CSAT TEST 1 : PRELIMS 2024
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Question 1 of 80
1. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Higher learning centres in ancient India enjoyed no less academic, administrative and financial autonomy than the most autonomous universities in the world today. Forcing higher educational institutions to follow uniform standardised rules and regulations run counter to what the NEP provides for. Micromanagement of student admission, faculty recruitment, course contents, programme delivery and administration are a surefire recipe to take higher education farther away from excellence.
With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
I. More the autonomy more the excellence of Universities.
II. The Universities in India today are not fully autonomous.
III. Universities are not autonomous because of NEP.
Which of the above of assumption(s) is/ are valid?
(A) I and II only.
(B) II and III only.
(C) I and III only.
(D) All of the above.Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 2 of 80
2. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Unity in diversity defined England’s successful march to the winners’s podium. Inclusivity was the watchword as the players from difference backgrounds performed in sync even as some fought migration-angst while other battled inner demons.
With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
I. Other teams lost because they were not inclusive like England.
II. Unity in Diversity is mainly needed to win games.
III. Immigrants show better loyalty to their adopted nation than their own.
IV. People who can handle inner conflict well handle external pressures also well.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid?
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) II, III and IV only
(C) III and IV only
(D) IV onlyCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 3 of 80
3. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
The talismanic all-rounder and England’s Test captain does give the Moses-vibe, parting seas, ushering in miracles and making fans believe that nothing is improbable on the cricketing turf. Yet, he is equally fragile. “Look he is a champion but he is a human too, there will be anxiety,” Rashid said. There are dual threads running here that are linked to history and the mind. Leap back to the 2016 final at Eden Gardens and you will recall Ian Bishop’s iconic final remark: “Carlos Brathwaite, remember the name!” The West Indian had just clattered four sixes off Stokes in the game’s concluding over. An improbable victory was seized and Stokes sat on his haunches, hid his head within his palms and wept. Cut to a more recent vintage and we now deal with a Stokes, who sought a break due to mental exhaustion. It takes courage to admit that athletes due to ingrained machismo tend to put on an invincible facade. Even Virat Kohli admitted to faking intensity when deep inside he was dealing with the shadows of the mind. Seen through that light, it is remarkable that despite the historical baggage and depression lurking below the surface, Stokes came back for good.
Winning the 2019 World Cup for Eoin Morgan’s men followed by some terrific exploits in Tests and now to make peace with the ghosts of the past is never easy. Stokes did precisely that and as his T20 skipper Jos Buttler said, he is a “big-match player.” To open the bowling and then to shepherd the middle-order in a nervous chase can be daunting and the pressure quadruples during a summit clash.
What is the most critical message from the above passage?
(A) Every champion is human too and become anxious.
(B) Stokes was a 'big match player' in recent World Cup.
(C) It takes courage to admit like Virat Kohli that sportsmen put on an invisible facade.
(D) The mind can keep in check past memories from adding to the pressures.Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 4 of 80
4. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
India in November 2022 announced its long-term strategy to transition to a “low emissions” pathway at the United Nations Conference of Parties (COP) ongoing in Sharm el Sheikh, Egypt, which is premised on expanding its nuclear power capacity by at least three fold in the next decade, apart from becoming an international hub for producing green hydrogen and increasing the proportion of ethanol in petrol.
With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
I. With the increase in nuclear power, green hydrogen and ethanol, use of fossil fuels will become history in India.
II. Renewable energy is not part of Indian long-term strategy of low emissions.
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor IICorrect
Incorrect
Assumption I is invalid practically and passage says ethanol would be mixed with petrol. Assumption II is valid since it Renewable Energy is considered as Zero Emission producer of energy.
Unattempted
Assumption I is invalid practically and passage says ethanol would be mixed with petrol. Assumption II is valid since it Renewable Energy is considered as Zero Emission producer of energy.
-
Question 5 of 80
5. Question
An iron tank 5 m x 2 m x 14 m is always filled with water up to half of its height. What surface area of the tank which is at a higher risk of corrosion?
(A) 110 cu. m
(B) 106 cu. m
(C) 108 cu. m
(D) 112 cu. mCorrect
Incorrect
If L, B and H are the dimensions Of the water column,
then the wet area (only 5 faces) = 2(BH + LH) + LB
= 2 x [(2 x 7+5 x 7)] +(5 x 2).
The result is 108 cu. m.Unattempted
If L, B and H are the dimensions Of the water column,
then the wet area (only 5 faces) = 2(BH + LH) + LB
= 2 x [(2 x 7+5 x 7)] +(5 x 2).
The result is 108 cu. m. -
Question 6 of 80
6. Question
In an annual day function, all the events are scheduled to occur at regular intervals of half an hour. Group singing began 26 minutes ago and Classical dance is the next event scheduled at 10.30. By how many minutes group singing started late?
(A) 3 minutes
(B) 4 minutes
(C) 5 minutes
(D) 6 minutesCorrect
Incorrect
Since next event is scheduled at 10.30, Group singing must begin at 10.00
But it began only 26 mins before (at 10.04).
So the delay is 4 mins.Unattempted
Since next event is scheduled at 10.30, Group singing must begin at 10.00
But it began only 26 mins before (at 10.04).
So the delay is 4 mins. -
Question 7 of 80
7. Question
If 78*3945 is divisible by 11, where * is a digit, then * is equal to ?
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 3
(D) 5Correct
Incorrect
(7+*+9+5) – (8+3+4)
= 21 + * -15 = 6 + *
6 + * , must be 11 or multiple of 11.
6 + * = 11, * = 5Unattempted
(7+*+9+5) – (8+3+4)
= 21 + * -15 = 6 + *
6 + * , must be 11 or multiple of 11.
6 + * = 11, * = 5 -
Question 8 of 80
8. Question
In a school
of the boys are same in number as 
of the girls and 
of the girls are same in number as of the boys. The ratio of the boys to girls in that school is ?
(D) 2 : 1
(B) 5 : 2
(C) 4 : 3
(D) 3 : 2Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 9 of 80
9. Question
In an office, there are 108 tables and 132 chairs. If 1/6 of the tables and 1/4 of the chairs are broken. How many people can work in the office if each person requires one table and one chair?
(A) 86
(B) 90
(C) 92
(D) 99Correct
Incorrect
Broken Chair =
un-broken chair = 108 – 18 = 90
Broken Table =
Un-broken Table = 132-33= 99
Un-broken pair of chair and table is 90.Unattempted
Broken Chair =
un-broken chair = 108 – 18 = 90
Broken Table =
Un-broken Table = 132-33= 99
Un-broken pair of chair and table is 90. -
Question 10 of 80
10. Question
Six numbers are arranged in decreasing order. The average of the first five numbers is 30 and the average of the last five numbers is 25. The difference of the first and the last numbers is
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 5
(D) 30Correct
Incorrect
a>b>c>d>e>f
– (i)
– (ii)
(i) – (ii) =
a – f = 5×5 = 25Unattempted
a>b>c>d>e>f
– (i)
– (ii)
(i) – (ii) =
a – f = 5×5 = 25 -
Question 11 of 80
11. Question
Pointing to Kathir, Sabitha said, “His mother’s brother is the father of my son Madhan.” How is Kathir related to Sabitha’s husband’s sister’s husband’s mother?
(A) Son
(B) Grandson
(C) Nephew
(D) CousinCorrect
Incorrect
Father of Sabitha’s son — Sabitha’s husband. So, Kathir is the son of sister of Sabitha’s husband.
Sabitha’s husband’s sister’s husband’s mother is Kathir’s grandmother.
So Kathir is her GrandsonUnattempted
Father of Sabitha’s son — Sabitha’s husband. So, Kathir is the son of sister of Sabitha’s husband.
Sabitha’s husband’s sister’s husband’s mother is Kathir’s grandmother.
So Kathir is her Grandson -
Question 12 of 80
12. Question
A least number which should be added to 4196 so that it is divisible by 24, 50 and 105 is ____________
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 6Correct
Incorrect
The LCM of 24, 50 and 105 = 4200. The lcm when divided by either of these numbers leaves the remainder O.
The minimum number to be added is 4200 – 4196 = 4.Unattempted
The LCM of 24, 50 and 105 = 4200. The lcm when divided by either of these numbers leaves the remainder O.
The minimum number to be added is 4200 – 4196 = 4. -
Question 13 of 80
13. Question
Three people are running around a circular track which is 3600m. Their speed is 75m/s, 80m/s and 90 m/s respectively. After how many minutes will they all again meet at a starting point?
(A) 12 minutes
(B) 16 minutes
(C) 18 minutes
(D) 20 minutesCorrect
Incorrect
T1 = 3600/75 = 48 minutes,
T2= 3600/80 = 45 mins,
T3 = 3600/9 = 40 mins.
T=LCM (T1, T2, T3) = 720 seconds.
Convert to mins = 720/60 = 12 mins.Unattempted
T1 = 3600/75 = 48 minutes,
T2= 3600/80 = 45 mins,
T3 = 3600/9 = 40 mins.
T=LCM (T1, T2, T3) = 720 seconds.
Convert to mins = 720/60 = 12 mins. -
Question 14 of 80
14. Question
The average number of visitors to a Museum on every Monday is 96, whereas it is 156 on other days of the month. What will be the average number of visitors for the entire month if it has 30 days and begins on Monday?
(A) 144
(B) 145
(C) 146
(D) 147Correct
Incorrect
The month begins on a Monday, so there will be 5 Mondays.
The average = {(5*96) + (25*156)} / 30
146Unattempted
The month begins on a Monday, so there will be 5 Mondays.
The average = {(5*96) + (25*156)} / 30
146 -
Question 15 of 80
15. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Traders of universally-prized Pashmina shawls are complaining that “obsolete testing methods” have resulted in many of their export consignments being flagged for presence of ‘Shahtoosh’ guard hair, which is obtained from endangered Tibetan antelopes. The traders claim the use of obsolete techniques such as ‘Light Microscopy’ by the authorities has resulted in several cases of ‘false positive’ leading to their wrongful prosecution.
The following assumptions have been drawn from the above passage:
I. Traders to make a profit mix Shahtooh Hair in Pashmina shawls.
II. Prices of Pashmina Shawls vary region / nation wise based on testing methodology.
III. Investment in improved testing methods will ensure quality control and facilitate exports.
IV. Technology improves testing and reduces corruption and harassment.
V. Pashmina is from mountain goats and mixing with Shahtoosh is not feasible as it is an antelope.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid?
(A) I, II, III and IV only
(B) II, III and V only
(C) III only
(D) I onlyCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 16 of 80
16. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
It is certainly appropriate for India to point to the great and growing global difficulties because of the Russian action. Mr. Jaishankar was correct when he said in Moscow on November 8, after his meeting with his Russian counterpart Sergei Lavrov, and, in his presence that “the global economy is simply too inter-dependent for a significant conflict anywhere, not to have major consequences elsewhere. We are seeing growing concerns on energy and food security from the conflict that are coming on top of severe stresses created by two years of COVID. The Global South, especially, is feeling the pain acutely.” It would also be correct for India to keep emphasising that the way out is through dialogue and diplomacy. It would, however, be counterproductive to go beyond such exhortations. This is not only because mediation efforts, if undertaken, may fail but also because they would expose the true extent of India’s global influence and the limitations of personal chemistry between leaders in influencing events. Leaders and diplomats, like angels, must always tread lightly.
Which of the following statements best reflects the critical message of the phrase ‘Leaders and diplomats, like angels, must always tread lightly’ in the above passage?
(A) Leaders and diplomats must not add additional stresses to the growing concerns on energy and food security and the severe stresses of past two years of COVID.
(B) Due to high Indian prestige presently in global affairs, Indian diplomats should intervene more and stop the conflict smoothly like angels.
(C) Pushing the envelope too much by leaders and diplomats may backfire.
(D) As the world is too interdependent too much intervention by leaders can lead to conflicts elsewhere and hence should tread lightly.Correct
Incorrect
Beyond a limit diplomacy may fail and also show the weaknesses of India.
Unattempted
Beyond a limit diplomacy may fail and also show the weaknesses of India.
-
Question 17 of 80
17. Question
Pointing to a boy on the stage, Vidya said, “He is the only brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband.” How is the boy on the stage related to Vidya’s son’s sister?
(A) Brother
(B) Husband
(C) Cousin
(D) NephewCorrect
Incorrect
Wife of Vidya’s husband — Vidya;
Brother of daughter — Son.
So, the boy on the stage is Vidya’s son.
Vidya’s son’s sister is the sister of boy who is in the stage because Vidya’s daughter has only one brother.Unattempted
Wife of Vidya’s husband — Vidya;
Brother of daughter — Son.
So, the boy on the stage is Vidya’s son.
Vidya’s son’s sister is the sister of boy who is in the stage because Vidya’s daughter has only one brother. -
Question 18 of 80
18. Question
Which one of the following is a factor of the sum of first 25 natural numbers?
(A) 26
(B) 24
(C) 13
(D) 12Correct
Incorrect
Sum of first 25 natural numbers is
=
Unattempted
Sum of first 25 natural numbers is
= -
Question 19 of 80
19. Question
In an exam the sum of the scores of A and B is 120, that of B and C is 130 and that of C and A is 140. Then the score of C is
(A) 65
(B) 75
(C) 70
(D) 60Correct
Incorrect
A+B=120, B+C=130, C+D=140
(A+B) + (B+C) + (C+A) = 120+130+140
2(A+B+C) = 390
A+B+C= 195
C = (A+B+C) – (A+B)
= 195-120 = 75Unattempted
A+B=120, B+C=130, C+D=140
(A+B) + (B+C) + (C+A) = 120+130+140
2(A+B+C) = 390
A+B+C= 195
C = (A+B+C) – (A+B)
= 195-120 = 75 -
Question 20 of 80
20. Question
If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier than Monday, What day will it be on the 20th day of the month?
(A) Thursday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Tuesday
(D) SaturdayCorrect
Incorrect
The seventh day of the month is three days earlier than Monday, which is Friday.
