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PRELIMS TEST 24

TEST 24 Bilingual - Part 1
TEST 24 Bilingual - Part 1

CSAT TEST 1 : PRELIMS 2024

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  1. Answered
  2. Review
  1. Question 1 of 80
    1. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    Higher learning centres in ancient India enjoyed no less academic, administrative and financial autonomy than the most autonomous universities in the world today. Forcing higher educational institutions to follow uniform standardised rules and regulations run counter to what the NEP provides for. Micromanagement of student admission, faculty recruitment, course contents, programme delivery and administration are a surefire recipe to take higher education farther away from excellence.
    With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
    I. More the autonomy more the excellence of Universities.
    II. The Universities in India today are not fully autonomous.
    III. Universities are not autonomous because of NEP.
    Which of the above of assumption(s) is/ are valid?
    (A) I and II only.
    (B) II and III only.
    (C) I and III only.
    (D) All of the above.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  2. Question 2 of 80
    2. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    Unity in diversity defined England’s successful march to the winners’s podium. Inclusivity was the watchword as the players from difference backgrounds performed in sync even as some fought migration-angst while other battled inner demons.
    With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
    I. Other teams lost because they were not inclusive like England.
    II. Unity in Diversity is mainly needed to win games.
    III. Immigrants show better loyalty to their adopted nation than their own.
    IV. People who can handle inner conflict well handle external pressures also well.
    Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid?
    (A) I, II, III and IV
    (B) II, III and IV only
    (C) III and IV only
    (D) IV only

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  3. Question 3 of 80
    3. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    The talismanic all-rounder and England’s Test captain does give the Moses-vibe, parting seas, ushering in miracles and making fans believe that nothing is improbable on the cricketing turf. Yet, he is equally fragile. “Look he is a champion but he is a human too, there will be anxiety,” Rashid said. There are dual threads running here that are linked to history and the mind. Leap back to the 2016 final at Eden Gardens and you will recall Ian Bishop’s iconic final remark: “Carlos Brathwaite, remember the name!” The West Indian had just clattered four sixes off Stokes in the game’s concluding over. An improbable victory was seized and Stokes sat on his haunches, hid his head within his palms and wept. Cut to a more recent vintage and we now deal with a Stokes, who sought a break due to mental exhaustion. It takes courage to admit that athletes due to ingrained machismo tend to put on an invincible facade. Even Virat Kohli admitted to faking intensity when deep inside he was dealing with the shadows of the mind. Seen through that light, it is remarkable that despite the historical baggage and depression lurking below the surface, Stokes came back for good.
    Winning the 2019 World Cup for Eoin Morgan’s men followed by some terrific exploits in Tests and now to make peace with the ghosts of the past is never easy. Stokes did precisely that and as his T20 skipper Jos Buttler said, he is a “big-match player.” To open the bowling and then to shepherd the middle-order in a nervous chase can be daunting and the pressure quadruples during a summit clash.
    What is the most critical message from the above passage?
    (A) Every champion is human too and become anxious.
    (B) Stokes was a 'big match player' in recent World Cup.
    (C) It takes courage to admit like Virat Kohli that sportsmen put on an invisible facade.
    (D) The mind can keep in check past memories from adding to the pressures.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  4. Question 4 of 80
    4. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    India in November 2022 announced its long-term strategy to transition to a “low emissions” pathway at the United Nations Conference of Parties (COP) ongoing in Sharm el Sheikh, Egypt, which is premised on expanding its nuclear power capacity by at least three fold in the next decade, apart from becoming an international hub for producing green hydrogen and increasing the proportion of ethanol in petrol.
    With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
    I. With the increase in nuclear power, green hydrogen and ethanol, use of fossil fuels will become history in India.
    II. Renewable energy is not part of Indian long-term strategy of low emissions.
    Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid:
    (A) I only
    (B) II only
    (C) Both I and II
    (D) Neither I nor II

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Assumption I is invalid practically and passage says ethanol would be mixed with petrol. Assumption II is valid since it Renewable Energy is considered as Zero Emission producer of energy.

    Unattempted

    Assumption I is invalid practically and passage says ethanol would be mixed with petrol. Assumption II is valid since it Renewable Energy is considered as Zero Emission producer of energy.

  5. Question 5 of 80
    5. Question

    An iron tank 5 m x 2 m x 14 m is always filled with water up to half of its height. What surface area of the tank which is at a higher risk of corrosion?
    (A) 110 cu. m
    (B) 106 cu. m
    (C) 108 cu. m
    (D) 112 cu. m

    Correct

    Incorrect

    If L, B and H are the dimensions Of the water column,
    then the wet area (only 5 faces) = 2(BH + LH) + LB
    = 2 x [(2 x 7+5 x 7)] +(5 x 2).
    The result is 108 cu. m.

    Unattempted

    If L, B and H are the dimensions Of the water column,
    then the wet area (only 5 faces) = 2(BH + LH) + LB
    = 2 x [(2 x 7+5 x 7)] +(5 x 2).
    The result is 108 cu. m.

  6. Question 6 of 80
    6. Question

    In an annual day function, all the events are scheduled to occur at regular intervals of half an hour. Group singing began 26 minutes ago and Classical dance is the next event scheduled at 10.30. By how many minutes group singing started late?
    (A) 3 minutes
    (B) 4 minutes
    (C) 5 minutes
    (D) 6 minutes

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Since next event is scheduled at 10.30, Group singing must begin at 10.00
    But it began only 26 mins before (at 10.04).
    So the delay is 4 mins.

    Unattempted

    Since next event is scheduled at 10.30, Group singing must begin at 10.00
    But it began only 26 mins before (at 10.04).
    So the delay is 4 mins.

  7. Question 7 of 80
    7. Question

    If 78*3945 is divisible by 11, where * is a digit, then * is equal to ?
    (A) 1
    (B) 0
    (C) 3
    (D) 5

    Correct

    Incorrect

    (7+*+9+5) – (8+3+4)
    = 21 + * -15 = 6 + *
    6 + * , must be 11 or multiple of 11.
    6 + * = 11, * = 5

    Unattempted

    (7+*+9+5) – (8+3+4)
    = 21 + * -15 = 6 + *
    6 + * , must be 11 or multiple of 11.
    6 + * = 11, * = 5

  8. Question 8 of 80
    8. Question

    In a school of the boys are same in number as of the girls and of the girls are same in number as of the boys. The ratio of the boys to girls in that school is ?
    (D) 2 : 1
    (B) 5 : 2
    (C) 4 : 3
    (D) 3 : 2

    Correct

    Incorrect


    Unattempted


  9. Question 9 of 80
    9. Question

    In an office, there are 108 tables and 132 chairs. If 1/6 of the tables and 1/4 of the chairs are broken. How many people can work in the office if each person requires one table and one chair?
    (A) 86
    (B) 90
    (C) 92
    (D) 99

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Broken Chair =
    un-broken chair = 108 – 18 = 90
    Broken Table =
    Un-broken Table = 132-33= 99
    Un-broken pair of chair and table is 90.

    Unattempted

    Broken Chair =
    un-broken chair = 108 – 18 = 90
    Broken Table =
    Un-broken Table = 132-33= 99
    Un-broken pair of chair and table is 90.

  10. Question 10 of 80
    10. Question

    Six numbers are arranged in decreasing order. The average of the first five numbers is 30 and the average of the last five numbers is 25. The difference of the first and the last numbers is
    (A) 20
    (B) 25
    (C) 5
    (D) 30

    Correct

    Incorrect

    a>b>c>d>e>f
    – (i)
    – (ii)
    (i) – (ii) =
    a – f = 5×5 = 25

    Unattempted

    a>b>c>d>e>f
    – (i)
    – (ii)
    (i) – (ii) =
    a – f = 5×5 = 25

  11. Question 11 of 80
    11. Question

    Pointing to Kathir, Sabitha said, “His mother’s brother is the father of my son Madhan.” How is Kathir related to Sabitha’s husband’s sister’s husband’s mother?
    (A) Son
    (B) Grandson
    (C) Nephew
    (D) Cousin

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Father of Sabitha’s son — Sabitha’s husband. So, Kathir is the son of sister of Sabitha’s husband.
    Sabitha’s husband’s sister’s husband’s mother is Kathir’s grandmother.
    So Kathir is her Grandson

    Unattempted

    Father of Sabitha’s son — Sabitha’s husband. So, Kathir is the son of sister of Sabitha’s husband.
    Sabitha’s husband’s sister’s husband’s mother is Kathir’s grandmother.
    So Kathir is her Grandson

  12. Question 12 of 80
    12. Question

    A least number which should be added to 4196 so that it is divisible by 24, 50 and 105 is ____________
    (A) 4
    (B) 5
    (C) 3
    (D) 6

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The LCM of 24, 50 and 105 = 4200. The lcm when divided by either of these numbers leaves the remainder O.
    The minimum number to be added is 4200 – 4196 = 4.

    Unattempted

    The LCM of 24, 50 and 105 = 4200. The lcm when divided by either of these numbers leaves the remainder O.
    The minimum number to be added is 4200 – 4196 = 4.

  13. Question 13 of 80
    13. Question

    Three people are running around a circular track which is 3600m. Their speed is 75m/s, 80m/s and 90 m/s respectively. After how many minutes will they all again meet at a starting point?
    (A) 12 minutes
    (B) 16 minutes
    (C) 18 minutes
    (D) 20 minutes

    Correct

    Incorrect

    T1 = 3600/75 = 48 minutes,
    T2= 3600/80 = 45 mins,
    T3 = 3600/9 = 40 mins.
    T=LCM (T1, T2, T3) = 720 seconds.
    Convert to mins = 720/60 = 12 mins.

    Unattempted

    T1 = 3600/75 = 48 minutes,
    T2= 3600/80 = 45 mins,
    T3 = 3600/9 = 40 mins.
    T=LCM (T1, T2, T3) = 720 seconds.
    Convert to mins = 720/60 = 12 mins.

  14. Question 14 of 80
    14. Question

    The average number of visitors to a Museum on every Monday is 96, whereas it is 156 on other days of the month. What will be the average number of visitors for the entire month if it has 30 days and begins on Monday?
    (A) 144
    (B) 145
    (C) 146
    (D) 147

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The month begins on a Monday, so there will be 5 Mondays.
    The average = {(5*96) + (25*156)} / 30
    146

    Unattempted

    The month begins on a Monday, so there will be 5 Mondays.
    The average = {(5*96) + (25*156)} / 30
    146

  15. Question 15 of 80
    15. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    Traders of universally-prized Pashmina shawls are complaining that “obsolete testing methods” have resulted in many of their export consignments being flagged for presence of ‘Shahtoosh’ guard hair, which is obtained from endangered Tibetan antelopes. The traders claim the use of obsolete techniques such as ‘Light Microscopy’ by the authorities has resulted in several cases of ‘false positive’ leading to their wrongful prosecution.
    The following assumptions have been drawn from the above passage:
    I. Traders to make a profit mix Shahtooh Hair in Pashmina shawls.
    II. Prices of Pashmina Shawls vary region / nation wise based on testing methodology.
    III. Investment in improved testing methods will ensure quality control and facilitate exports.
    IV. Technology improves testing and reduces corruption and harassment.
    V. Pashmina is from mountain goats and mixing with Shahtoosh is not feasible as it is an antelope.
    Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid?
    (A) I, II, III and IV only
    (B) II, III and V only
    (C) III only
    (D) I only

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  16. Question 16 of 80
    16. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    It is certainly appropriate for India to point to the great and growing global difficulties because of the Russian action. Mr. Jaishankar was correct when he said in Moscow on November 8, after his meeting with his Russian counterpart Sergei Lavrov, and, in his presence that “the global economy is simply too inter-dependent for a significant conflict anywhere, not to have major consequences elsewhere. We are seeing growing concerns on energy and food security from the conflict that are coming on top of severe stresses created by two years of COVID. The Global South, especially, is feeling the pain acutely.” It would also be correct for India to keep emphasising that the way out is through dialogue and diplomacy. It would, however, be counterproductive to go beyond such exhortations. This is not only because mediation efforts, if undertaken, may fail but also because they would expose the true extent of India’s global influence and the limitations of personal chemistry between leaders in influencing events. Leaders and diplomats, like angels, must always tread lightly.
    Which of the following statements best reflects the critical message of the phrase ‘Leaders and diplomats, like angels, must always tread lightly’ in the above passage?
    (A) Leaders and diplomats must not add additional stresses to the growing concerns on energy and food security and the severe stresses of past two years of COVID.
    (B) Due to high Indian prestige presently in global affairs, Indian diplomats should intervene more and stop the conflict smoothly like angels.
    (C) Pushing the envelope too much by leaders and diplomats may backfire.
    (D) As the world is too interdependent too much intervention by leaders can lead to conflicts elsewhere and hence should tread lightly.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Beyond a limit diplomacy may fail and also show the weaknesses of India.

    Unattempted

    Beyond a limit diplomacy may fail and also show the weaknesses of India.

  17. Question 17 of 80
    17. Question

    Pointing to a boy on the stage, Vidya said, “He is the only brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband.” How is the boy on the stage related to Vidya’s son’s sister?
    (A) Brother
    (B) Husband
    (C) Cousin
    (D) Nephew

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Wife of Vidya’s husband — Vidya;
    Brother of daughter — Son.
    So, the boy on the stage is Vidya’s son.
    Vidya’s son’s sister is the sister of boy who is in the stage because Vidya’s daughter has only one brother.

    Unattempted

    Wife of Vidya’s husband — Vidya;
    Brother of daughter — Son.
    So, the boy on the stage is Vidya’s son.
    Vidya’s son’s sister is the sister of boy who is in the stage because Vidya’s daughter has only one brother.

  18. Question 18 of 80
    18. Question

    Which one of the following is a factor of the sum of first 25 natural numbers?
    (A) 26
    (B) 24
    (C) 13
    (D) 12

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Sum of first 25 natural numbers is
    =

    Unattempted

    Sum of first 25 natural numbers is
    =

  19. Question 19 of 80
    19. Question

    In an exam the sum of the scores of A and B is 120, that of B and C is 130 and that of C and A is 140. Then the score of C is
    (A) 65
    (B) 75
    (C) 70
    (D) 60

    Correct

    Incorrect

    A+B=120, B+C=130, C+D=140
    (A+B) + (B+C) + (C+A) = 120+130+140
    2(A+B+C) = 390
    A+B+C= 195
    C = (A+B+C) – (A+B)
    = 195-120 = 75

    Unattempted

    A+B=120, B+C=130, C+D=140
    (A+B) + (B+C) + (C+A) = 120+130+140
    2(A+B+C) = 390
    A+B+C= 195
    C = (A+B+C) – (A+B)
    = 195-120 = 75

  20. Question 20 of 80
    20. Question

    If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier than Monday, What day will it be on the 20th day of the month?
    (A) Thursday
    (B) Wednesday
    (C) Tuesday
    (D) Saturday

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The seventh day of the month is three days earlier than Monday, which is Friday.
    So, the 21st day is also Friday and thus, the 20th day is Thursday.

    Unattempted

    The seventh day of the month is three days earlier than Monday, which is Friday.
    So, the 21st day is also Friday and thus, the 20th day is Thursday.

  21. Question 21 of 80
    21. Question

    Sameer remembers that birthday of Sam is after Jan 19 but before Jan 24. But Ganesh remembers that it is between 17 and 21st Jan. If it was Tuesday on Jan 17, what is the day in which the common probable date for Sam’s birthday fall on?
    (A) Friday
    (B) Saturday
    (C) Thursday
    (D) Sunday

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Probable dates according to Sameer are 20,21,22,23.
    Probable dates according to Ganesh are 18,19,20
    The common date is 20.
    If 17 is Tuesday
    20 will be Friday.

    Unattempted

    Probable dates according to Sameer are 20,21,22,23.
    Probable dates according to Ganesh are 18,19,20
    The common date is 20.
    If 17 is Tuesday
    20 will be Friday.

  22. Question 22 of 80
    22. Question

    Mixture of liquid A and B with total capacity 300 liters contains 70% of liquid A. How many more liters of liquid B should be added so that the proportions of liquid A and B become equal?
    (A) 119 liters
    (B) 120 liters
    (C) 121 liters
    (D) 122 liters

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The volume of liquid A = 70% of 300 = 210 liters.
    The volume of liquid B at present is 300-210 = 90 liters.
    We need to make the volume of Liquid A equal to that of the Liquid B.
    => 210 = 90 + x
    x = 120 litres.

    Unattempted

    The volume of liquid A = 70% of 300 = 210 liters.
    The volume of liquid B at present is 300-210 = 90 liters.
    We need to make the volume of Liquid A equal to that of the Liquid B.
    => 210 = 90 + x
    x = 120 litres.

  23. Question 23 of 80
    23. Question

    When a certain amount is invested in a simple interest scheme, it increases by 40% in 4 years. What will be compound interest after 3 years on an amount of Rs. 12000, at the same interest rate, and annual compounding?
    (A) Rs. 3972
    (B) Rs. 3852
    (C) Rs. 3162
    (D) Rs. 3632

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Simple interest on Rs. 100 in 4 years is Rs. 40, so rate is 40/4 = 10%.
    Compound interest for 3 years = 12000* (1+ 10/100)3
    12000*(11/10)3
    12000 * 11 * 11 * 11/1000
    = Rs. 15972
    Interest = A- 15972 – 12000 = Rs. 3972

    Unattempted

    Simple interest on Rs. 100 in 4 years is Rs. 40, so rate is 40/4 = 10%.
    Compound interest for 3 years = 12000* (1+ 10/100)3
    12000*(11/10)3
    12000 * 11 * 11 * 11/1000
    = Rs. 15972
    Interest = A- 15972 – 12000 = Rs. 3972

  24. Question 24 of 80
    24. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    Regions with the most blocks with critical groundwater levels are in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh, where, despite replenishable systems, indiscriminate groundwater withdrawal has depressed the water table. Other endangered blocks are in Rajasthan and Gujarat, where due to an arid climate, groundwater recharge itself is limited, and finally, parts of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, where due to inherent characteristics of crystalline water-storing aquifers, groundwater availability is low. That much more needs to be done to conserve groundwater is a foregone conclusion. There is no central law governing the use of groundwater and various States have their own laws on regulating its extraction that are deployed in a perfunctory manner. A draft National Water Policy has recommended a shift in usage from water-guzzling crops and prioritising recycled over freshwater for industrial purposes. Water ought not to be considered a free, private resource but one whose costs must be measured and borne equitably. While water remains a politically contentious subject in India, the climate crisis should inspire consensus across the political spectrum on disincentivising wasteful consumption of this precious resource.
    Which of the following statements best reflects the critical message of the above passage?
    (A) Need of a central law to regulate extraction and replenishment of water is imperative.
    (B) Each State based on terrain peculiarities should regulate indiscriminate groundwater withdrawal and take measures to conserve and recharge groundwater.
    (C) Preciousness of water and its egalitarian belonging needs to be highlighted by all including leaders of all hues and wastage penalised.
    (D) Water usage should not be free but charged.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  25. Question 25 of 80
    25. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    The release of the six remaining convicts in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case marks the end of a tragic episode that began with India’s disastrous involvement in Sri Lanka’s internal strife in the 1980s. The assassination in May 1991, ordered by the LTTE leadership and carried out by a suicide bomber, caused revulsion. However, over time, the prolonged incarceration of the seven persons ultimately found guilty evoked some public sympathy. Political parties in Tamil Nadu campaigned for the release of the four convicts on death row and three serving life terms. The Supreme Court commuted the death sentences to life in 2014. A resolution adopted by the Tamil Nadu Cabinet in 2018 for releasing them under Article 161 of the Constitution was not acted upon by the then Governor for a long time. Ultimately, he forwarded it to the Centre for its opinion. The Court, earlier this year, found no constitutional basis for the Governor’s action and invoked its extraordinary powers to order the release of A.G. Perarivalan. The same benefit has now been extended to others. While their release is no occasion to celebrate, contrary to what sections of the media and the political class seem to believe, it is not one for lamentation either. The plot’s masterminds are dead and only mid-level operatives and some local collaborators were apprehended. A sense that 31 years of imprisonment is punishment enough does indeed prevail.
    Which of the following statements best gives the reason for the release of the six remaining convicts?
    (A) The convicts were in jail for 31 years which is punishment enough.
    (B) Politcal parties in Tamil Nadu campaigned for the release of the convicts.
    (C) A resolution was adopted by the Tamil Nadu Cabinet in 2018 for releasing them.
    (D) The precedence of release of A.G. Perarivalan using Courts extraordinary powers.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  26. Question 26 of 80
    26. Question

    The difference between the greatest and the least four-digit numbers that begin with 3 and ends with 5 is ?
    (A) 999
    (B) 900
    (C) 990
    (D) 909

    Correct

    Incorrect

    3995 – 3005 = 990

    Unattempted

    3995 – 3005 = 990

  27. Question 27 of 80
    27. Question

    I have x marbles. My elder brother has 3 more than mine, while my younger brother has 3 less than mine. If the total number of marbles is 15, then the number of marbles that I have is ?
    (A) 3
    (B) 5
    (C) 7
    (D) 8

    Correct

    Incorrect

    x + (x+3) + (x-3) = 15
    3 x = 15 ,
    x= 5

    Unattempted

    x + (x+3) + (x-3) = 15
    3 x = 15 ,
    x= 5

  28. Question 28 of 80
    28. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    The Delhi High Court has remarked that the intention of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was to protect children below the age of 18 from sexual exploitation and that it was never meant to criminalise consensual romantic relationships between young adults.
    With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
    I. POSCO will stop sexual exploitation of children.
    II. Children below age of 18 having consensual sex can be charged under POSCO.
    III. Using POSCO against romantic relationships is absurd and can be misused.
    Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid?
    (A) All of the above.
    (B) None of the above.
    (C) II and III only.
    (D) III only.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  29. Question 29 of 80
    29. Question

    Arrange the following fractions in decreasing order :

    (A)
    (B)
    (C)
    (D)

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Convert fraction to decimal

    Unattempted

    Convert fraction to decimal

  30. Question 30 of 80
    30. Question

    The digit in unit’s place of the following number is ?
    (1570)2 + (1571)2 + (1572)2 + (1573)2

    (A) 4
    (B) 1
    (C) 2
    (D) 3

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unit digit in (1570)2= 0
    Unit digit in (1571)2= 12 =1
    Unit digit in (1572)2= 22 =4
    Unit digit in (1573)2= 32 =9
    0+1+4+9 =14
    Unit digit is 4

    Unattempted

    Unit digit in (1570)2= 0
    Unit digit in (1571)2= 12 =1
    Unit digit in (1572)2= 22 =4
    Unit digit in (1573)2= 32 =9
    0+1+4+9 =14
    Unit digit is 4

  31. Question 31 of 80
    31. Question

    Which is the largest of the following fractions?

    (A)
    (B)
    (C)
    (D)

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Covert all into decimal 2/3 = 0.66,
    3/5 = 0.6,
    8/11 = 0.73,
    11/17 = 0.65

    Unattempted

    Covert all into decimal 2/3 = 0.66,
    3/5 = 0.6,
    8/11 = 0.73,
    11/17 = 0.65

  32. Question 32 of 80
    32. Question

    The largest among the following numbers is ?

    (A)
    (B)
    (C)
    (D)

    Correct

    Incorrect




    0.01< 0.02 < 0.11< 0.12

    Unattempted




    0.01< 0.02 < 0.11< 0.12

  33. Question 33 of 80
    33. Question

    Which of the following number is the greatest of all ?

