricultural research:
    ■ He was appointed a professor at the National School of Agriculture in Chapingo, near Mexico City.
    ■ He researched corn, wheat, pulses and rubber, developing frost and drought-resistant varieties.
    ■ It was part of efforts to bring in the Green Revolution in Mexico.
    ○ Recognition:
    ■ Khankhoje was revered as an agricultural scientist in Mexico.
    ● Legacy:
    ○ The statue of freedom fighter and agricultural scientist Pandurang Khankhoje unveiled in Mexico.
56. Question 56 of 100

    56. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding India’s recently launched Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus:
    (1) It is made up of novel downstream process technology.
    (2) It is a Russian technology imported through India-Russia Joint Technology Assessment and Accelerated Commercialization Programme.
    (3) Its refueling time is more compared to the Battery-operated Electric Vehicles.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, India's first indigenously developed Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was launched in Pune.
    ● About:
    ○ The Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus is a product of the joint development efforts by KPIT andCSIR-NCL (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research-National Chemical Laboratory).
    Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    ● Downstream process technology:
    ○ The uniqueness of the process developed by CSIR-NCL is a novel downstream process technology, which makes this indigenous technology competitive with global benchmarks.
    Hence statement 1 is correct.
    ○ The process is ready for technology transfer and further co-development to commercial scale.
    ● Better than electric vehicles:
    ○ They enable a refuelling time of just 5 minutes, compared to 30-45 minutes of charging for a Battery operated Electric Vehicle. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
    ○ Also, cars get better energy storage per unit volume and weight, freeing up a lot of space for other things.
    ○ It is also effective for sectors that cannot be electrified like shipping and air travel.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, India's first indigenously developed Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was launched in Pune.
    ● About:
    ○ The Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus is a product of the joint development efforts by KPIT andCSIR-NCL (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research-National Chemical Laboratory).
    Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    ● Downstream process technology:
    ○ The uniqueness of the process developed by CSIR-NCL is a novel downstream process technology, which makes this indigenous technology competitive with global benchmarks.
    Hence statement 1 is correct.
    ○ The process is ready for technology transfer and further co-development to commercial scale.
    ● Better than electric vehicles:
    ○ They enable a refuelling time of just 5 minutes, compared to 30-45 minutes of charging for a Battery operated Electric Vehicle. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
    ○ Also, cars get better energy storage per unit volume and weight, freeing up a lot of space for other things.
    ○ It is also effective for sectors that cannot be electrified like shipping and air travel.
57. Question 57 of 100

    57. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW):
    (1) It was adopted by the conference at the International Maritime Organization (IMO) in London.
    (2) The Convention prescribes minimum standards relating to training, certification and watchkeeping for seafarers.
    (3) India is a signatory to the convention.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeepingfor Seafarers (STCW), 1978
    ● Origin, amendments and enactment:
    ○ STCW was adopted in 1978 by a conference at the International Maritime Organization (IMO) in London and entered into force in 1984. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    ■ India is a signatory to the convention. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    ○ The Convention was significantly amended in 1995 and 2010 entered into force on 1 January 2012.
    ● About:
    ○ The Convention prescribes minimum standards relating to training, certification and watchkeeping for seafarers which countries are obliged to meet or exceed.
    Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ● Significance:
    ○ The 1978 STCW Convention was the first to establish minimum basic requirements on training, certification and watchkeeping for seafarers on an international level.
    ○ Previously the minimum standards of training, certification and watchkeeping of officers and ratings were established by individual governments, usually without reference to practices in other countries.
    ■ As a result, minimum standards and procedures varied widely, even though shipping is extremely international by nature.

    Unattempted
    

    International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeepingfor Seafarers (STCW), 1978
    ● Origin, amendments and enactment:
    ○ STCW was adopted in 1978 by a conference at the International Maritime Organization (IMO) in London and entered into force in 1984. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    ■ India is a signatory to the convention. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    ○ The Convention was significantly amended in 1995 and 2010 entered into force on 1 January 2012.
    ● About:
    ○ The Convention prescribes minimum standards relating to training, certification and watchkeeping for seafarers which countries are obliged to meet or exceed.
    Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ● Significance:
    ○ The 1978 STCW Convention was the first to establish minimum basic requirements on training, certification and watchkeeping for seafarers on an international level.
    ○ Previously the minimum standards of training, certification and watchkeeping of officers and ratings were established by individual governments, usually without reference to practices in other countries.
    ■ As a result, minimum standards and procedures varied widely, even though shipping is extremely international by nature.
58. Question 58 of 100

    58. Question

    With reference to Atlantic Bluefin Tuna, consider the following statements:
    (1) They are the largest tunas.
    (2) The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species classifies it as Vulnerable.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) 1 Only
    (B) 2 Only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The biomass of the Pacific Bluefin Tuna has increased and is second-highest in recorded history.
    Statement 1 is correct : There are three species of bluefin: Atlantic (the largest and most endangered), Pacific, and Southern.
    ● Atlantic Bluefin Tuna is the largest tuna.
    Statement 2 is not correct :The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species classifies it asEndangered.

    Unattempted
    

    The biomass of the Pacific Bluefin Tuna has increased and is second-highest in recorded history.
    Statement 1 is correct : There are three species of bluefin: Atlantic (the largest and most endangered), Pacific, and Southern.
    ● Atlantic Bluefin Tuna is the largest tuna.
    Statement 2 is not correct :The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species classifies it asEndangered.
59. Question 59 of 100

    59. Question

    In Sanskrit sources, the usage of the words “Yona”, “Yauna”, “Yonaka”, “Yavana” or “Javana” appears repeatedly, and particularly in relation to the
    (A) The southern tip of India that in present day borders the Mannar coast near Sri Lanka.
    (B) Vedic Ritual sacrifices that were supposed to be performed only by the Emperor.
    (C) The art of building esoteric mandalas in places of spiritual importance.
    (D) Greek kingdoms which neighboured and sometimes occupied the Punjab region.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    These terms appears repeatedly, and particularly in relation to the Greek kingdomswhich neighboured or sometimes occupied the Punjab region over a period of several centuries from the 4th century BCE to the first century CE.
    Examples are the Seleucid Empire, the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom and the Indo-Greek Kingdom.
    The Yavanas are mentioned in detail in Sangam literature epics such as Pattinappalai, describing their brisk trade with the Early Cholas in the Sangam period.

    Unattempted
    

    These terms appears repeatedly, and particularly in relation to the Greek kingdomswhich neighboured or sometimes occupied the Punjab region over a period of several centuries from the 4th century BCE to the first century CE.
    Examples are the Seleucid Empire, the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom and the Indo-Greek Kingdom.
    The Yavanas are mentioned in detail in Sangam literature epics such as Pattinappalai, describing their brisk trade with the Early Cholas in the Sangam period.
60. Question 60 of 100

    60. Question

    Consider the following about Losar.
    (1) It is a harvest festival celebrated taking inspiration from Buddhist culture.
    (2) Losar predates the arrival of Buddhism in Tibet.
    Which of the above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Losar is Tibetan word for “new year” and this festival is an important social andreligious celebration in Ladakh.
    Following the old tradition, people from Ladakh visit graveyards of ancestor family members and pray for peace for the departed soul.
    People visit each other for exchange of Losar greetings.
    On third day of the festival is people wait for the night to see the first moon of the New Year In India.
    Losar is also celebrated by Yolmo, Sherpa, Tamang, Gurung, and Bhutia communities residing in different regions in the country.