So, the 21st day is also Friday and thus, the 20th day is Thursday.Unattempted
The seventh day of the month is three days earlier than Monday, which is Friday.
So, the 21st day is also Friday and thus, the 20th day is Thursday. -
Question 21 of 80
21. Question
Sameer remembers that birthday of Sam is after Jan 19 but before Jan 24. But Ganesh remembers that it is between 17 and 21st Jan. If it was Tuesday on Jan 17, what is the day in which the common probable date for Sam’s birthday fall on?
(A) Friday
(B) Saturday
(C) Thursday
(D) SundayCorrect
Incorrect
Probable dates according to Sameer are 20,21,22,23.
Probable dates according to Ganesh are 18,19,20
The common date is 20.
If 17 is Tuesday
20 will be Friday.Unattempted
Probable dates according to Sameer are 20,21,22,23.
Probable dates according to Ganesh are 18,19,20
The common date is 20.
If 17 is Tuesday
20 will be Friday. -
Question 22 of 80
22. Question
Mixture of liquid A and B with total capacity 300 liters contains 70% of liquid A. How many more liters of liquid B should be added so that the proportions of liquid A and B become equal?
(A) 119 liters
(B) 120 liters
(C) 121 liters
(D) 122 litersCorrect
Incorrect
The volume of liquid A = 70% of 300 = 210 liters.
The volume of liquid B at present is 300-210 = 90 liters.
We need to make the volume of Liquid A equal to that of the Liquid B.
=> 210 = 90 + x
x = 120 litres.Unattempted
The volume of liquid A = 70% of 300 = 210 liters.
The volume of liquid B at present is 300-210 = 90 liters.
We need to make the volume of Liquid A equal to that of the Liquid B.
=> 210 = 90 + x
x = 120 litres. -
Question 23 of 80
23. Question
When a certain amount is invested in a simple interest scheme, it increases by 40% in 4 years. What will be compound interest after 3 years on an amount of Rs. 12000, at the same interest rate, and annual compounding?
(A) Rs. 3972
(B) Rs. 3852
(C) Rs. 3162
(D) Rs. 3632Correct
Incorrect
Simple interest on Rs. 100 in 4 years is Rs. 40, so rate is 40/4 = 10%.
Compound interest for 3 years = 12000* (1+ 10/100)3
12000*(11/10)3
12000 * 11 * 11 * 11/1000
= Rs. 15972
Interest = A- 15972 – 12000 = Rs. 3972Unattempted
Simple interest on Rs. 100 in 4 years is Rs. 40, so rate is 40/4 = 10%.
Compound interest for 3 years = 12000* (1+ 10/100)3
12000*(11/10)3
12000 * 11 * 11 * 11/1000
= Rs. 15972
Interest = A- 15972 – 12000 = Rs. 3972 -
Question 24 of 80
24. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Regions with the most blocks with critical groundwater levels are in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh, where, despite replenishable systems, indiscriminate groundwater withdrawal has depressed the water table. Other endangered blocks are in Rajasthan and Gujarat, where due to an arid climate, groundwater recharge itself is limited, and finally, parts of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, where due to inherent characteristics of crystalline water-storing aquifers, groundwater availability is low. That much more needs to be done to conserve groundwater is a foregone conclusion. There is no central law governing the use of groundwater and various States have their own laws on regulating its extraction that are deployed in a perfunctory manner. A draft National Water Policy has recommended a shift in usage from water-guzzling crops and prioritising recycled over freshwater for industrial purposes. Water ought not to be considered a free, private resource but one whose costs must be measured and borne equitably. While water remains a politically contentious subject in India, the climate crisis should inspire consensus across the political spectrum on disincentivising wasteful consumption of this precious resource.
Which of the following statements best reflects the critical message of the above passage?
(A) Need of a central law to regulate extraction and replenishment of water is imperative.
(B) Each State based on terrain peculiarities should regulate indiscriminate groundwater withdrawal and take measures to conserve and recharge groundwater.
(C) Preciousness of water and its egalitarian belonging needs to be highlighted by all including leaders of all hues and wastage penalised.
(D) Water usage should not be free but charged.Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 25 of 80
25. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
The release of the six remaining convicts in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case marks the end of a tragic episode that began with India’s disastrous involvement in Sri Lanka’s internal strife in the 1980s. The assassination in May 1991, ordered by the LTTE leadership and carried out by a suicide bomber, caused revulsion. However, over time, the prolonged incarceration of the seven persons ultimately found guilty evoked some public sympathy. Political parties in Tamil Nadu campaigned for the release of the four convicts on death row and three serving life terms. The Supreme Court commuted the death sentences to life in 2014. A resolution adopted by the Tamil Nadu Cabinet in 2018 for releasing them under Article 161 of the Constitution was not acted upon by the then Governor for a long time. Ultimately, he forwarded it to the Centre for its opinion. The Court, earlier this year, found no constitutional basis for the Governor’s action and invoked its extraordinary powers to order the release of A.G. Perarivalan. The same benefit has now been extended to others. While their release is no occasion to celebrate, contrary to what sections of the media and the political class seem to believe, it is not one for lamentation either. The plot’s masterminds are dead and only mid-level operatives and some local collaborators were apprehended. A sense that 31 years of imprisonment is punishment enough does indeed prevail.
Which of the following statements best gives the reason for the release of the six remaining convicts?
(A) The convicts were in jail for 31 years which is punishment enough.
(B) Politcal parties in Tamil Nadu campaigned for the release of the convicts.
(C) A resolution was adopted by the Tamil Nadu Cabinet in 2018 for releasing them.
(D) The precedence of release of A.G. Perarivalan using Courts extraordinary powers.Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 26 of 80
26. Question
The difference between the greatest and the least four-digit numbers that begin with 3 and ends with 5 is ?
(A) 999
(B) 900
(C) 990
(D) 909Correct
Incorrect
3995 – 3005 = 990
Unattempted
3995 – 3005 = 990
-
Question 27 of 80
27. Question
I have x marbles. My elder brother has 3 more than mine, while my younger brother has 3 less than mine. If the total number of marbles is 15, then the number of marbles that I have is ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8Correct
Incorrect
x + (x+3) + (x-3) = 15
3 x = 15 ,
x= 5Unattempted
x + (x+3) + (x-3) = 15
3 x = 15 ,
x= 5 -
Question 28 of 80
28. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
The Delhi High Court has remarked that the intention of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was to protect children below the age of 18 from sexual exploitation and that it was never meant to criminalise consensual romantic relationships between young adults.
With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
I. POSCO will stop sexual exploitation of children.
II. Children below age of 18 having consensual sex can be charged under POSCO.
III. Using POSCO against romantic relationships is absurd and can be misused.
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid?
(A) All of the above.
(B) None of the above.
(C) II and III only.
(D) III only.Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 29 of 80
29. Question
Arrange the following fractions in decreasing order :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct
Incorrect
Convert fraction to decimal
Unattempted
Convert fraction to decimal
-
Question 30 of 80
30. Question
The digit in unit’s place of the following number is ?
(1570)2 + (1571)2 + (1572)2 + (1573)2(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3Correct
Incorrect
Unit digit in (1570)2= 0
Unit digit in (1571)2= 12 =1
Unit digit in (1572)2= 22 =4
Unit digit in (1573)2= 32 =9
0+1+4+9 =14
Unit digit is 4Unattempted
Unit digit in (1570)2= 0
Unit digit in (1571)2= 12 =1
Unit digit in (1572)2= 22 =4
Unit digit in (1573)2= 32 =9
0+1+4+9 =14
Unit digit is 4 -
Question 31 of 80
31. Question
Which is the largest of the following fractions?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct
Incorrect
Covert all into decimal 2/3 = 0.66,
3/5 = 0.6,
8/11 = 0.73,
11/17 = 0.65Unattempted
Covert all into decimal 2/3 = 0.66,
3/5 = 0.6,
8/11 = 0.73,
11/17 = 0.65 -
Question 32 of 80
32. Question
The largest among the following numbers is ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct
Incorrect
0.01< 0.02 < 0.11< 0.12Unattempted
0.01< 0.02 < 0.11< 0.12 -
Question 33 of 80
33. Question
Which of the following number is the greatest of all ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 34 of 80
34. Question
Directions : Examine the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
The age (in years) of each of seven sisters – Deepa, Gaya, Mamta, Neeta, Piya, Rita and Sarita is different and is among 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10. Also,
Rita is one year younger than Sarita.
Gaya is three years older than Deepa.
Piya is neither the youngest nor the eldest and Neeta is younger than Deepa.
Mamta has as many sisters younger to her as elder to her.
Who is the youngest sister?
(A) Neeta
(B) Rita
(C) Gaya
(D) DeepaCorrect
Incorrect
From the given information seven sisters can be arranged according to their ages are shown below :
10–Sarita
9–Rita
8–Gaya
7–Mamta
6–Piya
5–Deepa
4– Neeta
Neeta is the youngest of all sisters.Unattempted
From the given information seven sisters can be arranged according to their ages are shown below :
10–Sarita
9–Rita
8–Gaya
7–Mamta
6–Piya
5–Deepa
4– Neeta
Neeta is the youngest of all sisters. -
Question 35 of 80
35. Question
Select the missing number from the options given below :
(A) 1012
(B) 48
(C) 25
(D) 36Correct
Incorrect
2 × 21 × 26 = 1092
1 × 22 × 46 = 1012
Similarly, 2 × ? × 20 = 1000
? = 1000/40 = 25Unattempted
2 × 21 × 26 = 1092
1 × 22 × 46 = 1012
Similarly, 2 × ? × 20 = 1000
? = 1000/40 = 25 -
Question 36 of 80
36. Question
How many dots are there on the face opposite to the face with two dots?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6Correct
Incorrect
From dices 1 & 2
Side having 5 dots is common
Writing anticlockwise,154871042655
5 3 2
5 4 6
Dice 6 is opposite to Dice 2.Unattempted
From dices 1 & 2
Side having 5 dots is common
Writing anticlockwise,154871042655
5 3 2
5 4 6
Dice 6 is opposite to Dice 2. -
Question 37 of 80
37. Question
One’s digit of the number (22)23 is ?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 2Correct
Incorrect
21=2, 22=4, 23=8, 24=16, 25=32, 26=64 ……
After index 4, the unit digit of 2 is repeated.
Divide index 23 by 4 and remainder is 3.
Therefore, unit digit in (22)23 = unit digit in 223 = unit digit in 23 = 8.Unattempted
21=2, 22=4, 23=8, 24=16, 25=32, 26=64 ……
After index 4, the unit digit of 2 is repeated.
Divide index 23 by 4 and remainder is 3.
Therefore, unit digit in (22)23 = unit digit in 223 = unit digit in 23 = 8. -
Question 38 of 80
38. Question
Two trains 121 m and 99 m in length respectively are running in opposite directions, one at the rate of 40 kmph and the other at the rate of 32 kmph. How long will they take to be completely clear of each other from the moment they meet?
(A) 110 sec
(B) 99 sec
(C) 88 sec
(D) 11 secCorrect
Incorrect
Time taken to cover=(121+99)=220
at the rate of (32 + 40), i.e. 72 km/h
= 220/(72×5/18) sec =11 sec.Unattempted
Time taken to cover=(121+99)=220
at the rate of (32 + 40), i.e. 72 km/h
= 220/(72×5/18) sec =11 sec. -
Question 39 of 80
39. Question
Raju, walking at the rate of 6 kmph, covers a certain distance in three hours. In how much time will Raju cover this distance running at the speed of 18 kmph?
(A) 1 hour
(B) 3 hours
(C) 60 hours
(D) 22 hoursCorrect
Incorrect
Let the distance be X.
=>Distance = Speed x Time taken = 6 x 3 = 18 km.
Now, speed = 18 km/hr.
=>Time taken = Distance/Speed
= 18/ 18 = 1 hour.Unattempted
Let the distance be X.
=>Distance = Speed x Time taken = 6 x 3 = 18 km.
Now, speed = 18 km/hr.
=>Time taken = Distance/Speed
= 18/ 18 = 1 hour. -
Question 40 of 80
40. Question
Two cyclists start together to travel to a certain destination, one at the rate of 4 km/h and the other at the rate of 5 km/h. Find the distance if the former arrives half an hour after the latter.
(A) 2 km
(B) 10m
(C) 10000m
(D) 1 kmCorrect
Incorrect
Let the distance be X km. Now Time= distance/ speed.
=>Time for the first rider = X/14.
Similarly, time for the second cyclist = X/5.
Given that: X/14 – X/5 =1/2
=> X= 10 km = 10000 mUnattempted
Let the distance be X km. Now Time= distance/ speed.
=>Time for the first rider = X/14.
Similarly, time for the second cyclist = X/5.
Given that: X/14 – X/5 =1/2
=> X= 10 km = 10000 m -
Question 41 of 80
41. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Chief Justice of India, Chandrachud sets great store in a judge’s ability to foresee democratic erosion. He says the subversion of constitutional democracy does not happen with sweeping changes but through very small, incremental changes, which if left unguarded open up the danger of eventually and cumulatively affecting the democratic polity. “No case is too small… even if the case deals with the free speech of one individual”. A judge, he said, should read a case not just through the eyes or the mind, but also through intuition and go beyond the legalese to spot the human problem lying hidden somewhere among the pages.
It is this ability to travel beyond the strict confines of law that led to Justice Chandrachud's judgment recognising privacy as a fundamental right and his historic dissent of the Aadhaar policy. While upholding the rights of activists in the Bhima Koregaon case, the Justice said persecution was not the answer to dissent. “Voices in opposition cannot be muzzled”.