    (A)
    (B)
    (C)
    (D)

    Correct

    Incorrect



    Unattempted



  34. Question 34 of 80
    34. Question

    Directions : Examine the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
    The age (in years) of each of seven sisters – Deepa, Gaya, Mamta, Neeta, Piya, Rita and Sarita is different and is among 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10. Also,
    Rita is one year younger than Sarita.
    Gaya is three years older than Deepa.
    Piya is neither the youngest nor the eldest and Neeta is younger than Deepa.
    Mamta has as many sisters younger to her as elder to her.
    Who is the youngest sister?
    (A) Neeta
    (B) Rita
    (C) Gaya
    (D) Deepa

    Correct

    Incorrect

    From the given information seven sisters can be arranged according to their ages are shown below :
    10–Sarita
    9–Rita
    8–Gaya
    7–Mamta
    6–Piya
    5–Deepa
    4– Neeta
    Neeta is the youngest of all sisters.

    Unattempted

    From the given information seven sisters can be arranged according to their ages are shown below :
    10–Sarita
    9–Rita
    8–Gaya
    7–Mamta
    6–Piya
    5–Deepa
    4– Neeta
    Neeta is the youngest of all sisters.

  35. Question 35 of 80
    35. Question

    Select the missing number from the options given below :

    (A) 1012
    (B) 48
    (C) 25
    (D) 36

    Correct

    Incorrect

    2 × 21 × 26 = 1092
    1 × 22 × 46 = 1012
    Similarly, 2 × ? × 20 = 1000
    ? = 1000/40 = 25

    Unattempted

    2 × 21 × 26 = 1092
    1 × 22 × 46 = 1012
    Similarly, 2 × ? × 20 = 1000
    ? = 1000/40 = 25

  36. Question 36 of 80
    36. Question

    How many dots are there on the face opposite to the face with two dots?

    (A) 1
    (B) 5
    (C) 4
    (D) 6

    Correct

    Incorrect

    From dices 1 & 2
    Side having 5 dots is common
    Writing anticlockwise,154871042655
    5 3 2
    5 4 6
    Dice 6 is opposite to Dice 2.

    Unattempted

    From dices 1 & 2
    Side having 5 dots is common
    Writing anticlockwise,154871042655
    5 3 2
    5 4 6
    Dice 6 is opposite to Dice 2.

  37. Question 37 of 80
    37. Question

    One’s digit of the number (22)23 is ?
    (A) 4
    (B) 6
    (C) 8
    (D) 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    21=2, 22=4, 23=8, 24=16, 25=32, 26=64 ……
    After index 4, the unit digit of 2 is repeated.
    Divide index 23 by 4 and remainder is 3.
    Therefore, unit digit in (22)23 = unit digit in 223 = unit digit in 23 = 8.

    Unattempted

    21=2, 22=4, 23=8, 24=16, 25=32, 26=64 ……
    After index 4, the unit digit of 2 is repeated.
    Divide index 23 by 4 and remainder is 3.
    Therefore, unit digit in (22)23 = unit digit in 223 = unit digit in 23 = 8.

  38. Question 38 of 80
    38. Question

    Two trains 121 m and 99 m in length respectively are running in opposite directions, one at the rate of 40 kmph and the other at the rate of 32 kmph. How long will they take to be completely clear of each other from the moment they meet?
    (A) 110 sec
    (B) 99 sec
    (C) 88 sec
    (D) 11 sec

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Time taken to cover=(121+99)=220
    at the rate of (32 + 40), i.e. 72 km/h
    = 220/(72×5/18) sec =11 sec.

    Unattempted

    Time taken to cover=(121+99)=220
    at the rate of (32 + 40), i.e. 72 km/h
    = 220/(72×5/18) sec =11 sec.

  39. Question 39 of 80
    39. Question

    Raju, walking at the rate of 6 kmph, covers a certain distance in three hours. In how much time will Raju cover this distance running at the speed of 18 kmph?
    (A) 1 hour
    (B) 3 hours
    (C) 60 hours
    (D) 22 hours

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Let the distance be X.
    =>Distance = Speed x Time taken = 6 x 3 = 18 km.
    Now, speed = 18 km/hr.
    =>Time taken = Distance/Speed
    = 18/ 18 = 1 hour.

    Unattempted

    Let the distance be X.
    =>Distance = Speed x Time taken = 6 x 3 = 18 km.
    Now, speed = 18 km/hr.
    =>Time taken = Distance/Speed
    = 18/ 18 = 1 hour.

  40. Question 40 of 80
    40. Question

    Two cyclists start together to travel to a certain destination, one at the rate of 4 km/h and the other at the rate of 5 km/h. Find the distance if the former arrives half an hour after the latter.
    (A) 2 km
    (B) 10m
    (C) 10000m
    (D) 1 km

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Let the distance be X km. Now Time= distance/ speed.
    =>Time for the first rider = X/14.
    Similarly, time for the second cyclist = X/5.
    Given that: X/14 – X/5 =1/2
    => X= 10 km = 10000 m

    Unattempted

    Let the distance be X km. Now Time= distance/ speed.
    =>Time for the first rider = X/14.
    Similarly, time for the second cyclist = X/5.
    Given that: X/14 – X/5 =1/2
    => X= 10 km = 10000 m

  41. Question 41 of 80
    41. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    Chief Justice of India, Chandrachud sets great store in a judge’s ability to foresee democratic erosion. He says the subversion of constitutional democracy does not happen with sweeping changes but through very small, incremental changes, which if left unguarded open up the danger of eventually and cumulatively affecting the democratic polity. “No case is too small… even if the case deals with the free speech of one individual”. A judge, he said, should read a case not just through the eyes or the mind, but also through intuition and go beyond the legalese to spot the human problem lying hidden somewhere among the pages.
    It is this ability to travel beyond the strict confines of law that led to Justice Chandrachud's judgment recognising privacy as a fundamental right and his historic dissent of the Aadhaar policy. While upholding the rights of activists in the Bhima Koregaon case, the Justice said persecution was not the answer to dissent. “Voices in opposition cannot be muzzled”.
    The following assumptions have been drawn from the above passage:
    I. Every single case needs to be given due importance by Judges.
    II. Silencing dissent leads to subversion of constitutional democracy.
    III. Judiciary is the bulwark against gradual erosion of democratic norms.
    IV. Activists work against elected governments and hence have to be strongly dealt with.
    V. Judges should go blindly as per the law and not subjective.
    Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid:
    (A) All of the above
    (B) I, II, III and IV only
    (C) I, II, III only
    (D) I and II only

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  42. Question 42 of 80
    42. Question

    5349 is added to 3957. Then 7062 is subtracted from the sum. The result is not divisible by ?
    (A) 4
    (B) 3
    (C) 7
    (D) 11

    Correct

    Incorrect

    (5349 + 3957) −7062 = 2244
    It is devisable by 3, 4, 11, but not 7

    Unattempted

    (5349 + 3957) −7062 = 2244
    It is devisable by 3, 4, 11, but not 7

  43. Question 43 of 80
    43. Question

    Simplify 3 15 * 2 5 5 3
    (A) 6
    (B) 5
    (C) 8
    (D) 12

    Correct

    Incorrect

    3 15 * 2 5 5 3 = 3 * 2/5 15*5/3
    = 6/5 *5*5
    = 6/5 * 5 = 6

    Unattempted

    3 15 * 2 5 5 3 = 3 * 2/5 15*5/3
    = 6/5 *5*5
    = 6/5 * 5 = 6

  44. Question 44 of 80
    44. Question

    On dividing a number by 9, the remainder is 8. The quotient so obtained when divided by 11, leaves the remainder 9. Now the quotient so obtained when divided by 13, leaves the remainder 8. Find the remainder when then given number is divided by 1287.
    (A) 879
    (B) 881
    (C) 883
    (D) 885

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Suppose the given number is N. We have N = 9Q1 + 8,
    Q1 = 11Q2 + 8,
    Q2 = 13Q3 + 8.
    Here Q1, Q2 and Q3 are first, second and 3rd quotient.
    Now N = 9 [11 (13Q3 + 8) + 9] + 8 = 1287Q3 + 881.

    Unattempted

    Suppose the given number is N. We have N = 9Q1 + 8,
    Q1 = 11Q2 + 8,
    Q2 = 13Q3 + 8.
    Here Q1, Q2 and Q3 are first, second and 3rd quotient.
    Now N = 9 [11 (13Q3 + 8) + 9] + 8 = 1287Q3 + 881.

  45. Question 45 of 80
    45. Question

    When n is divided by 6, the remainder is 4. When 2n is divided by 6, the remainder is
    (A) 0
    (B) 1
    (C) 2
    (D) 4

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Let quotient be q then
    n = 6q + 4
    2n = 12 q + 8
    2n = 6(2q+1) + 2
    Here remainder is 2.

    Unattempted

    Let quotient be q then
    n = 6q + 4
    2n = 12 q + 8
    2n = 6(2q+1) + 2
    Here remainder is 2.

  46. Question 46 of 80
    46. Question

    A number when divided by 136 leaves remainder 36. If the same number is divided by 17, then the remainder will be ?
    (A) 9
    (B) 7
    (C) 3
    (D) 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    if the first divisor is exactly divisible by second divisor then Required remainder
    = Remainder obtained on dividing first remainder by second divisor.
    136 is exactly devisable by 17.
    Therefore, Remainder on dividing 36 by 17 = 2

    Unattempted

    if the first divisor is exactly divisible by second divisor then Required remainder
    = Remainder obtained on dividing first remainder by second divisor.
    136 is exactly devisable by 17.
    Therefore, Remainder on dividing 36 by 17 = 2

  47. Question 47 of 80
    47. Question

    A number, when divided by 119, leaves a remainder of 19. If it is divided by 17, it will leave a remainder of ?
    (A) 19
    (B) 10
    (C) 7
    (D) 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Number = 119q + 19
    =17x7xq + 17×1 + 2
    = 17(7q+1) + 2
    Hence, the same number divided by 17 will leave a remainder of 2.

    Unattempted

    Number = 119q + 19
    =17x7xq + 17×1 + 2
    = 17(7q+1) + 2
    Hence, the same number divided by 17 will leave a remainder of 2.

  48. Question 48 of 80
    48. Question

    If 'we are reaching Delhi' means 'kiz kip kil kih', 'Delhi is really beautiful' means 'kih kid kim kin', 'is akash reaching there' means 'kil kit kic kid' and 'we really need akash' means 'kim kiw kit kip', then how would you code 'akash is reaching delhi'?
    (A) kic kim kip kih
    (B) kid kin kip kih
    (C) kit kid kil kih
    (D) kip kim kil kih

    Correct

    Incorrect

    code for 'Akash' is ‘kit'
    code for ‘Is’ is ‘kid’
    code for ‘Reaching’ is ‘kil’
    code for ‘Delhi’ is kih

    Unattempted

    code for 'Akash' is ‘kit'
    code for ‘Is’ is ‘kid’
    code for ‘Reaching’ is ‘kil’
    code for ‘Delhi’ is kih

  49. Question 49 of 80
    49. Question

    In a certain code 'BEAD' is written as '7#94' and 'GREY' is written as '$%#8'. How is 'READY' written in that code?
    (A) $%497.
    (B) %#948.
    (C) 794$%#.
    (D) 847%$#.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Codes: R–>%,
    E–>#,
    A–>9,
    D–>4 and
    Y–>8.
    So, READY would be coded as %#948.

    Unattempted

    Codes: R–>%,
    E–>#,
    A–>9,
    D–>4 and
    Y–>8.
    So, READY would be coded as %#948.

  50. Question 50 of 80
    50. Question

    The Following series has at least two different characters. Find the missing number in the series.
    x_yzzxx_z_xx_zz
    (A) xyzy
    (B) zzxy
    (C) yxzx
    (D) xyzx

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The series is xxyzz —– xxyzz —– xxyzz.

    Unattempted

    The series is xxyzz —– xxyzz —– xxyzz.

  51. Question 51 of 80
    51. Question

    is divisible by ?
    (A) 11
    (B) 16
    (C) 25
    (D) 30

    Correct

    Incorrect



    The number is multiple of prime number 2, 3 and 5, hence divisible by 2x3x5 = 30.

    Unattempted



    The number is multiple of prime number 2, 3 and 5, hence divisible by 2x3x5 = 30.

  52. Question 52 of 80
    52. Question

    The sum of first 60 numbers from 1 to 60 is divisible by ?
    (A) 13
    (B) 59
    (C) 60
    (D) 61

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Sum of 1+2+3+4 …… +60

    =
    1830 is divisible by 61.

    Unattempted

    Sum of 1+2+3+4 …… +60

    =
    1830 is divisible by 61.

  53. Question 53 of 80
    53. Question

    A student was asked to multiply a given number by 8/17. Instead, he divided the number by 8/17. His answer was 225 more than the correct answer. The given number was ?
    (A) 64
    (B) 289
    (C) 136
    (D) 225

    Correct

    Incorrect





    n= 136

    Unattempted





    n= 136

  54. Question 54 of 80
    54. Question

    In 24 hours, a boat can travel 288 km downstream. What is the speed of the boat in still water if it takes 72 hours to cover double distance in upstream?
    (A) 10 kmph
    (B) 12 kmph
    (C) 14 kmph
    (D) 16 kmph

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The downstream speed 288/24 = 12 km/h,
    and the upstream speed = 576/72 = 8 km/h
    B = ½*(D+U)
    B = 12+8/2 = 10 km/h

    Unattempted

    The downstream speed 288/24 = 12 km/h,
    and the upstream speed = 576/72 = 8 km/h
    B = ½*(D+U)
    B = 12+8/2 = 10 km/h

  55. Question 55 of 80
    55. Question

    The length of a road is one Kilometer. The number of plants required for plantation at a gap of 20 Meters in both sides of the road is ?
    (A) 102
    (B) 100
    (C) 51
    (D) 50

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Road length = 1000 Meters
    One side at the distance of 20 Meters =
    Both side of Road = 51 x2 = 102

    Unattempted

    Road length = 1000 Meters
    One side at the distance of 20 Meters =
    Both side of Road = 51 x2 = 102

  56. Question 56 of 80
    56. Question

    A man reaches his office 30 min late, if he walks from his home at 3 km per hour and reaches 40 min early if he walks at 4 km per hour. How far is his office from his house?
    (A) 7km
    (B) 14 km
    (C) 5 km
    (D) 3 km

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Time gained = 30 + 40 = 70 min =70/60 hrs.
    Let the distance be x km.
    Therefore, x/3 – x/4=70×1/60
    ⇒x=14 km

    Unattempted

    Time gained = 30 + 40 = 70 min =70/60 hrs.
    Let the distance be x km.
    Therefore, x/3 – x/4=70×1/60
    ⇒x=14 km

  57. Question 57 of 80
    57. Question

    Speeds of Arjun and Sarath are in the ratio 7 : 2.
    What is the speed of Arjun if Sarath can cover a distance of 6 Km in 1 hour?
    (A) 20 kmph
    (B) 21 kmph
    (C) 22 kmph
    (D) 23 kmph

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The speed of Sarath = 6/1 = 6 km/h
    Ratio = 7 : 2.
    Then 7/2 = x/6
    x = 21 kmph

    Unattempted

    The speed of Sarath = 6/1 = 6 km/h
    Ratio = 7 : 2.
    Then 7/2 = x/6
    x = 21 kmph

  58. Question 58 of 80
    58. Question

    How many squares are there in the figure given below?

    (A) 7
    (B) 5
    (C) 6
    (D) 4

    Correct

    Incorrect


    Total number of squares : 12 + 22 = 5
    When rows and columns are the same.
    So, count the number of columns or row i.e 2
    = 12 + 22
    = 1 + 4 = 5

    Unattempted


    Total number of squares : 12 + 22 = 5
    When rows and columns are the same.
    So, count the number of columns or row i.e 2
    = 12 + 22
    = 1 + 4 = 5

  59. Question 59 of 80
    59. Question

    What is the number of straight lines in the following figure?

    (A) 10
    (B) 12
    (C) 13
    (D) 17

    Correct

    Incorrect

    label the figure as shown below:

    clearly in this figure:
    There are 3 horizontal lines namely AG, BF, and CE.
    There are 3 vertical lines namely AC, HD, and GE.
    There are 6 slanting lines namely AD, AE, GC, GD, CD, AND CE.
    Thus, There are 3+3+6=12  straight lines in all.

    Unattempted

    label the figure as shown below:

    clearly in this figure:
    There are 3 horizontal lines namely AG, BF, and CE.
    There are 3 vertical lines namely AC, HD, and GE.
    There are 6 slanting lines namely AD, AE, GC, GD, CD, AND CE.
    Thus, There are 3+3+6=12  straight lines in all.

  60. Question 60 of 80
    60. Question

    Two bangles of radii 19 and 11 cm are placed as concentric circles. What is the area of the portion that is inside the outer bangle but outside the inner bangle?
    (A) 234π
    (B) 236π
    (C) 240π
    (D) 242π

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The required area is the difference in area of two bangles
    = π (192-112)
    = π (361 – 121) = 240 π

    Unattempted

    The required area is the difference in area of two bangles
    = π (192-112)
    = π (361 – 121) = 240 π

  61. Question 61 of 80
    61. Question

    A person gives 1/4 of his property to his daughter, 1/2 to his sons and 1/5 for charity. How much has he given away?
    (A)
    (B)
    (C)
    (D)

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  62. Question 62 of 80
    62. Question

    The decimal fraction is equal to
    (A)
    (B)
    (C)
    (D)

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  63. Question 63 of 80
    63. Question

    A tree increases annually by 1/8th of its height. By how much will it increase after 2 years, if it stands 64 cm high today?
    (A) 72 cm
    (B) 74 cm
    (C) 75 cm
    (D) 81 cm

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Height after one year 64 + 1/8 of 64 = 72
    Height after second year 72+1/8 of 72 = 81

    Unattempted

    Height after one year 64 + 1/8 of 64 = 72
    Height after second year 72+1/8 of 72 = 81

  64. Question 64 of 80
    64. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    Energy is at the heart of the climate challenge – and key to the solution..
    Which of the following statements best explains the above statement?
    (A) Fossil fuels, such as coal, oil and gas, are by far the largest contributor to global climate change, accounting for over 75 percent of global greenhouse gas emissions.
    (B) Need to end reliance on fossil fuels and invest in alternative sources of energy that are clean, accessible, affordable, sustainable, and reliable.
    (C) A large chunk of the greenhouse gases that blanket the Earth and trap the sun’s heat are generated through energy production, by burning fossil fuels to generate electricity and heat.
    (D) Energy consumption is the main cause of climate challenge and within the ambit of how energy is produced and utilized lies the answer.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  65. Question 65 of 80
    65. Question

    Directions for the following item:
    Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
    With the 27th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP) in Sharm El Sheikh nearing its final stages and efforts being ramped up to arrive at a conclusive agreement, a consortium of countries that includes India has jointly stated that carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst parties, must be avoided. The European Union has proposed a policy — called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism — to tax products such as cement and steel, that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026.
    BASIC, a group constituting Brazil, India, South Africa and China, and therefore large economies that are significantly dependent on coal, has for several years voiced common concerns and reiterated their right to use fossil fuel in the interim during their countries’ eventual transformation to clean energy sources “Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices, such as carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst Parties [signatory countries to the United Nations climate agreements], must be avoided. BASIC countries call for a united solidarity response by developing countries to any unfair shifting of responsibilities from developed to developing countries.”
    Their joint statement on Wednesday expressed “grave concern” that developed countries were still not showing leadership or responding with a matching progression of effort. Developed countries had “backtracked on finance and mitigation commitments and pledges” and there was a “significant increase” in the consumption and production of fossil fuels in the past year by developed countries, their statement underlined, even as they continue to press developing countries to move away from the same resources. “Such double standards are incompatible with climate equity and justice.”
    Which of the statements below best reflects the central thrust of the above passage ?
    (A) Carbon Border Tax is a discriminatory practice according to BASIC.
    (B) BASIC objections to the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism alongside other grievances against developed countries.
    (C) Developed Countries double standards are incompatible with climate equity and justice is the conclusion of BASIC.
    (D) Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices could result in market distortion and aggravate the climate crisis.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  66. Question 66 of 80
    66. Question

    Directions for the following item:
    Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
    With the 27th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP) in Sharm El Sheikh nearing its final stages and efforts being ramped up to arrive at a conclusive agreement, a consortium of countries that includes India has jointly stated that carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst parties, must be avoided. The European Union has proposed a policy — called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism — to tax products such as cement and steel, that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026.
    BASIC, a group constituting Brazil, India, South Africa and China, and therefore large economies that are significantly dependent on coal, has for several years voiced common concerns and reiterated their right to use fossil fuel in the interim during their countries’ eventual transformation to clean energy sources “Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices, such as carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst Parties [signatory countries to the United Nations climate agreements], must be avoided. BASIC countries call for a united solidarity response by developing countries to any unfair shifting of responsibilities from developed to developing countries.”
    With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made regarding Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism:
    I. Aim to distort markets and build trade tariffs.
    II. Would reduce trading of extremely carbon intensive products.
    III. Reduce fossil fuel consumption around the world.
    IV. Attempt to put the burden on the developing nations to reduce carbon emissions.
    Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid:
    (A) I, II, III and IV
    (B) I, II and III only
    (C) I, II and IV only
    (D) II and IV only

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  67. Question 67 of 80
    67. Question

    Directions for the following item:
    Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
    With the 27th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP) in Sharm El Sheikh nearing its final stages and efforts being ramped up to arrive at a conclusive agreement, a consortium of countries that includes India has jointly stated that carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst parties, must be avoided. The European Union has proposed a policy — called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism — to tax products such as cement and steel, that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026.
    BASIC, a group constituting Brazil, India, South Africa and China, and therefore large economies that are significantly dependent on coal, has for several years voiced common concerns and reiterated their right to use fossil fuel in the interim during their countries’ eventual transformation to clean energy sources “Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices, such as carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst Parties [signatory countries to the United Nations climate agreements], must be avoided. BASIC countries call for a united solidarity response by developing countries to any unfair shifting of responsibilities from developed to developing countries.”
    According to the above passage what is not a “grave concern” of BASIC:
    (A) Continued use of fossil fuel across the board.
    (B) Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices.
    (C) Leadership by developed countries in practice.
    (D) Backtracking on commitments.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Continued use of fossil fuel is not a grave concern for BASIC according to the passage.

    Unattempted

    Continued use of fossil fuel is not a grave concern for BASIC according to the passage.