    Unattempted
    

    Losar is Tibetan word for “new year” and this festival is an important social andreligious celebration in Ladakh.
    Following the old tradition, people from Ladakh visit graveyards of ancestor family members and pray for peace for the departed soul.
    People visit each other for exchange of Losar greetings.
    On third day of the festival is people wait for the night to see the first moon of the New Year In India.
    Losar is also celebrated by Yolmo, Sherpa, Tamang, Gurung, and Bhutia communities residing in different regions in the country.
61. Question 61 of 100

    61. Question

    With reference to the history of Indian Drama and Theatre, the term “Vidushaka” refers to
    (A) The interpreter of vedas personally appointed by the King.
    (B) The branch of theatre which had all roles played by women exclusively.
    (C) The role of the clown or jester in Sanskrit dramas.
    (D) The song of blessing which formed the opening of the Drama

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Bharata”s Natya Shastra was the earliest treatise on drama in the world. Mosttypes of Dramas had a hero, a heroine, a villain and a comedian also known as the“Vidushaka”. He was the official clown or jester in the theatre and had the license to ridicule social norms and carried a lot of significance in the dramas.
    The Sanskrit drama kudiyattam, still performed by the Chakkayars of Kerala also has the mention of vidushaka and so do other plays and dances.
    In limelight, the cultural mix of Kathakali in Shakespearean plays finds themention of Vidushaka too. This character is also mentioned by Bharata (compiler ofNatya Shastra), he considers that laughter, which is the essential contribution of the Vidushaka, is closely connected with love; so, the Vidushaka has a natural place as a companion of the hero in a comedy of love.

    Unattempted
    

    Bharata”s Natya Shastra was the earliest treatise on drama in the world. Mosttypes of Dramas had a hero, a heroine, a villain and a comedian also known as the“Vidushaka”. He was the official clown or jester in the theatre and had the license to ridicule social norms and carried a lot of significance in the dramas.
    The Sanskrit drama kudiyattam, still performed by the Chakkayars of Kerala also has the mention of vidushaka and so do other plays and dances.
    In limelight, the cultural mix of Kathakali in Shakespearean plays finds themention of Vidushaka too. This character is also mentioned by Bharata (compiler ofNatya Shastra), he considers that laughter, which is the essential contribution of the Vidushaka, is closely connected with love; so, the Vidushaka has a natural place as a companion of the hero in a comedy of love.
62. Question 62 of 100

    62. Question

    Which of the following were the twin considerations recognised by Lord Ripon for the growth and development of local self-government in India
    (1) Administrative efficiency
    (2) Political education
    (3) Democratic decentralisation
    (4) Devolution of finances.
    Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 4 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1,2,3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    · From 1870 that Viceroy Lord Mayo”s Resolution (for decentralisation of power to bring about administrative efficiency in meeting people”s demand and to add to the finances of colonial regime) gave the needed impetus to the development of local institutions.
    · It was a landmark in the evolution of colonial policy towards local government. The real benchmarking of the government policy on decentralisation can, however, be attributed to Lord Ripon who, in his famous resolution on local self-government on May 18, 1882, recognised the twin considerations of local government:
    (i) administrative efficiency and
    (ii) political education.
    · The Ripon Resolution , which focused on towns, provided for local bodies consisting of a large majority of elected non-official members and presided over by a non-official chairperson. This resolution met with resistance from colonial administrators.
    · The progress of local self-government was tardy with only half-hearted steps taken in setting up municipal bodies. Rural decentralisation remained a neglected area of administrative reform.

    Unattempted
    

    · From 1870 that Viceroy Lord Mayo”s Resolution (for decentralisation of power to bring about administrative efficiency in meeting people”s demand and to add to the finances of colonial regime) gave the needed impetus to the development of local institutions.
    · It was a landmark in the evolution of colonial policy towards local government. The real benchmarking of the government policy on decentralisation can, however, be attributed to Lord Ripon who, in his famous resolution on local self-government on May 18, 1882, recognised the twin considerations of local government:
    (i) administrative efficiency and
    (ii) political education.
    · The Ripon Resolution , which focused on towns, provided for local bodies consisting of a large majority of elected non-official members and presided over by a non-official chairperson. This resolution met with resistance from colonial administrators.
    · The progress of local self-government was tardy with only half-hearted steps taken in setting up municipal bodies. Rural decentralisation remained a neglected area of administrative reform.
63. Question 63 of 100

    63. Question

    Krishnadeva Raya”s rule was characterised by
    (1) Absence of any military expeditions.
    (2) Acquisition of the land between the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers.
    (3) Building of temples and adding gopurams to many important south Indian temples.
    Select the correct answer using the codes below.
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 3 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Krishnadeva Raya”s rule was characterised by expansion and consolidation.
    This was the time when the land between the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers (the Raichur doab) was acquired (1512), the rulers of Orissa were subdued (1514) and severe defeats were inflicted on the Sultan of Bijapur (1520).
    Although the kingdom remained in a constant state of military preparedness, it flourished under conditions of unparalleled peace and prosperity.
    Krishnadeva Raya is credited with building some fine temples and adding impressive gopurams to many important south Indian temples.
    He also founded a suburban township near Vijayanagara called Nagalapuram after his mother.
    Some of the most detailed descriptions of Vijayanagara come from his time or just after.

    Unattempted
    

    Krishnadeva Raya”s rule was characterised by expansion and consolidation.
    This was the time when the land between the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers (the Raichur doab) was acquired (1512), the rulers of Orissa were subdued (1514) and severe defeats were inflicted on the Sultan of Bijapur (1520).
    Although the kingdom remained in a constant state of military preparedness, it flourished under conditions of unparalleled peace and prosperity.
    Krishnadeva Raya is credited with building some fine temples and adding impressive gopurams to many important south Indian temples.
    He also founded a suburban township near Vijayanagara called Nagalapuram after his mother.
    Some of the most detailed descriptions of Vijayanagara come from his time or just after.
64. Question 64 of 100

    64. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the rule of Harshavardhana
    (1) Harshavardhana shifted his kingdom”s capital from Thaneswar to Kannauj.
    (2) Harshavardhana prohibited meat and fish in his kingdom.
    (3) His autobiography was named as Harshacharita.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 3 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The beginning of Harshavardhana was in seventh century A.D. after the decline of the Gupta Empire. After his first expedition against Sasanka, Harsha made Kanauj his new capital.
    Earlier his capital used to be Thaneswar. Thus statement 1 is correct.
    Harsha was an earlier a Shaiva but later he became an ardent Hinayana Buddhist. Hiuen Tsang converted him to Mahayana Buddhism. Harsha prohibited the use of animal food in his kingdom and punished those who kill any living being. Thus 2 is correct.
    The chief sources for tracing the history of Harsha and his times are the Harshacharita written by Banabhatta and the travel accounts of Hiuen Tsang.
    Harshacharita was the biography of Harshavardhana. Harsha wrote dramas named Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadarshika.
    Banabhatta also wrote Kadambari. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
    The most important military campaign of Harsha was against the Western Chalukya ruler Pulakesin II. But both the kingdoms claim victory in their scrolls or literature.

    Unattempted
    

    The beginning of Harshavardhana was in seventh century A.D. after the decline of the Gupta Empire. After his first expedition against Sasanka, Harsha made Kanauj his new capital.
    Earlier his capital used to be Thaneswar. Thus statement 1 is correct.
    Harsha was an earlier a Shaiva but later he became an ardent Hinayana Buddhist. Hiuen Tsang converted him to Mahayana Buddhism. Harsha prohibited the use of animal food in his kingdom and punished those who kill any living being. Thus 2 is correct.
    The chief sources for tracing the history of Harsha and his times are the Harshacharita written by Banabhatta and the travel accounts of Hiuen Tsang.
    Harshacharita was the biography of Harshavardhana. Harsha wrote dramas named Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadarshika.
    Banabhatta also wrote Kadambari. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
    The most important military campaign of Harsha was against the Western Chalukya ruler Pulakesin II. But both the kingdoms claim victory in their scrolls or literature.
65. Question 65 of 100

    65. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) He is considered one of the greatest rulers of Southern India.
    (2) He defeated the Pala rulers in the north and constructed the city GangaikondaCholapuram to commemorate his victory.
    (3) He completely conquered Srilanka.
    The above statements talks about which of the following rulers?
    (A) RajarajaChola
    (B) RajendraChola
    (C) Krishnadeva Raya
    (D) RajadhirajaChola

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    RajendraChola was the son of RajarajaChola and extended the extent of Cholaempire to its maximum.