The following assumptions have been drawn from the above passage:
I. Every single case needs to be given due importance by Judges.
II. Silencing dissent leads to subversion of constitutional democracy.
III. Judiciary is the bulwark against gradual erosion of democratic norms.
IV. Activists work against elected governments and hence have to be strongly dealt with.
V. Judges should go blindly as per the law and not subjective.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid:
(A) All of the above
(B) I, II, III and IV only
(C) I, II, III only
(D) I and II onlyCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 42 of 80
42. Question
5349 is added to 3957. Then 7062 is subtracted from the sum. The result is not divisible by ?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 11Correct
Incorrect
(5349 + 3957) −7062 = 2244
It is devisable by 3, 4, 11, but not 7Unattempted
(5349 + 3957) −7062 = 2244
It is devisable by 3, 4, 11, but not 7 -
Question 43 of 80
43. Question
Simplify 3 15 * 2 5 5 3
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 12Correct
Incorrect
3 15 * 2 5 5 3 = 3 * 2/5 15*5/3
= 6/5 *5*5
= 6/5 * 5 = 6Unattempted
3 15 * 2 5 5 3 = 3 * 2/5 15*5/3
= 6/5 *5*5
= 6/5 * 5 = 6 -
Question 44 of 80
44. Question
On dividing a number by 9, the remainder is 8. The quotient so obtained when divided by 11, leaves the remainder 9. Now the quotient so obtained when divided by 13, leaves the remainder 8. Find the remainder when then given number is divided by 1287.
(A) 879
(B) 881
(C) 883
(D) 885Correct
Incorrect
Suppose the given number is N. We have N = 9Q1 + 8,
Q1 = 11Q2 + 8,
Q2 = 13Q3 + 8.
Here Q1, Q2 and Q3 are first, second and 3rd quotient.
Now N = 9 [11 (13Q3 + 8) + 9] + 8 = 1287Q3 + 881.Unattempted
Suppose the given number is N. We have N = 9Q1 + 8,
Q1 = 11Q2 + 8,
Q2 = 13Q3 + 8.
Here Q1, Q2 and Q3 are first, second and 3rd quotient.
Now N = 9 [11 (13Q3 + 8) + 9] + 8 = 1287Q3 + 881. -
Question 45 of 80
45. Question
When n is divided by 6, the remainder is 4. When 2n is divided by 6, the remainder is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4Correct
Incorrect
Let quotient be q then
n = 6q + 4
2n = 12 q + 8
2n = 6(2q+1) + 2
Here remainder is 2.Unattempted
Let quotient be q then
n = 6q + 4
2n = 12 q + 8
2n = 6(2q+1) + 2
Here remainder is 2. -
Question 46 of 80
46. Question
A number when divided by 136 leaves remainder 36. If the same number is divided by 17, then the remainder will be ?
(A) 9
(B) 7
(C) 3
(D) 2Correct
Incorrect
if the first divisor is exactly divisible by second divisor then Required remainder
= Remainder obtained on dividing first remainder by second divisor.
136 is exactly devisable by 17.
Therefore, Remainder on dividing 36 by 17 = 2Unattempted
if the first divisor is exactly divisible by second divisor then Required remainder
= Remainder obtained on dividing first remainder by second divisor.
136 is exactly devisable by 17.
Therefore, Remainder on dividing 36 by 17 = 2 -
Question 47 of 80
47. Question
A number, when divided by 119, leaves a remainder of 19. If it is divided by 17, it will leave a remainder of ?
(A) 19
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 2Correct
Incorrect
Number = 119q + 19
=17x7xq + 17×1 + 2
= 17(7q+1) + 2
Hence, the same number divided by 17 will leave a remainder of 2.Unattempted
Number = 119q + 19
=17x7xq + 17×1 + 2
= 17(7q+1) + 2
Hence, the same number divided by 17 will leave a remainder of 2. -
Question 48 of 80
48. Question
If 'we are reaching Delhi' means 'kiz kip kil kih', 'Delhi is really beautiful' means 'kih kid kim kin', 'is akash reaching there' means 'kil kit kic kid' and 'we really need akash' means 'kim kiw kit kip', then how would you code 'akash is reaching delhi'?
(A) kic kim kip kih
(B) kid kin kip kih
(C) kit kid kil kih
(D) kip kim kil kihCorrect
Incorrect
code for 'Akash' is ‘kit'
code for ‘Is’ is ‘kid’
code for ‘Reaching’ is ‘kil’
code for ‘Delhi’ is kihUnattempted
code for 'Akash' is ‘kit'
code for ‘Is’ is ‘kid’
code for ‘Reaching’ is ‘kil’
code for ‘Delhi’ is kih -
Question 49 of 80
49. Question
In a certain code 'BEAD' is written as '7#94' and 'GREY' is written as '$%#8'. How is 'READY' written in that code?
(A) $%497.
(B) %#948.
(C) 794$%#.
(D) 847%$#.Correct
Incorrect
Codes: R–>%,
E–>#,
A–>9,
D–>4 and
Y–>8.
So, READY would be coded as %#948.Unattempted
Codes: R–>%,
E–>#,
A–>9,
D–>4 and
Y–>8.
So, READY would be coded as %#948. -
Question 50 of 80
50. Question
The Following series has at least two different characters. Find the missing number in the series.
x_yzzxx_z_xx_zz
(A) xyzy
(B) zzxy
(C) yxzx
(D) xyzxCorrect
Incorrect
The series is xxyzz —– xxyzz —– xxyzz.
Unattempted
The series is xxyzz —– xxyzz —– xxyzz.
-
Question 51 of 80
51. Question
is divisible by ?
(A) 11
(B) 16
(C) 25
(D) 30Correct
Incorrect
The number is multiple of prime number 2, 3 and 5, hence divisible by 2x3x5 = 30.Unattempted
The number is multiple of prime number 2, 3 and 5, hence divisible by 2x3x5 = 30. -
Question 52 of 80
52. Question
The sum of first 60 numbers from 1 to 60 is divisible by ?
(A) 13
(B) 59
(C) 60
(D) 61Correct
Incorrect
Sum of 1+2+3+4 …… +60
=
1830 is divisible by 61.Unattempted
Sum of 1+2+3+4 …… +60
=
1830 is divisible by 61. -
Question 53 of 80
53. Question
A student was asked to multiply a given number by 8/17. Instead, he divided the number by 8/17. His answer was 225 more than the correct answer. The given number was ?
(A) 64
(B) 289
(C) 136
(D) 225Correct
Incorrect
n= 136Unattempted
n= 136 -
Question 54 of 80
54. Question
In 24 hours, a boat can travel 288 km downstream. What is the speed of the boat in still water if it takes 72 hours to cover double distance in upstream?
(A) 10 kmph
(B) 12 kmph
(C) 14 kmph
(D) 16 kmphCorrect
Incorrect
The downstream speed 288/24 = 12 km/h,
and the upstream speed = 576/72 = 8 km/h
B = ½*(D+U)
B = 12+8/2 = 10 km/hUnattempted
The downstream speed 288/24 = 12 km/h,
and the upstream speed = 576/72 = 8 km/h
B = ½*(D+U)
B = 12+8/2 = 10 km/h -
Question 55 of 80
55. Question
The length of a road is one Kilometer. The number of plants required for plantation at a gap of 20 Meters in both sides of the road is ?
(A) 102
(B) 100
(C) 51
(D) 50Correct
Incorrect
Road length = 1000 Meters
One side at the distance of 20 Meters =
Both side of Road = 51 x2 = 102Unattempted
Road length = 1000 Meters
One side at the distance of 20 Meters =
Both side of Road = 51 x2 = 102 -
Question 56 of 80
56. Question
A man reaches his office 30 min late, if he walks from his home at 3 km per hour and reaches 40 min early if he walks at 4 km per hour. How far is his office from his house?
(A) 7km
(B) 14 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 3 kmCorrect
Incorrect
Time gained = 30 + 40 = 70 min =70/60 hrs.
Let the distance be x km.
Therefore, x/3 – x/4=70×1/60
⇒x=14 kmUnattempted
Time gained = 30 + 40 = 70 min =70/60 hrs.
Let the distance be x km.
Therefore, x/3 – x/4=70×1/60
⇒x=14 km -
Question 57 of 80
57. Question
Speeds of Arjun and Sarath are in the ratio 7 : 2.
What is the speed of Arjun if Sarath can cover a distance of 6 Km in 1 hour?
(A) 20 kmph
(B) 21 kmph
(C) 22 kmph
(D) 23 kmphCorrect
Incorrect
The speed of Sarath = 6/1 = 6 km/h
Ratio = 7 : 2.
Then 7/2 = x/6
x = 21 kmphUnattempted
The speed of Sarath = 6/1 = 6 km/h
Ratio = 7 : 2.
Then 7/2 = x/6
x = 21 kmph -
Question 58 of 80
58. Question
How many squares are there in the figure given below?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4Correct
Incorrect
Total number of squares : 12 + 22 = 5
When rows and columns are the same.
So, count the number of columns or row i.e 2
= 12 + 22
= 1 + 4 = 5Unattempted
Total number of squares : 12 + 22 = 5
When rows and columns are the same.
So, count the number of columns or row i.e 2
= 12 + 22
= 1 + 4 = 5 -
Question 59 of 80
59. Question
What is the number of straight lines in the following figure?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 17Correct
Incorrect
label the figure as shown below:
clearly in this figure:
There are 3 horizontal lines namely AG, BF, and CE.
There are 3 vertical lines namely AC, HD, and GE.
There are 6 slanting lines namely AD, AE, GC, GD, CD, AND CE.
Thus, There are 3+3+6=12 straight lines in all.Unattempted
label the figure as shown below:
clearly in this figure:
There are 3 horizontal lines namely AG, BF, and CE.
There are 3 vertical lines namely AC, HD, and GE.
There are 6 slanting lines namely AD, AE, GC, GD, CD, AND CE.
Thus, There are 3+3+6=12 straight lines in all. -
Question 60 of 80
60. Question
Two bangles of radii 19 and 11 cm are placed as concentric circles. What is the area of the portion that is inside the outer bangle but outside the inner bangle?
(A) 234π
(B) 236π
(C) 240π
(D) 242πCorrect
Incorrect
The required area is the difference in area of two bangles
= π (192-112)
= π (361 – 121) = 240 πUnattempted
The required area is the difference in area of two bangles
= π (192-112)
= π (361 – 121) = 240 π -
Question 61 of 80
61. Question
A person gives 1/4 of his property to his daughter, 1/2 to his sons and 1/5 for charity. How much has he given away?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 62 of 80
62. Question
The decimal fraction
is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 63 of 80
63. Question
A tree increases annually by 1/8th of its height. By how much will it increase after 2 years, if it stands 64 cm high today?
(A) 72 cm
(B) 74 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 81 cmCorrect
Incorrect
Height after one year 64 + 1/8 of 64 = 72
Height after second year 72+1/8 of 72 = 81Unattempted
Height after one year 64 + 1/8 of 64 = 72
Height after second year 72+1/8 of 72 = 81 -
Question 64 of 80
64. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Energy is at the heart of the climate challenge – and key to the solution..
Which of the following statements best explains the above statement?
(A) Fossil fuels, such as coal, oil and gas, are by far the largest contributor to global climate change, accounting for over 75 percent of global greenhouse gas emissions.
(B) Need to end reliance on fossil fuels and invest in alternative sources of energy that are clean, accessible, affordable, sustainable, and reliable.
(C) A large chunk of the greenhouse gases that blanket the Earth and trap the sun’s heat are generated through energy production, by burning fossil fuels to generate electricity and heat.
(D) Energy consumption is the main cause of climate challenge and within the ambit of how energy is produced and utilized lies the answer.Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 65 of 80
65. Question
Directions for the following item:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
With the 27th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP) in Sharm El Sheikh nearing its final stages and efforts being ramped up to arrive at a conclusive agreement, a consortium of countries that includes India has jointly stated that carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst parties, must be avoided. The European Union has proposed a policy — called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism — to tax products such as cement and steel, that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026.
BASIC, a group constituting Brazil, India, South Africa and China, and therefore large economies that are significantly dependent on coal, has for several years voiced common concerns and reiterated their right to use fossil fuel in the interim during their countries’ eventual transformation to clean energy sources “Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices, such as carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst Parties [signatory countries to the United Nations climate agreements], must be avoided. BASIC countries call for a united solidarity response by developing countries to any unfair shifting of responsibilities from developed to developing countries.”
Their joint statement on Wednesday expressed “grave concern” that developed countries were still not showing leadership or responding with a matching progression of effort. Developed countries had “backtracked on finance and mitigation commitments and pledges” and there was a “significant increase” in the consumption and production of fossil fuels in the past year by developed countries, their statement underlined, even as they continue to press developing countries to move away from the same resources. “Such double standards are incompatible with climate equity and justice.”
Which of the statements below best reflects the central thrust of the above passage ?
(A) Carbon Border Tax is a discriminatory practice according to BASIC.
(B) BASIC objections to the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism alongside other grievances against developed countries.
(C) Developed Countries double standards are incompatible with climate equity and justice is the conclusion of BASIC.
(D) Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices could result in market distortion and aggravate the climate crisis.Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 66 of 80
66. Question
Directions for the following item:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
With the 27th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP) in Sharm El Sheikh nearing its final stages and efforts being ramped up to arrive at a conclusive agreement, a consortium of countries that includes India has jointly stated that carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst parties, must be avoided. The European Union has proposed a policy — called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism — to tax products such as cement and steel, that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026.
BASIC, a group constituting Brazil, India, South Africa and China, and therefore large economies that are significantly dependent on coal, has for several years voiced common concerns and reiterated their right to use fossil fuel in the interim during their countries’ eventual transformation to clean energy sources “Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices, such as carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst Parties [signatory countries to the United Nations climate agreements], must be avoided. BASIC countries call for a united solidarity response by developing countries to any unfair shifting of responsibilities from developed to developing countries.”
With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made regarding Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism:
I. Aim to distort markets and build trade tariffs.
II. Would reduce trading of extremely carbon intensive products.
III. Reduce fossil fuel consumption around the world.
IV. Attempt to put the burden on the developing nations to reduce carbon emissions.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid:
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) I, II and III only
(C) I, II and IV only
(D) II and IV onlyCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 67 of 80
67. Question
Directions for the following item:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
With the 27th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP) in Sharm El Sheikh nearing its final stages and efforts being ramped up to arrive at a conclusive agreement, a consortium of countries that includes India has jointly stated that carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst parties, must be avoided. The European Union has proposed a policy — called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism — to tax products such as cement and steel, that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026.