  68. Question 68 of 80
    68. Question

    Directions : Study the following line graph carefully and answer the question given below.
    026860500 Income (in Rs. lakhs)

    Year
    The percentage increase or decrease in the income of company C₂ is highest in which of the following years?
    (A) 2013
    (B) 2012
    (C) 2011
    (D) 2009

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The percentage of increase/decrease in the income of company C2 in :
    4328173365500

    Unattempted

    The percentage of increase/decrease in the income of company C2 in :
    4328173365500

  69. Question 69 of 80
    69. Question

    6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B is 7: 6 and A’s age after 6 years is 40 years. Present age of C is 10 years more than one – sixth of B’s present age. Find the ratio of present age of B and C?
    (A) 3:2
    (B) 2:1
    (C) 4:5
    (D) 1:3

    Correct

    Incorrect

    6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B = 7: 6 (7x, 6x)
    Present ages of A and P = 7x + 6, 6x + 6
    According to the question, A‘s age after 6 years is 40
    7x + 6 + 6 = 40
    7x = 28
    x = 4
    A’s present age = 7 x 4 + 6 = 34 years
    B’s present age = 6 x 4 + 6 = 30 years
    Present age of C = (1/6)*B’s present age + 10
    C’s present age = (1/6)*30 + 10 = 15
    Required ratio = 30: 15 = 2 : 1

    Unattempted

    6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B = 7: 6 (7x, 6x)
    Present ages of A and P = 7x + 6, 6x + 6
    According to the question, A‘s age after 6 years is 40
    7x + 6 + 6 = 40
    7x = 28
    x = 4
    A’s present age = 7 x 4 + 6 = 34 years
    B’s present age = 6 x 4 + 6 = 30 years
    Present age of C = (1/6)*B’s present age + 10
    C’s present age = (1/6)*30 + 10 = 15
    Required ratio = 30: 15 = 2 : 1

  70. Question 70 of 80
    70. Question

    Directions : Examine the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
    P, Q, R, S, T and U are members of a family. There are two married couples. Q is an engineer and the father of T. U is the grandfather of R and is a lawyer. S is the grandmother of T and is a housewife. There is one engineer, one lawyer, one teacher, one housewife and two students in the family.
    Which of the following are two married couples?
    (A) US and QP
    (B) US and QT
    (C) US and RP
    (D) TS and RU

    Correct

    Incorrect

    US and QP are two married couples.

    Unattempted

    US and QP are two married couples.

  71. Question 71 of 80
    71. Question

    Directions : Examine the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
    P, Q, R, S, T and U are members of a family. There are two married couples. Q is an engineer and the father of T. U is the grandfather of R and is a lawyer. S is the grandmother of T and is a housewife. There is one engineer, one lawyer, one teacher, one housewife and two students in the family.
    Which of the following is definitely a group of male members?
    (A) Q , U and T
    (B) U and T
    (C) Q, U and P
    (D) Q and U

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Q and U are definitely males.

    Unattempted

    Q and U are definitely males.

  72. Question 72 of 80
    72. Question

    In an organization 60 percent of the total number of employees earns more than Rs. 1 lakh per month. If 40 percent of the employees are men and 75% of the women earn more than Rs. 1 lakh in a month. What is the percentage of men who earns less than 1 lakh per month?
    (A) 6412 %
    (B) 6212%
    (C) 6634%
    (D) 6823%

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Let the total employees be 100.
    Males = 40 and Females = 60
    No. of women earning more than 1 lakh = 75% of 60 = 45.
    No. of men earning more than 1 lakh = 60 – 45 = 15.
    No. of men earning less than 1 lakh = 40 – 15 = 25.
    Percentage of men who earns less than 1 lakh = 58*100 = 125/2 = 6212%

    Unattempted

    Let the total employees be 100.
    Males = 40 and Females = 60
    No. of women earning more than 1 lakh = 75% of 60 = 45.
    No. of men earning more than 1 lakh = 60 – 45 = 15.
    No. of men earning less than 1 lakh = 40 – 15 = 25.
    Percentage of men who earns less than 1 lakh = 58*100 = 125/2 = 6212%

  73. Question 73 of 80
    73. Question

    Directions for Question :
    Study the following information given below to answer these questions.
    There are 7 movies M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6, and M7 is released in 7 different month January, February, March, April, June, August, and October. M1 is released in the month having less than 31 days but not in April. There are 3 movies released between M1 and M3. M2 is released in one of the months after M4. No movie is released between M2 and M4. M5 is released in one of the months before M7. M5 is not released in a month having maximum number of days. No Movie is released between M7 and M5.
    Which movie is released in the month of March?
    (A) M6
    (B) M7
    (C) M1
    (D) M3

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  74. Question 74 of 80
    74. Question

    Directions for Question :
    Study the following information given below to answer these questions.
    There are 7 movies M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6, and M7 is released in 7 different month January, February, March, April, June, August, and October. M1 is released in the month having less than 31 days but not in April. There are 3 movies released between M1 and M3. M2 is released in one of the months after M4. No movie is released between M2 and M4. M5 is released in one of the months before M7. M5 is not released in a month having maximum number of days. No Movie is released between M7 and M5.
    Which movie among the following is released between the months of June and October?
    (A) M4
    (B) M6
    (C) M7
    (D) M2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  75. Question 75 of 80
    75. Question

    Directions for Question :
    Study the following information given below to answer these questions.
    There are 7 movies M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6, and M7 is released in 7 different month January, February, March, April, June, August, and October. M1 is released in the month having less than 31 days but not in April. There are 3 movies released between M1 and M3. M2 is released in one of the months after M4. No movie is released between M2 and M4. M5 is released in one of the months before M7. M5 is not released in a month having maximum number of days. No Movie is released between M7 and M5.
    Which of the following statements is true?
    (A) M1 is released in the month of October.
    (B) M3 is released between March and June.
    (C) M6 is released in a month after M2
    (D) None is true

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Unattempted

  76. Question 76 of 80
    76. Question

    In a group of Lions and Crows the number of legs is 22 more than 2 times the number of heads. What is the number of Lions?
    (A) 9
    (B) 11
    (C) 13
    (D) 15

    Correct

    Incorrect

    No. of Lions = x. No. of Crows = y.
    Total number of legs = 4x + 2y.
    The total number of heads = x + y.
    Given, 4x + 2y = 2(x + y) + 22.
    Solving for x, we get x = 11.

    Unattempted

    No. of Lions = x. No. of Crows = y.
    Total number of legs = 4x + 2y.
    The total number of heads = x + y.
    Given, 4x + 2y = 2(x + y) + 22.
    Solving for x, we get x = 11.

  77. Question 77 of 80
    77. Question

    In a competitive exam, a candidate gets a score of 131 but attempts only 129 questions. If 4 marks are awarded for a correct answer, and 1 marks is deducted for a wrong answer, how many questions did he attempt wrongly?
    (A) 75
    (B) 76
    (C) 77
    (D) 78

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Let No. of wrong answers = n.
    No. of correct questions = 129 – n.
    [129 – n] x 4 – n(1) = 131.
    516 – 4n – n = 131.
    n = 77.

    Unattempted

    Let No. of wrong answers = n.
    No. of correct questions = 129 – n.
    [129 – n] x 4 – n(1) = 131.
    516 – 4n – n = 131.
    n = 77.

  78. Question 78 of 80
    78. Question

    Rishi saves Rs.1250 after spending 55%,15% and 5% of his monthly income on household items, clothes and medicines respectively. What is Rishi’s Monthly income?
    (A) Rs.5000
    (B) Rs.4500
    (C) Rs.5250
    (D) Rs.6450

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Let the monthly income of Rishi be Rs. x.
    Total expenditure = (55 + 15 + 5)% of x = 75% of x
    Now, savings = (100 – 75)% of x = 1250
    25% of x = 1250
    x/4 = 1250
    x = 4*1250
    = Rs. 5000

    Unattempted

    Let the monthly income of Rishi be Rs. x.
    Total expenditure = (55 + 15 + 5)% of x = 75% of x
    Now, savings = (100 – 75)% of x = 1250
    25% of x = 1250
    x/4 = 1250
    x = 4*1250
    = Rs. 5000

  79. Question 79 of 80
    79. Question

    Sreeja had three books in which Book A had 120 pages. Book B had 10% more pages than Book A and Book C had 10% less pages than Book A. If she tore roughly 5%, 10% and 15% of pages in A, B and C respectively, then approximately what percent of pages did she tear out?
    (A) 8%
    (B) 9%
    (C) 10%
    (D) 11%

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Given, Total No. of pages in book A = 120
    Total No. of pages in book B
    = 10% of 120 + 120
    = 12 + 120
    = 132
    Total No. of pages in book C
    = 120 – 10% of 120
    = 120 – 12
    = 108
    No. of pages torn from book A = 5% of Total No. of pages in book A = (5/100) * 120 = 6
    No. of pages torn from book B = 10% of 132 = 13.2
    No. of pages torn from book C = 15% of 108 = 16.2
    Total No. of pages torn out from books A, B, and C = 6 + 13.2 + 16.2 = 35.4
    Now, Total No. of pages in books A,B, and C earlier = 120 + 132 + 108 = 360
    Required Percentage
    = (Total No. of pages torn out/Total No. of pages in books A, B and C earlier) * 100
    = (35.4/360) * 100
    = 9.83% (Around 10%)

    Unattempted

    Given, Total No. of pages in book A = 120
    Total No. of pages in book B
    = 10% of 120 + 120
    = 12 + 120
    = 132
    Total No. of pages in book C
    = 120 – 10% of 120
    = 120 – 12
    = 108
    No. of pages torn from book A = 5% of Total No. of pages in book A = (5/100) * 120 = 6
    No. of pages torn from book B = 10% of 132 = 13.2
    No. of pages torn from book C = 15% of 108 = 16.2
    Total No. of pages torn out from books A, B, and C = 6 + 13.2 + 16.2 = 35.4
    Now, Total No. of pages in books A,B, and C earlier = 120 + 132 + 108 = 360
    Required Percentage
    = (Total No. of pages torn out/Total No. of pages in books A, B and C earlier) * 100
    = (35.4/360) * 100
    = 9.83% (Around 10%)

  80. Question 80 of 80
    80. Question

    Direction for the following one item:
    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
    Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud agreed to list in due course a writ petition to reconsider the Collegium system of judicial appointments to the Supreme Court and the High Courts. The petition sought the revival of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), which briefly gave the government an equal role along with the judiciary in the appointment of judges to the constitutional courts before it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015.
    Which of the following statements best captures the logical and practical suggestion based on the challenges shared in the above passage ?
    (A) The petitioners seeking NJAC to be revived is a sound suggestion as the Collegium System seems to have certain flaws.
    (B) The NJAC system had its own flaws and hence Supreme Court had to struck it down and hence suggested not be revived.
    (C) It is a battle between between Judiciary and Executive on who has the say in nominating judges and hence they need to find a via media and resolve it.
    (D) Collegium System be reviewed, made more transparent/accountable to Constitutional norms keeping alive its independence from Executive/Legislature.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    (D) seems more logical and sound than the other three suggestions.

    Unattempted

    (D) seems more logical and sound than the other three suggestions.

Test 24 Bilingual - Part 2
Test 24 Bilingual - Part 2

3rd Plan 2024 : History 2

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  2. Review
  1. Question 1 of 100
    1. Question

    With reference to Gandhian ideology of Satyagraha, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was a political tactic as well as philosophy of life.
    (2) It involved self-suffering to convert an enemy to one’s own view.
    (3) It was equivalent to passive resistance.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The chief aspect of Gandhian ideology was Satyagraha i.e. 'true force'. For, Mahatma Gandhi, Satyagraha was not merely a political tactic but part of a total philosophy of life and ideology of action. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    For Gandhi, the Satyagraha was to be used so that by self-suffering and not by violence the enemy could be converted to one's own view. Pattabhi Sitaramaya explains Satyagraha as: “It involves selfchosen suffering and humiliation for the resistors. If it is effective, it is so by working on the conscience of those against whom it is being used, sapping their confidence in the exclusive rightness of their cause making their physical strength important, and weakening their resolution by insinuating a sense of guilt for the suffering they have part in causing.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Mahtama Gandhi made a distinction between the Satyagraha and passive resistance. He wrote: ” The passive resistance has been concieved as a weapon of the weak and does not exclude the use of physical force or violence for the purpose of gaining onee's end; whereas the Satyagraha has been concieved as a weapon of the strongest, and excludes the use of violance in any shape. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted

    The chief aspect of Gandhian ideology was Satyagraha i.e. 'true force'. For, Mahatma Gandhi, Satyagraha was not merely a political tactic but part of a total philosophy of life and ideology of action. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    For Gandhi, the Satyagraha was to be used so that by self-suffering and not by violence the enemy could be converted to one's own view. Pattabhi Sitaramaya explains Satyagraha as: “It involves selfchosen suffering and humiliation for the resistors. If it is effective, it is so by working on the conscience of those against whom it is being used, sapping their confidence in the exclusive rightness of their cause making their physical strength important, and weakening their resolution by insinuating a sense of guilt for the suffering they have part in causing.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Mahtama Gandhi made a distinction between the Satyagraha and passive resistance. He wrote: ” The passive resistance has been concieved as a weapon of the weak and does not exclude the use of physical force or violence for the purpose of gaining onee's end; whereas the Satyagraha has been concieved as a weapon of the strongest, and excludes the use of violance in any shape. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

  2. Question 2 of 100
    2. Question

    Why did Gandhiji choose salt as symbol of protest during the Civil Disobedience Movement?
    (1) Salt tax affected all sections of the population
    (2) Salt issue would unify all political party in India
    (3) Salt tax did not threaten government finances
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Salt was chosen as central formula during a Salt Satyagrah as salt tax seemed to be the most crucial one for many reasons:
    It affected all sections of the population and had no divisive implication.
    It did not threaten government finances or any vested interests and therefore would not alienate any of the non-Congress political elements, nor would provoke government repression.
    It could be made into a highly emotive issue with great publicity value.
    Gandhi said, ― There is no other article like salt, outside water, by taxing which the government can reach the starving millions, the sick, the maimed and the utterly helpless, it was most inhuman poll tax the ingenuity of man can devise.
    Hence, all the statements are correct.

    Unattempted

    Salt was chosen as central formula during a Salt Satyagrah as salt tax seemed to be the most crucial one for many reasons:
    It affected all sections of the population and had no divisive implication.
    It did not threaten government finances or any vested interests and therefore would not alienate any of the non-Congress political elements, nor would provoke government repression.
    It could be made into a highly emotive issue with great publicity value.
    Gandhi said, ― There is no other article like salt, outside water, by taxing which the government can reach the starving millions, the sick, the maimed and the utterly helpless, it was most inhuman poll tax the ingenuity of man can devise.
    Hence, all the statements are correct.

  3. Question 3 of 100
    3. Question

    Which of the following was/were related to the Communist movement in India?
    (1) Meerut Conspiracy Case
    (2) Indian Liberal Party
    (3) Dutt-Bradley Thesis
    How many of the above options is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Option 1 is correct: Towards the end of the 1920s, many strikes were organised in the industrial cities of India. The British Government felt that Russian gold and Russian money were encouraging strikes to create anarchy and the spread of Communism in India. To arrest this trend in March 1929 the Government implicated certain Communist leaders 60 such as S.A. Dange, Shaukat Usman, and Muzaffar Ahmad along with Philip Spratt and Benjamin Francis Sradley, in a case which came to be known as the Meerut conspiracy.
    Option 2 is incorrect: The first session of the Indian Liberal Party began on November 1st and 2nd 1918. It was styled as the 'All India Conference of the Moderate Party'. During it's second session at Calcutta in 1919, it gave itself a name 'National Liberal Federation'. The important liberals were S.N.Banerjea, V.S.Srinivasa Sastri, D.E.Wacha, P.S. Sivaswami Aiyar, Tej Bahadur Sapru, C.P.Ramaswami Aiyar, N.M.Samarth, C.Y.Chintamani, M.R. Jayekar and others. It is not related to the communist movement in India.
    Option 3 is correct: The Indian Communists were to again participate in the activities of the mainstream of the national movement led by the Congress. The theoretical and political basis for the change in communist politics in India was laid in early 1936 by a document popularly known as the Dutt-Bradley Thesis. According to this thesis, the National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in the work of realising the anti-imperialist people's front.

    Unattempted

    Option 1 is correct: Towards the end of the 1920s, many strikes were organised in the industrial cities of India. The British Government felt that Russian gold and Russian money were encouraging strikes to create anarchy and the spread of Communism in India. To arrest this trend in March 1929 the Government implicated certain Communist leaders 60 such as S.A. Dange, Shaukat Usman, and Muzaffar Ahmad along with Philip Spratt and Benjamin Francis Sradley, in a case which came to be known as the Meerut conspiracy.
    Option 2 is incorrect: The first session of the Indian Liberal Party began on November 1st and 2nd 1918. It was styled as the 'All India Conference of the Moderate Party'. During it's second session at Calcutta in 1919, it gave itself a name 'National Liberal Federation'. The important liberals were S.N.Banerjea, V.S.Srinivasa Sastri, D.E.Wacha, P.S. Sivaswami Aiyar, Tej Bahadur Sapru, C.P.Ramaswami Aiyar, N.M.Samarth, C.Y.Chintamani, M.R. Jayekar and others. It is not related to the communist movement in India.
    Option 3 is correct: The Indian Communists were to again participate in the activities of the mainstream of the national movement led by the Congress. The theoretical and political basis for the change in communist politics in India was laid in early 1936 by a document popularly known as the Dutt-Bradley Thesis. According to this thesis, the National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in the work of realising the anti-imperialist people's front.

  4. Question 4 of 100
    4. Question

    With reference to the Champaran Satyagraha, consider the following statements :
    (1)Its aim was to abolish tinkathiya system.
    (2)Raj Kumar Shukla persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to visit Champaran.
    (3)Rajendra Prasad and J.B. Kriplani were associated with this movement.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    All the statements are correct.
    Champaran Satyagarh was started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917 to look into the problem of Tinkathiya system in which peasants of Champaran were forced to grow Indigo on 3/20th of the total land. In this background, Raj kumar shukla persuaded Gandhi to look into the peasants problem. Later Rajendra Prasad, J.B Kripalni, Mahadeo Desai and Narhari Parekh joined Gandhi in the movement.

    Unattempted

    All the statements are correct.
    Champaran Satyagarh was started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917 to look into the problem of Tinkathiya system in which peasants of Champaran were forced to grow Indigo on 3/20th of the total land. In this background, Raj kumar shukla persuaded Gandhi to look into the peasants problem. Later Rajendra Prasad, J.B Kripalni, Mahadeo Desai and Narhari Parekh joined Gandhi in the movement.

  5. Question 5 of 100
    5. Question

    With reference to the Tana Bhagat movement, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was a tribal uprising under the leadership of Jatra Oraon.
    (2) It was against the exploitation of zamindars.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Tana Bhagat movement in Chhotanagpur reflected the aspirations of the Oraon tribals for deliverance from the exploitation of zamindars and mahajans under the leadership of Jatra Bhagat and Turia Bhagat. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    The Tana Bhagats opposed the taxes imposed on them by the British and they staged a Satyagraha (civil disobedience movement) even before Gandhi's satyagraha movement.

    Unattempted

    Tana Bhagat movement in Chhotanagpur reflected the aspirations of the Oraon tribals for deliverance from the exploitation of zamindars and mahajans under the leadership of Jatra Bhagat and Turia Bhagat. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    The Tana Bhagats opposed the taxes imposed on them by the British and they staged a Satyagraha (civil disobedience movement) even before Gandhi's satyagraha movement.

  6. Question 6 of 100
    6. Question

    With reference to the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was presided over by Mahatma Gandhi.
    (2) The Congress defined what Swaraj would mean for the masses.
    (3) The resolution passed promised the right to form unions to workers and peasants.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Congress met at Karachi on 29 March, 1931 to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or the Delhi Pact.
    Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru had been executed six days earlier. Even though Gandhiji had made every attempt to save their lives, there was anger among the people, especially the youth, as to why he had not refused to sign the Pact on this question.
    All along Gandhiji‘s route to Karachi he was greeted with black flag demonstrations.
    The Congress dissociated itself from political violence in any shape or form but admired the bravery and sacrifice of the three martyrs.
    The Congress also endorsed the Delhi Pact and reiterated the goal of Poorna Swaraj.
    The Karachi session, presided over by Sardar Vallabbhai Patel, is also memorable for its resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Even though the Congress had from its inception fought for the economic interests, civil liberties and political rights of the people, this was the first time that the Congress defined what Swaraj wouldmean for the masses. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It also declared that, in order to end the exploitation of the masses, political freedom must include real economic freedom of the starving millions.
    The resolution guaranteed the basic civil rights of free speech, free press, free assembly, and freedom of association; equality before the law irrespective of caste, creed or sex; neutrality of the state in regard toall religions; elections on the basis of universal adult franchise; and free and compulsory primary education.
    It promised substantial reduction in rent and revenue, exemption from rent in case of uneconomic holdings, and relief of agricultural indebtedness and control of usury; better conditions for workers including a living wage, limited hours of work and protection of women workers; the right to organize and form unions to workers and peasants; and state ownership or control of key industries, mines and means of transport. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    It also maintained that the culture, language and script of the minorities and of the different linguistic areas shall be protected.
    The Karachi resolution remained in essence the basic political and economic programme of the Congress in later years.

    Unattempted

    The Congress met at Karachi on 29 March, 1931 to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or the Delhi Pact.
    Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru had been executed six days earlier. Even though Gandhiji had made every attempt to save their lives, there was anger among the people, especially the youth, as to why he had not refused to sign the Pact on this question.
    All along Gandhiji‘s route to Karachi he was greeted with black flag demonstrations.
    The Congress dissociated itself from political violence in any shape or form but admired the bravery and sacrifice of the three martyrs.
    The Congress also endorsed the Delhi Pact and reiterated the goal of Poorna Swaraj.
    The Karachi session, presided over by Sardar Vallabbhai Patel, is also memorable for its resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Even though the Congress had from its inception fought for the economic interests, civil liberties and political rights of the people, this was the first time that the Congress defined what Swaraj wouldmean for the masses. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It also declared that, in order to end the exploitation of the masses, political freedom must include real economic freedom of the starving millions.
    The resolution guaranteed the basic civil rights of free speech, free press, free assembly, and freedom of association; equality before the law irrespective of caste, creed or sex; neutrality of the state in regard toall religions; elections on the basis of universal adult franchise; and free and compulsory primary education.
    It promised substantial reduction in rent and revenue, exemption from rent in case of uneconomic holdings, and relief of agricultural indebtedness and control of usury; better conditions for workers including a living wage, limited hours of work and protection of women workers; the right to organize and form unions to workers and peasants; and state ownership or control of key industries, mines and means of transport. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    It also maintained that the culture, language and script of the minorities and of the different linguistic areas shall be protected.
    The Karachi resolution remained in essence the basic political and economic programme of the Congress in later years.

  7. Question 7 of 100
    7. Question

    Consider the following statements with regard to Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan :
    (1) He was the founder of Muhammedan Literary Society.
    (2) He declared Quran alone as authoritative work on Islam.
    (3) He supported customs of polygamy and easy divorce.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Muhammedan Literary Society was founded at Calcutta in 1863 by Nawab Abdul Latif. This society is marked as beginning in the direction of western education. It promoted discussions of religious, social and political questions.
    Statement 2 is correct: In the wake of reconciliation of modern scientific thought with Islam, he first of all, declared Quran alone as the authoritative work for Islam. Even the Quaran he interpreted in the light of contemporary rationalism and science.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: He wrote in favour of raising women‘s status in society and condemned the customs of polygamy and easy divorce along with removal of purdah as well.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Muhammedan Literary Society was founded at Calcutta in 1863 by Nawab Abdul Latif. This society is marked as beginning in the direction of western education. It promoted discussions of religious, social and political questions.
    Statement 2 is correct: In the wake of reconciliation of modern scientific thought with Islam, he first of all, declared Quran alone as the authoritative work for Islam. Even the Quaran he interpreted in the light of contemporary rationalism and science.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: He wrote in favour of raising women‘s status in society and condemned the customs of polygamy and easy divorce along with removal of purdah as well.