    Unattempted
    

    RajendraChola was the son of RajarajaChola and extended the extent of Cholaempire to its maximum.
66. Question 66 of 100

    66. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Sun temple of modhera, Gujarat have nagar type of architecture.
    (2) Surya temple of mahabalipuram ,Tamilnadu Hive dravida type of architecture.
    Choose the correct option
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 2 both
    (D) None of these

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Sun temple of modhera, Gujarat – Nagar type of architecture.
    Surya temple of mahabalipuram ,Tamilnadu – dravida type of architecture.
    Khajuraho temple-nagara architecture
    Brihadeshwara Temple -dravida architecture

    Unattempted
    

    Sun temple of modhera, Gujarat – Nagar type of architecture.
    Surya temple of mahabalipuram ,Tamilnadu – dravida type of architecture.
    Khajuraho temple-nagara architecture
    Brihadeshwara Temple -dravida architecture
67. Question 67 of 100

    67. Question

    Which of the following is/are the parts of Carnatic Style music?
    (1) Pallavi
    (2) Varnam
    (3) Anu pallavi
    (4) Ragamalika
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 3
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Carnatic music or Carnatic sangeet is the south Indian classical music and is one of the gems of world music. It has a rich history and tradition and has developed in the south Indian states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
    Purandaradasa (1480-1564) is considered to be the father of Carnatic music.
    There are a number of sections to the Carnatic performance.
    Varanam is a composition usually played at the beginning of a recital. It literally means a description. Varanam is made of two parts- the Purvanga or the first half and the Uttaranga or the second half.
    The kritis are fixed compositions in the raga. They have well identified composers and do not allow much scope for variation.
    The “Alapana” offers a way to unfold the Ragam to the audience and at the same time allows the artist substantial scope for creativeness.
    Ragamalika is a free melodic improvisation played without mridangam accompaniment.
    Tanam is yet another style of melodic improvisation in free rhythm.
    Pallavi is short pre- composed melodic theme with words and set to one cycle of tala.
    Anu Pallavi is sung in the beginning and sometimes also towards the end of the song after Pallavi.

    Unattempted
    

    Carnatic music or Carnatic sangeet is the south Indian classical music and is one of the gems of world music. It has a rich history and tradition and has developed in the south Indian states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
    Purandaradasa (1480-1564) is considered to be the father of Carnatic music.
    There are a number of sections to the Carnatic performance.
    Varanam is a composition usually played at the beginning of a recital. It literally means a description. Varanam is made of two parts- the Purvanga or the first half and the Uttaranga or the second half.
    The kritis are fixed compositions in the raga. They have well identified composers and do not allow much scope for variation.
    The “Alapana” offers a way to unfold the Ragam to the audience and at the same time allows the artist substantial scope for creativeness.
    Ragamalika is a free melodic improvisation played without mridangam accompaniment.
    Tanam is yet another style of melodic improvisation in free rhythm.
    Pallavi is short pre- composed melodic theme with words and set to one cycle of tala.
    Anu Pallavi is sung in the beginning and sometimes also towards the end of the song after Pallavi.
68. Question 68 of 100

    68. Question

    “Opium wars” of the mid-19th century are related to
    (A) Anglo-Chinese disputes over British trade in China and China”s sovereignty.
    (B) Conflicts between the Ottoman Empire and European powers joined into a Holy League.
    (C) A major armed struggle that radically transformed Mexican politics and society.
    (D) Rights of Christian minorities in Mediterranean, which was controlled by the Ottoman Empire.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Opium wars are an important event in the fight against imperialism.
    Option (B) refers to the Great Turkish war beginning in 1683 and ending with the signing of the Treaty of Karlowitz in 1699. The war was a defeat for the Ottoman Empire, which lost large amounts of territory in Central Europe. The war was also significant in that it marked the first time Russia wasinvolved in a western European alliance.
    Option (C) refers to Mexican Revolution 1910-20.
    Option (D) refers to the Crimean War (which was also in news due to the Ukraine Crisis 2013-14).

    Unattempted
    

    Opium wars are an important event in the fight against imperialism.
    Option (B) refers to the Great Turkish war beginning in 1683 and ending with the signing of the Treaty of Karlowitz in 1699. The war was a defeat for the Ottoman Empire, which lost large amounts of territory in Central Europe. The war was also significant in that it marked the first time Russia wasinvolved in a western European alliance.
    Option (C) refers to Mexican Revolution 1910-20.
    Option (D) refers to the Crimean War (which was also in news due to the Ukraine Crisis 2013-14).
69. Question 69 of 100

    69. Question

    With reference to the history of science and technology in India, consider the following statements:
    (1) Pravarasena was the founder of Satavahana empire in South India
    (2) Pushyamitra was the greatest king of Chalukya dynasty.
    (3) Rathas of Mahabalipuram were built during the reigns of pallava dynasty.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 only
    (D) 1,2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pravarasena was the founder of Vataka empire in South India. Pushyamitra was the famous king and founder of Shunga Dynasty.
    Rathas of Mahabalipuram were built during the reigns of pallava dynasty during 7th century.
    The five rathas are named after the five Pandava brothers and their common spouse Draupadi from the great Indian epic “Mahabharata”.
    It is enlisted in UNESCO”s World Heritage sites.Hence only statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Pravarasena was the founder of Vataka empire in South India. Pushyamitra was the famous king and founder of Shunga Dynasty.
    Rathas of Mahabalipuram were built during the reigns of pallava dynasty during 7th century.
    The five rathas are named after the five Pandava brothers and their common spouse Draupadi from the great Indian epic “Mahabharata”.
    It is enlisted in UNESCO”s World Heritage sites.Hence only statement 3 is correct.
70. Question 70 of 100

    70. Question

    Consider the following statement regarding “vernacular press act”.
    (1) It was passed in 1868.
    (2) It tried to mute those who were critical to the government.
    (3) The act did not allowed the government to confiscate the assets of newspaper.
    Choose the correct option
    (A) 1 & 3 only
    (B) 2 & 3only
    (C) 3 only
    (D) 2 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Other facts about this question –
    It was passed in 1878.
    It tried to mute those who were critical to the government.
    The act allowed the government to confiscate the assets of newspaper.

    Unattempted
    

    Other facts about this question –
    It was passed in 1878.
    It tried to mute those who were critical to the government.
    The act allowed the government to confiscate the assets of newspaper.
71. Question 71 of 100

    71. Question

    What were the reasons for the expansion of trade and commerce in the 17th century?
    (1) Uniform taxation on goods.
    (2) Use of token currency.
    (3) Road cess was declared illegal.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 2 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 2 and 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Trade and commerce expanded in India during 17th century due to a number of factors:
    (1) Political integration of the country under Mughals.
    (2) Roads and Sarais were paid regular attention which made communication easier.
    (3) A uniform tax was levied on goods at the point of their entry into the empire.
    (4) Road cess or rahdari was declared illegal.
    (5) Minting of silver coins with high purity became standard in India and abroad which helped India”s trade.
    (6) Commercialisation of the economy or growth of money economy.

    Unattempted
    

    Trade and commerce expanded in India during 17th century due to a number of factors:
    (1) Political integration of the country under Mughals.
    (2) Roads and Sarais were paid regular attention which made communication easier.
    (3) A uniform tax was levied on goods at the point of their entry into the empire.
    (4) Road cess or rahdari was declared illegal.
    (5) Minting of silver coins with high purity became standard in India and abroad which helped India”s trade.
    (6) Commercialisation of the economy or growth of money economy.
72. Question 72 of 100

    72. Question

    Kabir used the word “alakh” to describe
    (A) Bhakti movements in India
    (B) Religious reforms in favour of lower castes
    (C) The unseen reality
    (D) Artistic inspiration from nature

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Kabir used terms drawn from Vedantic traditions, alakh (the unseen), nirakar (formless), Brahman, Atman, etc. Other terms with mystical connotations such as shabda (sound) or shunya (emptiness) were drawn from yogic traditions.
    Some of Kabir”s poems are known as ulatbansi (upside-down sayings), are written in a form in which everyday meanings are inverted.
    These hint at the difficulties of capturing the nature of the Ultimate Reality in words: expressions such as “the lotus which blooms without flower” or the “fire raging in the ocean” convey a sense of Kabir”s mystical experiences.