BASIC, a group constituting Brazil, India, South Africa and China, and therefore large economies that are significantly dependent on coal, has for several years voiced common concerns and reiterated their right to use fossil fuel in the interim during their countries’ eventual transformation to clean energy sources “Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices, such as carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst Parties [signatory countries to the United Nations climate agreements], must be avoided. BASIC countries call for a united solidarity response by developing countries to any unfair shifting of responsibilities from developed to developing countries.”
According to the above passage what is not a “grave concern” of BASIC:
(A) Continued use of fossil fuel across the board.
(B) Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices.
(C) Leadership by developed countries in practice.
(D) Backtracking on commitments.Correct
Incorrect
Continued use of fossil fuel is not a grave concern for BASIC according to the passage.
Unattempted
Continued use of fossil fuel is not a grave concern for BASIC according to the passage.
-
Question 68 of 80
68. Question
Directions : Study the following line graph carefully and answer the question given below.
0268605
00 Income (in Rs. lakhs) Year
The percentage increase or decrease in the income of company C₂ is highest in which of the following years?
(A) 2013
(B) 2012
(C) 2011
(D) 2009Correct
Incorrect
The percentage of increase/decrease in the income of company C2 in :
43281733655
00Unattempted
The percentage of increase/decrease in the income of company C2 in :
4328173365500 -
Question 69 of 80
69. Question
6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B is 7: 6 and A’s age after 6 years is 40 years. Present age of C is 10 years more than one – sixth of B’s present age. Find the ratio of present age of B and C?
(A) 3:2
(B) 2:1
(C) 4:5
(D) 1:3Correct
Incorrect
6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B = 7: 6 (7x, 6x)
Present ages of A and P = 7x + 6, 6x + 6
According to the question, A‘s age after 6 years is 40
7x + 6 + 6 = 40
7x = 28
x = 4
A’s present age = 7 x 4 + 6 = 34 years
B’s present age = 6 x 4 + 6 = 30 years
Present age of C = (1/6)*B’s present age + 10
C’s present age = (1/6)*30 + 10 = 15
Required ratio = 30: 15 = 2 : 1Unattempted
6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B = 7: 6 (7x, 6x)
Present ages of A and P = 7x + 6, 6x + 6
According to the question, A‘s age after 6 years is 40
7x + 6 + 6 = 40
7x = 28
x = 4
A’s present age = 7 x 4 + 6 = 34 years
B’s present age = 6 x 4 + 6 = 30 years
Present age of C = (1/6)*B’s present age + 10
C’s present age = (1/6)*30 + 10 = 15
Required ratio = 30: 15 = 2 : 1 -
Question 70 of 80
70. Question
Directions : Examine the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
P, Q, R, S, T and U are members of a family. There are two married couples. Q is an engineer and the father of T. U is the grandfather of R and is a lawyer. S is the grandmother of T and is a housewife. There is one engineer, one lawyer, one teacher, one housewife and two students in the family.
Which of the following are two married couples?
(A) US and QP
(B) US and QT
(C) US and RP
(D) TS and RUCorrect
Incorrect
US and QP are two married couples.
Unattempted
US and QP are two married couples.
-
Question 71 of 80
71. Question
Directions : Examine the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
P, Q, R, S, T and U are members of a family. There are two married couples. Q is an engineer and the father of T. U is the grandfather of R and is a lawyer. S is the grandmother of T and is a housewife. There is one engineer, one lawyer, one teacher, one housewife and two students in the family.
Which of the following is definitely a group of male members?
(A) Q , U and T
(B) U and T
(C) Q, U and P
(D) Q and UCorrect
Incorrect
Q and U are definitely males.
Unattempted
Q and U are definitely males.
-
Question 72 of 80
72. Question
In an organization 60 percent of the total number of employees earns more than Rs. 1 lakh per month. If 40 percent of the employees are men and 75% of the women earn more than Rs. 1 lakh in a month. What is the percentage of men who earns less than 1 lakh per month?
(A) 6412 %
(B) 6212%
(C) 6634%
(D) 6823%Correct
Incorrect
Let the total employees be 100.
Males = 40 and Females = 60
No. of women earning more than 1 lakh = 75% of 60 = 45.
No. of men earning more than 1 lakh = 60 – 45 = 15.
No. of men earning less than 1 lakh = 40 – 15 = 25.
Percentage of men who earns less than 1 lakh = 58*100 = 125/2 = 6212%Unattempted
Let the total employees be 100.
Males = 40 and Females = 60
No. of women earning more than 1 lakh = 75% of 60 = 45.
No. of men earning more than 1 lakh = 60 – 45 = 15.
No. of men earning less than 1 lakh = 40 – 15 = 25.
Percentage of men who earns less than 1 lakh = 58*100 = 125/2 = 6212% -
Question 73 of 80
73. Question
Directions for Question :
Study the following information given below to answer these questions.
There are 7 movies M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6, and M7 is released in 7 different month January, February, March, April, June, August, and October. M1 is released in the month having less than 31 days but not in April. There are 3 movies released between M1 and M3. M2 is released in one of the months after M4. No movie is released between M2 and M4. M5 is released in one of the months before M7. M5 is not released in a month having maximum number of days. No Movie is released between M7 and M5.
Which movie is released in the month of March?
(A) M6
(B) M7
(C) M1
(D) M3Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 74 of 80
74. Question
Directions for Question :
Study the following information given below to answer these questions.
There are 7 movies M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6, and M7 is released in 7 different month January, February, March, April, June, August, and October. M1 is released in the month having less than 31 days but not in April. There are 3 movies released between M1 and M3. M2 is released in one of the months after M4. No movie is released between M2 and M4. M5 is released in one of the months before M7. M5 is not released in a month having maximum number of days. No Movie is released between M7 and M5.
Which movie among the following is released between the months of June and October?
(A) M4
(B) M6
(C) M7
(D) M2Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 75 of 80
75. Question
Directions for Question :
Study the following information given below to answer these questions.
There are 7 movies M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6, and M7 is released in 7 different month January, February, March, April, June, August, and October. M1 is released in the month having less than 31 days but not in April. There are 3 movies released between M1 and M3. M2 is released in one of the months after M4. No movie is released between M2 and M4. M5 is released in one of the months before M7. M5 is not released in a month having maximum number of days. No Movie is released between M7 and M5.
Which of the following statements is true?
(A) M1 is released in the month of October.
(B) M3 is released between March and June.
(C) M6 is released in a month after M2
(D) None is trueCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted
-
Question 76 of 80
76. Question
In a group of Lions and Crows the number of legs is 22 more than 2 times the number of heads. What is the number of Lions?
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 13
(D) 15Correct
Incorrect
No. of Lions = x. No. of Crows = y.
Total number of legs = 4x + 2y.
The total number of heads = x + y.
Given, 4x + 2y = 2(x + y) + 22.
Solving for x, we get x = 11.Unattempted
No. of Lions = x. No. of Crows = y.
Total number of legs = 4x + 2y.
The total number of heads = x + y.
Given, 4x + 2y = 2(x + y) + 22.
Solving for x, we get x = 11. -
Question 77 of 80
77. Question
In a competitive exam, a candidate gets a score of 131 but attempts only 129 questions. If 4 marks are awarded for a correct answer, and 1 marks is deducted for a wrong answer, how many questions did he attempt wrongly?
(A) 75
(B) 76
(C) 77
(D) 78Correct
Incorrect
Let No. of wrong answers = n.
No. of correct questions = 129 – n.
[129 – n] x 4 – n(1) = 131.
516 – 4n – n = 131.
n = 77.Unattempted
Let No. of wrong answers = n.
No. of correct questions = 129 – n.
[129 – n] x 4 – n(1) = 131.
516 – 4n – n = 131.
n = 77. -
Question 78 of 80
78. Question
Rishi saves Rs.1250 after spending 55%,15% and 5% of his monthly income on household items, clothes and medicines respectively. What is Rishi’s Monthly income?
(A) Rs.5000
(B) Rs.4500
(C) Rs.5250
(D) Rs.6450Correct
Incorrect
Let the monthly income of Rishi be Rs. x.
Total expenditure = (55 + 15 + 5)% of x = 75% of x
Now, savings = (100 – 75)% of x = 1250
25% of x = 1250
x/4 = 1250
x = 4*1250
= Rs. 5000Unattempted
Let the monthly income of Rishi be Rs. x.
Total expenditure = (55 + 15 + 5)% of x = 75% of x
Now, savings = (100 – 75)% of x = 1250
25% of x = 1250
x/4 = 1250
x = 4*1250
= Rs. 5000 -
Question 79 of 80
79. Question
Sreeja had three books in which Book A had 120 pages. Book B had 10% more pages than Book A and Book C had 10% less pages than Book A. If she tore roughly 5%, 10% and 15% of pages in A, B and C respectively, then approximately what percent of pages did she tear out?
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 11%Correct
Incorrect
Given, Total No. of pages in book A = 120
Total No. of pages in book B
= 10% of 120 + 120
= 12 + 120
= 132
Total No. of pages in book C
= 120 – 10% of 120
= 120 – 12
= 108
No. of pages torn from book A = 5% of Total No. of pages in book A = (5/100) * 120 = 6
No. of pages torn from book B = 10% of 132 = 13.2
No. of pages torn from book C = 15% of 108 = 16.2
Total No. of pages torn out from books A, B, and C = 6 + 13.2 + 16.2 = 35.4
Now, Total No. of pages in books A,B, and C earlier = 120 + 132 + 108 = 360
Required Percentage
= (Total No. of pages torn out/Total No. of pages in books A, B and C earlier) * 100
= (35.4/360) * 100
= 9.83% (Around 10%)Unattempted
Given, Total No. of pages in book A = 120
Total No. of pages in book B
= 10% of 120 + 120
= 12 + 120
= 132
Total No. of pages in book C
= 120 – 10% of 120
= 120 – 12
= 108
No. of pages torn from book A = 5% of Total No. of pages in book A = (5/100) * 120 = 6
No. of pages torn from book B = 10% of 132 = 13.2
No. of pages torn from book C = 15% of 108 = 16.2
Total No. of pages torn out from books A, B, and C = 6 + 13.2 + 16.2 = 35.4
Now, Total No. of pages in books A,B, and C earlier = 120 + 132 + 108 = 360
Required Percentage
= (Total No. of pages torn out/Total No. of pages in books A, B and C earlier) * 100
= (35.4/360) * 100
= 9.83% (Around 10%) -
Question 80 of 80
80. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud agreed to list in due course a writ petition to reconsider the Collegium system of judicial appointments to the Supreme Court and the High Courts. The petition sought the revival of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), which briefly gave the government an equal role along with the judiciary in the appointment of judges to the constitutional courts before it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015.
Which of the following statements best captures the logical and practical suggestion based on the challenges shared in the above passage ?
(A) The petitioners seeking NJAC to be revived is a sound suggestion as the Collegium System seems to have certain flaws.
(B) The NJAC system had its own flaws and hence Supreme Court had to struck it down and hence suggested not be revived.
(C) It is a battle between between Judiciary and Executive on who has the say in nominating judges and hence they need to find a via media and resolve it.
(D) Collegium System be reviewed, made more transparent/accountable to Constitutional norms keeping alive its independence from Executive/Legislature.Correct
Incorrect
(D) seems more logical and sound than the other three suggestions.
Unattempted
(D) seems more logical and sound than the other three suggestions.
3rd Plan 2024 : History 2
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
With reference to Gandhian ideology of Satyagraha, consider the following statements:
(1) It was a political tactic as well as philosophy of life.
(2) It involved self-suffering to convert an enemy to one’s own view.
(3) It was equivalent to passive resistance.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
The chief aspect of Gandhian ideology was Satyagraha i.e. 'true force'. For, Mahatma Gandhi, Satyagraha was not merely a political tactic but part of a total philosophy of life and ideology of action. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
For Gandhi, the Satyagraha was to be used so that by self-suffering and not by violence the enemy could be converted to one's own view. Pattabhi Sitaramaya explains Satyagraha as: “It involves selfchosen suffering and humiliation for the resistors. If it is effective, it is so by working on the conscience of those against whom it is being used, sapping their confidence in the exclusive rightness of their cause making their physical strength important, and weakening their resolution by insinuating a sense of guilt for the suffering they have part in causing.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Mahtama Gandhi made a distinction between the Satyagraha and passive resistance. He wrote: ” The passive resistance has been concieved as a weapon of the weak and does not exclude the use of physical force or violence for the purpose of gaining onee's end; whereas the Satyagraha has been concieved as a weapon of the strongest, and excludes the use of violance in any shape. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.Unattempted
The chief aspect of Gandhian ideology was Satyagraha i.e. 'true force'. For, Mahatma Gandhi, Satyagraha was not merely a political tactic but part of a total philosophy of life and ideology of action. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
For Gandhi, the Satyagraha was to be used so that by self-suffering and not by violence the enemy could be converted to one's own view. Pattabhi Sitaramaya explains Satyagraha as: “It involves selfchosen suffering and humiliation for the resistors. If it is effective, it is so by working on the conscience of those against whom it is being used, sapping their confidence in the exclusive rightness of their cause making their physical strength important, and weakening their resolution by insinuating a sense of guilt for the suffering they have part in causing.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Mahtama Gandhi made a distinction between the Satyagraha and passive resistance. He wrote: ” The passive resistance has been concieved as a weapon of the weak and does not exclude the use of physical force or violence for the purpose of gaining onee's end; whereas the Satyagraha has been concieved as a weapon of the strongest, and excludes the use of violance in any shape. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. -
Question 2 of 100
2. Question
Why did Gandhiji choose salt as symbol of protest during the Civil Disobedience Movement?