  8. Question 8 of 100
    8. Question

    How many of the following demands were put forth in Kisan Manifesto brought out in 1936?
    (1) Complete abolition of land revenue and rent
    (2) Security of tenure for tenants
    (3) Recognition of peasant unions
    (4) A living wage for agricultural labourers
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    A Kisan Manifesto was finalized at the All-India Kisan Committee session in Bombay and formally presented to the Congress Working Committee to be incorporated into its forthcoming manifesto for the 1937 elections. The Kisan Manifesto considerably influenced the agrarian programme adopted by the Congress at its Faizpur session, which included demands for fifty per cent reduction in land revenueand rent, a moratorium on debts, the abolition of feudal levies, security of tenure for tenants, a living wage for agricultural labourers, and the recognition of peasant unions. Hence, only option 1 is incorrect.

    Unattempted

    A Kisan Manifesto was finalized at the All-India Kisan Committee session in Bombay and formally presented to the Congress Working Committee to be incorporated into its forthcoming manifesto for the 1937 elections. The Kisan Manifesto considerably influenced the agrarian programme adopted by the Congress at its Faizpur session, which included demands for fifty per cent reduction in land revenueand rent, a moratorium on debts, the abolition of feudal levies, security of tenure for tenants, a living wage for agricultural labourers, and the recognition of peasant unions. Hence, only option 1 is incorrect.

  9. Question 9 of 100
    9. Question

    How many of the following was/were the objective(s) of Home Rule Movement in India?
    (1) Creation of states on linguistic basis
    (2) Education in the vernacular languages
    (3) Universal adult franchise
    (4) Establish self-government in India
    Select the correct answer :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Indian Home Rule Leagues were organized on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics.
    Annie Besant and Tilak were the pioneers of this new trend who set up separate leagues after the 1st world war.
    While Besant's league focused upon swaraj (self-government) and reentry of extremists into Congress, demands of Tilak's league included Swarajya, Formation of linguistic states, Education in the vernacular languages.
    The universal adult franchise was advocated by Congress at Karachi resolution in 1931. Hence, only option (3) is incorrect.

    Unattempted

    The Indian Home Rule Leagues were organized on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics.
    Annie Besant and Tilak were the pioneers of this new trend who set up separate leagues after the 1st world war.
    While Besant's league focused upon swaraj (self-government) and reentry of extremists into Congress, demands of Tilak's league included Swarajya, Formation of linguistic states, Education in the vernacular languages.
    The universal adult franchise was advocated by Congress at Karachi resolution in 1931. Hence, only option (3) is incorrect.

  10. Question 10 of 100
    10. Question

    How many of the following was/were secret societies of revolutionaries during Indian freedom struggle?
    (1)Abhinav Bharat
    (2)Yugantar
    (3)Anushilan Samiti
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    During the opening decades of 20th century revolutionary youth decided to copy the methods of the Irish nationalists and Russian nihilists and populists. They decided to organize the assassination of unpopular British officials which would strike terror into the hearts of the rulers, amuse the patriotic instincts of the people, inspire them and remove the fear of authority from their minds.
    A steadily increasing number of young men turned to this form of political struggle. In 1904, V.D. Sarvarkar organized Abhinav Bharat as a secret society of revolutionaries. Very soon secret societies of revolutionaries came up all over the country, the most famous and long lasting being Anushilan Samiti and Yugantar. Their activities took two forms—the assassination of oppressive officials and informers and traitors from their own ranks and dacoities to raise funds for purchase of arms etc.

    Unattempted

    During the opening decades of 20th century revolutionary youth decided to copy the methods of the Irish nationalists and Russian nihilists and populists. They decided to organize the assassination of unpopular British officials which would strike terror into the hearts of the rulers, amuse the patriotic instincts of the people, inspire them and remove the fear of authority from their minds.
    A steadily increasing number of young men turned to this form of political struggle. In 1904, V.D. Sarvarkar organized Abhinav Bharat as a secret society of revolutionaries. Very soon secret societies of revolutionaries came up all over the country, the most famous and long lasting being Anushilan Samiti and Yugantar. Their activities took two forms—the assassination of oppressive officials and informers and traitors from their own ranks and dacoities to raise funds for purchase of arms etc.

  11. Question 11 of 100
    11. Question

    With reference to the Sadler Commission of 1917, consider the following statements:
    (1) It focussed on university education and overlooked primary and secondary education.
    (2) It encouraged female education.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Sadler Commission was set up to study and report on problems of Calcutta University but its recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also. It reviewed the entire field from school education to university education. It held the view that, for the improvement of university education, improvement of secondary education was a necessary precondition. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    It made following recommendations:
    A separate board of secondary and 'intermediate education should be set up for administration and control of secondary and intermediate education.
    There should be less rigidity in framing university regulations.
    A university should function as centralised, unitary residential-teaching autonomous body, rather than as scattered, affiliated colleges. Female education, applied scientific and technological education, teachers' training including those for professional and vocational colleges should be extended. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted

    The Sadler Commission was set up to study and report on problems of Calcutta University but its recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also. It reviewed the entire field from school education to university education. It held the view that, for the improvement of university education, improvement of secondary education was a necessary precondition. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    It made following recommendations:
    A separate board of secondary and 'intermediate education should be set up for administration and control of secondary and intermediate education.
    There should be less rigidity in framing university regulations.
    A university should function as centralised, unitary residential-teaching autonomous body, rather than as scattered, affiliated colleges. Female education, applied scientific and technological education, teachers' training including those for professional and vocational colleges should be extended. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  12. Question 12 of 100
    12. Question

    Consider the following personalities:
    (1)M. Viraraghavachari
    (2)G. Subramanian Iyer
    (3)Ananda Charlu
    How many of the above was/were associated with Madras Mahajan Sabha?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Madras Mahajan Sabha was founded by M. Viraraghavachari, G Subramanian Iyer and Ananda Charlu in 1884 to promote the right of Indians. It was earlier known as Madras Native Association which was established by Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1849.

    Unattempted

    Madras Mahajan Sabha was founded by M. Viraraghavachari, G Subramanian Iyer and Ananda Charlu in 1884 to promote the right of Indians. It was earlier known as Madras Native Association which was established by Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1849.

  13. Question 13 of 100
    13. Question

    With reference to the Ghadar party formed during the Indian National Movement, consider the following statements:
    (1) Its objective was the establishment of an independent republic of India through complete peaceful means.
    (2) Its ideology was based on democratic and secular principle.
    (3) It started the weekly paper the Ghadar in commemoration of the mutiny of 1857.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is incorrect and 3 is correct: Ghadar party was founded by Lala Hardayal, an intellectual giant and fire brand revolutionary from the Punjab. He was assisted by Ramchandra and Barkatulla. The party published the weekly paper the Ghadar in commemoration of the mutiny of 1857. It was clearly stated by the Ghadarites that their objective was the establishment of an independent republic of India by an armed revolution and to establish a democratic regime based on liberty and equality.
    With the outbreak of the First World War, the Ghadar leaders decided to launch a violent attack on British rule in India. Kartar singh Sarabha and Raghubar Dayal Gupta were sent to India and Bengal revolutionaries Sachindranath Sanyal and Vishnu Ganesh Pingley, Rash Behari Bose were asked to lead the movement. The Government of India, fully informed of the Ghadar plans, arrested the revolutionaries on their arrival to India. Some of them succeeded in reaching Punjab without being found out. Sachindranath Sanyal and Vishnu Ganesh Pingley, Rash Behari Bose, the Bengali revolutionary finally arrived in Punjab in mid-January 1915 to assume leadership of the revolt.
    Statement 2 is correct: The marked feature of Ghadar ideology was its democratic and egalitarian content. Har Dayal imparted to the movement an egalitarian ideology. The ideology that was created and spread through The Ghadar and Ghadar di Goonj and other publications was strongly secular in tone.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is incorrect and 3 is correct: Ghadar party was founded by Lala Hardayal, an intellectual giant and fire brand revolutionary from the Punjab. He was assisted by Ramchandra and Barkatulla. The party published the weekly paper the Ghadar in commemoration of the mutiny of 1857. It was clearly stated by the Ghadarites that their objective was the establishment of an independent republic of India by an armed revolution and to establish a democratic regime based on liberty and equality.
    With the outbreak of the First World War, the Ghadar leaders decided to launch a violent attack on British rule in India. Kartar singh Sarabha and Raghubar Dayal Gupta were sent to India and Bengal revolutionaries Sachindranath Sanyal and Vishnu Ganesh Pingley, Rash Behari Bose were asked to lead the movement. The Government of India, fully informed of the Ghadar plans, arrested the revolutionaries on their arrival to India. Some of them succeeded in reaching Punjab without being found out. Sachindranath Sanyal and Vishnu Ganesh Pingley, Rash Behari Bose, the Bengali revolutionary finally arrived in Punjab in mid-January 1915 to assume leadership of the revolt.
    Statement 2 is correct: The marked feature of Ghadar ideology was its democratic and egalitarian content. Har Dayal imparted to the movement an egalitarian ideology. The ideology that was created and spread through The Ghadar and Ghadar di Goonj and other publications was strongly secular in tone.

  14. Question 14 of 100
    14. Question

    With respect to the modern Indian history, the term ‘dikus’ refers to :
    (A) the exploitative outsiders in tribal areas.
    (B) a form of unpaid labour.
    (C) passesissuedbytheEastIndia Company.
    (D) a local term for infertile land in the gangetic plain.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Santhal Rising: The Santhals of Rajmahal Hills resented the oppression by revenue officials, police, money-lenders, landlords – in general, by the 'outsiders' (whom they called diku). The Santhals under Sido and Kanhu rose up against their oppressors, declared the end of the Company's rule and asserted themselves independent in 1854. It was only in 1856 after extensive military operations that the situation was brought under control.Sido died in 1855, while Kanhu was arrested in 1866. A separate district of Santhal Pargana, was created by the Government to pacify the Santhals.

    Unattempted

    Santhal Rising: The Santhals of Rajmahal Hills resented the oppression by revenue officials, police, money-lenders, landlords – in general, by the 'outsiders' (whom they called diku). The Santhals under Sido and Kanhu rose up against their oppressors, declared the end of the Company's rule and asserted themselves independent in 1854. It was only in 1856 after extensive military operations that the situation was brought under control.Sido died in 1855, while Kanhu was arrested in 1866. A separate district of Santhal Pargana, was created by the Government to pacify the Santhals.

  15. Question 15 of 100
    15. Question

    In which of the following regions Parallel governments were set up during the Quit India movement?
    (1) Ballia
    (2) Tamluk
    (3) Satara
    (4) Jhansi
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (C) 3 and 4 only
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Correct

    Incorrect

    During the Quit India movement the revolutionaries set up parallel governments in Ballia, Tamluk, Satara.
    In Ballia it was set-up by Chittu Pandey. It was the first parallel government setup in August 1942.
    In Tamluk by Satis Samant. It also helped people during Bengal famine.
    In Satara by Y.B Chavan and Nana Patil. It was longest running parallet government,1943 to 1945.

    Unattempted

    During the Quit India movement the revolutionaries set up parallel governments in Ballia, Tamluk, Satara.
    In Ballia it was set-up by Chittu Pandey. It was the first parallel government setup in August 1942.
    In Tamluk by Satis Samant. It also helped people during Bengal famine.
    In Satara by Y.B Chavan and Nana Patil. It was longest running parallet government,1943 to 1945.

  16. Question 16 of 100
    16. Question

    The early Nationalists were unwilling to take up the question of labour reform because
    (1) They feared regulation of working hours of Indian labour would hamper the competitiveness of Indian industries.
    (2) They saw rapid industrialization as a solution to the Indian poverty.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Both the statements are correct.
    The nationalists were unwilling to take up the question of labour versus the indigenous employer because they thought doing so will reduce the competitiveness of Indian industries and in turn it will further help the British manufacturing draining the of wealth out of India.
    They also saw industrialization as the panacea for the problems of Indian poverty and degradation. Supporting the regulation they thought will impede the pace of industrialization.

    Unattempted

    Both the statements are correct.
    The nationalists were unwilling to take up the question of labour versus the indigenous employer because they thought doing so will reduce the competitiveness of Indian industries and in turn it will further help the British manufacturing draining the of wealth out of India.
    They also saw industrialization as the panacea for the problems of Indian poverty and degradation. Supporting the regulation they thought will impede the pace of industrialization.

  17. Question 17 of 100
    17. Question

    With reference to Permanent Settlement, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal and Bihar.
    (2) The ownership rights of zamindars were made both transferable and hereditary.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is correct: Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal and Bihar in 1793.
    Genesis of Permanent Settlement: In 1785 the Court of Directors permitted Cornwallis to implement a settlement with the Zamindars, at first for ten years and to be made permanent if it proved satisfactory.But in 1787 and in 1788 annual settlements were made.
    In 1789 Cornwallis prepared rules for a Decennial settlement. Two different theories were held by Sir John Shore, the President of the Board of Revenue and Mr. James Grant, the Record Keeper with regardto the revenue settlement. John Shore maintained that the Zamindars were the owners of the land and the State had the right to a customary revenue from them. James Grant, on the other-hand held the view thatthe State was the owner of all land and the state had the right to make the settlement either with the Zamindar or the cultivator.
    Ultimately, Cornwallis accepted the view of John Shore. In 1790 a settlement for ten years was made with the Zamindars who were recognized as the owners of the land. With the approval of the Court ofDirectors, the decennial Settlement was declared permanent on March 2, 1793.
    Statement 2 is correct: Under this system, zamindars‘, who earlier only had the right to collect revenue, were established as the proprietors or owners of the land. The state‘s demand for land revenue was permanently fixed. But if the zamindars were unable to pay the full tax on time, their lands would be taken away and auctioned by the state. They were not only to act as agents of the government in collecting land revenue from the peasants but also to become the owners of the entire land in their zamindaris. Their right of ownership was made hereditary and transferable. Through this system, the state tried to create an enterprising class of landowners, who would try to improve crop production in their fields to earn profits. Besides, it would be simpler for the state to deal with a limited number of zamindars than with every peasant, and a powerful section of society would become loyal to the British administration. The zamindars and revenue collectors were converted into landlords.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is correct: Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal and Bihar in 1793.
    Genesis of Permanent Settlement: In 1785 the Court of Directors permitted Cornwallis to implement a settlement with the Zamindars, at first for ten years and to be made permanent if it proved satisfactory.But in 1787 and in 1788 annual settlements were made.
    In 1789 Cornwallis prepared rules for a Decennial settlement. Two different theories were held by Sir John Shore, the President of the Board of Revenue and Mr. James Grant, the Record Keeper with regardto the revenue settlement. John Shore maintained that the Zamindars were the owners of the land and the State had the right to a customary revenue from them. James Grant, on the other-hand held the view thatthe State was the owner of all land and the state had the right to make the settlement either with the Zamindar or the cultivator.
    Ultimately, Cornwallis accepted the view of John Shore. In 1790 a settlement for ten years was made with the Zamindars who were recognized as the owners of the land. With the approval of the Court ofDirectors, the decennial Settlement was declared permanent on March 2, 1793.
    Statement 2 is correct: Under this system, zamindars‘, who earlier only had the right to collect revenue, were established as the proprietors or owners of the land. The state‘s demand for land revenue was permanently fixed. But if the zamindars were unable to pay the full tax on time, their lands would be taken away and auctioned by the state. They were not only to act as agents of the government in collecting land revenue from the peasants but also to become the owners of the entire land in their zamindaris. Their right of ownership was made hereditary and transferable. Through this system, the state tried to create an enterprising class of landowners, who would try to improve crop production in their fields to earn profits. Besides, it would be simpler for the state to deal with a limited number of zamindars than with every peasant, and a powerful section of society would become loyal to the British administration. The zamindars and revenue collectors were converted into landlords.

  18. Question 18 of 100
    18. Question

    Who among the following were associated with Dharasana salt satyagraha during Civil Disobedience Movement?
    (1) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (2) Sarojini Naidu
    (3) Imam Saheb
    (4) Manilal
    How many of the above option(s) is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Dharasana Satyagraha was a protest against the British salt tax in colonial India in May, 1930. After the conclusion of the Salt March to Dandi, Mahatma Gandhi chose a non-violent raid of the Dharasana Salt Works in Gujarat as the next protest against the rule of the British Raj. But before it, he was arrested by Police. In the absence of Gandhi Ji, this unfinished task was completed by Sarojini Naidu, Imam Saheb and Manilal. Hundreds of satyagrahis were beaten by Indian soldiers under British command at Dharasana. The ensuing publicity attracted world attention to the Indian independence movement, and brought into question the legitimacy of British rule in India.
    Jawaharlal Nehru was not part of Dharsana Satyagraha. Hence, only option 1 is incorrect.

    Unattempted

    Dharasana Satyagraha was a protest against the British salt tax in colonial India in May, 1930. After the conclusion of the Salt March to Dandi, Mahatma Gandhi chose a non-violent raid of the Dharasana Salt Works in Gujarat as the next protest against the rule of the British Raj. But before it, he was arrested by Police. In the absence of Gandhi Ji, this unfinished task was completed by Sarojini Naidu, Imam Saheb and Manilal. Hundreds of satyagrahis were beaten by Indian soldiers under British command at Dharasana. The ensuing publicity attracted world attention to the Indian independence movement, and brought into question the legitimacy of British rule in India.
    Jawaharlal Nehru was not part of Dharsana Satyagraha. Hence, only option 1 is incorrect.

  19. Question 19 of 100
    19. Question

    Pitt's India Act of 1784 led to:
    (1) establishment of the Board of Control to guide the Government of India.
    (2) subordination of Bombay and Madras presidencies to Bengal.
    (3) end of the trade monopoly of East India Company in India.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is correct: Pitt's India Act, 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs i.e. to guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India.Thus, it established a system of double government. It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
    Statement 2 is correct: The Act clearly subordinated the Bombay and Madras Presidencies to Bengal in all questions of war, diplomacy, and revenues as the Governors of Presidencies of Bombay and Madraswere deprived of their independent powers and Calcutta was given greater powers in matters of war, revenue, and diplomacy, thus Calcutta becoming in effect, the capital of Company possessions in India.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It was through the Charter Act of 1813 (and not Pitt's India Act, 1784) that the company‘s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the company retained the trade with China and the trade in tea.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is correct: Pitt's India Act, 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs i.e. to guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India.Thus, it established a system of double government. It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
    Statement 2 is correct: The Act clearly subordinated the Bombay and Madras Presidencies to Bengal in all questions of war, diplomacy, and revenues as the Governors of Presidencies of Bombay and Madraswere deprived of their independent powers and Calcutta was given greater powers in matters of war, revenue, and diplomacy, thus Calcutta becoming in effect, the capital of Company possessions in India.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It was through the Charter Act of 1813 (and not Pitt's India Act, 1784) that the company‘s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the company retained the trade with China and the trade in tea.

  20. Question 20 of 100
    20. Question

    With reference to the Workers and Peasant's Party (WPP), consider the following statements:
    (1) It was formed in 1928 as an all-India party.
    (2) All communists were its members.
    (3) It worked outside the Indian National Congress.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is correct: Workers‘ and Peasants‘ Party (WPP) became an all-India party in 1928.
    It was a merger of following provincial organizations –
    The Labour-Swaraj Party of the Indian National Congress organized by Muzaffar Ahmed, Qazi Nazrul Islam, Hemanta Kumar Sarkar, and others in Bengal in November 1925.
    Congress Labour Party was formed in Bombay and a Kirti-Kisan Party in Punjab in late 1926.
    A Labour Kisan Party of Hindustan of Madras -1923.
    Thus, by 1928 all of these provincial organizations had been renamed as the Workers‘ and Peasants‘ Party (WPP), whose units were also set up in Rajasthan, UP and Delhi.
    Statement 2 is correct: All Communists were members of this party.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The basic objective of the WPPs was to work within the Congress to give it a more radical orientation and make it ‘the party of the people‘ and independently organize workers and peasants in class organizations, to enable first the achievement of complete independence and ultimately of socialism.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is correct: Workers‘ and Peasants‘ Party (WPP) became an all-India party in 1928.
    It was a merger of following provincial organizations –
    The Labour-Swaraj Party of the Indian National Congress organized by Muzaffar Ahmed, Qazi Nazrul Islam, Hemanta Kumar Sarkar, and others in Bengal in November 1925.
    Congress Labour Party was formed in Bombay and a Kirti-Kisan Party in Punjab in late 1926.
    A Labour Kisan Party of Hindustan of Madras -1923.
    Thus, by 1928 all of these provincial organizations had been renamed as the Workers‘ and Peasants‘ Party (WPP), whose units were also set up in Rajasthan, UP and Delhi.
    Statement 2 is correct: All Communists were members of this party.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The basic objective of the WPPs was to work within the Congress to give it a more radical orientation and make it ‘the party of the people‘ and independently organize workers and peasants in class organizations, to enable first the achievement of complete independence and ultimately of socialism.

  21. Question 21 of 100
    21. Question

    The arrival of Simon commission aroused popular resentment across the country because
    (A) it recommended government to imprison people without trial.
    (B) it suggested the government to exclude native Indians from possessing arms.
    (C) there was no Indian Member in the commission.
    (D) it recommended severe restriction on the freedom of vernacular press.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    In November 1927 British Government appointed Indian Statutory Commission also known as Simon Commission with the aim to introduce further Constitutional reform. As all the seven members of the Commission were English men. It led to a protest by all Indians. The basic notion behind the protest was that foreigners would discuss and decide upon India's fitness for self-government. At Madras session ofIndian National Congress of 1927, Congress decided to boycott the Commission at every stage and in every form. Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision.

    Unattempted

    In November 1927 British Government appointed Indian Statutory Commission also known as Simon Commission with the aim to introduce further Constitutional reform. As all the seven members of the Commission were English men. It led to a protest by all Indians. The basic notion behind the protest was that foreigners would discuss and decide upon India's fitness for self-government. At Madras session ofIndian National Congress of 1927, Congress decided to boycott the Commission at every stage and in every form. Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision.

  22. Question 22 of 100
    22. Question

    How many of the following was/were responsible for the decline of the Swadeshi Movement?
    (1) Heavy repression by the government.
    (2) Moderate-extremist split at Surat session.
    (3) Lack of an effective organization and party structure.
    (4) Communal clashes at various places in Bengal.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Swadeshi Movement 1905, declined due to several reasons.
    First, the government, seeing the revolutionary potential of the movement, came down with a heavy hand. Repression took the form of controls and bans on public meetings, processions and the press. Student participants were expelled from Government schools and colleges, debarred from Government service, fined and at times beaten up by the police.
    Second, the internal squabbles, and especially, the split, in 1907 in the Congress, the apex all-India organization, weakened the movement.
    Third, the Swadeshi Movement lacked an effective organization and party structure. The movement had thrown up programmatically the entire gamut of Gandhian techniques. It was, however, unable to give these techniques a centralized, disciplined focus.
    Lastly, the British policy of consciously attempting to use communalism to turn the Muslims against the Swadeshi Movement was to a large extent responsible for, breaking out of communal riots in Bengal at the height of the Swadeshi Movement.

    Unattempted

    Swadeshi Movement 1905, declined due to several reasons.
    First, the government, seeing the revolutionary potential of the movement, came down with a heavy hand. Repression took the form of controls and bans on public meetings, processions and the press. Student participants were expelled from Government schools and colleges, debarred from Government service, fined and at times beaten up by the police.
    Second, the internal squabbles, and especially, the split, in 1907 in the Congress, the apex all-India organization, weakened the movement.
    Third, the Swadeshi Movement lacked an effective organization and party structure. The movement had thrown up programmatically the entire gamut of Gandhian techniques. It was, however, unable to give these techniques a centralized, disciplined focus.
    Lastly, the British policy of consciously attempting to use communalism to turn the Muslims against the Swadeshi Movement was to a large extent responsible for, breaking out of communal riots in Bengal at the height of the Swadeshi Movement.