    Unattempted
    

    Kabir used terms drawn from Vedantic traditions, alakh (the unseen), nirakar (formless), Brahman, Atman, etc. Other terms with mystical connotations such as shabda (sound) or shunya (emptiness) were drawn from yogic traditions.
    Some of Kabir”s poems are known as ulatbansi (upside-down sayings), are written in a form in which everyday meanings are inverted.
    These hint at the difficulties of capturing the nature of the Ultimate Reality in words: expressions such as “the lotus which blooms without flower” or the “fire raging in the ocean” convey a sense of Kabir”s mystical experiences.
73. Question 73 of 100

    73. Question

    With reference to the newspapers published during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:
    Newspaper Founder/Editor
    (1) Swadesamitran : Subramaniya Iyer
    (2) Voice of India : Mahatma Gandhi
    (3) Bengalee : Jatindranath Mukherjee
    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •As a result of the spread of modern western education and thought during the 19th century, large number of Indians used press as the chief instrument to criticise official policies; put forward Indian point of view; ask people to unite and work for national welfare and popularise ideas of self-government, democracy, industrialization, etc.
    •Press also enabled nationalist workers living in different parts of the country to exchange views with one another. Some prominent nationalist newspapers of the period were the Hindu and Swadesamitran under the editorship of G. Subramaniya Iyer, Kesari and Mahratta under B.G. Tilak, Bengalee under Surendranath Banerjee, Amrita Bazar Patrika under Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh, Sudharak under G.K. Gokhale, Indian Mirror under N.N. Sen, Voice of India under Dadabhai Naoroji, Hindustani and Advocate under G.P. Varma and Tribune and Akhbar-i-Am in Punjab, Indu Prakash, Dyan Prakash, Kal and Gujarati in Bombay, and Som Prakash, Banganivasi and Sadharani in Bengal. Hence only pair 1 is correctly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    •As a result of the spread of modern western education and thought during the 19th century, large number of Indians used press as the chief instrument to criticise official policies; put forward Indian point of view; ask people to unite and work for national welfare and popularise ideas of self-government, democracy, industrialization, etc.
    •Press also enabled nationalist workers living in different parts of the country to exchange views with one another. Some prominent nationalist newspapers of the period were the Hindu and Swadesamitran under the editorship of G. Subramaniya Iyer, Kesari and Mahratta under B.G. Tilak, Bengalee under Surendranath Banerjee, Amrita Bazar Patrika under Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh, Sudharak under G.K. Gokhale, Indian Mirror under N.N. Sen, Voice of India under Dadabhai Naoroji, Hindustani and Advocate under G.P. Varma and Tribune and Akhbar-i-Am in Punjab, Indu Prakash, Dyan Prakash, Kal and Gujarati in Bombay, and Som Prakash, Banganivasi and Sadharani in Bengal. Hence only pair 1 is correctly matched.
74. Question 74 of 100

    74. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Seleucus I was the Greek king contemporary of Chandragupta Maurya.
    (2) Megasthenes wrote Indica during his stay in the court of Samudragupta.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Seleucus was a Greek ruler defeated by Chandragupta Maurya in the northwest of the Indian subcontinent during 305 BCE.
    It was during this period that Megasthenes, the Greek ambassador from the court of Seleucus visited Chandragupta Maurya and wrote book Indica giving accounts of India and Indian people.Hence only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Seleucus was a Greek ruler defeated by Chandragupta Maurya in the northwest of the Indian subcontinent during 305 BCE.
    It was during this period that Megasthenes, the Greek ambassador from the court of Seleucus visited Chandragupta Maurya and wrote book Indica giving accounts of India and Indian people.Hence only statement 1 is correct.
75. Question 75 of 100

    75. Question

    Which of the following was the objective of Social Service League founded by Narayan Malhar Joshi (a Gokhale follower)
    (A) To secure for masses better and reasonable conditions of life and work.
    (B) To safeguard women against the evils that existed during those times like sati, female infanticide etc.
    (C) To promote better living conditions and education for women and children.
    (D) None of the above.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    · Social Service League another Gokhale follower Narayan Malhar Joshi founded the Social Service League in Bombay with an aim to secure for the masses better and reasonable conditions of life and work.
    · They organized many schools, libraries, reading rooms, day nurseries and cooperative societies.
    · Their activities also included police court agents” work, legal aid and advice to the poor and illiterate, excursions for slum dwellers, facilities for gymnasia and theatrical performances, sanitary work, medical relief and boys” clubs and scout corps. Joshi also founded the All India Trade Union (1920).

    Unattempted
    

    · Social Service League another Gokhale follower Narayan Malhar Joshi founded the Social Service League in Bombay with an aim to secure for the masses better and reasonable conditions of life and work.
    · They organized many schools, libraries, reading rooms, day nurseries and cooperative societies.
    · Their activities also included police court agents” work, legal aid and advice to the poor and illiterate, excursions for slum dwellers, facilities for gymnasia and theatrical performances, sanitary work, medical relief and boys” clubs and scout corps. Joshi also founded the All India Trade Union (1920).
76. Question 76 of 100

    76. Question

    Which one of the following is correct option
    (A) Pandit jawaharlal nehru give a call for satyagraha against rowlatt act.
    (B) The rowlatt act curbed fundamental duties.
    (C) Mohammed ali jinnah supported the rowlatt act.
    (D) the rowlatt satyagraha turn out be the first all india struggle against the british government

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Gandhi ji give a call for Satyagraha against rowlatt act.
    The rowlatt act curbed fundamental right.
    Mohammed Ali Jinnah criticised the rowlatt act.

    Unattempted
    

    Gandhi ji give a call for Satyagraha against rowlatt act.
    The rowlatt act curbed fundamental right.
    Mohammed Ali Jinnah criticised the rowlatt act.
77. Question 77 of 100

    77. Question

    With reference to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a statutory body established under the Special Police Establishment (Amendment) Act.
    (2) It is the nodal agency in India which coordinates investigation on behalf of Interpol Member countries.
    (3) CBI can suo motto take investigation only of offences in the Union Territories.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: CBI is the main investigation agency of the central government for cases relating to corruption and major criminal probes. It has its origin in Special Police.
    The establishment was set up in 1941 to probe bribery and corruption during World War II.
    CBI was set up by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963 after the Santhanam committee recommendation. Presently it acts as an attached office under DOPT.
    Although the DSPE Act gives legal power to CBI, CBI is not a statutory body as:
    ● Word ‘CBI’ is not mentioned in the DSPE act.
    ● The executive order of MHA did not mention CBI to be constituted under the DSPE Act.
    Statement 2 & 3 is correct: It is the nodal agency in India which coordinates investigation on behalf of Interpol Member countries. CBI can suo-moto take up investigation of offences only in the Union Territories. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate a crime in a State but only with the consent of the concerned State Government.
    The Supreme Court and High Courts, however, can order CBI to investigate a crime anywhere in the country without the consent of the State.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: CBI is the main investigation agency of the central government for cases relating to corruption and major criminal probes. It has its origin in Special Police.
    The establishment was set up in 1941 to probe bribery and corruption during World War II.
    CBI was set up by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963 after the Santhanam committee recommendation. Presently it acts as an attached office under DOPT.
    Although the DSPE Act gives legal power to CBI, CBI is not a statutory body as:
    ● Word ‘CBI’ is not mentioned in the DSPE act.
    ● The executive order of MHA did not mention CBI to be constituted under the DSPE Act.
    Statement 2 & 3 is correct: It is the nodal agency in India which coordinates investigation on behalf of Interpol Member countries. CBI can suo-moto take up investigation of offences only in the Union Territories. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate a crime in a State but only with the consent of the concerned State Government.
    The Supreme Court and High Courts, however, can order CBI to investigate a crime anywhere in the country without the consent of the State.
78. Question 78 of 100

    78. Question

    With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider the following statements:
    (1) It is legally binding on the member states.
    (2) India is a signatory to this convention.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Option C is correct: Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species ofWild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is an international legally binding agreement aimed at ensuring “that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival”. India is a signatory to this convention and has also ratified it in 1976. It has three appendices: Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Trade-in specimens of these species are permitted only in exceptional circumstances. Appendix II provides a lower level of protection. Appendix III contains species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling.