(1) Salt tax affected all sections of the population
(2) Salt issue would unify all political party in India
(3) Salt tax did not threaten government finances
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Salt was chosen as central formula during a Salt Satyagrah as salt tax seemed to be the most crucial one for many reasons:
It affected all sections of the population and had no divisive implication.
It did not threaten government finances or any vested interests and therefore would not alienate any of the non-Congress political elements, nor would provoke government repression.
It could be made into a highly emotive issue with great publicity value.
Gandhi said, ― There is no other article like salt, outside water, by taxing which the government can reach the starving millions, the sick, the maimed and the utterly helpless, it was most inhuman poll tax the ingenuity of man can devise.
Hence, all the statements are correct.Unattempted
Salt was chosen as central formula during a Salt Satyagrah as salt tax seemed to be the most crucial one for many reasons:
It affected all sections of the population and had no divisive implication.
It did not threaten government finances or any vested interests and therefore would not alienate any of the non-Congress political elements, nor would provoke government repression.
It could be made into a highly emotive issue with great publicity value.
Gandhi said, ― There is no other article like salt, outside water, by taxing which the government can reach the starving millions, the sick, the maimed and the utterly helpless, it was most inhuman poll tax the ingenuity of man can devise.
Hence, all the statements are correct. -
Question 3 of 100
3. Question
Which of the following was/were related to the Communist movement in India?
(1) Meerut Conspiracy Case
(2) Indian Liberal Party
(3) Dutt-Bradley Thesis
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct: Towards the end of the 1920s, many strikes were organised in the industrial cities of India. The British Government felt that Russian gold and Russian money were encouraging strikes to create anarchy and the spread of Communism in India. To arrest this trend in March 1929 the Government implicated certain Communist leaders 60 such as S.A. Dange, Shaukat Usman, and Muzaffar Ahmad along with Philip Spratt and Benjamin Francis Sradley, in a case which came to be known as the Meerut conspiracy.
Option 2 is incorrect: The first session of the Indian Liberal Party began on November 1st and 2nd 1918. It was styled as the 'All India Conference of the Moderate Party'. During it's second session at Calcutta in 1919, it gave itself a name 'National Liberal Federation'. The important liberals were S.N.Banerjea, V.S.Srinivasa Sastri, D.E.Wacha, P.S. Sivaswami Aiyar, Tej Bahadur Sapru, C.P.Ramaswami Aiyar, N.M.Samarth, C.Y.Chintamani, M.R. Jayekar and others. It is not related to the communist movement in India.
Option 3 is correct: The Indian Communists were to again participate in the activities of the mainstream of the national movement led by the Congress. The theoretical and political basis for the change in communist politics in India was laid in early 1936 by a document popularly known as the Dutt-Bradley Thesis. According to this thesis, the National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in the work of realising the anti-imperialist people's front.Unattempted
Option 1 is correct: Towards the end of the 1920s, many strikes were organised in the industrial cities of India. The British Government felt that Russian gold and Russian money were encouraging strikes to create anarchy and the spread of Communism in India. To arrest this trend in March 1929 the Government implicated certain Communist leaders 60 such as S.A. Dange, Shaukat Usman, and Muzaffar Ahmad along with Philip Spratt and Benjamin Francis Sradley, in a case which came to be known as the Meerut conspiracy.
Option 2 is incorrect: The first session of the Indian Liberal Party began on November 1st and 2nd 1918. It was styled as the 'All India Conference of the Moderate Party'. During it's second session at Calcutta in 1919, it gave itself a name 'National Liberal Federation'. The important liberals were S.N.Banerjea, V.S.Srinivasa Sastri, D.E.Wacha, P.S. Sivaswami Aiyar, Tej Bahadur Sapru, C.P.Ramaswami Aiyar, N.M.Samarth, C.Y.Chintamani, M.R. Jayekar and others. It is not related to the communist movement in India.
Option 3 is correct: The Indian Communists were to again participate in the activities of the mainstream of the national movement led by the Congress. The theoretical and political basis for the change in communist politics in India was laid in early 1936 by a document popularly known as the Dutt-Bradley Thesis. According to this thesis, the National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in the work of realising the anti-imperialist people's front. -
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
With reference to the Champaran Satyagraha, consider the following statements :
(1)Its aim was to abolish tinkathiya system.
(2)Raj Kumar Shukla persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to visit Champaran.
(3)Rajendra Prasad and J.B. Kriplani were associated with this movement.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
All the statements are correct.
Champaran Satyagarh was started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917 to look into the problem of Tinkathiya system in which peasants of Champaran were forced to grow Indigo on 3/20th of the total land. In this background, Raj kumar shukla persuaded Gandhi to look into the peasants problem. Later Rajendra Prasad, J.B Kripalni, Mahadeo Desai and Narhari Parekh joined Gandhi in the movement.Unattempted
All the statements are correct.
Champaran Satyagarh was started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917 to look into the problem of Tinkathiya system in which peasants of Champaran were forced to grow Indigo on 3/20th of the total land. In this background, Raj kumar shukla persuaded Gandhi to look into the peasants problem. Later Rajendra Prasad, J.B Kripalni, Mahadeo Desai and Narhari Parekh joined Gandhi in the movement. -
Question 5 of 100
5. Question
With reference to the Tana Bhagat movement, consider the following statements:
(1) It was a tribal uprising under the leadership of Jatra Oraon.
(2) It was against the exploitation of zamindars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Incorrect
Tana Bhagat movement in Chhotanagpur reflected the aspirations of the Oraon tribals for deliverance from the exploitation of zamindars and mahajans under the leadership of Jatra Bhagat and Turia Bhagat. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The Tana Bhagats opposed the taxes imposed on them by the British and they staged a Satyagraha (civil disobedience movement) even before Gandhi's satyagraha movement.Unattempted
Tana Bhagat movement in Chhotanagpur reflected the aspirations of the Oraon tribals for deliverance from the exploitation of zamindars and mahajans under the leadership of Jatra Bhagat and Turia Bhagat. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The Tana Bhagats opposed the taxes imposed on them by the British and they staged a Satyagraha (civil disobedience movement) even before Gandhi's satyagraha movement. -
Question 6 of 100
6. Question
With reference to the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931, consider the following statements:
(1) It was presided over by Mahatma Gandhi.
(2) The Congress defined what Swaraj would mean for the masses.
(3) The resolution passed promised the right to form unions to workers and peasants.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
The Congress met at Karachi on 29 March, 1931 to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or the Delhi Pact.
Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru had been executed six days earlier. Even though Gandhiji had made every attempt to save their lives, there was anger among the people, especially the youth, as to why he had not refused to sign the Pact on this question.
All along Gandhiji‘s route to Karachi he was greeted with black flag demonstrations.
The Congress dissociated itself from political violence in any shape or form but admired the bravery and sacrifice of the three martyrs.
The Congress also endorsed the Delhi Pact and reiterated the goal of Poorna Swaraj.
The Karachi session, presided over by Sardar Vallabbhai Patel, is also memorable for its resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Even though the Congress had from its inception fought for the economic interests, civil liberties and political rights of the people, this was the first time that the Congress defined what Swaraj wouldmean for the masses. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
It also declared that, in order to end the exploitation of the masses, political freedom must include real economic freedom of the starving millions.
The resolution guaranteed the basic civil rights of free speech, free press, free assembly, and freedom of association; equality before the law irrespective of caste, creed or sex; neutrality of the state in regard toall religions; elections on the basis of universal adult franchise; and free and compulsory primary education.
It promised substantial reduction in rent and revenue, exemption from rent in case of uneconomic holdings, and relief of agricultural indebtedness and control of usury; better conditions for workers including a living wage, limited hours of work and protection of women workers; the right to organize and form unions to workers and peasants; and state ownership or control of key industries, mines and means of transport. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
It also maintained that the culture, language and script of the minorities and of the different linguistic areas shall be protected.
The Karachi resolution remained in essence the basic political and economic programme of the Congress in later years.Unattempted
The Congress met at Karachi on 29 March, 1931 to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or the Delhi Pact.
Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru had been executed six days earlier. Even though Gandhiji had made every attempt to save their lives, there was anger among the people, especially the youth, as to why he had not refused to sign the Pact on this question.
All along Gandhiji‘s route to Karachi he was greeted with black flag demonstrations.
The Congress dissociated itself from political violence in any shape or form but admired the bravery and sacrifice of the three martyrs.
The Congress also endorsed the Delhi Pact and reiterated the goal of Poorna Swaraj.
The Karachi session, presided over by Sardar Vallabbhai Patel, is also memorable for its resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Even though the Congress had from its inception fought for the economic interests, civil liberties and political rights of the people, this was the first time that the Congress defined what Swaraj wouldmean for the masses. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
It also declared that, in order to end the exploitation of the masses, political freedom must include real economic freedom of the starving millions.
The resolution guaranteed the basic civil rights of free speech, free press, free assembly, and freedom of association; equality before the law irrespective of caste, creed or sex; neutrality of the state in regard toall religions; elections on the basis of universal adult franchise; and free and compulsory primary education.
It promised substantial reduction in rent and revenue, exemption from rent in case of uneconomic holdings, and relief of agricultural indebtedness and control of usury; better conditions for workers including a living wage, limited hours of work and protection of women workers; the right to organize and form unions to workers and peasants; and state ownership or control of key industries, mines and means of transport. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
It also maintained that the culture, language and script of the minorities and of the different linguistic areas shall be protected.
The Karachi resolution remained in essence the basic political and economic programme of the Congress in later years. -
Question 7 of 100
7. Question
Consider the following statements with regard to Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan :
(1) He was the founder of Muhammedan Literary Society.
(2) He declared Quran alone as authoritative work on Islam.
(3) He supported customs of polygamy and easy divorce.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: Muhammedan Literary Society was founded at Calcutta in 1863 by Nawab Abdul Latif. This society is marked as beginning in the direction of western education. It promoted discussions of religious, social and political questions.
Statement 2 is correct: In the wake of reconciliation of modern scientific thought with Islam, he first of all, declared Quran alone as the authoritative work for Islam. Even the Quaran he interpreted in the light of contemporary rationalism and science.
Statement 3 is incorrect: He wrote in favour of raising women‘s status in society and condemned the customs of polygamy and easy divorce along with removal of purdah as well.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect: Muhammedan Literary Society was founded at Calcutta in 1863 by Nawab Abdul Latif. This society is marked as beginning in the direction of western education. It promoted discussions of religious, social and political questions.
Statement 2 is correct: In the wake of reconciliation of modern scientific thought with Islam, he first of all, declared Quran alone as the authoritative work for Islam. Even the Quaran he interpreted in the light of contemporary rationalism and science.
Statement 3 is incorrect: He wrote in favour of raising women‘s status in society and condemned the customs of polygamy and easy divorce along with removal of purdah as well. -
Question 8 of 100
8. Question
How many of the following demands were put forth in Kisan Manifesto brought out in 1936?
(1) Complete abolition of land revenue and rent
(2) Security of tenure for tenants
(3) Recognition of peasant unions
(4) A living wage for agricultural labourers
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
A Kisan Manifesto was finalized at the All-India Kisan Committee session in Bombay and formally presented to the Congress Working Committee to be incorporated into its forthcoming manifesto for the 1937 elections. The Kisan Manifesto considerably influenced the agrarian programme adopted by the Congress at its Faizpur session, which included demands for fifty per cent reduction in land revenueand rent, a moratorium on debts, the abolition of feudal levies, security of tenure for tenants, a living wage for agricultural labourers, and the recognition of peasant unions. Hence, only option 1 is incorrect.
Unattempted
A Kisan Manifesto was finalized at the All-India Kisan Committee session in Bombay and formally presented to the Congress Working Committee to be incorporated into its forthcoming manifesto for the 1937 elections. The Kisan Manifesto considerably influenced the agrarian programme adopted by the Congress at its Faizpur session, which included demands for fifty per cent reduction in land revenueand rent, a moratorium on debts, the abolition of feudal levies, security of tenure for tenants, a living wage for agricultural labourers, and the recognition of peasant unions. Hence, only option 1 is incorrect.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
How many of the following was/were the objective(s) of Home Rule Movement in India?
(1) Creation of states on linguistic basis
(2) Education in the vernacular languages
(3) Universal adult franchise
(4) Establish self-government in India
Select the correct answer :
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
The Indian Home Rule Leagues were organized on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics.
Annie Besant and Tilak were the pioneers of this new trend who set up separate leagues after the 1st world war.
While Besant's league focused upon swaraj (self-government) and reentry of extremists into Congress, demands of Tilak's league included Swarajya, Formation of linguistic states, Education in the vernacular languages.
The universal adult franchise was advocated by Congress at Karachi resolution in 1931. Hence, only option (3) is incorrect.Unattempted
The Indian Home Rule Leagues were organized on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics.
Annie Besant and Tilak were the pioneers of this new trend who set up separate leagues after the 1st world war.
While Besant's league focused upon swaraj (self-government) and reentry of extremists into Congress, demands of Tilak's league included Swarajya, Formation of linguistic states, Education in the vernacular languages.
The universal adult franchise was advocated by Congress at Karachi resolution in 1931. Hence, only option (3) is incorrect. -
Question 10 of 100
10. Question
How many of the following was/were secret societies of revolutionaries during Indian freedom struggle?
(1)Abhinav Bharat
(2)Yugantar
(3)Anushilan Samiti
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
During the opening decades of 20th century revolutionary youth decided to copy the methods of the Irish nationalists and Russian nihilists and populists. They decided to organize the assassination of unpopular British officials which would strike terror into the hearts of the rulers, amuse the patriotic instincts of the people, inspire them and remove the fear of authority from their minds.
A steadily increasing number of young men turned to this form of political struggle. In 1904, V.D. Sarvarkar organized Abhinav Bharat as a secret society of revolutionaries. Very soon secret societies of revolutionaries came up all over the country, the most famous and long lasting being Anushilan Samiti and Yugantar. Their activities took two forms—the assassination of oppressive officials and informers and traitors from their own ranks and dacoities to raise funds for purchase of arms etc.Unattempted
During the opening decades of 20th century revolutionary youth decided to copy the methods of the Irish nationalists and Russian nihilists and populists. They decided to organize the assassination of unpopular British officials which would strike terror into the hearts of the rulers, amuse the patriotic instincts of the people, inspire them and remove the fear of authority from their minds.