  23. Question 23 of 100
    23. Question

    Congress opposed the Government of India Act, 1935 as 'totally disappointing' but it decided to contest the elections in 1937 withthe objective:
    (A) of showing how unpopular the Act was
    (B) to introduce radical changes in administration
    (C) to win the majority of seats in the legislative council
    (D) None of the above

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The GOI Act, 1935 could not satisfy the nationalist aspiration for both political and economic power continued to be concentrated in the hands of the British government. Foreign rule was to continue as before; only a few popularly elected ministers were to be added to the structure of British administration in India. The Congress condemned the Act as 'totally disappointing'. The federal part of the Act was never introduced but the provincial part was soon put into operation. Bitterly opposed to the Act, the Congress thus decided to contest the elections under the new Act of 1935, though with the declared aim of showing how unpopular the Act was.

    Unattempted

    The GOI Act, 1935 could not satisfy the nationalist aspiration for both political and economic power continued to be concentrated in the hands of the British government. Foreign rule was to continue as before; only a few popularly elected ministers were to be added to the structure of British administration in India. The Congress condemned the Act as 'totally disappointing'. The federal part of the Act was never introduced but the provincial part was soon put into operation. Bitterly opposed to the Act, the Congress thus decided to contest the elections under the new Act of 1935, though with the declared aim of showing how unpopular the Act was.

  24. Question 24 of 100
    24. Question

    How many of the following leaders worked towards improving the conditions of the working class?
    (1) Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee
    (2) N.M. Lokhande
    (3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    (4) Dewan Chaman Lal
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Early attempts to improve the condition of the workers were mainly by the philanthropists like :
    In 1878, Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee tried unsuccessfully to introduce a Bill in the Bombay Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour.
    In Bombay, Narayan Meghajee Lokhande brought out an Anglo-Marathi weekly called Dina Bandhu (Friend of the Poor) in 1880, and started the Bombay Mill and Millhands’ Association in 1890.
    In Bengal, Sasipada Banerjea, a Brahmo Social reformer, set up a Workingmen‘s Club in 1870 and brought out a monthly journal called Bharat Sramjeebi.
    The most important development was the formation of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) in 1920. Lokamanya Tilak was one of the moving spirits in the formation of the AITUC, which had Lala Lajpat Rai as its first president and Dewan Chaman Lal as its General Secretary.

    Unattempted

    Early attempts to improve the condition of the workers were mainly by the philanthropists like :
    In 1878, Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee tried unsuccessfully to introduce a Bill in the Bombay Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour.
    In Bombay, Narayan Meghajee Lokhande brought out an Anglo-Marathi weekly called Dina Bandhu (Friend of the Poor) in 1880, and started the Bombay Mill and Millhands’ Association in 1890.
    In Bengal, Sasipada Banerjea, a Brahmo Social reformer, set up a Workingmen‘s Club in 1870 and brought out a monthly journal called Bharat Sramjeebi.
    The most important development was the formation of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) in 1920. Lokamanya Tilak was one of the moving spirits in the formation of the AITUC, which had Lala Lajpat Rai as its first president and Dewan Chaman Lal as its General Secretary.

  25. Question 25 of 100
    25. Question

    Which of the following statement is correct with reference to the Theosophical Society?
    (A) It aimed at the revival of Hinduism, Zoroastrianism and Buddhism.
    (B) It was a movement led by Indians, glorifying Indians religious and philosophical traditions.
    (C) The society was based on the beliefs of Vedanta.
    (D) It was headquartered in United States.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement (A) is correct: The Theosophists advocated the revival and strengthening of the ancient religions of Hinduism, Zoroastrianism and Buddhism. They recognised the doctrine of the transmigration of soul.
    Statement (B) is not correct: The movement was led by Westerners, but they made peculiar contribution to developments in modern India. Their effort to glorify Indian religious and philosophical traditions helped Indians in recovering their self-confidence.
    Statement (C) is not correct: Ramakrishna Paramhansa subscribed to Vedanta which he declared to be a fully rational system. Theosophical society aimed itself at the revival of ancient religions and wasn‘t based on any system.
    Statement (D) is not correct: The society was founded in the United States whereas, later founded the headquarters at Adyar near Madras in 1886.

    Unattempted

    Statement (A) is correct: The Theosophists advocated the revival and strengthening of the ancient religions of Hinduism, Zoroastrianism and Buddhism. They recognised the doctrine of the transmigration of soul.
    Statement (B) is not correct: The movement was led by Westerners, but they made peculiar contribution to developments in modern India. Their effort to glorify Indian religious and philosophical traditions helped Indians in recovering their self-confidence.
    Statement (C) is not correct: Ramakrishna Paramhansa subscribed to Vedanta which he declared to be a fully rational system. Theosophical society aimed itself at the revival of ancient religions and wasn‘t based on any system.
    Statement (D) is not correct: The society was founded in the United States whereas, later founded the headquarters at Adyar near Madras in 1886.

  26. Question 26 of 100
    26. Question

    With reference to the Ahmedabad mill strike of 1918, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was over the issue of non-payment of bonus to famine-affected workers.
    (2) Gandhiji used the weapon of hunger strike for first time.
    (3) The strike was unsuccessful and was suppressed violently by the British.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Ahmedabad Mill Strike 1918 was one of the initial movements led by Gandhi after his return from South Africa. There was a situation of dispute between the Mill owners and workers on the question of discontinuation of Plague Bonus once the epidemic had passed but the workers insisted it stay. The workers demanded a 50% wage hike. The Mill Owners were willing to give only 20% wage hike. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    It involved cotton or textile mills of Ahmedabad.
    Gandhi was invited by Anasuya Ben Sarabai and her brother Ambalal Sarabhai, leading mill-owner of Ahmadabad towards the cause of the mill owners. Here Gandhi used the weapon of Hunger strike for the first time. The result was that the strike was successful and the workers got a 35% wage hike. Hence, statement 2 is correct and 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted

    Ahmedabad Mill Strike 1918 was one of the initial movements led by Gandhi after his return from South Africa. There was a situation of dispute between the Mill owners and workers on the question of discontinuation of Plague Bonus once the epidemic had passed but the workers insisted it stay. The workers demanded a 50% wage hike. The Mill Owners were willing to give only 20% wage hike. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    It involved cotton or textile mills of Ahmedabad.
    Gandhi was invited by Anasuya Ben Sarabai and her brother Ambalal Sarabhai, leading mill-owner of Ahmadabad towards the cause of the mill owners. Here Gandhi used the weapon of Hunger strike for the first time. The result was that the strike was successful and the workers got a 35% wage hike. Hence, statement 2 is correct and 3 is not correct.

  27. Question 27 of 100
    27. Question

    With reference to the relations between the British Crown and the Princely states of India after the Act of 1858, consider the following statements:
    (1) The policy of annexation of princely states was abandoned.
    (2) The princely states were reduced to a subordinate position vis-a-vis the British empire.
    (3) The British did not interfere in the dayto-day administration of these states.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is correct: During the revolt of 1857 most of the Indian princes had not only remained loyal to the British but had actively aided the latter in suppressing the revolt. This led the British to reverse their policy towards the Indian States. Before 1857, the British had availed themselves of every opportunity to annex princely states, but this policy was abandoned. Their loyalty was now rewarded with the announcement that their right to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories guaranteed against future annexation.
    Statement 2 is correct: In 1876, Queen Victoria assumed the title of Empress of India to emphasise British sovereignty over the entire Indian sub-continent. Lord Curzon made it clear that the princes ruled their states as merely agents of the British Crown. The princes accepted this subordinate position and willingly became junior partners in the Empire because they were assured of their continued existence as rulers of their states. As the price of their continued existence, the princes were made to acknowledge Britain as the paramount power. As the paramount power, the British claimed the right to supervise the internal government of the princely states.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: They not only interfered in the day-to-day administration through the Residents (British representative in the princely states) but insisted on appointing and dismissing ministers and other high officials. Sometimes the rulers themselves were removed or deprived of their powers. One motive for such interference as provided by the British was their desire to give these states a modern administration so that their integration with British India would be complete. Another motive for interference was provided by the growth of popular democratic and nationalist movements in many of the states.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is correct: During the revolt of 1857 most of the Indian princes had not only remained loyal to the British but had actively aided the latter in suppressing the revolt. This led the British to reverse their policy towards the Indian States. Before 1857, the British had availed themselves of every opportunity to annex princely states, but this policy was abandoned. Their loyalty was now rewarded with the announcement that their right to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories guaranteed against future annexation.
    Statement 2 is correct: In 1876, Queen Victoria assumed the title of Empress of India to emphasise British sovereignty over the entire Indian sub-continent. Lord Curzon made it clear that the princes ruled their states as merely agents of the British Crown. The princes accepted this subordinate position and willingly became junior partners in the Empire because they were assured of their continued existence as rulers of their states. As the price of their continued existence, the princes were made to acknowledge Britain as the paramount power. As the paramount power, the British claimed the right to supervise the internal government of the princely states.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: They not only interfered in the day-to-day administration through the Residents (British representative in the princely states) but insisted on appointing and dismissing ministers and other high officials. Sometimes the rulers themselves were removed or deprived of their powers. One motive for such interference as provided by the British was their desire to give these states a modern administration so that their integration with British India would be complete. Another motive for interference was provided by the growth of popular democratic and nationalist movements in many of the states.

  28. Question 28 of 100
    28. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Tolstoy Farm:
    (1) It was set up by Gandhiji in South Africa.
    (2) Its purpose was to give shelter to the families of Satyagrahis.
    (3) It was funded by the members of both Congress and Muslim league.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    All the statements are correct.
    Tolstoy Farm was established by Mahtma Gandhi in South Africa which was made possible through the generosity of his German architect friend, Kallenbach, to house the families of the Satyagrahis and give them a way to sustain themselves. Tolstoy Farm was the precursor of the later Gandhian ashrams that were to play so important a role in the Indian national movement. Funds also came from India – Sir Ratan Tata sent Rs. 25,000 and the Congress and the Muslim League, as well as the Nizam of Hyderabad, made their contributions and main purpose behind this was to house the families of Satyagrahis and give them a way to sustain themselves.

    Unattempted

    All the statements are correct.
    Tolstoy Farm was established by Mahtma Gandhi in South Africa which was made possible through the generosity of his German architect friend, Kallenbach, to house the families of the Satyagrahis and give them a way to sustain themselves. Tolstoy Farm was the precursor of the later Gandhian ashrams that were to play so important a role in the Indian national movement. Funds also came from India – Sir Ratan Tata sent Rs. 25,000 and the Congress and the Muslim League, as well as the Nizam of Hyderabad, made their contributions and main purpose behind this was to house the families of Satyagrahis and give them a way to sustain themselves.

  29. Question 29 of 100
    29. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding consequences of Battle of Plassey:
    (1) Mir Qasim was made New Nawab of Bengal by the Britishers.
    (2) British East India Company was granted free trade rights in Bengal.
    (3) Company received zamindari rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Battle of Plassey transformed the British East India Company from a trading corporation to a Ruling company. With the victory at Plassey, the Company established itself firmly in Bengal and ruled it through its puppet Nawabs i.e Mir Jafar and Mir Kasim.
    The Battle of Plassey was a battle that took place on June 23, 1757, on the banks of the Bhagirathi River, about 150 km north of Calcutta. It is near Murshidabad, then the capital of the Nawab of Bengal in India. The battle was between Siraj Ud Daulah, the last independent Nawab of Bengal, and the forces of the East India Company. Siraj-ud-Daulah's army commander had defected to the British, causing his army to collapse. Mir Jafar became a mere ‘puppet ruler‘ and the power rested with the British. On every matter he depended on the English. The Battle of Plassey paved the way for beginning of their empire. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    The British enjoyed the tax benefits, had to compete with no rival foreign merchants and began to use the revenue of Bengal for protecting their military and trade interest.
    Mir Jafar gave 24 Parganas and one crore of rupees to the Company and valuable Siraj presents to the English officers including Clive. Company got the Diwani rights , by which it was able to collect the revenue of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa after the Battle of Buxar. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Statement 2 is correct: British East India Company was granted free trade in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.

    Unattempted

    Battle of Plassey transformed the British East India Company from a trading corporation to a Ruling company. With the victory at Plassey, the Company established itself firmly in Bengal and ruled it through its puppet Nawabs i.e Mir Jafar and Mir Kasim.
    The Battle of Plassey was a battle that took place on June 23, 1757, on the banks of the Bhagirathi River, about 150 km north of Calcutta. It is near Murshidabad, then the capital of the Nawab of Bengal in India. The battle was between Siraj Ud Daulah, the last independent Nawab of Bengal, and the forces of the East India Company. Siraj-ud-Daulah's army commander had defected to the British, causing his army to collapse. Mir Jafar became a mere ‘puppet ruler‘ and the power rested with the British. On every matter he depended on the English. The Battle of Plassey paved the way for beginning of their empire. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    The British enjoyed the tax benefits, had to compete with no rival foreign merchants and began to use the revenue of Bengal for protecting their military and trade interest.
    Mir Jafar gave 24 Parganas and one crore of rupees to the Company and valuable Siraj presents to the English officers including Clive. Company got the Diwani rights , by which it was able to collect the revenue of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa after the Battle of Buxar. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Statement 2 is correct: British East India Company was granted free trade in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.

  30. Question 30 of 100
    30. Question

    How many of the following was/were the reasons behind the collapse of the urban handicrafts industry during the British rule in India?
    (1)Competition with the cheaper imported machine-goods from Britain.
    (2)Forcing craftsmen to sell their goods below the market price.
    (3)The gradual disappearance of Indian rulers and their courts.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is correct: The quick collapse of the urban handicrafts was caused largely by competition with the cheaper imported machine-goods from Britain. Indian goods made with primitive techniques could not compete with goods produced on a mass scale by powerful steam-operated machines.
    Statement 2 is correct: The ruin of Indian industries was also contributed by oppression practiced by the East India Company. They forced craftsmen to sell their goods below the market price.
    Statement 3 is correct: The gradual disappearance of Indian rulers and their courts who were the main customers of the handicrafts also gave a big blow to these industries.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is correct: The quick collapse of the urban handicrafts was caused largely by competition with the cheaper imported machine-goods from Britain. Indian goods made with primitive techniques could not compete with goods produced on a mass scale by powerful steam-operated machines.
    Statement 2 is correct: The ruin of Indian industries was also contributed by oppression practiced by the East India Company. They forced craftsmen to sell their goods below the market price.
    Statement 3 is correct: The gradual disappearance of Indian rulers and their courts who were the main customers of the handicrafts also gave a big blow to these industries.

  31. Question 31 of 100
    31. Question

    How many of the following statements is/are correct about Operation Polo?
    (1) It was a police action against the Razakars, a militant group that supported the Nizam’s independence.
    (2) It resulted in the integration of Hyderabad into the Indian Union and the abolition of the Nizam’s rule.
    (3) It was opposed by the United Nations, which passed a resolution calling for an immediate ceasefire and a plebiscite in Hyderabad.
    (4) It was preceded by a standstill agreement between India and Hyderabad, which maintained the status quo of their relations.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) Only three

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Razakars were a paramilitary force that advocated for the Nizam’s sovereignty and resisted the Indian invasion. They were accused of committing atrocities against the Hindu population and the Telangana rebels, who wanted land reforms and democracy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Operation Polo ended with the surrender of the Nizam on September 18, 1948. He signed an instrument of accession, joining India as a princely state. He was later appointed as the Rajpramukh (governor) of Hyderabad until 1956, when the state was reorganized along linguistic lines. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The United Nations did not intervene in the conflict, as it was considered an internal matter of India. However, Pakistan protested against India’s action and accused it of violating international law and human rights.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    In November 1947, Hyderabad signed a standstill agreement with India, which continued all previous arrangements except for the stationing of Indian troops in the state. The agreement was meant to last for one year, during which a final settlement would be reached. However, India accused Hyderabad of violating the agreement by importing arms, seeking foreign recognition, and supporting subversive activities. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

    Unattempted

    The Razakars were a paramilitary force that advocated for the Nizam’s sovereignty and resisted the Indian invasion. They were accused of committing atrocities against the Hindu population and the Telangana rebels, who wanted land reforms and democracy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Operation Polo ended with the surrender of the Nizam on September 18, 1948. He signed an instrument of accession, joining India as a princely state. He was later appointed as the Rajpramukh (governor) of Hyderabad until 1956, when the state was reorganized along linguistic lines. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The United Nations did not intervene in the conflict, as it was considered an internal matter of India. However, Pakistan protested against India’s action and accused it of violating international law and human rights.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    In November 1947, Hyderabad signed a standstill agreement with India, which continued all previous arrangements except for the stationing of Indian troops in the state. The agreement was meant to last for one year, during which a final settlement would be reached. However, India accused Hyderabad of violating the agreement by importing arms, seeking foreign recognition, and supporting subversive activities. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

  32. Question 32 of 100
    32. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) India has become the 13th country that can issue OIML (International Organization of Legal Metrology) Certificates.
    (2) The CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (NPL-India) is India's National Metrology Institute (NMI) tasked with maintaining standards of SI units and calibrating national standards of weights and measures.
    (3) The OIML is an intergovernmental organization established in 1955.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Recently, India has become the 13th country that can issue OIML (International Organization of Legal Metrology) Certificates. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Legal Metrology Division, Department of Consumer Affairs, is now authorised to issue OIML certificates.
    The CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (NPL-India) is India’s National Metrology Institute' (NMI) that maintains standards of SI units in India and calibrates the national standards of weights and measures. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The OIML is an intergovernmental organization established in 1955, with India becoming a member in 1956. It has 63 Member States and 64 Corresponding Members. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Recently, India has become the 13th country that can issue OIML (International Organization of Legal Metrology) Certificates. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Legal Metrology Division, Department of Consumer Affairs, is now authorised to issue OIML certificates.
    The CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (NPL-India) is India’s National Metrology Institute' (NMI) that maintains standards of SI units in India and calibrates the national standards of weights and measures. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The OIML is an intergovernmental organization established in 1955, with India becoming a member in 1956. It has 63 Member States and 64 Corresponding Members. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  33. Question 33 of 100
    33. Question

    With reference to the Indian Factory Act, 1881, consider the following statements:
    (1)It laid down the provisions for regulation of child labour.
    (2)It required employers to pay men and women equally for doing the same work.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The first Indian Factory Act was passed in 1881. The Act primarily dealt with the problem of child labour. It laid down that children below 7 could not work in factories, while children between 7 and 12 would not work for more than 9 hours a day. Children would also get four holidays in a month. The Act also provided for the proper fencing off of dangerous machinery. The second Indian Factories Act was passed in 1891. It provided for a weekly holiday for all workers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Factory Act 1881 did not provide for equal pay for equal work for men and women. Whereas,, the second Factory Act, 1891 fixed working hours for women at 11 hours per day. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted

    The first Indian Factory Act was passed in 1881. The Act primarily dealt with the problem of child labour. It laid down that children below 7 could not work in factories, while children between 7 and 12 would not work for more than 9 hours a day. Children would also get four holidays in a month. The Act also provided for the proper fencing off of dangerous machinery. The second Indian Factories Act was passed in 1891. It provided for a weekly holiday for all workers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Factory Act 1881 did not provide for equal pay for equal work for men and women. Whereas,, the second Factory Act, 1891 fixed working hours for women at 11 hours per day. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

  34. Question 34 of 100
    34. Question

    With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
    (1) Announcement of the Cabinet Mission.
    (2) Elections for the Constituent Assembly.
    (3) Shimla Conference.
    What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
    (A) 1-2-3
    (B) 2-1-3
    (C) 3-2-1
    (D) 3-1-2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Shimla Conference was convened by Lord Wavell in June 1945.
    The Clement Attlee government announced the decision to send a high-powered mission of three British Cabinet Ministers to India (known as Cabinet Mission) in February 1946.
    Elections in the provincial assemblies for the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946.

    Unattempted

    The Shimla Conference was convened by Lord Wavell in June 1945.
    The Clement Attlee government announced the decision to send a high-powered mission of three British Cabinet Ministers to India (known as Cabinet Mission) in February 1946.
    Elections in the provincial assemblies for the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946.

  35. Question 35 of 100
    35. Question

    With respect to the Hindustan Socialist Republic Association (HSRA), consider the following statements:
    (1) It was a revolutionary organisation founded during the first World War.
    (2) Its aim was to establish a Federal Republic of the United States of India based on adult franchise.
    (3) It favoured nationalisation of railways and large-scale industries.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Old veterans like Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chatterjea and Sachindranath Sanyal met in Kanpur in October 1924 (whereas the Ist World War occurred in 1914 and lasted till 1918) and founded theHindustan Republican Association (or Army), which was later renamed as Hindustan Socialist Republic Association (HSRA). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Its aim was to organize armed revolution to overthrow colonial rule and establish in its place a Federal Republic of the United States of India whose basic principle would be adult franchise. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Its main organ, The Revolutionary, had proposed the nationalization of the railways and other means of transport and large-scale industries such as steel and ship building. The HRA had also decided to startlabour and peasant organizations‘ and to work for an organized and armed revolution.‘ Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Old veterans like Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chatterjea and Sachindranath Sanyal met in Kanpur in October 1924 (whereas the Ist World War occurred in 1914 and lasted till 1918) and founded theHindustan Republican Association (or Army), which was later renamed as Hindustan Socialist Republic Association (HSRA). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Its aim was to organize armed revolution to overthrow colonial rule and establish in its place a Federal Republic of the United States of India whose basic principle would be adult franchise. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Its main organ, The Revolutionary, had proposed the nationalization of the railways and other means of transport and large-scale industries such as steel and ship building. The HRA had also decided to startlabour and peasant organizations‘ and to work for an organized and armed revolution.‘ Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  36. Question 36 of 100
    36. Question

    How many of the following is/are the characteristics of the political programme of the Left movement during late 1930?
    (1) Organization of workers and peasants in trade unions and kisan sabhas
    (2) Anti-fascist and anti-war foreign policy
    (3) Non-violent anti-imperialism policy
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Communist Party of India, Congress Socialist Party and Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhas Bose and other Left leaders, all shared a common political programme which enabled them, despite ideological and organizational differences, to work together after 1935 and make socialism a strong current in Indian politics. The basic features of this programme were: consistent and militant anti-imperialism, anti- landlordism, the organization of workers and peasants in trade unions and kisan sabhas, the acceptance of a socialist vision of independent India and of the socialist programme of the economic and social transformation of society, and an antifascist, anti-colonial and anti-war foreign policy. Hence, option 3 is only incorrect.

    Unattempted

    The Communist Party of India, Congress Socialist Party and Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhas Bose and other Left leaders, all shared a common political programme which enabled them, despite ideological and organizational differences, to work together after 1935 and make socialism a strong current in Indian politics. The basic features of this programme were: consistent and militant anti-imperialism, anti- landlordism, the organization of workers and peasants in trade unions and kisan sabhas, the acceptance of a socialist vision of independent India and of the socialist programme of the economic and social transformation of society, and an antifascist, anti-colonial and anti-war foreign policy. Hence, option 3 is only incorrect.