    Unattempted
    

    Option C is correct: Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species ofWild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is an international legally binding agreement aimed at ensuring “that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival”. India is a signatory to this convention and has also ratified it in 1976. It has three appendices: Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Trade-in specimens of these species are permitted only in exceptional circumstances. Appendix II provides a lower level of protection. Appendix III contains species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling.
79. Question 79 of 100

    79. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM):
    (1) It is a guided missile primarily designed to hit and destroy heavily armored military vehicles.
    (2) HELINA is Anti-tank Guided Missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH).
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM)
    ● About:
    ○ It is a guided missile primarily designed to hit and destroy heavily armored military vehicles. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    ○ ATGMs range in size from shoulder-launched weapons, which can be transported by a single soldier, to larger tripod-mounted weapons, which require a squad or team to transport and fire, to vehicle and aircraft-mounted missile systems.
    ● HELINA & ATGM:
    ○ HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third-generation fire and forget class Anti-tank Guided Missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH).
    Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ○ More about HELINA:
    ■ The system has all weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armour as well as explosive reactive armour.
    ■ The HELINA missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode.

    Unattempted
    

    Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM)
    ● About:
    ○ It is a guided missile primarily designed to hit and destroy heavily armored military vehicles. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    ○ ATGMs range in size from shoulder-launched weapons, which can be transported by a single soldier, to larger tripod-mounted weapons, which require a squad or team to transport and fire, to vehicle and aircraft-mounted missile systems.
    ● HELINA & ATGM:
    ○ HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third-generation fire and forget class Anti-tank Guided Missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH).
    Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ○ More about HELINA:
    ■ The system has all weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armour as well as explosive reactive armour.
    ■ The HELINA missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode.
80. Question 80 of 100

    80. Question

    Anda ,Harmika,Chatravali , and Tornas are the term associated with which of the following
    (A) Caves
    (B) Pillars
    (C) Stupas
    (D) Palaces

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Anda , Harmika , Chatravali and Tornas are the term related to stupas.

    Unattempted
    

    Anda , Harmika , Chatravali and Tornas are the term related to stupas.
81. Question 81 of 100

    81. Question

    Fill in the blanks
    After the failure of of the………………….. ,the muslim league decided on mass education for weaning its pakistan demand. It announced 16 august 1946 as “direct action day”
    (A) Cripps mission
    (B) Cabinet mission
    (C) August offer
    (D) Communal award

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Here the blank word is cabinet mission.
    On the day of direct action day, riot broke out in Kolkata lasting several days and resulting various deaths.

    Unattempted
    

    Here the blank word is cabinet mission.
    On the day of direct action day, riot broke out in Kolkata lasting several days and resulting various deaths.
82. Question 82 of 100

    82. Question

    Which of the following can be understood as overall contribution of Brahmo Samaj to socio religious movement in India
    (1) it denounced polytheism and idol worship
    (2) it discarded faith in divine avataras (incarnations)
    (3) it took a definite stand on the doctrine of karma and believed in transmigration of soul
    Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1,2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The overall contribution of Brahmo Samaj may be summed thus—
    (i) it denounced polytheism and idol worship;
    (ii) it discarded faith in divine avataras (incarnations);
    (iii) it denied that any scripture could enjoy the status of ultimate authority transcending/ human reason and conscience;
    (iv) it took no definite stand on the doctrine of karma and transmigration of soul and left it to individual Brahmos to believe either way;
    (iv) it criticised the caste system. In matters of social reform, the Samaj attacked many dogmas and superstitions. It condemned the prevailing Hindu prejudice against going abroad. It worked for a respectable status for women in society—condemned sati, worked for abolition, of purdah system, discouraged child marriages and polygamy, crusaded for widow remarriage.

    Unattempted
    

    The overall contribution of Brahmo Samaj may be summed thus—
    (i) it denounced polytheism and idol worship;
    (ii) it discarded faith in divine avataras (incarnations);
    (iii) it denied that any scripture could enjoy the status of ultimate authority transcending/ human reason and conscience;
    (iv) it took no definite stand on the doctrine of karma and transmigration of soul and left it to individual Brahmos to believe either way;
    (iv) it criticised the caste system. In matters of social reform, the Samaj attacked many dogmas and superstitions. It condemned the prevailing Hindu prejudice against going abroad. It worked for a respectable status for women in society—condemned sati, worked for abolition, of purdah system, discouraged child marriages and polygamy, crusaded for widow remarriage.
83. Question 83 of 100

    83. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Rare Earth Elements (REE):
    (1) Both light RE elements (LREE) and heavy RE elements (HREE) are abundantly found in India.
    (2) India is a part of the USA-led Minerals Security Partnership (MSP).
    (3) REEs are an essential part required for the manufacturing of batteries used in electric vehicles.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect.
    ● Some REEs are available in India — such as Lanthanum, Cerium, Neodymium,Praseodymium and Samarium, etc.
    ● India has the world’s fifth-largest reserves of rare earth elements, nearly twice as much as Australia
    ● Others such as Dysprosium, Terbium, and Europium, which are classified as HREEs, are not available in Indian deposits in extractable quantities.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    ● Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) is a US-led partnership initiative that aims to bolster critical mineral supply chains.
    ○ The new grouping is aimed at catalysing investment from governments and the private sector to develop strategic opportunities.
    ● The US and 10 partners — Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Japan, the Republic of Korea (South Korea), Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the European Commission — have come together to form the MSP. – India is not the part of MSP.
    Statement 3 is correct.
    ● Electric vehicles:
    ○ Minerals like Cobalt, Nickel, and Lithium are required for batteries used in electric vehicles.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect.
    ● Some REEs are available in India — such as Lanthanum, Cerium, Neodymium,Praseodymium and Samarium, etc.
    ● India has the world’s fifth-largest reserves of rare earth elements, nearly twice as much as Australia
    ● Others such as Dysprosium, Terbium, and Europium, which are classified as HREEs, are not available in Indian deposits in extractable quantities.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    ● Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) is a US-led partnership initiative that aims to bolster critical mineral supply chains.
    ○ The new grouping is aimed at catalysing investment from governments and the private sector to develop strategic opportunities.
    ● The US and 10 partners — Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Japan, the Republic of Korea (South Korea), Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the European Commission — have come together to form the MSP. – India is not the part of MSP.
    Statement 3 is correct.
    ● Electric vehicles:
    ○ Minerals like Cobalt, Nickel, and Lithium are required for batteries used in electric vehicles.
84. Question 84 of 100

    84. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding collegium system:
    (1) The provisions related to the collegium system are mentioned in Art 217 of the constitution.
    (2) The Supreme Court collegium is headed by the Chief Justice of India.
    (3) The government cannot seek clarification on the collegian's choice of selected judge.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 3 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Collegium System
    ● It is the system of appointment and transfer of judges that has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court, and not by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    ● The Supreme Court collegium is headed by the Chief Justice of India and comprises four other senior-most judges of the court. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ● A High Court collegium is led by its Chief Justice and four other senior-most judges of that court.
    ● Names recommended for appointment by a High Court collegium reaches the government only after approval by the CJI and the Supreme Court collegium.
    ● Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed only through the collegium system, and the government has a role only after names have been decided by the collegium.
    Role of Government in Judicial Appointment
    ● The government’s role is limited.
    ● It can only get an inquiry conducted by the Home Ministry if a lawyer is to be elevated as a judge in a High Court or the Supreme Court. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
    ● It can also raise objections and seek clarifications regarding the collegium’s choices.
    ● But if the collegium reiterates the same names, the government is bound, under Constitution Bench judgments, to appoint them as judges.