A steadily increasing number of young men turned to this form of political struggle. In 1904, V.D. Sarvarkar organized Abhinav Bharat as a secret society of revolutionaries. Very soon secret societies of revolutionaries came up all over the country, the most famous and long lasting being Anushilan Samiti and Yugantar. Their activities took two forms—the assassination of oppressive officials and informers and traitors from their own ranks and dacoities to raise funds for purchase of arms etc. -
Question 11 of 100
11. Question
With reference to the Sadler Commission of 1917, consider the following statements:
(1) It focussed on university education and overlooked primary and secondary education.
(2) It encouraged female education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Incorrect
The Sadler Commission was set up to study and report on problems of Calcutta University but its recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also. It reviewed the entire field from school education to university education. It held the view that, for the improvement of university education, improvement of secondary education was a necessary precondition. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It made following recommendations:
A separate board of secondary and 'intermediate education should be set up for administration and control of secondary and intermediate education.
There should be less rigidity in framing university regulations.
A university should function as centralised, unitary residential-teaching autonomous body, rather than as scattered, affiliated colleges. Female education, applied scientific and technological education, teachers' training including those for professional and vocational colleges should be extended. Hence, statement 2 is correct.Unattempted
The Sadler Commission was set up to study and report on problems of Calcutta University but its recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also. It reviewed the entire field from school education to university education. It held the view that, for the improvement of university education, improvement of secondary education was a necessary precondition. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It made following recommendations:
A separate board of secondary and 'intermediate education should be set up for administration and control of secondary and intermediate education.
There should be less rigidity in framing university regulations.
A university should function as centralised, unitary residential-teaching autonomous body, rather than as scattered, affiliated colleges. Female education, applied scientific and technological education, teachers' training including those for professional and vocational colleges should be extended. Hence, statement 2 is correct. -
Question 12 of 100
12. Question
Consider the following personalities:
(1)M. Viraraghavachari
(2)G. Subramanian Iyer
(3)Ananda Charlu
How many of the above was/were associated with Madras Mahajan Sabha?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Madras Mahajan Sabha was founded by M. Viraraghavachari, G Subramanian Iyer and Ananda Charlu in 1884 to promote the right of Indians. It was earlier known as Madras Native Association which was established by Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1849.
Unattempted
Madras Mahajan Sabha was founded by M. Viraraghavachari, G Subramanian Iyer and Ananda Charlu in 1884 to promote the right of Indians. It was earlier known as Madras Native Association which was established by Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1849.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
With reference to the Ghadar party formed during the Indian National Movement, consider the following statements:
(1) Its objective was the establishment of an independent republic of India through complete peaceful means.
(2) Its ideology was based on democratic and secular principle.
(3) It started the weekly paper the Ghadar in commemoration of the mutiny of 1857.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect and 3 is correct: Ghadar party was founded by Lala Hardayal, an intellectual giant and fire brand revolutionary from the Punjab. He was assisted by Ramchandra and Barkatulla. The party published the weekly paper the Ghadar in commemoration of the mutiny of 1857. It was clearly stated by the Ghadarites that their objective was the establishment of an independent republic of India by an armed revolution and to establish a democratic regime based on liberty and equality.
With the outbreak of the First World War, the Ghadar leaders decided to launch a violent attack on British rule in India. Kartar singh Sarabha and Raghubar Dayal Gupta were sent to India and Bengal revolutionaries Sachindranath Sanyal and Vishnu Ganesh Pingley, Rash Behari Bose were asked to lead the movement. The Government of India, fully informed of the Ghadar plans, arrested the revolutionaries on their arrival to India. Some of them succeeded in reaching Punjab without being found out. Sachindranath Sanyal and Vishnu Ganesh Pingley, Rash Behari Bose, the Bengali revolutionary finally arrived in Punjab in mid-January 1915 to assume leadership of the revolt.
Statement 2 is correct: The marked feature of Ghadar ideology was its democratic and egalitarian content. Har Dayal imparted to the movement an egalitarian ideology. The ideology that was created and spread through The Ghadar and Ghadar di Goonj and other publications was strongly secular in tone.Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect and 3 is correct: Ghadar party was founded by Lala Hardayal, an intellectual giant and fire brand revolutionary from the Punjab. He was assisted by Ramchandra and Barkatulla. The party published the weekly paper the Ghadar in commemoration of the mutiny of 1857. It was clearly stated by the Ghadarites that their objective was the establishment of an independent republic of India by an armed revolution and to establish a democratic regime based on liberty and equality.
With the outbreak of the First World War, the Ghadar leaders decided to launch a violent attack on British rule in India. Kartar singh Sarabha and Raghubar Dayal Gupta were sent to India and Bengal revolutionaries Sachindranath Sanyal and Vishnu Ganesh Pingley, Rash Behari Bose were asked to lead the movement. The Government of India, fully informed of the Ghadar plans, arrested the revolutionaries on their arrival to India. Some of them succeeded in reaching Punjab without being found out. Sachindranath Sanyal and Vishnu Ganesh Pingley, Rash Behari Bose, the Bengali revolutionary finally arrived in Punjab in mid-January 1915 to assume leadership of the revolt.
Statement 2 is correct: The marked feature of Ghadar ideology was its democratic and egalitarian content. Har Dayal imparted to the movement an egalitarian ideology. The ideology that was created and spread through The Ghadar and Ghadar di Goonj and other publications was strongly secular in tone. -
Question 14 of 100
14. Question
With respect to the modern Indian history, the term ‘dikus’ refers to :
(A) the exploitative outsiders in tribal areas.
(B) a form of unpaid labour.
(C) passesissuedbytheEastIndia Company.
(D) a local term for infertile land in the gangetic plain.Correct
Incorrect
Santhal Rising: The Santhals of Rajmahal Hills resented the oppression by revenue officials, police, money-lenders, landlords – in general, by the 'outsiders' (whom they called diku). The Santhals under Sido and Kanhu rose up against their oppressors, declared the end of the Company's rule and asserted themselves independent in 1854. It was only in 1856 after extensive military operations that the situation was brought under control.Sido died in 1855, while Kanhu was arrested in 1866. A separate district of Santhal Pargana, was created by the Government to pacify the Santhals.
Unattempted
Santhal Rising: The Santhals of Rajmahal Hills resented the oppression by revenue officials, police, money-lenders, landlords – in general, by the 'outsiders' (whom they called diku). The Santhals under Sido and Kanhu rose up against their oppressors, declared the end of the Company's rule and asserted themselves independent in 1854. It was only in 1856 after extensive military operations that the situation was brought under control.Sido died in 1855, while Kanhu was arrested in 1866. A separate district of Santhal Pargana, was created by the Government to pacify the Santhals.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
In which of the following regions Parallel governments were set up during the Quit India movement?
(1) Ballia
(2) Tamluk
(3) Satara
(4) Jhansi
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4Correct
Incorrect
During the Quit India movement the revolutionaries set up parallel governments in Ballia, Tamluk, Satara.
In Ballia it was set-up by Chittu Pandey. It was the first parallel government setup in August 1942.
In Tamluk by Satis Samant. It also helped people during Bengal famine.
In Satara by Y.B Chavan and Nana Patil. It was longest running parallet government,1943 to 1945.Unattempted
During the Quit India movement the revolutionaries set up parallel governments in Ballia, Tamluk, Satara.
In Ballia it was set-up by Chittu Pandey. It was the first parallel government setup in August 1942.
In Tamluk by Satis Samant. It also helped people during Bengal famine.
In Satara by Y.B Chavan and Nana Patil. It was longest running parallet government,1943 to 1945. -
Question 16 of 100
16. Question
The early Nationalists were unwilling to take up the question of labour reform because
(1) They feared regulation of working hours of Indian labour would hamper the competitiveness of Indian industries.
(2) They saw rapid industrialization as a solution to the Indian poverty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Incorrect
Both the statements are correct.
The nationalists were unwilling to take up the question of labour versus the indigenous employer because they thought doing so will reduce the competitiveness of Indian industries and in turn it will further help the British manufacturing draining the of wealth out of India.
They also saw industrialization as the panacea for the problems of Indian poverty and degradation. Supporting the regulation they thought will impede the pace of industrialization.Unattempted
Both the statements are correct.
The nationalists were unwilling to take up the question of labour versus the indigenous employer because they thought doing so will reduce the competitiveness of Indian industries and in turn it will further help the British manufacturing draining the of wealth out of India.
They also saw industrialization as the panacea for the problems of Indian poverty and degradation. Supporting the regulation they thought will impede the pace of industrialization. -
Question 17 of 100
17. Question
With reference to Permanent Settlement, consider the following statements:
(1) It was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal and Bihar.
(2) The ownership rights of zamindars were made both transferable and hereditary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal and Bihar in 1793.
Genesis of Permanent Settlement: In 1785 the Court of Directors permitted Cornwallis to implement a settlement with the Zamindars, at first for ten years and to be made permanent if it proved satisfactory.But in 1787 and in 1788 annual settlements were made.
In 1789 Cornwallis prepared rules for a Decennial settlement. Two different theories were held by Sir John Shore, the President of the Board of Revenue and Mr. James Grant, the Record Keeper with regardto the revenue settlement. John Shore maintained that the Zamindars were the owners of the land and the State had the right to a customary revenue from them. James Grant, on the other-hand held the view thatthe State was the owner of all land and the state had the right to make the settlement either with the Zamindar or the cultivator.
Ultimately, Cornwallis accepted the view of John Shore. In 1790 a settlement for ten years was made with the Zamindars who were recognized as the owners of the land. With the approval of the Court ofDirectors, the decennial Settlement was declared permanent on March 2, 1793.
Statement 2 is correct: Under this system, zamindars‘, who earlier only had the right to collect revenue, were established as the proprietors or owners of the land. The state‘s demand for land revenue was permanently fixed. But if the zamindars were unable to pay the full tax on time, their lands would be taken away and auctioned by the state. They were not only to act as agents of the government in collecting land revenue from the peasants but also to become the owners of the entire land in their zamindaris. Their right of ownership was made hereditary and transferable. Through this system, the state tried to create an enterprising class of landowners, who would try to improve crop production in their fields to earn profits. Besides, it would be simpler for the state to deal with a limited number of zamindars than with every peasant, and a powerful section of society would become loyal to the British administration. The zamindars and revenue collectors were converted into landlords.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal and Bihar in 1793.
Genesis of Permanent Settlement: In 1785 the Court of Directors permitted Cornwallis to implement a settlement with the Zamindars, at first for ten years and to be made permanent if it proved satisfactory.But in 1787 and in 1788 annual settlements were made.
In 1789 Cornwallis prepared rules for a Decennial settlement. Two different theories were held by Sir John Shore, the President of the Board of Revenue and Mr. James Grant, the Record Keeper with regardto the revenue settlement. John Shore maintained that the Zamindars were the owners of the land and the State had the right to a customary revenue from them. James Grant, on the other-hand held the view thatthe State was the owner of all land and the state had the right to make the settlement either with the Zamindar or the cultivator.
Ultimately, Cornwallis accepted the view of John Shore. In 1790 a settlement for ten years was made with the Zamindars who were recognized as the owners of the land. With the approval of the Court ofDirectors, the decennial Settlement was declared permanent on March 2, 1793.
Statement 2 is correct: Under this system, zamindars‘, who earlier only had the right to collect revenue, were established as the proprietors or owners of the land. The state‘s demand for land revenue was permanently fixed. But if the zamindars were unable to pay the full tax on time, their lands would be taken away and auctioned by the state. They were not only to act as agents of the government in collecting land revenue from the peasants but also to become the owners of the entire land in their zamindaris. Their right of ownership was made hereditary and transferable. Through this system, the state tried to create an enterprising class of landowners, who would try to improve crop production in their fields to earn profits. Besides, it would be simpler for the state to deal with a limited number of zamindars than with every peasant, and a powerful section of society would become loyal to the British administration. The zamindars and revenue collectors were converted into landlords. -
Question 18 of 100
18. Question
Who among the following were associated with Dharasana salt satyagraha during Civil Disobedience Movement?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Sarojini Naidu
(3) Imam Saheb
(4) Manilal
How many of the above option(s) is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Dharasana Satyagraha was a protest against the British salt tax in colonial India in May, 1930. After the conclusion of the Salt March to Dandi, Mahatma Gandhi chose a non-violent raid of the Dharasana Salt Works in Gujarat as the next protest against the rule of the British Raj. But before it, he was arrested by Police. In the absence of Gandhi Ji, this unfinished task was completed by Sarojini Naidu, Imam Saheb and Manilal. Hundreds of satyagrahis were beaten by Indian soldiers under British command at Dharasana. The ensuing publicity attracted world attention to the Indian independence movement, and brought into question the legitimacy of British rule in India.
Jawaharlal Nehru was not part of Dharsana Satyagraha. Hence, only option 1 is incorrect.Unattempted
Dharasana Satyagraha was a protest against the British salt tax in colonial India in May, 1930. After the conclusion of the Salt March to Dandi, Mahatma Gandhi chose a non-violent raid of the Dharasana Salt Works in Gujarat as the next protest against the rule of the British Raj. But before it, he was arrested by Police. In the absence of Gandhi Ji, this unfinished task was completed by Sarojini Naidu, Imam Saheb and Manilal. Hundreds of satyagrahis were beaten by Indian soldiers under British command at Dharasana. The ensuing publicity attracted world attention to the Indian independence movement, and brought into question the legitimacy of British rule in India.
Jawaharlal Nehru was not part of Dharsana Satyagraha. Hence, only option 1 is incorrect. -
Question 19 of 100
19. Question
Pitt's India Act of 1784 led to:
(1) establishment of the Board of Control to guide the Government of India.
(2) subordination of Bombay and Madras presidencies to Bengal.