  37. Question 37 of 100
    37. Question

    With reference to the report on the “Implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 in Higher Education”, consider the following statements:
    (1) The report emphasized that a major portion of India's higher education system operates under Central Acts.
    (2) 94% of students are enrolled in Central institutions, leaving just 6% in State higher educational institutions.
    (3) National Education Policy aims to increase Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education to 50% by 2035.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    In a special session of Parliament, the Parliament Standing Committee on Education, presented a comprehensive report on the “Implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 in Higher Education.”
    The report emphasized that a significant portion of India's higher education system operates under State Acts, with 70% of universities falling under this category. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Furthermore, 94% of students are enrolled in State or private institutions, leaving just 6% in Central higher educational institutions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The National Education Policy 2020 seeks to tackle the evolving development needs of India.It aims to increase Gross Enrolment Ratio in Higher Education from 26.3% to 50% by 2035, adding 3.5 crore new seats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    In a special session of Parliament, the Parliament Standing Committee on Education, presented a comprehensive report on the “Implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 in Higher Education.”
    The report emphasized that a significant portion of India's higher education system operates under State Acts, with 70% of universities falling under this category. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Furthermore, 94% of students are enrolled in State or private institutions, leaving just 6% in Central higher educational institutions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The National Education Policy 2020 seeks to tackle the evolving development needs of India.It aims to increase Gross Enrolment Ratio in Higher Education from 26.3% to 50% by 2035, adding 3.5 crore new seats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  38. Question 38 of 100
    38. Question

    With reference to “Joshimath”, consider the following statements:
    (1) Joshimath is a hilly town located in Dehradun district of Uttarakhand.
    (2) The town is traversed by running streams from Devprayag.
    (3) It is home to one of the four cardinal monasteries established by Adi Shankara.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Joshimath is a hilly town located on the Rishikesh-Badrinath National Highway (NH-7) in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The town is traversed by running streams with a high gradient from Vishnuprayag, a confluence of the Dhauliganga and the Alaknanda rivers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    It is home to one of the four cardinal ‘Maths’ or monasteries established by Adi Shankara – Sringeri in Karnataka, Dwarka in Gujarat, Puri in Odisha and Joshimath near Badrinath in Uttarakhand. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Joshimath is a hilly town located on the Rishikesh-Badrinath National Highway (NH-7) in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The town is traversed by running streams with a high gradient from Vishnuprayag, a confluence of the Dhauliganga and the Alaknanda rivers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    It is home to one of the four cardinal ‘Maths’ or monasteries established by Adi Shankara – Sringeri in Karnataka, Dwarka in Gujarat, Puri in Odisha and Joshimath near Badrinath in Uttarakhand. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  39. Question 39 of 100
    39. Question

    With reference to the history of Judicial system in India, consider the following statements:
    (1) Warren Hastings initiated dispensation of justice through a hierarchy of civil and criminal courts.
    (2) William Bentinck appointed Indians as Deputy Magistrates and Subordinate Judges in the judicial services
    (3) Lord Macaulay headed the commission to codify Indian laws.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is correct: The British laid the foundations of a new system of dispensing justice through a hierarchy of civil and criminal courts. Though given a start by Warren Hastings, the system was stabilised by Cornwallis in 1793. Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of Bengal, introduced several administrative reforms, notably in the sphere of justice. From 1772 a new system of justice was established. Each district was to have two courts – a criminal court ( faujdari adalat ) and a civil court (diwani adalat). Maulvis and Hindu pandits interpreted Indian laws for the European district collectors who presided over civil courts. The criminal courts were still under a qazi and a mufti but under the supervision of the collectors.
    Statement 2 is correct: William Bentinck raised the status and powers of Indians in the judicial service by appointing them as Deputy Magistrates, Subordinate Judges and Principle Sadar Amins. Before this,they were appointed in lower courts as magistrates to try petty cases.
    Statement 3 is correct: In 1833, the government appointed a Law Commission headed by Lord Macaulay to codify Indian laws. It eventually resulted in the Indian Penal Code, the western-derived codes of Civil and Criminal Procedure and other codes of laws.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is correct: The British laid the foundations of a new system of dispensing justice through a hierarchy of civil and criminal courts. Though given a start by Warren Hastings, the system was stabilised by Cornwallis in 1793. Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of Bengal, introduced several administrative reforms, notably in the sphere of justice. From 1772 a new system of justice was established. Each district was to have two courts – a criminal court ( faujdari adalat ) and a civil court (diwani adalat). Maulvis and Hindu pandits interpreted Indian laws for the European district collectors who presided over civil courts. The criminal courts were still under a qazi and a mufti but under the supervision of the collectors.
    Statement 2 is correct: William Bentinck raised the status and powers of Indians in the judicial service by appointing them as Deputy Magistrates, Subordinate Judges and Principle Sadar Amins. Before this,they were appointed in lower courts as magistrates to try petty cases.
    Statement 3 is correct: In 1833, the government appointed a Law Commission headed by Lord Macaulay to codify Indian laws. It eventually resulted in the Indian Penal Code, the western-derived codes of Civil and Criminal Procedure and other codes of laws.

  40. Question 40 of 100
    40. Question

    With reference to the modern Indian history, consider the following events:
    (1) Establishment of Home Rule leagues.
    (2) Komagatamaru incident.
    (3) Mahatama Gandhi’s arrival in India.
    Arrange the above events in their correct chronological order:
    (A) 1-3-2
    (B) 3-1-2
    (C) 1-2-3
    (D) 2-3-1

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Komagatamaru incident occurred in 1914.
    Mahatama Gandhi arrived India in January 1915.
    Home Rule leagues were set up in 1916. (Tilak – April,1916 and Annie Besant – September,1916)

    Unattempted

    Komagatamaru incident occurred in 1914.
    Mahatama Gandhi arrived India in January 1915.
    Home Rule leagues were set up in 1916. (Tilak – April,1916 and Annie Besant – September,1916)

  41. Question 41 of 100
    41. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) She was a social reformer and freedom fighter.
    (2) She persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the salt agitation to men alone.
    (3) She courted arrest by breaking salt law and liquor law.
    The above statements describe which of the following historical personality?
    (A) Sarojini Naidu
    (B) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
    (C) Usha Mehta
    (D) Rani Gaidinliu

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was an Indian social reformer and freedom fighter. She persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the salt agitation to men alone. She courted arrest by breaking salt law and liquor law.

    Unattempted

    Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was an Indian social reformer and freedom fighter. She persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the salt agitation to men alone. She courted arrest by breaking salt law and liquor law.

  42. Question 42 of 100
    42. Question

    Lottery Committee of the British rule was related to
    (A) Eradication of epidemics
    (B) Revenue settlement
    (C) Town Planning
    (D) Education

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Lord Wellesley wrote a Minute (an administrative order) in 1803 on the need for town planning and set up various committees for the purpose. Many bazaars, ghats, burial grounds, and tanneries were cleared or removed. From then on the notion of ―public health became an idea that was proclaimed in projects of town clearance and town planning. After Wellesley‘s departure, the work of town planning was carried on by the Lottery Committee (1817) with the help of the government. The Lottery Committee was so named because funds for town improvement were raised through public lotteries.

    Unattempted

    Lord Wellesley wrote a Minute (an administrative order) in 1803 on the need for town planning and set up various committees for the purpose. Many bazaars, ghats, burial grounds, and tanneries were cleared or removed. From then on the notion of ―public health became an idea that was proclaimed in projects of town clearance and town planning. After Wellesley‘s departure, the work of town planning was carried on by the Lottery Committee (1817) with the help of the government. The Lottery Committee was so named because funds for town improvement were raised through public lotteries.

  43. Question 43 of 100
    43. Question

    Who among the following were the founders of the 'Congress Socialist Party' established in 1934?
    (A) Purushottamdas Tondon and Govind Ballabh Pant
    (B) Jawaharlal Nehru and M.N Roy
    (C) Madan Mohan Malviya and Gopal Krishna Gokhale
    (D) Jayaprakash Narayan and Acharya Narendra Dev

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was founded at Bombay in October 1934 under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Minoo Masani. The CSP from the beginning assigned itself the task of both transforming the Congress and of strengthening it. One was the ideological sense. Congressmen were to be gradually persuaded to adopt a socialist vision of independent India and a more radical pro-labour and pro-peasant stand on current economic issues.

    Unattempted

    Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was founded at Bombay in October 1934 under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Minoo Masani. The CSP from the beginning assigned itself the task of both transforming the Congress and of strengthening it. One was the ideological sense. Congressmen were to be gradually persuaded to adopt a socialist vision of independent India and a more radical pro-labour and pro-peasant stand on current economic issues.

  44. Question 44 of 100
    44. Question

    With reference to Indian press, consider the following statements:
    (1)Charles Metclafe was the first governor general to place restrictions on the press in India.
    (2)Vernacular Press Act in 1878 put restrictions on the freedom on both English and Indian language newspapers.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Both the statements are incorrect.
    The Indian press was freed of restrictions by Charles Metcalfe in 1835. He is called 'Liberator of India Press'. This step had been welcomed enthusiastically by the educated Indians. It was one of the reasons why they had for some time supported British rule in India. But the nationalists gradually began to use the press to arouse national consciousness among the people and to sharply criticise the reactionary policies of the Government. This turned the officials against the Indian press and they decided to curb its freedom. This was attempted by passing the Vernacular Press Act in 1878. This Act put serious restrictions on the freedom of the Indian language newspapers only.

    Unattempted

    Both the statements are incorrect.
    The Indian press was freed of restrictions by Charles Metcalfe in 1835. He is called 'Liberator of India Press'. This step had been welcomed enthusiastically by the educated Indians. It was one of the reasons why they had for some time supported British rule in India. But the nationalists gradually began to use the press to arouse national consciousness among the people and to sharply criticise the reactionary policies of the Government. This turned the officials against the Indian press and they decided to curb its freedom. This was attempted by passing the Vernacular Press Act in 1878. This Act put serious restrictions on the freedom of the Indian language newspapers only.

  45. Question 45 of 100
    45. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Hoysala dynasty :
    (1) They were feudatories of the Chalukyas of Kalyana, also known as the Western Chalukya Empire.
    (2) Hoysala architecture is a blend of Bhumija, Nagara and the Dravida styles of architecture.
    (3) The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur, but was later moved to Halebidu(or Dwarasamudra).
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Three Hoysala-era temples in Karnataka [Chennakeshava (Belur), Hoysaleswara (Halebidu) and Keshava Temple (Somanathapura, Mysuru)] recently made it to UNESCO’s World Heritage List, under the collective entry of ‘Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas’.
    The announcement was made by UNESCO, during the World Heritage Committee’s 45th session in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
    The Hoysalas governed areas spanning Karnataka and Tamil Nadu for over three centuries, with Sala serving as the dynasty's founder.
    The Hoysalas were feudatories of the Chalukyas of Kalyana, also known as the Western Chalukya Empire. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The most notable rulers of the Hoysala dynasty were Vishnuvardhana, Veera Ballala II, and Veera Ballala III. Vishnuvardhana (also known as Bittideva) was the greatest king of the Hoysala dynasty.
    The Hoysala Temples were built during the 12th and 13th centuries CE, showcasing the unique architectural and artistic brilliance of the Hoysala dynasty.
    Hoysala architecture is known for its distinctive blend of Bhumija style prevalent in Central India, the Nagara traditions of northern and western India, and the Karnataka Dravida modes favored by the Kalyani Chalukyas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur, but was later moved to Halebidu(or Dwarasamudra). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Three Hoysala-era temples in Karnataka [Chennakeshava (Belur), Hoysaleswara (Halebidu) and Keshava Temple (Somanathapura, Mysuru)] recently made it to UNESCO’s World Heritage List, under the collective entry of ‘Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas’.
    The announcement was made by UNESCO, during the World Heritage Committee’s 45th session in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
    The Hoysalas governed areas spanning Karnataka and Tamil Nadu for over three centuries, with Sala serving as the dynasty's founder.
    The Hoysalas were feudatories of the Chalukyas of Kalyana, also known as the Western Chalukya Empire. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The most notable rulers of the Hoysala dynasty were Vishnuvardhana, Veera Ballala II, and Veera Ballala III. Vishnuvardhana (also known as Bittideva) was the greatest king of the Hoysala dynasty.
    The Hoysala Temples were built during the 12th and 13th centuries CE, showcasing the unique architectural and artistic brilliance of the Hoysala dynasty.
    Hoysala architecture is known for its distinctive blend of Bhumija style prevalent in Central India, the Nagara traditions of northern and western India, and the Karnataka Dravida modes favored by the Kalyani Chalukyas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur, but was later moved to Halebidu(or Dwarasamudra). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  46. Question 46 of 100
    46. Question

    With reference to the Nataraja sculpture, consider the following statements:
    (1) The concept of Shiva as a dancer, known as Nataraja, began to take shape around the 5th century AD.
    (2) The Nataraja sculpture at Bharat Mandapam is made using the sand casting method.
    (3) The design of this Nataraja statue at Bharat Mandapam draws inspiration from the Thillai Nataraja Temple, the Uma Maheswarar Temple, the Brihadeeswara (Big) Temple.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The concept of Shiva as a dancer, known as Nataraja, began to take shape around the 5th century AD. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Nataraja sculpture at Bharat Mandapam is made using the lost wax method. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The design of this Nataraja statue draws inspiration from three revered Nataraja idols: the Thillai Nataraja Temple in Chidambaram, the Uma Maheswarar Temple in Konerirajapuram, and the Brihadeeswara (Big) Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, in Thanjavur. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    It was very much in news during G20 Meeting.

    Unattempted

    The concept of Shiva as a dancer, known as Nataraja, began to take shape around the 5th century AD. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Nataraja sculpture at Bharat Mandapam is made using the lost wax method. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The design of this Nataraja statue draws inspiration from three revered Nataraja idols: the Thillai Nataraja Temple in Chidambaram, the Uma Maheswarar Temple in Konerirajapuram, and the Brihadeeswara (Big) Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, in Thanjavur. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    It was very much in news during G20 Meeting.

  47. Question 47 of 100
    47. Question

    With reference to the Lucknow Pact of 1916, consider the following statements:
    (1) It offered a joint League-Congress scheme for constitutional reforms and demanding dominion status for India.
    (2) It was accepted by the MontaguChelmsford Reforms in 1919.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Lucknow Pact in 1916 offered a joint League-Congress scheme for constitutional reforms, demanding representative government and dominion status for India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The principle of separate electorate was accepted, and proportional representation in both imperial and provincial legislature was agreed upon. The faith in constitutional politics suffered a jolt when the MontaguChelmsford Reforms in 1919 totally disregarded the Lucknow Pact. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted

    The Lucknow Pact in 1916 offered a joint League-Congress scheme for constitutional reforms, demanding representative government and dominion status for India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The principle of separate electorate was accepted, and proportional representation in both imperial and provincial legislature was agreed upon. The faith in constitutional politics suffered a jolt when the MontaguChelmsford Reforms in 1919 totally disregarded the Lucknow Pact. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

  48. Question 48 of 100
    48. Question

    With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Khudai Khidmatgars was –
    (A) a revolutionary group of the students in Bengal.
    (B) a group in Congress led by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad to take up the khilafat issue.
    (C) a reformist organisation working for modernisation of Parsi community.
    (D) a non-violent revolutionary group led by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Gaffar Khan, also called Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi, had started the first Pushto political monthly Pukhtoon and had organised a volunteer brigade 'Khudai Khidmatgars', popularly known as the 'Red-Shirts', who were pledged to the freedom struggle and non-violence.
    They played an extremely active role in the Civil Disobedience Movement. The atmosphere created by their political work contributed to the mass upsurge in Peshawar during which the city was virtually in the hands of the crowd for more than a week.

    Unattempted

    Gaffar Khan, also called Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi, had started the first Pushto political monthly Pukhtoon and had organised a volunteer brigade 'Khudai Khidmatgars', popularly known as the 'Red-Shirts', who were pledged to the freedom struggle and non-violence.
    They played an extremely active role in the Civil Disobedience Movement. The atmosphere created by their political work contributed to the mass upsurge in Peshawar during which the city was virtually in the hands of the crowd for more than a week.

  49. Question 49 of 100
    49. Question

    With reference to the Subsidiary Alliance during the British rule in India, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was first used by Lord Dalhousie in India.
    (2) Under the alliance, British troops were to be stationed in the allied states.
    (3) The rulers agreeing to the conditions in Subsidiary alliance could enter into agreements with other rulers only with the permission of the British.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised and popularised in India on a large scale by Lord Wellesley in 1798.
    All those who entered into such an alliance with the British had to accept certain terms and conditions:
    – The British would be responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threats to their power.
    – In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed.
    – The ally would have to provide the resources for maintaining this contingent
    – The ally could enter into agreements with other rulers or engage in warfare only with the permission of the British.
    Hence statement 1 is not correct and statements 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted

    Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised and popularised in India on a large scale by Lord Wellesley in 1798.
    All those who entered into such an alliance with the British had to accept certain terms and conditions:
    – The British would be responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threats to their power.
    – In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed.
    – The ally would have to provide the resources for maintaining this contingent
    – The ally could enter into agreements with other rulers or engage in warfare only with the permission of the British.
    Hence statement 1 is not correct and statements 2 and 3 are correct.

  50. Question 50 of 100
    50. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Skill India Digital (SID)’:
    (1) It is envisioned as the Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for skilling, education, employment, and entrepreneurship in India.
    (2) It is a project under Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
    (3) SID Platform supports multiple Indian languages for inclusivity and uses Aadhaar-based eKYC for secure access.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Skill India Digital (SID) is envisioned as the Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for skilling, education, employment, and entrepreneurship in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It aims to bring together various skilling initiatives and create a seamless ecosystem for skill development, aligning with the principles of the G20 framework for building DPIs.
    It is a project under ‘Union Minister for Education and Skill Development and Entrepreneurship’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    SID Platform supports multiple Indian languages for inclusivity and uses Aadhaar-based eKYC for secure access. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Skill India Digital (SID) is envisioned as the Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for skilling, education, employment, and entrepreneurship in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It aims to bring together various skilling initiatives and create a seamless ecosystem for skill development, aligning with the principles of the G20 framework for building DPIs.
    It is a project under ‘Union Minister for Education and Skill Development and Entrepreneurship’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    SID Platform supports multiple Indian languages for inclusivity and uses Aadhaar-based eKYC for secure access. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  51. Question 51 of 100
    51. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) News Broadcasters and Digital Association (NBDA) is a constitutional body.
    (2) The Press Council of India (PCI) is the apex body for regulating print media in India.
    (3) The government's Cable Television Networks (CTN) Amendment Rules of 2021 require registration of self-regulatory bodies.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The News Broadcasters & Digital Association (NBDA) (Formerly known as News Broadcasters Association (NBA)) represents the private television news, current affairs and digital broadcasters. It is the collective voice of the news, current affairs and digital broadcasters in India. It is an organization funded entirely by its members. The NBDA has presently 27 leading news and current affairs broadcasters (comprising 125 news and current affairs channels) as its members.
    The NBDA presents a unified and credible voice before the Government, on matters that affect the growing industry. It is not a constitutional body. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The Press Council of India (PCI) is the apex body for regulating print media in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The government's Cable Television Networks (CTN) Amendment Rules in 2021 require registration of self-regulatory bodies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    The News Broadcasters & Digital Association (NBDA) (Formerly known as News Broadcasters Association (NBA)) represents the private television news, current affairs and digital broadcasters. It is the collective voice of the news, current affairs and digital broadcasters in India. It is an organization funded entirely by its members. The NBDA has presently 27 leading news and current affairs broadcasters (comprising 125 news and current affairs channels) as its members.
    The NBDA presents a unified and credible voice before the Government, on matters that affect the growing industry. It is not a constitutional body. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The Press Council of India (PCI) is the apex body for regulating print media in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The government's Cable Television Networks (CTN) Amendment Rules in 2021 require registration of self-regulatory bodies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  52. Question 52 of 100
    52. Question

    Indian Capitalists preferred constitutional form of struggle as opposed to mass civil disobedience because
    (1) prolonged mass struggle prevented the continuing of day-to-day business.
    (2) they depended on the foreign capitalists and British patronage.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Indian capitalist class had its own notions of how the anti-imperialist struggle ought to be waged. It was always in favour of not completely abandoning the constitutional path and the negotiating table and generally preferred to put its weight behind constitutional forms of struggle as opposed to mass civil disobedience. This was due to several reasons.
    First, there was the fear that mass civil disobedience, especially if it was prolonged, would unleash forces which could turn the movement revolutionary in a social sense (i.e., threaten capitalism itself).
    Second, the capitalists were unwilling to support a prolonged all-out hostility to the government of the day as it prevented the continuing of day-to-day business and threatened the very existence of the class.
    The Indian capitalists‘ support to constitutional participation, whether it be in assemblies, conferences or even joining the Viceroy‘s Executive Council, is not to be understood simply as their getting co-opted into the imperial system or surrendering to it. Further, however keen the capitalists may have been to keep constitutional avenues open, they clearly recognized the futility of entering councils.
    Finally, it must be noted that for the capitalist class constitutionalism was not an end in itself, neither did it subscribe to what has often been called ‗gradualism‘ in which case it would have joined hands with the Liberals and not supported the Congress which repeatedly went in for nonconstitutional struggle including mass civil disobedience.
    The Indian capitalist class grew from about the mid 19th century with largely an independent capital base and not as junior partners of foreign capital or as compradors. The capitalist class on the whole was not tied up in a subservient position with pro-imperialist feudal interests either economically or politically.

    Unattempted

    The Indian capitalist class had its own notions of how the anti-imperialist struggle ought to be waged. It was always in favour of not completely abandoning the constitutional path and the negotiating table and generally preferred to put its weight behind constitutional forms of struggle as opposed to mass civil disobedience. This was due to several reasons.
    First, there was the fear that mass civil disobedience, especially if it was prolonged, would unleash forces which could turn the movement revolutionary in a social sense (i.e., threaten capitalism itself).
    Second, the capitalists were unwilling to support a prolonged all-out hostility to the government of the day as it prevented the continuing of day-to-day business and threatened the very existence of the class.
    The Indian capitalists‘ support to constitutional participation, whether it be in assemblies, conferences or even joining the Viceroy‘s Executive Council, is not to be understood simply as their getting co-opted into the imperial system or surrendering to it. Further, however keen the capitalists may have been to keep constitutional avenues open, they clearly recognized the futility of entering councils.
    Finally, it must be noted that for the capitalist class constitutionalism was not an end in itself, neither did it subscribe to what has often been called ‗gradualism‘ in which case it would have joined hands with the Liberals and not supported the Congress which repeatedly went in for nonconstitutional struggle including mass civil disobedience.
    The Indian capitalist class grew from about the mid 19th century with largely an independent capital base and not as junior partners of foreign capital or as compradors. The capitalist class on the whole was not tied up in a subservient position with pro-imperialist feudal interests either economically or politically.