    Unattempted
    

    Collegium System
    ● It is the system of appointment and transfer of judges that has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court, and not by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    ● The Supreme Court collegium is headed by the Chief Justice of India and comprises four other senior-most judges of the court. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ● A High Court collegium is led by its Chief Justice and four other senior-most judges of that court.
    ● Names recommended for appointment by a High Court collegium reaches the government only after approval by the CJI and the Supreme Court collegium.
    ● Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed only through the collegium system, and the government has a role only after names have been decided by the collegium.
    Role of Government in Judicial Appointment
    ● The government’s role is limited.
    ● It can only get an inquiry conducted by the Home Ministry if a lawyer is to be elevated as a judge in a High Court or the Supreme Court. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
    ● It can also raise objections and seek clarifications regarding the collegium’s choices.
    ● But if the collegium reiterates the same names, the government is bound, under Constitution Bench judgments, to appoint them as judges.
85. Question 85 of 100

    85. Question

    The Cabinet Mission, 1946 provided for
    (1) creation of a sovereign Pakistan with six Muslim majority provinces.
    (2) formation of Constituent Assembly.
    (3) setting up of Boundary Commission.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 3
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    On 19 February 1946, Attlee in the House of Commons announced the decision to despatch the Cabinet mission. Cabinet Mission went out to India in March 1946 to negotiate the setting up of a national government and to set into motion a machinery for transfer of power. Proposals of the Cabinet Mission were:
    (1) The Cabinet Mission was convinced that Pakistan was not viable and that the minorities” autonomy must somehow be safeguarded within the framework of a united India. The Mission Plan conceived three sections,
    A — comprising Madras, Bombay, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Central Province and Orissa;
    B — consisting of Punjab, NWFP and Sind; and
    C — of Bengal and Assam — which would meet separately to decide on group constitutions. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    (2) There would be a common centre controlling defence, foreign affairs and communications.
    (3) It also proposed the Constituent Assembly to frame a constitution for the free and federal India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    However, setting up of Boundary Commission was proposed in the Mountbatten Plan of 1947. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    On 19 February 1946, Attlee in the House of Commons announced the decision to despatch the Cabinet mission. Cabinet Mission went out to India in March 1946 to negotiate the setting up of a national government and to set into motion a machinery for transfer of power. Proposals of the Cabinet Mission were:
    (1) The Cabinet Mission was convinced that Pakistan was not viable and that the minorities” autonomy must somehow be safeguarded within the framework of a united India. The Mission Plan conceived three sections,
    A — comprising Madras, Bombay, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Central Province and Orissa;
    B — consisting of Punjab, NWFP and Sind; and
    C — of Bengal and Assam — which would meet separately to decide on group constitutions. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    (2) There would be a common centre controlling defence, foreign affairs and communications.
    (3) It also proposed the Constituent Assembly to frame a constitution for the free and federal India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    However, setting up of Boundary Commission was proposed in the Mountbatten Plan of 1947. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
86. Question 86 of 100

    86. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) India is party to the 1951 Refugee Convention and its 1967 protocol.
    (2) In India, there is no law to deal with refugees.
    (3) The constitution of India protects the refugees’ right to life with dignity.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    India’s Refugee Policy:
    ● India’s approach towards refugees is customary and a dynamic one having regard to prevailing socio-political conditions.
    ● Though India is not a party to 1951 convention or 1967 protocol it acceded to various Human Rights treaties including the UNHCR and it is obliged to protect the rights of refugees. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    ● As per Indian law, there is no law to deal with refugees. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ○ Both illegal migrants & refugee categories of people are viewed as one and the same and are covered under the Foreigners Act, 1946.
    ● The constitution of India protects the refugees’ right to life with dignity that includes
    ○ Right against solitary confinement and custodial violence,
    ○ Right to medical assistance and shelter. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    India’s Refugee Policy:
    ● India’s approach towards refugees is customary and a dynamic one having regard to prevailing socio-political conditions.
    ● Though India is not a party to 1951 convention or 1967 protocol it acceded to various Human Rights treaties including the UNHCR and it is obliged to protect the rights of refugees. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
    ● As per Indian law, there is no law to deal with refugees. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    ○ Both illegal migrants & refugee categories of people are viewed as one and the same and are covered under the Foreigners Act, 1946.
    ● The constitution of India protects the refugees’ right to life with dignity that includes
    ○ Right against solitary confinement and custodial violence,
    ○ Right to medical assistance and shelter. Hence statement 3 is correct.
87. Question 87 of 100

    87. Question

    With respect to bhimbetka caves consider the following statements:
    (1) The caves of Bhimbetka was discovered by eminent archaeologist V.S. Wakankar.
    (2) Bhimbetka is located in uttar Pradesh.
    Select the correct codes given below:
    (A) only 1
    (B) only 2
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 and 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● The caves of Bhimbetka were discovered in 1957–58 by eminent archaeologist V.S.Wakankar and later on many more were discovered.
    ● Wakankar spent several years in surveying these inaccessible hills and jungles to study these paintings.
    ● Bhimbetka is located in Madhya Pradesh at Bhopal.

    Unattempted
    

    ● The caves of Bhimbetka were discovered in 1957–58 by eminent archaeologist V.S.Wakankar and later on many more were discovered.
    ● Wakankar spent several years in surveying these inaccessible hills and jungles to study these paintings.
    ● Bhimbetka is located in Madhya Pradesh at Bhopal.
88. Question 88 of 100

    88. Question

    Consider the following statement with regard to karla chaitya
    (1) It was smallest rocket chiatya hall that has been excavated.
    (2) It was decorated with human and animal figures.
    Select the correct codes given below:
    (A) only 1
    (B) only 2
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 and 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Karla, the biggest rock-cut chaitya hall was excavated.
    ● The cave consists of an open courtyard with two pillars, a stone screen wall to protect from rain, a veranda, a stone-screen wall as facade, an apsidal vault-roof chaitya hall with pillars, and a stupa at the back.
    ● Karla chaitya hall is decorated with human and animal figures.

    Unattempted
    

    ● Karla, the biggest rock-cut chaitya hall was excavated.
    ● The cave consists of an open courtyard with two pillars, a stone screen wall to protect from rain, a veranda, a stone-screen wall as facade, an apsidal vault-roof chaitya hall with pillars, and a stupa at the back.
    ● Karla chaitya hall is decorated with human and animal figures.
89. Question 89 of 100

    89. Question

    Consider the following statements about the Rig Vedic society.
    (1) The Aranyakas constitute the essence of Hindu philosophy.
    (2) Gold was known to the Rig Vedic people.
    (3) The Varna system established in the Rig Vedic periodstarted declining during the Later Vedic period.
    Select the correct answer using the codes below.
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 2 only
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Aranyakas are the ritual sacrifice part of the ancient Indian texts, the Vedas. For example, Katha Aranyaka describes rituals such as the Mahavrata and Pravargya.Upanishads are the essence of Hindu philosophy.
    So, 1 is incorrect.
    Gold, iron and copper were known to the Rig Vedic people. So, 2 is correct.
    The four divisions of society (Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaisyasand Sudras) or the Varna system was thoroughly established duringthe Later Vedic period. So, 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Aranyakas are the ritual sacrifice part of the ancient Indian texts, the Vedas. For example, Katha Aranyaka describes rituals such as the Mahavrata and Pravargya.Upanishads are the essence of Hindu philosophy.
    So, 1 is incorrect.
    Gold, iron and copper were known to the Rig Vedic people. So, 2 is correct.
    The four divisions of society (Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaisyasand Sudras) or the Varna system was thoroughly established duringthe Later Vedic period. So, 3 is incorrect.
90. Question 90 of 100

    90. Question

    Krishna Dev Rai was the famous ruler of vijayanagar empire, choose the correct statements regarding him:
    (1) Krishna Dev Rai expand empire to Krishna river.
    (2) Krishna Dev Rai founded nagalapuram after his mother name.
    (A) only 1
    (B) only 2
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 and 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ●Krishna Dev Rai expand empire to Krishna river
    ●Krishna Dev Rai founded nagalapuram after his mother name.