(3) end of the trade monopoly of East India Company in India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Pitt's India Act, 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs i.e. to guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India.Thus, it established a system of double government. It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act clearly subordinated the Bombay and Madras Presidencies to Bengal in all questions of war, diplomacy, and revenues as the Governors of Presidencies of Bombay and Madraswere deprived of their independent powers and Calcutta was given greater powers in matters of war, revenue, and diplomacy, thus Calcutta becoming in effect, the capital of Company possessions in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It was through the Charter Act of 1813 (and not Pitt's India Act, 1784) that the company‘s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the company retained the trade with China and the trade in tea.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Pitt's India Act, 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs i.e. to guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India.Thus, it established a system of double government. It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act clearly subordinated the Bombay and Madras Presidencies to Bengal in all questions of war, diplomacy, and revenues as the Governors of Presidencies of Bombay and Madraswere deprived of their independent powers and Calcutta was given greater powers in matters of war, revenue, and diplomacy, thus Calcutta becoming in effect, the capital of Company possessions in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It was through the Charter Act of 1813 (and not Pitt's India Act, 1784) that the company‘s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the company retained the trade with China and the trade in tea. -
Question 20 of 100
20. Question
With reference to the Workers and Peasant's Party (WPP), consider the following statements:
(1) It was formed in 1928 as an all-India party.
(2) All communists were its members.
(3) It worked outside the Indian National Congress.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Workers‘ and Peasants‘ Party (WPP) became an all-India party in 1928.
It was a merger of following provincial organizations –
The Labour-Swaraj Party of the Indian National Congress organized by Muzaffar Ahmed, Qazi Nazrul Islam, Hemanta Kumar Sarkar, and others in Bengal in November 1925.
Congress Labour Party was formed in Bombay and a Kirti-Kisan Party in Punjab in late 1926.
A Labour Kisan Party of Hindustan of Madras -1923.
Thus, by 1928 all of these provincial organizations had been renamed as the Workers‘ and Peasants‘ Party (WPP), whose units were also set up in Rajasthan, UP and Delhi.
Statement 2 is correct: All Communists were members of this party.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The basic objective of the WPPs was to work within the Congress to give it a more radical orientation and make it ‘the party of the people‘ and independently organize workers and peasants in class organizations, to enable first the achievement of complete independence and ultimately of socialism.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Workers‘ and Peasants‘ Party (WPP) became an all-India party in 1928.
It was a merger of following provincial organizations –
The Labour-Swaraj Party of the Indian National Congress organized by Muzaffar Ahmed, Qazi Nazrul Islam, Hemanta Kumar Sarkar, and others in Bengal in November 1925.
Congress Labour Party was formed in Bombay and a Kirti-Kisan Party in Punjab in late 1926.
A Labour Kisan Party of Hindustan of Madras -1923.
Thus, by 1928 all of these provincial organizations had been renamed as the Workers‘ and Peasants‘ Party (WPP), whose units were also set up in Rajasthan, UP and Delhi.
Statement 2 is correct: All Communists were members of this party.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The basic objective of the WPPs was to work within the Congress to give it a more radical orientation and make it ‘the party of the people‘ and independently organize workers and peasants in class organizations, to enable first the achievement of complete independence and ultimately of socialism. -
Question 21 of 100
21. Question
The arrival of Simon commission aroused popular resentment across the country because
(A) it recommended government to imprison people without trial.
(B) it suggested the government to exclude native Indians from possessing arms.
(C) there was no Indian Member in the commission.
(D) it recommended severe restriction on the freedom of vernacular press.Correct
Incorrect
In November 1927 British Government appointed Indian Statutory Commission also known as Simon Commission with the aim to introduce further Constitutional reform. As all the seven members of the Commission were English men. It led to a protest by all Indians. The basic notion behind the protest was that foreigners would discuss and decide upon India's fitness for self-government. At Madras session ofIndian National Congress of 1927, Congress decided to boycott the Commission at every stage and in every form. Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision.
Unattempted
In November 1927 British Government appointed Indian Statutory Commission also known as Simon Commission with the aim to introduce further Constitutional reform. As all the seven members of the Commission were English men. It led to a protest by all Indians. The basic notion behind the protest was that foreigners would discuss and decide upon India's fitness for self-government. At Madras session ofIndian National Congress of 1927, Congress decided to boycott the Commission at every stage and in every form. Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
How many of the following was/were responsible for the decline of the Swadeshi Movement?
(1) Heavy repression by the government.
(2) Moderate-extremist split at Surat session.
(3) Lack of an effective organization and party structure.
(4) Communal clashes at various places in Bengal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Swadeshi Movement 1905, declined due to several reasons.
First, the government, seeing the revolutionary potential of the movement, came down with a heavy hand. Repression took the form of controls and bans on public meetings, processions and the press. Student participants were expelled from Government schools and colleges, debarred from Government service, fined and at times beaten up by the police.
Second, the internal squabbles, and especially, the split, in 1907 in the Congress, the apex all-India organization, weakened the movement.
Third, the Swadeshi Movement lacked an effective organization and party structure. The movement had thrown up programmatically the entire gamut of Gandhian techniques. It was, however, unable to give these techniques a centralized, disciplined focus.
Lastly, the British policy of consciously attempting to use communalism to turn the Muslims against the Swadeshi Movement was to a large extent responsible for, breaking out of communal riots in Bengal at the height of the Swadeshi Movement.Unattempted
Swadeshi Movement 1905, declined due to several reasons.
First, the government, seeing the revolutionary potential of the movement, came down with a heavy hand. Repression took the form of controls and bans on public meetings, processions and the press. Student participants were expelled from Government schools and colleges, debarred from Government service, fined and at times beaten up by the police.
Second, the internal squabbles, and especially, the split, in 1907 in the Congress, the apex all-India organization, weakened the movement.
Third, the Swadeshi Movement lacked an effective organization and party structure. The movement had thrown up programmatically the entire gamut of Gandhian techniques. It was, however, unable to give these techniques a centralized, disciplined focus.
Lastly, the British policy of consciously attempting to use communalism to turn the Muslims against the Swadeshi Movement was to a large extent responsible for, breaking out of communal riots in Bengal at the height of the Swadeshi Movement. -
Question 23 of 100
23. Question
Congress opposed the Government of India Act, 1935 as 'totally disappointing' but it decided to contest the elections in 1937 withthe objective:
(A) of showing how unpopular the Act was
(B) to introduce radical changes in administration
(C) to win the majority of seats in the legislative council
(D) None of the aboveCorrect
Incorrect
The GOI Act, 1935 could not satisfy the nationalist aspiration for both political and economic power continued to be concentrated in the hands of the British government. Foreign rule was to continue as before; only a few popularly elected ministers were to be added to the structure of British administration in India. The Congress condemned the Act as 'totally disappointing'. The federal part of the Act was never introduced but the provincial part was soon put into operation. Bitterly opposed to the Act, the Congress thus decided to contest the elections under the new Act of 1935, though with the declared aim of showing how unpopular the Act was.
Unattempted
The GOI Act, 1935 could not satisfy the nationalist aspiration for both political and economic power continued to be concentrated in the hands of the British government. Foreign rule was to continue as before; only a few popularly elected ministers were to be added to the structure of British administration in India. The Congress condemned the Act as 'totally disappointing'. The federal part of the Act was never introduced but the provincial part was soon put into operation. Bitterly opposed to the Act, the Congress thus decided to contest the elections under the new Act of 1935, though with the declared aim of showing how unpopular the Act was.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
How many of the following leaders worked towards improving the conditions of the working class?
(1) Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee
(2) N.M. Lokhande
(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(4) Dewan Chaman Lal
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Early attempts to improve the condition of the workers were mainly by the philanthropists like :
In 1878, Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee tried unsuccessfully to introduce a Bill in the Bombay Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour.
In Bombay, Narayan Meghajee Lokhande brought out an Anglo-Marathi weekly called Dina Bandhu (Friend of the Poor) in 1880, and started the Bombay Mill and Millhands’ Association in 1890.
In Bengal, Sasipada Banerjea, a Brahmo Social reformer, set up a Workingmen‘s Club in 1870 and brought out a monthly journal called Bharat Sramjeebi.
The most important development was the formation of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) in 1920. Lokamanya Tilak was one of the moving spirits in the formation of the AITUC, which had Lala Lajpat Rai as its first president and Dewan Chaman Lal as its General Secretary.Unattempted
Early attempts to improve the condition of the workers were mainly by the philanthropists like :
In 1878, Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee tried unsuccessfully to introduce a Bill in the Bombay Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour.
In Bombay, Narayan Meghajee Lokhande brought out an Anglo-Marathi weekly called Dina Bandhu (Friend of the Poor) in 1880, and started the Bombay Mill and Millhands’ Association in 1890.
In Bengal, Sasipada Banerjea, a Brahmo Social reformer, set up a Workingmen‘s Club in 1870 and brought out a monthly journal called Bharat Sramjeebi.
The most important development was the formation of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) in 1920. Lokamanya Tilak was one of the moving spirits in the formation of the AITUC, which had Lala Lajpat Rai as its first president and Dewan Chaman Lal as its General Secretary. -
Question 25 of 100
25. Question
Which of the following statement is correct with reference to the Theosophical Society?
(A) It aimed at the revival of Hinduism, Zoroastrianism and Buddhism.
(B) It was a movement led by Indians, glorifying Indians religious and philosophical traditions.
(C) The society was based on the beliefs of Vedanta.
(D) It was headquartered in United States.Correct
Incorrect
Statement (A) is correct: The Theosophists advocated the revival and strengthening of the ancient religions of Hinduism, Zoroastrianism and Buddhism. They recognised the doctrine of the transmigration of soul.
Statement (B) is not correct: The movement was led by Westerners, but they made peculiar contribution to developments in modern India. Their effort to glorify Indian religious and philosophical traditions helped Indians in recovering their self-confidence.
Statement (C) is not correct: Ramakrishna Paramhansa subscribed to Vedanta which he declared to be a fully rational system. Theosophical society aimed itself at the revival of ancient religions and wasn‘t based on any system.
Statement (D) is not correct: The society was founded in the United States whereas, later founded the headquarters at Adyar near Madras in 1886.Unattempted
Statement (A) is correct: The Theosophists advocated the revival and strengthening of the ancient religions of Hinduism, Zoroastrianism and Buddhism. They recognised the doctrine of the transmigration of soul.
Statement (B) is not correct: The movement was led by Westerners, but they made peculiar contribution to developments in modern India. Their effort to glorify Indian religious and philosophical traditions helped Indians in recovering their self-confidence.
Statement (C) is not correct: Ramakrishna Paramhansa subscribed to Vedanta which he declared to be a fully rational system. Theosophical society aimed itself at the revival of ancient religions and wasn‘t based on any system.
Statement (D) is not correct: The society was founded in the United States whereas, later founded the headquarters at Adyar near Madras in 1886. -
Question 26 of 100
26. Question
With reference to the Ahmedabad mill strike of 1918, consider the following statements:
(1) It was over the issue of non-payment of bonus to famine-affected workers.
(2) Gandhiji used the weapon of hunger strike for first time.
(3) The strike was unsuccessful and was suppressed violently by the British.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Ahmedabad Mill Strike 1918 was one of the initial movements led by Gandhi after his return from South Africa. There was a situation of dispute between the Mill owners and workers on the question of discontinuation of Plague Bonus once the epidemic had passed but the workers insisted it stay. The workers demanded a 50% wage hike. The Mill Owners were willing to give only 20% wage hike. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It involved cotton or textile mills of Ahmedabad.
Gandhi was invited by Anasuya Ben Sarabai and her brother Ambalal Sarabhai, leading mill-owner of Ahmadabad towards the cause of the mill owners. Here Gandhi used the weapon of Hunger strike for the first time. The result was that the strike was successful and the workers got a 35% wage hike. Hence, statement 2 is correct and 3 is not correct.Unattempted
Ahmedabad Mill Strike 1918 was one of the initial movements led by Gandhi after his return from South Africa. There was a situation of dispute between the Mill owners and workers on the question of discontinuation of Plague Bonus once the epidemic had passed but the workers insisted it stay. The workers demanded a 50% wage hike. The Mill Owners were willing to give only 20% wage hike. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It involved cotton or textile mills of Ahmedabad.
Gandhi was invited by Anasuya Ben Sarabai and her brother Ambalal Sarabhai, leading mill-owner of Ahmadabad towards the cause of the mill owners. Here Gandhi used the weapon of Hunger strike for the first time. The result was that the strike was successful and the workers got a 35% wage hike. Hence, statement 2 is correct and 3 is not correct. -
Question 27 of 100
27. Question
With reference to the relations between the British Crown and the Princely states of India after the Act of 1858, consider the following statements:
(1) The policy of annexation of princely states was abandoned.
(2) The princely states were reduced to a subordinate position vis-a-vis the British empire.
(3) The British did not interfere in the dayto-day administration of these states.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: During the revolt of 1857 most of the Indian princes had not only remained loyal to the British but had actively aided the latter in suppressing the revolt. This led the British to reverse their policy towards the Indian States. Before 1857, the British had availed themselves of every opportunity to annex princely states, but this policy was abandoned. Their loyalty was now rewarded with the announcement that their right to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories guaranteed against future annexation.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1876, Queen Victoria assumed the title of Empress of India to emphasise British sovereignty over the entire Indian sub-continent. Lord Curzon made it clear that the princes ruled their states as merely agents of the British Crown. The princes accepted this subordinate position and willingly became junior partners in the Empire because they were assured of their continued existence as rulers of their states. As the price of their continued existence, the princes were made to acknowledge Britain as the paramount power. As the paramount power, the British claimed the right to supervise the internal government of the princely states.