  53. Question 53 of 100
    53. Question

    In the context of Indian freedom struggle, 'Karnataka method' was used as a strategy in which of the following movements?
    (A) Swadeshi movement
    (B) Non-Cooperation movement
    (C) Civil Disobedience movement
    (D) Quit India movement

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Sumit Sarkar has identified three phases of the Quit India movement.
    The first phase was marked by an urban revolt, marked by strikes, boycott and picketing, which were quickly suppressed.
    In the middle of August i.e. the second phase, the focus shifted to the countryside, which witnessed a major peasant rebellion, marked by destruction of communication systems, such as railway tracks and stations, telegraph wires and poles, attacks on government buildings or any other visible symbol of colo- nial authority and finally, the formation of 'national governments' in isolated pockets. This brought in severe government repression forcing the agitation to move underground.
    The third phase was characterised by terrorist activities, which primarily involved sabotaging of war efforts by dislocating communication systems and pro- paganda activities by using various means, including a clandestine radio station run by hitherto unknown Usha Mehta from 'somewhere in India'. Not only the educated youth participated in such activities, but also bands of ordinary peasants organised such subversive actions by night, which came to be known as the 'Karnataka method.

    Unattempted

    Sumit Sarkar has identified three phases of the Quit India movement.
    The first phase was marked by an urban revolt, marked by strikes, boycott and picketing, which were quickly suppressed.
    In the middle of August i.e. the second phase, the focus shifted to the countryside, which witnessed a major peasant rebellion, marked by destruction of communication systems, such as railway tracks and stations, telegraph wires and poles, attacks on government buildings or any other visible symbol of colo- nial authority and finally, the formation of 'national governments' in isolated pockets. This brought in severe government repression forcing the agitation to move underground.
    The third phase was characterised by terrorist activities, which primarily involved sabotaging of war efforts by dislocating communication systems and pro- paganda activities by using various means, including a clandestine radio station run by hitherto unknown Usha Mehta from 'somewhere in India'. Not only the educated youth participated in such activities, but also bands of ordinary peasants organised such subversive actions by night, which came to be known as the 'Karnataka method.

  54. Question 54 of 100
    54. Question

    How many of the following civil services reforms were introduced by Lord Cornwallis?
    (1)Promotion in civil services on the basis of seniority.
    (2)Establishment of Fort William college at Calcutta to train young recruits.
    (3)Holding civil services examination in India
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Lord Cornwallis, who came to India as Governor-General in 1786, was determined to purify the administration, but he realised that the Company's servants would not give honest and efficient service so long as they were not given adequate salaries. He therefore enforced the rules against private trade and acceptance of presents and bribes by officials with strictness. At the same time, he raised the salary of the Company‘s servants. For example, the Collector of a district was to be paid Rs. 1500 a month and one per cent commission on the revenue collection of his district. In fact the Company's Civil Service became the highest paid service in the world. Cornwallis also laid down that promotion in the Civil Services would be by seniority so that its members would remain independent of outside influence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    In 1800, Lord Wellesley pointed out that even though civil servants often ruled over vast areas, they came to India at the immature age of 18 or so and were given no regular training before starting on their jobs. They generally lacked knowledge of Indian languages. Wellesley therefore established the Fort William college at Calcutta for the education of young recruits to the Civil Services. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    Civil services examination started to be held in India from 1922 (Lord Reading) onwards. It was not introduced by Lord Cornwallis . Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted

    Lord Cornwallis, who came to India as Governor-General in 1786, was determined to purify the administration, but he realised that the Company's servants would not give honest and efficient service so long as they were not given adequate salaries. He therefore enforced the rules against private trade and acceptance of presents and bribes by officials with strictness. At the same time, he raised the salary of the Company‘s servants. For example, the Collector of a district was to be paid Rs. 1500 a month and one per cent commission on the revenue collection of his district. In fact the Company's Civil Service became the highest paid service in the world. Cornwallis also laid down that promotion in the Civil Services would be by seniority so that its members would remain independent of outside influence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    In 1800, Lord Wellesley pointed out that even though civil servants often ruled over vast areas, they came to India at the immature age of 18 or so and were given no regular training before starting on their jobs. They generally lacked knowledge of Indian languages. Wellesley therefore established the Fort William college at Calcutta for the education of young recruits to the Civil Services. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    Civil services examination started to be held in India from 1922 (Lord Reading) onwards. It was not introduced by Lord Cornwallis . Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

  55. Question 55 of 100
    55. Question

    With reference to Surya Sen, how many of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) He supported the enhanced role of women revolutionaries in the national movement.
    (2) He was opposed to the idea of Non Cooperation as propagated by Congress.
    (3) He led the Chittagong armoury raid.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Surya Sen was a teacher in a national school in Chittagong, which led to his being popularly known as Masterda.
    Under Surya Sen‘s leadership, young women provided shelter, acted as messengers and custodians of arms, and fought, guns in hand. Pritilata Waddedar died while conducting a raid, while Kalpana Dutt (now Joshi) was arrested and tried along with Surya Sen and given a life sentence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Surya Sen had actively participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement and was imprisoned for two years, from 1926 to 1928, for revolutionary activity, while he continued to work in the Congress. He and his group were closely associated with the Congress work in Chittagong. In 1929, Surya Sen was the Secretary and five of his associates were members of the Chittagong District Congress Committee. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The Chittagong armoury raid, also known as the Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April 1930 to raid the armoury of police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armoury in the Bengal Presidency of British India (now in Bangladesh) by armed Indian independence fighters led by Surya Sen. Apart from Surya Sen, Pritilata Waddedar and Kalpana Dutta was also part of it including others. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Surya Sen was a teacher in a national school in Chittagong, which led to his being popularly known as Masterda.
    Under Surya Sen‘s leadership, young women provided shelter, acted as messengers and custodians of arms, and fought, guns in hand. Pritilata Waddedar died while conducting a raid, while Kalpana Dutt (now Joshi) was arrested and tried along with Surya Sen and given a life sentence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Surya Sen had actively participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement and was imprisoned for two years, from 1926 to 1928, for revolutionary activity, while he continued to work in the Congress. He and his group were closely associated with the Congress work in Chittagong. In 1929, Surya Sen was the Secretary and five of his associates were members of the Chittagong District Congress Committee. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The Chittagong armoury raid, also known as the Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April 1930 to raid the armoury of police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armoury in the Bengal Presidency of British India (now in Bangladesh) by armed Indian independence fighters led by Surya Sen. Apart from Surya Sen, Pritilata Waddedar and Kalpana Dutta was also part of it including others. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  56. Question 56 of 100
    56. Question

    With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Shanti Ghosh and Suniti Chowdhry are well-known for –
    (A) their contribution in Quit India movement for running secret societies.
    (B) playing an important role in leading a contingent in 1857 mutiny.
    (C) assassinating district magistrates in Bengal under Surya Sen's leadership.
    (D) playing an important role in picketing shops during Civil Disobedience Movement.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    A revolutionary phase in Bengal saw large scale participation of young women under Surya Sen's leadership, they provided shelters, acted as messengers and custodians of arms and fought guns in hand. Preetilata Waddekar died while conducting a raid, while Kalpana Dutt was arrested and tried along with Surya Sen and given a life sentence. In December 1931, two school girls Commilla, Shanti Ghosh and Suniti Chaudhary, shot dead the district magistrates. In December 1932, Beena Das fired point blank at the Governor while receiving her degree at the convocation.

    Unattempted

    A revolutionary phase in Bengal saw large scale participation of young women under Surya Sen's leadership, they provided shelters, acted as messengers and custodians of arms and fought guns in hand. Preetilata Waddekar died while conducting a raid, while Kalpana Dutt was arrested and tried along with Surya Sen and given a life sentence. In December 1931, two school girls Commilla, Shanti Ghosh and Suniti Chaudhary, shot dead the district magistrates. In December 1932, Beena Das fired point blank at the Governor while receiving her degree at the convocation.

  57. Question 57 of 100
    57. Question

    Mahatma Gandhi opposed separate electorate for untouchables because he believed that :
    (A) it was introduced without the consent of minority.
    (B) it would weaken Mahatma Gandhi's position as a leader.
    (C) it would ensure that untouchables remained untouchables in perpetuity.
    (D) none of the above

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Communal Award of 1932 declared separate electorate for depressed classes. Gandhi's opinion that once the depressed classes were treated as a separate political entity, the question of abolishing untouchability remained in perpetuity. Hence, he demanded the depressed classes be elected through joint electorate and if possible a wider electorate through universal franchise.

    Unattempted

    Communal Award of 1932 declared separate electorate for depressed classes. Gandhi's opinion that once the depressed classes were treated as a separate political entity, the question of abolishing untouchability remained in perpetuity. Hence, he demanded the depressed classes be elected through joint electorate and if possible a wider electorate through universal franchise.

  58. Question 58 of 100
    58. Question

    In 1873, an agrarian league was formed at Pabna district of Bengal to –
    (A) initiate armed resistance against British officials.
    (B) resist the demands of the zamindars for enhanced rents.
    (C) oppose the efforts of British to change prevalent social practices in the region.
    (D) oppose forceful conversion activities of christian missionaries in the region.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    In May 1873, an agrarian league or combination was formed in Yusufshahi Parganah in Pabna district of Bengal to resist the demands of the zamindars of enhanced rents.The league organized mass meetings of peasants.and large crowds gathered and then they marched towards the villages frightening the zamindars. The league organized a rent-strike- the ryots refused to pay the enhanced rents – and challenged the zamindars in the courts. The struggle gradually spread throughout Pabna and then to the other districts of East Bengal.
    Everywhere agrarian leagues were organized, rents were withheld and zamindars fought in the courts. The main form of struggle was that of legal resistance. There was very little violence – it only occurred when the zamindars tried to compel the ryots to submit to their terms by force.In the course of the movement, the ryots developed a strong awareness of the law and their legal rights and the ability to combine and form associations for peaceful agitation.

    Unattempted

    In May 1873, an agrarian league or combination was formed in Yusufshahi Parganah in Pabna district of Bengal to resist the demands of the zamindars of enhanced rents.The league organized mass meetings of peasants.and large crowds gathered and then they marched towards the villages frightening the zamindars. The league organized a rent-strike- the ryots refused to pay the enhanced rents – and challenged the zamindars in the courts. The struggle gradually spread throughout Pabna and then to the other districts of East Bengal.
    Everywhere agrarian leagues were organized, rents were withheld and zamindars fought in the courts. The main form of struggle was that of legal resistance. There was very little violence – it only occurred when the zamindars tried to compel the ryots to submit to their terms by force.In the course of the movement, the ryots developed a strong awareness of the law and their legal rights and the ability to combine and form associations for peaceful agitation.

  59. Question 59 of 100
    59. Question

    Consider the following statements :
    (1) In 2021-2022, India was the second largest producer of milk in the world.
    (2) Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of milk in India.
    (3) Increasing temperatures may reduce milk production in India’s arid and semi-arid regions.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    According to ‘Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2022’, total milk production in India was 221.06 million tonnes in 2021-2022, keeping it the largest milk producing country in the world. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Top five major milk producing States are Rajasthan (15.05%), Uttar Pradesh (14.93%), Madhya Pradesh (8.06%), Gujarat (7.56%) and Andhra Pradesh (6.97%). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    In 2022, a study published in ‘Lancet’ estimated that increasing temperatures could reduce milk production in India’s arid and semi-arid regions by 25% by 2085. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    According to ‘Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2022’, total milk production in India was 221.06 million tonnes in 2021-2022, keeping it the largest milk producing country in the world. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Top five major milk producing States are Rajasthan (15.05%), Uttar Pradesh (14.93%), Madhya Pradesh (8.06%), Gujarat (7.56%) and Andhra Pradesh (6.97%). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    In 2022, a study published in ‘Lancet’ estimated that increasing temperatures could reduce milk production in India’s arid and semi-arid regions by 25% by 2085. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  60. Question 60 of 100
    60. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the growing concern related to Vibrio vulnificus infections in India :
    (1) It is a deadly bacteria found in marine environments.
    (2) Despite its potential threat, this pathogen remains largely underreported in India.
    (3) This bacterium thrives in warm waters above 20°C.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Vibrio vulnificus is a bacterium that can cause severe infections in humans. It can result from eating undercooked seafood, especially oysters, which may contain the bacteria. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Despite its potential threat, this pathogen remains largely underreported in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    This bacterium thrives in warm waters above 20°C. India's average sea surface temperature of 28°C provides a perfect habitat.Climate change, with increased rainfall and reduced coastal salinity, further supports the growth of Vibrio vulnificus. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Vibrio vulnificus is a bacterium that can cause severe infections in humans. It can result from eating undercooked seafood, especially oysters, which may contain the bacteria. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Despite its potential threat, this pathogen remains largely underreported in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    This bacterium thrives in warm waters above 20°C. India's average sea surface temperature of 28°C provides a perfect habitat.Climate change, with increased rainfall and reduced coastal salinity, further supports the growth of Vibrio vulnificus. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  61. Question 61 of 100
    61. Question

    The famous Komagata Maru incident is related to which revolutionary group?
    (A) Hindustan Socialist Republican Army
    (B) Indian National Army
    (C) Anushilan Samiti
    (D) Ghadar Party

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Komagata Maru incident involved a Japanese steamship, Komagata Maru, that sailed from Hong Kong, Shanghai, China to Yokohama, Japan and then to Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada, in 1914, carrying 376 passengers from Punjab, British India. Ghadar activists visited the ship at Yokohama in Japan, gave lectures and distributed literature. The Press in Punjab warned of serious consequences if the Indians were not allowed entry into Canada. The Press in Canada took a different view and some newspapers in Vancouver alerted the people to the Mounting Oriental Invasion. Of them 24 were admitted to Canada, but the 352 other passengers were not allowed to land in Canada, and the ship was forced to return to India. To fight for the rights of the passengers, ‘Shore Committee‘ was set up under the leadership of Husain Rahim, Sohan Lal Pathak and Balwant Singh, funds were raised, and protest meetings organized. Rebellion against the British in India was threatened. In the United States, under the leadership of Bhagwan Singh, Baikatullah, Ram Chandra and Sohan Singh Bhakna, a powerful campaign was organized and the people were advised to prepare for rebellion. The passengers consisted of 340Sikhs, 24 Muslims, and 12 Hindus, all British subjects. This was one of several incidents in the history of early 20th century involving exclusion laws in both Canada and the United States designed to keep out immigrants of only Asian origin.

    Unattempted

    The Komagata Maru incident involved a Japanese steamship, Komagata Maru, that sailed from Hong Kong, Shanghai, China to Yokohama, Japan and then to Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada, in 1914, carrying 376 passengers from Punjab, British India. Ghadar activists visited the ship at Yokohama in Japan, gave lectures and distributed literature. The Press in Punjab warned of serious consequences if the Indians were not allowed entry into Canada. The Press in Canada took a different view and some newspapers in Vancouver alerted the people to the Mounting Oriental Invasion. Of them 24 were admitted to Canada, but the 352 other passengers were not allowed to land in Canada, and the ship was forced to return to India. To fight for the rights of the passengers, ‘Shore Committee‘ was set up under the leadership of Husain Rahim, Sohan Lal Pathak and Balwant Singh, funds were raised, and protest meetings organized. Rebellion against the British in India was threatened. In the United States, under the leadership of Bhagwan Singh, Baikatullah, Ram Chandra and Sohan Singh Bhakna, a powerful campaign was organized and the people were advised to prepare for rebellion. The passengers consisted of 340Sikhs, 24 Muslims, and 12 Hindus, all British subjects. This was one of several incidents in the history of early 20th century involving exclusion laws in both Canada and the United States designed to keep out immigrants of only Asian origin.

  62. Question 62 of 100
    62. Question

    With reference to the annulment of Partition of Bengal in 1911, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was done by Viceroy Lord Minto-II.
    (2) It was done in order to curb the menace of revolutionary nationalists.
    (3) It was welcomed by Muslim political elite.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The annulment of partition of Bengal was decided in 1911(Delhi Durbar) under the viceroyship of Lord Hardinge. Lord Minto – II was appointed the Viceroy of India in the year 1905 after the resignation of Lord Curzon and served office till 1910. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    It was decided to annul the partition of Bengal in 1911 mainly to curb the menace of revolutionary terrorism. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The annulment came as a rude shock to the Muslim political elite. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    It was decided to shift the capital to Delhi as a sop to the Muslims, as it was associated with Muslim glory, but the Muslims were not pleased. Bihar and Orissa were taken out of Bengal and Assam was made a separate province.

    Unattempted

    The annulment of partition of Bengal was decided in 1911(Delhi Durbar) under the viceroyship of Lord Hardinge. Lord Minto – II was appointed the Viceroy of India in the year 1905 after the resignation of Lord Curzon and served office till 1910. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    It was decided to annul the partition of Bengal in 1911 mainly to curb the menace of revolutionary terrorism. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The annulment came as a rude shock to the Muslim political elite. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    It was decided to shift the capital to Delhi as a sop to the Muslims, as it was associated with Muslim glory, but the Muslims were not pleased. Bihar and Orissa were taken out of Bengal and Assam was made a separate province.

  63. Question 63 of 100
    63. Question

    With reference to Passive Resistance Association, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was set up by Lala Lajpat Rai.
    (2) It was set up to unite people against the Simon Commission.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Lala Lajpat Rai was a leading figure that played a crucial role in leading Anti Simon agitation. He also moved a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly in February 1928 against it.
    A new legislation in South Africa (1906) made it compulsory for Indians there to carry at all times certificates of registration with their fingerprints. The Indians under Gandhiji's leadership decided not tosubmit to this discriminatory measure. Gandhiji formed the Passive Resistance Association to conduct the campaign.

    Unattempted

    Lala Lajpat Rai was a leading figure that played a crucial role in leading Anti Simon agitation. He also moved a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly in February 1928 against it.
    A new legislation in South Africa (1906) made it compulsory for Indians there to carry at all times certificates of registration with their fingerprints. The Indians under Gandhiji's leadership decided not tosubmit to this discriminatory measure. Gandhiji formed the Passive Resistance Association to conduct the campaign.

  64. Question 64 of 100
    64. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the SHREYAS,:
    (1) The SHREYAS initiative aims to empower students from Scheduled Castes, Economically Weaker Section (EWS) and Other Backward Classes by providing them access to quality education.
    (2) It is an umbrella scheme, under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
    (3) It provides financial assistance to students to cover the cost of tuition fees only.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme (SHREYAS) initiative has been a cornerstone in India's efforts to empower students from Scheduled Castes (SC) and Other Backward Classes (OBC) (but not EWS) by providing them access to quality education. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    SHREYAS is an umbrella scheme, under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The scheme provides total tuition fee, maintenance and contingency allowance, visa fee, to and fro air passage etc. to the awardees. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted

    The Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme (SHREYAS) initiative has been a cornerstone in India's efforts to empower students from Scheduled Castes (SC) and Other Backward Classes (OBC) (but not EWS) by providing them access to quality education. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    SHREYAS is an umbrella scheme, under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The scheme provides total tuition fee, maintenance and contingency allowance, visa fee, to and fro air passage etc. to the awardees. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

  65. Question 65 of 100
    65. Question

    Consider the following statements related to basic magma:
    (1) It is rich in ferromagnesian minerals
    (2) It is associated with shield volcanoes.
    (3) It is commonly associated with the oceanic crust.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Magma is the term for the molten or semi-molten rock that exists under the surface of the Earth. Magma can erupt from volcanoes as lava.
    Basic magma, also known as basaltic magma, has a relatively low viscosity compared to other types of magma. It is rich in ferromagnesian minerals but poor in silica. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    These magmas have the ability to travel long distances and give rise to the formation of expansive shield volcanoes with gently sloping profiles, often covering extensive geographical areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    These magmas are often associated with mid-ocean ridges, where they create vast shield volcanoes that stretch along the ocean floor. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Magma is the term for the molten or semi-molten rock that exists under the surface of the Earth. Magma can erupt from volcanoes as lava.
    Basic magma, also known as basaltic magma, has a relatively low viscosity compared to other types of magma. It is rich in ferromagnesian minerals but poor in silica. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    These magmas have the ability to travel long distances and give rise to the formation of expansive shield volcanoes with gently sloping profiles, often covering extensive geographical areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    These magmas are often associated with mid-ocean ridges, where they create vast shield volcanoes that stretch along the ocean floor. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  66. Question 66 of 100
    66. Question

    With reference to the history of modern India, the MacDonnell Commission was related to
    (A) suggest separate electorate to depressed castes.
    (B) recommend measures for famine relief.
    (C) British policy towards tribes of Central India.
    (D) to recommend changes in use of language in administrative work

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Lord Curzon appointed a Commission under the chairmanship of Sir Anthony MacDonnell to suggest measures to improve conditions during famine. The Commission emphasized the benefits of a policy of moral Strategy and early distribution of advances for purchase of seed, cattle and sinking of temporary wells. Most of recommendations of Commission were accepted by Lord Curzon.

    Unattempted

    Lord Curzon appointed a Commission under the chairmanship of Sir Anthony MacDonnell to suggest measures to improve conditions during famine. The Commission emphasized the benefits of a policy of moral Strategy and early distribution of advances for purchase of seed, cattle and sinking of temporary wells. Most of recommendations of Commission were accepted by Lord Curzon.

  67. Question 67 of 100
    67. Question

    How many of the following statements is/are correct about the industrial development of India during British rule?
    (1) It gave rise to a modern working class.
    (2) It was regionally balanced.
    (3) It was based on policies that favoured British interests.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Modern industries in India during the British rule had to develop without government help. British manufacturers looked upon Indian textile and other industries as their rivals and put pressure on the Government of India not to encourage but rather to actively discourage industrial development in India. Thus, British policy artificially restricted and slowed down the growth of Indian industries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    An important social consequence of even the limited industrial development of the country was the birth and growth of two new social classes in Indian society—the industrial capitalist class and the modernworking class. These two classes were entirely new in Indian history because modern mines, industries and means of transport were new. They were not weighed down by the burden of old traditions, customsand styles of life. They possessed an all-India outlook. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Another feature of Indian industrial development was that it was extremely lopsided regionally. Indian industries were concentrated only in a few regions and cities of the country. Large parts of the country remained totally underdeveloped. This unequal regional economic development not only led to wide regional disparities in income but also affected the level of national integration. It made the task of creating a unified Indian nation more difficult. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    In the 1920s and 1930s, under the pressure of the rising nationalist movement and the Indian capitalist class, the Government of India was forced to grant some tariff protection to Indian industries. But, onceagain, the government discriminated against Indian-owned industries. The Indian-owned industries such as cement, iron and steel, and glass were denied protection or given inadequate protection. On the otherhand, foreign-dominated industries, such as the match industry, were given the protection they desired.

    Unattempted

    Modern industries in India during the British rule had to develop without government help. British manufacturers looked upon Indian textile and other industries as their rivals and put pressure on the Government of India not to encourage but rather to actively discourage industrial development in India. Thus, British policy artificially restricted and slowed down the growth of Indian industries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    An important social consequence of even the limited industrial development of the country was the birth and growth of two new social classes in Indian society—the industrial capitalist class and the modernworking class. These two classes were entirely new in Indian history because modern mines, industries and means of transport were new. They were not weighed down by the burden of old traditions, customsand styles of life. They possessed an all-India outlook. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Another feature of Indian industrial development was that it was extremely lopsided regionally. Indian industries were concentrated only in a few regions and cities of the country. Large parts of the country remained totally underdeveloped. This unequal regional economic development not only led to wide regional disparities in income but also affected the level of national integration. It made the task of creating a unified Indian nation more difficult. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    In the 1920s and 1930s, under the pressure of the rising nationalist movement and the Indian capitalist class, the Government of India was forced to grant some tariff protection to Indian industries. But, onceagain, the government discriminated against Indian-owned industries. The Indian-owned industries such as cement, iron and steel, and glass were denied protection or given inadequate protection. On the otherhand, foreign-dominated industries, such as the match industry, were given the protection they desired.