    Unattempted
    

    ●Krishna Dev Rai expand empire to Krishna river
    ●Krishna Dev Rai founded nagalapuram after his mother name.
91. Question 91 of 100

    91. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Gandhi
    (1) Mahadev Desai was Gandhi’s personal secretary.
    (2) Gandhi Ji and famous author Leo Tolstoy interacted with each other through letters.
    (3) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was assassinated in the garden of the former Birla House.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 1, 2 and 3
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mahatma Gandhi, byname of Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, (born October 2, 1869, Porbandar, India—died January 30, 1948, Delhi), Indian lawyer, politician, social activist, and writer who became the leader of the nationalist movement against the British rule of India. As such, he came to be considered the father of his country. Gandhi is internationally esteemed for his doctrine of nonviolent protest (satyagraha) to achieve political and social progress.
    Gandhi’s father was Hindu by religion and Modh Baniya by caste. Mahadev Desai was Gandhi’s personal secretary. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was assassinated in the garden of the former Birla House.
    Gandhi Ji and famous author Leo Tolstoy interacted with each other through letters.
    Gandhi Ji set up a small colony, Tolstoy Farm at an 1100 acre site, 21 miles from Johannesburg, South Africa for his colleagues in the Satyagraha struggle.

    Unattempted
    

    Mahatma Gandhi, byname of Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, (born October 2, 1869, Porbandar, India—died January 30, 1948, Delhi), Indian lawyer, politician, social activist, and writer who became the leader of the nationalist movement against the British rule of India. As such, he came to be considered the father of his country. Gandhi is internationally esteemed for his doctrine of nonviolent protest (satyagraha) to achieve political and social progress.
    Gandhi’s father was Hindu by religion and Modh Baniya by caste. Mahadev Desai was Gandhi’s personal secretary. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was assassinated in the garden of the former Birla House.
    Gandhi Ji and famous author Leo Tolstoy interacted with each other through letters.
    Gandhi Ji set up a small colony, Tolstoy Farm at an 1100 acre site, 21 miles from Johannesburg, South Africa for his colleagues in the Satyagraha struggle.
92. Question 92 of 100

    92. Question

    Consider the following statement with reference to ancient village:
    (1) Grambhojka were village headman
    (2) Vellalar where large landlords
    (3) Daskarmakara were landless labour
    select the correct statements
    (A) 1 and 3
    (B) 2 and 3
    (C) only 3
    (D) 1,2and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    ● Daskarmakar aware landless labour
    ● The village headman was known as grambhojka usually men from same family held the position for generation.
    ● Vellalars where large landlords who used to control the land.

    Unattempted
    

    ● Daskarmakar aware landless labour
    ● The village headman was known as grambhojka usually men from same family held the position for generation.
    ● Vellalars where large landlords who used to control the land.
93. Question 93 of 100

    93. Question

    Consider the following statements
    (1) Cire-Perdu is method of metal casting.
    (2) It has been known from the time of Indus valley Civilization.
    (3) This process is in use even today.
    Choose the correct option
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) All of these

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Cire-Perdu is method of metal casting.
    It has been known from the time of Indus valley Civilization.This process is in use even today.
    The other name of this technique is lost wax technique.

    Unattempted
    

    Cire-Perdu is method of metal casting.
    It has been known from the time of Indus valley Civilization.This process is in use even today.
    The other name of this technique is lost wax technique.
94. Question 94 of 100

    94. Question

    Consider the following statements
    (1) 1897 – The Natu brothers were deported without trial and Tilak and others, imprisoned on charges of sedition.
    (2) 1900 – Number of Indian members in Calcutta Corporation were reduced.
    (3) 1902— Official Secrets Act curbed freedom of press.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) 1 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    1892 — The Indian Councils Act was criticised by nationalists as it failed to satisfy them.
    1897 — The Natu brothers were deported without trial and Tilak and others, imprisoned on charges of sedition.
    1898 — Repressive laws under IPC Section 124 A were further amplified with new provisions under IPC Section 156 A.
    1899 — Number of Indian members in Calcutta Corporation were reduced.
    1904 — Official Secrets Act curbed freedom of press.
    1904 — Indian Universities Act ensured greater government control over universities, which it described as factories producing political revolutionaries.
    Also, British rule was no longer progressive socially and culturally. It was suppressing the spread of education, especially mass and technical education.

    Unattempted
    

    1892 — The Indian Councils Act was criticised by nationalists as it failed to satisfy them.
    1897 — The Natu brothers were deported without trial and Tilak and others, imprisoned on charges of sedition.
    1898 — Repressive laws under IPC Section 124 A were further amplified with new provisions under IPC Section 156 A.
    1899 — Number of Indian members in Calcutta Corporation were reduced.
    1904 — Official Secrets Act curbed freedom of press.
    1904 — Indian Universities Act ensured greater government control over universities, which it described as factories producing political revolutionaries.
    Also, British rule was no longer progressive socially and culturally. It was suppressing the spread of education, especially mass and technical education.
95. Question 95 of 100

    95. Question

    Which of the following is/are characteristics of Militant School of Thought?
    (1) Direct Political Action
    (2) Personal sacrifices required and a true nationalist to be always ready for it.
    (3) Belief in capacity of the masses to challenge the authority.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1, 2 and 3
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 only
    (D) 2 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Militant School of Thought
    The basic tenets of this school of thought were:
    ● hatred for foreign rule; since no hope could be derived from it, Indians should work out their own salvation;
    ● swaraj to be the goal of national movement;
    ● direct political action required;
    ● belief in capacity of the masses to challenge the authority;
    ● personal sacrifices required and a true nationalist to be always ready for it.

    Unattempted
    

    Militant School of Thought
    The basic tenets of this school of thought were:
    ● hatred for foreign rule; since no hope could be derived from it, Indians should work out their own salvation;
    ● swaraj to be the goal of national movement;
    ● direct political action required;
    ● belief in capacity of the masses to challenge the authority;
    ● personal sacrifices required and a true nationalist to be always ready for it.
96. Question 96 of 100

    96. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding nationalist response to British participation in the First World War
    (1) Both Moderates and Extremists supported the empire in the war as a matter of duty.
    (2) The revolutionaries decided to utilise the opportunity to wage a war on British rule and liberate the country.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The nationalist response to British participation in the First World War was three-fold:
    (i) the Moderates supported the empire in the war as a matter of duty;
    (ii) the Extremists, including Tilak (who was released in June 1914),supported the war efforts in them is taken belief that Britain would repay India’s loyalty with gratitude in the form of self-government; and
    (iii) the revolutionaries decided to utilise the opportunity to wage a war on British rule and liberate the country.
    The Indian supporters of British war efforts failed to see that the imperialist powers were fighting to safeguard their own colonies and markets.