Statement 3 is incorrect: They not only interfered in the day-to-day administration through the Residents (British representative in the princely states) but insisted on appointing and dismissing ministers and other high officials. Sometimes the rulers themselves were removed or deprived of their powers. One motive for such interference as provided by the British was their desire to give these states a modern administration so that their integration with British India would be complete. Another motive for interference was provided by the growth of popular democratic and nationalist movements in many of the states.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: During the revolt of 1857 most of the Indian princes had not only remained loyal to the British but had actively aided the latter in suppressing the revolt. This led the British to reverse their policy towards the Indian States. Before 1857, the British had availed themselves of every opportunity to annex princely states, but this policy was abandoned. Their loyalty was now rewarded with the announcement that their right to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories guaranteed against future annexation.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1876, Queen Victoria assumed the title of Empress of India to emphasise British sovereignty over the entire Indian sub-continent. Lord Curzon made it clear that the princes ruled their states as merely agents of the British Crown. The princes accepted this subordinate position and willingly became junior partners in the Empire because they were assured of their continued existence as rulers of their states. As the price of their continued existence, the princes were made to acknowledge Britain as the paramount power. As the paramount power, the British claimed the right to supervise the internal government of the princely states.
Statement 3 is incorrect: They not only interfered in the day-to-day administration through the Residents (British representative in the princely states) but insisted on appointing and dismissing ministers and other high officials. Sometimes the rulers themselves were removed or deprived of their powers. One motive for such interference as provided by the British was their desire to give these states a modern administration so that their integration with British India would be complete. Another motive for interference was provided by the growth of popular democratic and nationalist movements in many of the states. -
Question 28 of 100
28. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Tolstoy Farm:
(1) It was set up by Gandhiji in South Africa.
(2) Its purpose was to give shelter to the families of Satyagrahis.
(3) It was funded by the members of both Congress and Muslim league.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
All the statements are correct.
Tolstoy Farm was established by Mahtma Gandhi in South Africa which was made possible through the generosity of his German architect friend, Kallenbach, to house the families of the Satyagrahis and give them a way to sustain themselves. Tolstoy Farm was the precursor of the later Gandhian ashrams that were to play so important a role in the Indian national movement. Funds also came from India – Sir Ratan Tata sent Rs. 25,000 and the Congress and the Muslim League, as well as the Nizam of Hyderabad, made their contributions and main purpose behind this was to house the families of Satyagrahis and give them a way to sustain themselves.Unattempted
All the statements are correct.
Tolstoy Farm was established by Mahtma Gandhi in South Africa which was made possible through the generosity of his German architect friend, Kallenbach, to house the families of the Satyagrahis and give them a way to sustain themselves. Tolstoy Farm was the precursor of the later Gandhian ashrams that were to play so important a role in the Indian national movement. Funds also came from India – Sir Ratan Tata sent Rs. 25,000 and the Congress and the Muslim League, as well as the Nizam of Hyderabad, made their contributions and main purpose behind this was to house the families of Satyagrahis and give them a way to sustain themselves. -
Question 29 of 100
29. Question
Consider the following statements regarding consequences of Battle of Plassey:
(1) Mir Qasim was made New Nawab of Bengal by the Britishers.
(2) British East India Company was granted free trade rights in Bengal.
(3) Company received zamindari rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Battle of Plassey transformed the British East India Company from a trading corporation to a Ruling company. With the victory at Plassey, the Company established itself firmly in Bengal and ruled it through its puppet Nawabs i.e Mir Jafar and Mir Kasim.
The Battle of Plassey was a battle that took place on June 23, 1757, on the banks of the Bhagirathi River, about 150 km north of Calcutta. It is near Murshidabad, then the capital of the Nawab of Bengal in India. The battle was between Siraj Ud Daulah, the last independent Nawab of Bengal, and the forces of the East India Company. Siraj-ud-Daulah's army commander had defected to the British, causing his army to collapse. Mir Jafar became a mere ‘puppet ruler‘ and the power rested with the British. On every matter he depended on the English. The Battle of Plassey paved the way for beginning of their empire. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The British enjoyed the tax benefits, had to compete with no rival foreign merchants and began to use the revenue of Bengal for protecting their military and trade interest.
Mir Jafar gave 24 Parganas and one crore of rupees to the Company and valuable Siraj presents to the English officers including Clive. Company got the Diwani rights , by which it was able to collect the revenue of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa after the Battle of Buxar. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct: British East India Company was granted free trade in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.Unattempted
Battle of Plassey transformed the British East India Company from a trading corporation to a Ruling company. With the victory at Plassey, the Company established itself firmly in Bengal and ruled it through its puppet Nawabs i.e Mir Jafar and Mir Kasim.
The Battle of Plassey was a battle that took place on June 23, 1757, on the banks of the Bhagirathi River, about 150 km north of Calcutta. It is near Murshidabad, then the capital of the Nawab of Bengal in India. The battle was between Siraj Ud Daulah, the last independent Nawab of Bengal, and the forces of the East India Company. Siraj-ud-Daulah's army commander had defected to the British, causing his army to collapse. Mir Jafar became a mere ‘puppet ruler‘ and the power rested with the British. On every matter he depended on the English. The Battle of Plassey paved the way for beginning of their empire. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The British enjoyed the tax benefits, had to compete with no rival foreign merchants and began to use the revenue of Bengal for protecting their military and trade interest.
Mir Jafar gave 24 Parganas and one crore of rupees to the Company and valuable Siraj presents to the English officers including Clive. Company got the Diwani rights , by which it was able to collect the revenue of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa after the Battle of Buxar. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct: British East India Company was granted free trade in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. -
Question 30 of 100
30. Question
How many of the following was/were the reasons behind the collapse of the urban handicrafts industry during the British rule in India?
(1)Competition with the cheaper imported machine-goods from Britain.
(2)Forcing craftsmen to sell their goods below the market price.
(3)The gradual disappearance of Indian rulers and their courts.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: The quick collapse of the urban handicrafts was caused largely by competition with the cheaper imported machine-goods from Britain. Indian goods made with primitive techniques could not compete with goods produced on a mass scale by powerful steam-operated machines.
Statement 2 is correct: The ruin of Indian industries was also contributed by oppression practiced by the East India Company. They forced craftsmen to sell their goods below the market price.
Statement 3 is correct: The gradual disappearance of Indian rulers and their courts who were the main customers of the handicrafts also gave a big blow to these industries.Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: The quick collapse of the urban handicrafts was caused largely by competition with the cheaper imported machine-goods from Britain. Indian goods made with primitive techniques could not compete with goods produced on a mass scale by powerful steam-operated machines.
Statement 2 is correct: The ruin of Indian industries was also contributed by oppression practiced by the East India Company. They forced craftsmen to sell their goods below the market price.
Statement 3 is correct: The gradual disappearance of Indian rulers and their courts who were the main customers of the handicrafts also gave a big blow to these industries. -
Question 31 of 100
31. Question
How many of the following statements is/are correct about Operation Polo?
(1) It was a police action against the Razakars, a militant group that supported the Nizam’s independence.
(2) It resulted in the integration of Hyderabad into the Indian Union and the abolition of the Nizam’s rule.
(3) It was opposed by the United Nations, which passed a resolution calling for an immediate ceasefire and a plebiscite in Hyderabad.
(4) It was preceded by a standstill agreement between India and Hyderabad, which maintained the status quo of their relations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) Only threeCorrect
Incorrect
The Razakars were a paramilitary force that advocated for the Nizam’s sovereignty and resisted the Indian invasion. They were accused of committing atrocities against the Hindu population and the Telangana rebels, who wanted land reforms and democracy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Operation Polo ended with the surrender of the Nizam on September 18, 1948. He signed an instrument of accession, joining India as a princely state. He was later appointed as the Rajpramukh (governor) of Hyderabad until 1956, when the state was reorganized along linguistic lines. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The United Nations did not intervene in the conflict, as it was considered an internal matter of India. However, Pakistan protested against India’s action and accused it of violating international law and human rights.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
In November 1947, Hyderabad signed a standstill agreement with India, which continued all previous arrangements except for the stationing of Indian troops in the state. The agreement was meant to last for one year, during which a final settlement would be reached. However, India accused Hyderabad of violating the agreement by importing arms, seeking foreign recognition, and supporting subversive activities. Hence, statement 4 is correct.Unattempted
The Razakars were a paramilitary force that advocated for the Nizam’s sovereignty and resisted the Indian invasion. They were accused of committing atrocities against the Hindu population and the Telangana rebels, who wanted land reforms and democracy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Operation Polo ended with the surrender of the Nizam on September 18, 1948. He signed an instrument of accession, joining India as a princely state. He was later appointed as the Rajpramukh (governor) of Hyderabad until 1956, when the state was reorganized along linguistic lines. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The United Nations did not intervene in the conflict, as it was considered an internal matter of India. However, Pakistan protested against India’s action and accused it of violating international law and human rights.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
In November 1947, Hyderabad signed a standstill agreement with India, which continued all previous arrangements except for the stationing of Indian troops in the state. The agreement was meant to last for one year, during which a final settlement would be reached. However, India accused Hyderabad of violating the agreement by importing arms, seeking foreign recognition, and supporting subversive activities. Hence, statement 4 is correct. -
Question 32 of 100
32. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) India has become the 13th country that can issue OIML (International Organization of Legal Metrology) Certificates.
(2) The CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (NPL-India) is India's National Metrology Institute (NMI) tasked with maintaining standards of SI units and calibrating national standards of weights and measures.
(3) The OIML is an intergovernmental organization established in 1955.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Recently, India has become the 13th country that can issue OIML (International Organization of Legal Metrology) Certificates. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Legal Metrology Division, Department of Consumer Affairs, is now authorised to issue OIML certificates.
The CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (NPL-India) is India’s National Metrology Institute' (NMI) that maintains standards of SI units in India and calibrates the national standards of weights and measures. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The OIML is an intergovernmental organization established in 1955, with India becoming a member in 1956. It has 63 Member States and 64 Corresponding Members. Hence, statement 3 is correct.Unattempted
Recently, India has become the 13th country that can issue OIML (International Organization of Legal Metrology) Certificates. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Legal Metrology Division, Department of Consumer Affairs, is now authorised to issue OIML certificates.
The CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (NPL-India) is India’s National Metrology Institute' (NMI) that maintains standards of SI units in India and calibrates the national standards of weights and measures. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The OIML is an intergovernmental organization established in 1955, with India becoming a member in 1956. It has 63 Member States and 64 Corresponding Members. Hence, statement 3 is correct. -
Question 33 of 100
33. Question
With reference to the Indian Factory Act, 1881, consider the following statements:
(1)It laid down the provisions for regulation of child labour.
(2)It required employers to pay men and women equally for doing the same work.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2Correct
Incorrect
The first Indian Factory Act was passed in 1881. The Act primarily dealt with the problem of child labour. It laid down that children below 7 could not work in factories, while children between 7 and 12 would not work for more than 9 hours a day. Children would also get four holidays in a month. The Act also provided for the proper fencing off of dangerous machinery. The second Indian Factories Act was passed in 1891. It provided for a weekly holiday for all workers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Factory Act 1881 did not provide for equal pay for equal work for men and women. Whereas,, the second Factory Act, 1891 fixed working hours for women at 11 hours per day. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.Unattempted
The first Indian Factory Act was passed in 1881. The Act primarily dealt with the problem of child labour. It laid down that children below 7 could not work in factories, while children between 7 and 12 would not work for more than 9 hours a day. Children would also get four holidays in a month. The Act also provided for the proper fencing off of dangerous machinery. The second Indian Factories Act was passed in 1891. It provided for a weekly holiday for all workers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Factory Act 1881 did not provide for equal pay for equal work for men and women. Whereas,, the second Factory Act, 1891 fixed working hours for women at 11 hours per day. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. -
Question 34 of 100
34. Question
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
(1) Announcement of the Cabinet Mission.
(2) Elections for the Constituent Assembly.
(3) Shimla Conference.
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(A) 1-2-3
(B) 2-1-3
(C) 3-2-1
(D) 3-1-2Correct
Incorrect
The Shimla Conference was convened by Lord Wavell in June 1945.
The Clement Attlee government announced the decision to send a high-powered mission of three British Cabinet Ministers to India (known as Cabinet Mission) in February 1946.
Elections in the provincial assemblies for the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946.Unattempted
The Shimla Conference was convened by Lord Wavell in June 1945.
The Clement Attlee government announced the decision to send a high-powered mission of three British Cabinet Ministers to India (known as Cabinet Mission) in February 1946.
Elections in the provincial assemblies for the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. -
Question 35 of 100
35. Question
With respect to the Hindustan Socialist Republic Association (HSRA), consider the following statements:
(1) It was a revolutionary organisation founded during the first World War.
(2) Its aim was to establish a Federal Republic of the United States of India based on adult franchise.
(3) It favoured nationalisation of railways and large-scale industries.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrect
Incorrect
Old veterans like Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chatterjea and Sachindranath Sanyal met in Kanpur in October 1924 (whereas the Ist World War occurred in 1914 and lasted till 1918) and founded theHindustan Republican Association (or Army), which was later renamed as Hindustan Socialist Republic Association (HSRA). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Its aim was to organize armed revolution to overthrow colonial rule and establish in its place a Federal Republic of the United States of India whose basic principle would be adult franchise. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Its main organ, The Revolutionary, had proposed the nationalization of the railways and other means of transport and large-scale industries such as steel and ship building. The HRA had also decided to startlabour and peasant organizations‘ and to work for an organized and armed revolution.‘ Hence, statement 3 is correct.Unattempted
Old veterans like Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chatterjea and Sachindranath Sanyal met in Kanpur in October 1924 (whereas the Ist World War occurred in 1914 and lasted till 1918) and founded theHindustan Republican Association (or Army), which was later renamed as Hindustan Socialist Republic Association (HSRA). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Its aim was to organize armed revolution to overthrow colonial rule and establish in its place a Federal Republic of the United States of India whose basic principle would be adult franchise. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Its main organ, The Revolutionary, had proposed the nationalization of the railways and other means of transport and large-scale industries such as steel and ship building. The HRA had also decided to startlabour and peasant organizations‘ and to work for an organized and armed revolution.‘ Hence, statement 3 is correct.