    Unattempted
    

    The nationalist response to British participation in the First World War was three-fold:
    (i) the Moderates supported the empire in the war as a matter of duty;
    (ii) the Extremists, including Tilak (who was released in June 1914),supported the war efforts in them is taken belief that Britain would repay India’s loyalty with gratitude in the form of self-government; and
    (iii) the revolutionaries decided to utilise the opportunity to wage a war on British rule and liberate the country.
    The Indian supporters of British war efforts failed to see that the imperialist powers were fighting to safeguard their own colonies and markets.
97. Question 97 of 100

    97. Question

    Consider the following statements
    (1) The Jugantar party raised funds through a series of dacoities which came to be known as taxicab dacoities and boat dacoities.
    (2) During the First World War, the Jugantar party arranged to import German arms and ammunition through sympathisers and revolutionaries abroad.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In February 1909, the public prosecutor was shot dead in Calcutta and in February 1910, a deputy superintendent of police met the same fate while leaving the Calcutta High Court.
    In 1908, Barrah dacoity was organised by Dacca Anushilan under Pulin Das to raise funds for revolutionary activities. Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal staged a spectacular bomb attack on Viceroy Hardinge while he was making his official entry into the new capital of Delhi in a procession through Chandni Chowk in December 1912. (Hardinge was injured, but not killed.)
    The western Anushilan Samiti found a good leader in Jatindranath Mukherjee or Bagha Jatin and emerged as the Jugantar (or Yugantar). Jatin revitalised links between the central organisation in Calcutta and other places in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. During the First World War, the Jugantar party arranged to import German arms and ammunition through sympathisers and revolutionaries abroad.
    Jatin asked Rashbehari Bose to take charge of Upper India, aiming to bring about an all-India insurrection in what has come to be called the ‘German Plot’ or the ‘Zimmerman Plan’.
    The Jugantar party raised funds through a series of dacoities which came to be known as taxicab dacoities and boat dacoities, so as to work out the Indo-German conspiracy. It was planned that a guerrilla force would be organised to start an uprising in the country, with a seizure of Fort William and a mutiny by armed forces.

    Unattempted
    

    In February 1909, the public prosecutor was shot dead in Calcutta and in February 1910, a deputy superintendent of police met the same fate while leaving the Calcutta High Court.
    In 1908, Barrah dacoity was organised by Dacca Anushilan under Pulin Das to raise funds for revolutionary activities. Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal staged a spectacular bomb attack on Viceroy Hardinge while he was making his official entry into the new capital of Delhi in a procession through Chandni Chowk in December 1912. (Hardinge was injured, but not killed.)
    The western Anushilan Samiti found a good leader in Jatindranath Mukherjee or Bagha Jatin and emerged as the Jugantar (or Yugantar). Jatin revitalised links between the central organisation in Calcutta and other places in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. During the First World War, the Jugantar party arranged to import German arms and ammunition through sympathisers and revolutionaries abroad.
    Jatin asked Rashbehari Bose to take charge of Upper India, aiming to bring about an all-India insurrection in what has come to be called the ‘German Plot’ or the ‘Zimmerman Plan’.
    The Jugantar party raised funds through a series of dacoities which came to be known as taxicab dacoities and boat dacoities, so as to work out the Indo-German conspiracy. It was planned that a guerrilla force would be organised to start an uprising in the country, with a seizure of Fort William and a mutiny by armed forces.
98. Question 98 of 100

    98. Question

    Which of the following were the items of export during the Mughal periods?
    (1) Raw silk and silk fabrics
    (2) Saltpetre
    (3) Pepper
    (4) Coffee
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    India’s trade during Mughal period:
    Items of Import
    From Persian Gulf Region— pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried fruits, and rose water;
    From Arabia—coffee, gold, drugs, and honey;
    from China—tea, sugar, porcelain, and silk;
    from Tibet—gold, musk, and woollen cloth;
    from Africa—ivory and drugs;
    from Europe—woollen cloth, copper, iron, lead and paper.

    Unattempted
    

    India’s trade during Mughal period:
    Items of Import
    From Persian Gulf Region— pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried fruits, and rose water;
    From Arabia—coffee, gold, drugs, and honey;
    from China—tea, sugar, porcelain, and silk;
    from Tibet—gold, musk, and woollen cloth;
    from Africa—ivory and drugs;
    from Europe—woollen cloth, copper, iron, lead and paper.
99. Question 99 of 100

    99. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the second Anglo-Mysore War (1780-84):
    (1) It took place between 1767-69.
    (2) During the course of war, Hyder Ali was defeated by Sir Eyre Coote at Porto Novo .
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The first Anglo-Mysore War took place in 1767-69. Haider Ali emerged victorious against the British and at the end of the War a defensive treaty was concluded between Haider Ali and the British.
    Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    After eleven years, the Second Mysore War broke out and the main causes for the second Anglo-Mysore War were:
    (1) The British failed to fulfill the terms of the defensive treaty with Haider when he was attacked by the Marathas in 1771.
    (2) There was an outbreak of hostilities between the English and the French (an ally of Haider) during the American War of Independence.
    (3) The British captured Mahe, a French settlement within Haider’s territories.
    (4) Haider Ali formed a grand alliance with the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas against the British in 1779.
    The War began when the British led their forces through Haider’s territory without his permission to capture Guntur in the Northern Sarkars. Haider Ali defeated Colonel Baillie and captured Arcot in 1780. In the next year, Warren Hastings, by a clever stroke of diplomacy, divided the Confederacy. He made peace with the Nizam, won the friendship of Bhonsle and came to an understanding with the Scindia (both Marathas).
    Consequently, Haider was isolated without any alliance.
    He was defeated by Sir Eyre Coote at Porto Novo in March 1781.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    In December 1782, Haider died of cancer at the age of sixty and his death was kept secret till his son Tipu Sultan assumed power. The Second Mysore War came to an end by the Treaty of Mangalore in 1783.
    Accordingly, all conquests were mutually restored and the prisoners on both sides were liberated.

    Unattempted
    

    The first Anglo-Mysore War took place in 1767-69. Haider Ali emerged victorious against the British and at the end of the War a defensive treaty was concluded between Haider Ali and the British.
    Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    After eleven years, the Second Mysore War broke out and the main causes for the second Anglo-Mysore War were:
    (1) The British failed to fulfill the terms of the defensive treaty with Haider when he was attacked by the Marathas in 1771.
    (2) There was an outbreak of hostilities between the English and the French (an ally of Haider) during the American War of Independence.
    (3) The British captured Mahe, a French settlement within Haider’s territories.
    (4) Haider Ali formed a grand alliance with the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas against the British in 1779.
    The War began when the British led their forces through Haider’s territory without his permission to capture Guntur in the Northern Sarkars. Haider Ali defeated Colonel Baillie and captured Arcot in 1780. In the next year, Warren Hastings, by a clever stroke of diplomacy, divided the Confederacy. He made peace with the Nizam, won the friendship of Bhonsle and came to an understanding with the Scindia (both Marathas).
    Consequently, Haider was isolated without any alliance.
    He was defeated by Sir Eyre Coote at Porto Novo in March 1781.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    In December 1782, Haider died of cancer at the age of sixty and his death was kept secret till his son Tipu Sultan assumed power. The Second Mysore War came to an end by the Treaty of Mangalore in 1783.
    Accordingly, all conquests were mutually restored and the prisoners on both sides were liberated.
100. Question 100 of 100

     100. Question

     Consider the following statements regarding the Dutch rule in India:
     (1) Fort Geldaria was built by the Dutch East India Company at Porto Novo.
     (2) They were involved in slave trade.
     Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
     (A) 1 only
     (B) 2 only
     (C) Both 1 and 2
     (D) Neither 1 nor 2

     • A
     • B
     • C
     • D
     Correct
     

     Incorrect
     

     The Portuguese who established a control over Pulicat since 1502 were overthrown by the Dutch. In Pulicat, located 60 kilometers north of Chennai, the Dutch built the Castle Geldria.
     Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
     One less known fact about the Dutch is they were involved in slave trade. People from Bengal and from settlements such as Tengapattinam and Karaikal were brought to Pulicat. The Dutch employed brokers at Madras for catching and shipping slaves.
     Hence, statement 2 is correct.

     Unattempted
     

     The Portuguese who established a control over Pulicat since 1502 were overthrown by the Dutch. In Pulicat, located 60 kilometers north of Chennai, the Dutch built the Castle Geldria.
     Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
     One less known fact about the Dutch is they were involved in slave trade. People from Bengal and from settlements such as Tengapattinam and Karaikal were brought to Pulicat. The Dutch employed brokers at Madras for catching and shipping slaves.
     Hence, statement 2 is correct.