  68. Question 68 of 100
    68. Question

    With reference to the Surety Bonds, consider the following statements:
    (1) Surety bond is provided by the insurance company on behalf of the contractor to the entity that is awarding the project.
    (2) A surety bond can be defined in its simplest form as a written agreement to guarantee compliance, payment, or performance of an act.
    (3) Surety is a unique type of insurance because it involves a three-party agreement.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    A surety bond can be defined in its simplest form as a written agreement to guarantee compliance, payment, or performance of an act. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Surety bond is provided by the insurance company on behalf of the contractor to the entity that is awarding the project. It will help contractors to have financial closure of their projects without depending upon only bank guarantees. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It is a unique type of insurance because it involves a three-party agreement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    The three parties in a surety agreement are:
    Principal: The party that purchases the bond and undertakes an obligation to perform an act as promised.
    Surety: The insurance company or surety company that guarantees the obligation will be performed. If the principal fails to perform the act as promised, the surety is contractually liable for losses sustained.
    Obligee: The party who requires and often receives the benefit of the surety bond. For most surety bonds, the obligee is a local, state or federal government organisation.

    Unattempted

    A surety bond can be defined in its simplest form as a written agreement to guarantee compliance, payment, or performance of an act. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Surety bond is provided by the insurance company on behalf of the contractor to the entity that is awarding the project. It will help contractors to have financial closure of their projects without depending upon only bank guarantees. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It is a unique type of insurance because it involves a three-party agreement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    The three parties in a surety agreement are:
    Principal: The party that purchases the bond and undertakes an obligation to perform an act as promised.
    Surety: The insurance company or surety company that guarantees the obligation will be performed. If the principal fails to perform the act as promised, the surety is contractually liable for losses sustained.
    Obligee: The party who requires and often receives the benefit of the surety bond. For most surety bonds, the obligee is a local, state or federal government organisation.

  69. Question 69 of 100
    69. Question

    Regarding the Shantiniketan, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a located in Birbhum district of West Bengal.
    (2) It was founded by Rabindranath Tagore as a residential school and a centre for art based on ancient Indian traditions.
    (3) It has been recognized by UNESCO as India's 40th World Heritage Site.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Recently, Shantiniketan, which is a town located in Birbhum district of West Bengal, was included in the UNESCO’s World Heritage List. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The efforts to have Shantiniketan recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site have been ongoing since 2010. Shantiniketan has been recognized by UNESCO as India's 41st World Heritage Site. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Shantiniketan was founded by Rabindranath Tagore in 1901 as a residential school and a centre for art based on ancient Indian traditions and a vision of the unity of humanity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Recently, Shantiniketan, which is a town located in Birbhum district of West Bengal, was included in the UNESCO’s World Heritage List. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The efforts to have Shantiniketan recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site have been ongoing since 2010. Shantiniketan has been recognized by UNESCO as India's 41st World Heritage Site. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Shantiniketan was founded by Rabindranath Tagore in 1901 as a residential school and a centre for art based on ancient Indian traditions and a vision of the unity of humanity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  70. Question 70 of 100
    70. Question

    Consider the following:
    (1) Personal sacrifices
    (2) Belief in the capacity of the masses
    (3) Direct political action
    How many of the above were the basic tenets of revolutionary school of thought during freedom struggle?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    By the dawn of the 20th century, a band of nationalist thinkers had emerged who advocated a more militant approach to political work. The basic tenets of this school of thought wereo Hatred for foreign rule; since no hope could be derived from it, Indian should work out their own salvation.
    Swaraj to be the goal of a national movement.
    Direct political action required.
    Belief in capacity of masses to challenge the authority.
    Personal sacrifices required and a true nationalist to be always ready for it.

    Unattempted

    By the dawn of the 20th century, a band of nationalist thinkers had emerged who advocated a more militant approach to political work. The basic tenets of this school of thought wereo Hatred for foreign rule; since no hope could be derived from it, Indian should work out their own salvation.
    Swaraj to be the goal of a national movement.
    Direct political action required.
    Belief in capacity of masses to challenge the authority.
    Personal sacrifices required and a true nationalist to be always ready for it.

  71. Question 71 of 100
    71. Question

    Lord Wellesley's expansion policy was discontinued by East India Company for which of the following reasons?
    (1) Expansion through war was costly and was reducing the profit of company.
    (2) The Company decided to reward the loyalty of the princely states.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The large-scale expansion of British rule in India occurred during the Governor-Generalship of Lord Wellesley who came to India in 1798 at a time when the British were locked in a life-and- death strugglewith France all over the world. Lord Wellesley's expansion policy was discontinued by East India Company for the following reasons:
    Statement 1 is correct: The shareholders of the East India Company discovered that the policy of expansion through war was proving costly and was reducing their profits. The Company‘s debt had increased from £17 million in 1797 to £31 million in 1806. Moreover, Britain‘s finances were getting exhausted at a time when Napoleon was once again becoming a major threat in Europe. British statesmen and the directors of the Company felt that time had come to check further expansion, to put an end to ruinous expenditure, and to digest and consolidate Britain‘s recent gains in India. Wellesley was, therefore, recalled from India.
    Statement 2 is not correct: It was the reason to discontinue annexation after revolt of 1857.

    Unattempted

    The large-scale expansion of British rule in India occurred during the Governor-Generalship of Lord Wellesley who came to India in 1798 at a time when the British were locked in a life-and- death strugglewith France all over the world. Lord Wellesley's expansion policy was discontinued by East India Company for the following reasons:
    Statement 1 is correct: The shareholders of the East India Company discovered that the policy of expansion through war was proving costly and was reducing their profits. The Company‘s debt had increased from £17 million in 1797 to £31 million in 1806. Moreover, Britain‘s finances were getting exhausted at a time when Napoleon was once again becoming a major threat in Europe. British statesmen and the directors of the Company felt that time had come to check further expansion, to put an end to ruinous expenditure, and to digest and consolidate Britain‘s recent gains in India. Wellesley was, therefore, recalled from India.
    Statement 2 is not correct: It was the reason to discontinue annexation after revolt of 1857.

  72. Question 72 of 100
    72. Question

    Kheda Satyagraha was organised by Mahatma Gandhi against
    (A) government's refusal to grant remission on land revenue for crop failure.
    (B) mill owners refusal to grant 'plague bonus' to its employees.
    (C) significant enhancement of demand for land revenue by the Government.
    (D) ban on temple entry for Harijans by Government

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Kheda Satyagraha (1918): The peasants of Kheda district were in extreme distress due to a failure of crops, and that their appeals for the remission of land revenue were being ignored by the Government. Enquiries by members of the Servants of India Society, Vithalbhai Patel and Gandhiji confirmed the validity of the peasants‘ case. This was that as the crops were less than one-fourth of the normal yield, they were entitled under the revenue code to a total remission of the land revenue. This forced Gandhiji to launch Kheda Satyagraha in 1918.
    Ahmedabad mill strike (1918): A dispute was brewing between workers of Ahmedabad and the mill owners over the question of a ‘plague bonus‘ the employers wanted to withdraw once the epidemic had passed but the workers insisted it stay, since the enhancement hardly compensated for the rise in the cost of living during the War. Gandhiji organised the Satyagraha in 1918.
    Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): It was organised by Sardar Patel against the enhancement of demand for land revenue by the Government by 30%.
    Vaikom Satyagraha (1924): It was organised by the Kerala Provincial Congress Committee (KPCC) against untouchability and ban on temple entry for harijans.

    Unattempted

    Kheda Satyagraha (1918): The peasants of Kheda district were in extreme distress due to a failure of crops, and that their appeals for the remission of land revenue were being ignored by the Government. Enquiries by members of the Servants of India Society, Vithalbhai Patel and Gandhiji confirmed the validity of the peasants‘ case. This was that as the crops were less than one-fourth of the normal yield, they were entitled under the revenue code to a total remission of the land revenue. This forced Gandhiji to launch Kheda Satyagraha in 1918.
    Ahmedabad mill strike (1918): A dispute was brewing between workers of Ahmedabad and the mill owners over the question of a ‘plague bonus‘ the employers wanted to withdraw once the epidemic had passed but the workers insisted it stay, since the enhancement hardly compensated for the rise in the cost of living during the War. Gandhiji organised the Satyagraha in 1918.
    Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): It was organised by Sardar Patel against the enhancement of demand for land revenue by the Government by 30%.
    Vaikom Satyagraha (1924): It was organised by the Kerala Provincial Congress Committee (KPCC) against untouchability and ban on temple entry for harijans.

  73. Question 73 of 100
    73. Question

    With reference to the nationalist response to British participation in first World War, consider the following statements:
    (1) The Moderates supported the empire in the war as a matter of duty.
    (2) The Extremists supported the war efforts in the belief that Britain would repay India's loyalty in the form of selfgovernment.
    (3) The revolutionaries decided to utilize the opportunity to wage a war on British rule and liberate the country.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    In the First World War (1914-1919), Britain allied with France, Russia, USA, Italy and Japan against Germany, Austria, Hungary and Turkey. The nationalist response to British participation in the War was three-fold –
    the Moderates supported the empire in the War as a matter of duty;
    the extremists, including Tilak (who was released in June 1914), supported the war efforts in the mistaken belief that Britain would repay India‘s loyalty with gratitude in the form of self-government;
    the revolutionaries decided to utilize the opportunity to wage a war and liberate the country. Indian supporters of British war efforts failed to see that the imperialist powers were fighting precisely to safeguard their own colonies and markets.

    Unattempted

    In the First World War (1914-1919), Britain allied with France, Russia, USA, Italy and Japan against Germany, Austria, Hungary and Turkey. The nationalist response to British participation in the War was three-fold –
    the Moderates supported the empire in the War as a matter of duty;
    the extremists, including Tilak (who was released in June 1914), supported the war efforts in the mistaken belief that Britain would repay India‘s loyalty with gratitude in the form of self-government;
    the revolutionaries decided to utilize the opportunity to wage a war and liberate the country. Indian supporters of British war efforts failed to see that the imperialist powers were fighting precisely to safeguard their own colonies and markets.

  74. Question 74 of 100
    74. Question

    Jawaharlal Nehru was associated with which of the following organizations?
    (1) Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha
    (2) All India States People’s Conference
    (3) National Planning Committee
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 3 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Bhagat Singh helped in establishing the Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926 and become its founding Secretary. The Sabha was to carry out open political work among the youth, peasants and workers. It was to open branches in the villages. Nehru was not associated with this organization.
    National Planning Committee was appointed in 1938 by the Congress President Subhas Bose. It was set up under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru in order to draw up a development plan for free India.
    All India States People’s Conference was founded in 1927 to coordinate political activities in the different states. Jawaharlal Nehru became the president of this organization in 1939.

    Unattempted

    Bhagat Singh helped in establishing the Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926 and become its founding Secretary. The Sabha was to carry out open political work among the youth, peasants and workers. It was to open branches in the villages. Nehru was not associated with this organization.
    National Planning Committee was appointed in 1938 by the Congress President Subhas Bose. It was set up under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru in order to draw up a development plan for free India.
    All India States People’s Conference was founded in 1927 to coordinate political activities in the different states. Jawaharlal Nehru became the president of this organization in 1939.

  75. Question 75 of 100
    75. Question

    With reference to the Akali movement during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements:
    (1) It was aimed at freeing the gurdwaras from the control of the corrupt mahants.
    (2) The Golden Temple was left out of the purview of this movement.
    (3) Unlike the non-cooperation movement, violence was accepted as a strategy by the Akalis.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is correct: The Akali Movement developed on a purely religious issue but ended up as a powerful episode of India‘s freedom struggle. The movement arose with the objective of freeing theGurdwaras (Sikh temples) from the control of ignorant and corrupt mahants (priests). A popular agitation for the reform of Gurdwaras developed rapidly during 1920 when the reformers organized groups of volunteers known as jathas to compel the mahants and the Government-appointed managers to hand over control of the Gurdwaras to the local devotees.
    Statement 2 is not correct: The reformers won easy victories in the beginning with many Gurdwaras being liberated in the course of the year. Symbolic of this early success was the case of the Golden Temple and the Akal Takht. The reformers demanded that this foremost seat of Sikh faith should be placed in the hands of a representative body of the Sikhs, and organized a series of public meetings in support of their demand. The Government did not want to antagonize the reformers at this stage and, therefore, permitted the Government-appointed manager to resign and, thus, let the control of the temple pass effectively into the reformers’ hands. To control and manage the Golden Temple, the Akal Takht and other Gurdwaras, a representative assembly of nearly 10,000 reformers met in November 1920 and elected a committee of 175 to be known as the Shiromani Gurdwara Prabhandak Committee (SGPC).
    Statement 3 is not correct: The need was felt for a central body which would organize the struggle on a more systematic basis. The Shiromani Akali Dal was established for this purpose. Under the influence of the contemporary Non-Cooperation Movement — many of the leaders were common to both the movements — the Akali Dal accepted complete non-violence as its creed. In May 1921, the SGPC passed a resolution in favour of non-cooperation, for the boycott of foreign goods and liquor, and for the substitution of panchayats for the British courts of law. The Akali leaders, arrested for the breaking of law, also refused to defend themselves, denying the jurisdiction of foreign-imposed courts.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is correct: The Akali Movement developed on a purely religious issue but ended up as a powerful episode of India‘s freedom struggle. The movement arose with the objective of freeing theGurdwaras (Sikh temples) from the control of ignorant and corrupt mahants (priests). A popular agitation for the reform of Gurdwaras developed rapidly during 1920 when the reformers organized groups of volunteers known as jathas to compel the mahants and the Government-appointed managers to hand over control of the Gurdwaras to the local devotees.
    Statement 2 is not correct: The reformers won easy victories in the beginning with many Gurdwaras being liberated in the course of the year. Symbolic of this early success was the case of the Golden Temple and the Akal Takht. The reformers demanded that this foremost seat of Sikh faith should be placed in the hands of a representative body of the Sikhs, and organized a series of public meetings in support of their demand. The Government did not want to antagonize the reformers at this stage and, therefore, permitted the Government-appointed manager to resign and, thus, let the control of the temple pass effectively into the reformers’ hands. To control and manage the Golden Temple, the Akal Takht and other Gurdwaras, a representative assembly of nearly 10,000 reformers met in November 1920 and elected a committee of 175 to be known as the Shiromani Gurdwara Prabhandak Committee (SGPC).
    Statement 3 is not correct: The need was felt for a central body which would organize the struggle on a more systematic basis. The Shiromani Akali Dal was established for this purpose. Under the influence of the contemporary Non-Cooperation Movement — many of the leaders were common to both the movements — the Akali Dal accepted complete non-violence as its creed. In May 1921, the SGPC passed a resolution in favour of non-cooperation, for the boycott of foreign goods and liquor, and for the substitution of panchayats for the British courts of law. The Akali leaders, arrested for the breaking of law, also refused to defend themselves, denying the jurisdiction of foreign-imposed courts.

  76. Question 76 of 100
    76. Question

    Consider the following organisations:
    (1) Social Service League
    (2) All India Trade Union Congress
    (3) Indian Reform Association
    Narayan Malhar Joshi was associated with the establishment of which of the above?
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 2 only

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Narayan Malhar Joshi, founded the Social Service League in Bombay with an aim to secure for the masses better and reasonable conditions of life and work. They organized many schools, libraries, reading rooms, day nurseries and cooperative societies. Their activities also included police court agents' work, legal aid and advice to the poor and illiterate, excursions for slum dwellers, facilities for gymnasia and theatrical performances, sanitary work, medical relief and boys' clubs and scout corps.
    He also founded the All India Trade Union Congress (1920). However, there was a split in 1931 and the corporatist trend led by N.M. Joshi broke away from the AITUC to set up All India Trade Union Federation. This led to a dip in the working class movement.
    Indian Reform Association was formed by Keshub Chandra Sen in 1870 to create public opinion against child marriages, for upliftment of status of women and to legalise Brahmo type of marriage.

    Unattempted

    Narayan Malhar Joshi, founded the Social Service League in Bombay with an aim to secure for the masses better and reasonable conditions of life and work. They organized many schools, libraries, reading rooms, day nurseries and cooperative societies. Their activities also included police court agents' work, legal aid and advice to the poor and illiterate, excursions for slum dwellers, facilities for gymnasia and theatrical performances, sanitary work, medical relief and boys' clubs and scout corps.
    He also founded the All India Trade Union Congress (1920). However, there was a split in 1931 and the corporatist trend led by N.M. Joshi broke away from the AITUC to set up All India Trade Union Federation. This led to a dip in the working class movement.
    Indian Reform Association was formed by Keshub Chandra Sen in 1870 to create public opinion against child marriages, for upliftment of status of women and to legalise Brahmo type of marriage.

  77. Question 77 of 100
    77. Question

    How many of the following recommendations were made by the Nehru Report 1928?
    (1) Dominion status as the form of government.
    (2) Accepting separate electorates.
    (3) Universal adult suffrage.
    (4) Complete dissociation of state from religion.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) Only three

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Lord Birkenhead had challenged the Indians to formulate a concrete scheme of constitutional reforms which had the support of wide sections of Indian political opinion. This challenge was taken up andmeetings of the All-Parties Conference were held to finalize a scheme which popularly came to be known as the Nehru Report (1928) after Motilal Nehru, its principal author.
    Nehru Report, 1928, was the first major attempt by the Indians to draft a constitutional framework for the country.
    Recommendations:
    (1) Dominion status on lines of self-governing dominions as the form of government desired by Indians. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    (2) Dissociation of the state from religion in any form. Hence statement 4 is correct.
    (3) Rejection of separate electorates which had been the basis of constitutional reforms so far; instead, a demand for joint electorates with reservation of seats for Muslims at the centre and in provinces where they were in minority. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    (4) Responsible government at the centre and in provinces— the central government to be headed by a governor-general, appointed by the British Government but paid out of Indian revenues, who would act on the advice of the central executive council responsible to the Parliament.
    (5) Universal adult suffrage. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    6. Equal rights for women
    7. Freedom to form unions

    Unattempted

    Lord Birkenhead had challenged the Indians to formulate a concrete scheme of constitutional reforms which had the support of wide sections of Indian political opinion. This challenge was taken up andmeetings of the All-Parties Conference were held to finalize a scheme which popularly came to be known as the Nehru Report (1928) after Motilal Nehru, its principal author.
    Nehru Report, 1928, was the first major attempt by the Indians to draft a constitutional framework for the country.
    Recommendations:
    (1) Dominion status on lines of self-governing dominions as the form of government desired by Indians. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    (2) Dissociation of the state from religion in any form. Hence statement 4 is correct.
    (3) Rejection of separate electorates which had been the basis of constitutional reforms so far; instead, a demand for joint electorates with reservation of seats for Muslims at the centre and in provinces where they were in minority. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    (4) Responsible government at the centre and in provinces— the central government to be headed by a governor-general, appointed by the British Government but paid out of Indian revenues, who would act on the advice of the central executive council responsible to the Parliament.
    (5) Universal adult suffrage. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    6. Equal rights for women
    7. Freedom to form unions

  78. Question 78 of 100
    78. Question

    Which of the following statements is not correct about the economic impact of British rule on India in the 19th century?
    (A) The gradual disappearance of Indian rulers affected indigenous industries.
    (B) Most of industrial cities of India were ruined.
    (C) Export of raw materials like cotton adversely impacted Indian handicrafts.
    (D) Decay of traditional industries was accompanied by growth of modern machine industries.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    In the 19th century, the gradual disappearance of Indian rulers and their courts, who were the main customers of town handicrafts, gave a big blow to these industries. For instance, the production of military weapons depended entirely on the Indian states. The British purchased all their military and other government stores in Britain.
    The ruin of Indian handicrafts was reflected in the ruin of the towns and cities which were famous for their manufacture. Cities which had withstood the ravages of war and plunder failed to survive Britishconquest. Dhaka, Surat, Murshidabad and many other populous and flourishing industrial centres were depopulated and laid waste.
    The British policy of exporting raw materials like cotton and leather also injured Indian handicrafts. It raised the price of these raw materials and reduced the capacity of Indian handicrafts to compete with foreign goods.
    The tragedy was heightened by the fact that the decay of the traditional industries was not accompanied by the growth of modern machine industries as was the case in Britain and Western Europe. Consequently, the ruined handicraftsmen and artisans failed to find alternative employment. The only choice open to them was to crowd into agriculture.

    Unattempted

    In the 19th century, the gradual disappearance of Indian rulers and their courts, who were the main customers of town handicrafts, gave a big blow to these industries. For instance, the production of military weapons depended entirely on the Indian states. The British purchased all their military and other government stores in Britain.
    The ruin of Indian handicrafts was reflected in the ruin of the towns and cities which were famous for their manufacture. Cities which had withstood the ravages of war and plunder failed to survive Britishconquest. Dhaka, Surat, Murshidabad and many other populous and flourishing industrial centres were depopulated and laid waste.
    The British policy of exporting raw materials like cotton and leather also injured Indian handicrafts. It raised the price of these raw materials and reduced the capacity of Indian handicrafts to compete with foreign goods.
    The tragedy was heightened by the fact that the decay of the traditional industries was not accompanied by the growth of modern machine industries as was the case in Britain and Western Europe. Consequently, the ruined handicraftsmen and artisans failed to find alternative employment. The only choice open to them was to crowd into agriculture.

  79. Question 79 of 100
    79. Question

    How many of the following journals/newspapers were actively used to bring awareness against partition of Bengal?
    (1) Bengalee
    (2) Hitabadi
    (3) Sanjibani
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    During Swadeshi Movement the political ideas and propagandas was spread through pamphlets and journals. The Hitabadi led by Dwijendernath Tagore, Sanjibani led by Krishan Kumar Mitra (firstto give the idea of boycott) and Bengalee by Surenderanath Banerjee.
    Other newspapers/journals were – Motilal Ghosh's Amrit Bazar Patrika; Brahm Bandhav Upadhyay's Sandhya (it was the most outspoken newspaper); Aurbindo Ghosh's Vande Mataram, 1907 (gave the concept of passive resistance) .

    Unattempted

    During Swadeshi Movement the political ideas and propagandas was spread through pamphlets and journals. The Hitabadi led by Dwijendernath Tagore, Sanjibani led by Krishan Kumar Mitra (firstto give the idea of boycott) and Bengalee by Surenderanath Banerjee.
    Other newspapers/journals were – Motilal Ghosh's Amrit Bazar Patrika; Brahm Bandhav Upadhyay's Sandhya (it was the most outspoken newspaper); Aurbindo Ghosh's Vande Mataram, 1907 (gave the concept of passive resistance) .

  80. Question 80 of 100
    80. Question

    Which among the following events happened earliest ?
    (A) Bhil Uprising
    (B) Sanyasi Rebellion
    (C) Kittur Uprising
    (D) Satara Uprising

    Correct

    Incorrect

    From 1763 to 1856, there were more than forty major civil rebellions apart from hundreds of minor ones. Displaced peasants and demobilized soldiers of Bengal led by religious monks and dispossessed zamindars were the first to rise up in the Sanyasi rebellion, made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand Math, that lasted from 1763 to 1800.
    It was followed by the Chuar uprising which covered five districts of Bengal and Bihar from 1766 to 1772 and then, again, from 1795 to 1816. Other major rebellions in Eastern India were those of Rangpur andDinajpur, 1783;Bishnupur and Birbhum, 1799; Orissa zamindars, 1804-17; and Sambalpur, 1827-40.
    The Kolis of Gujarat did the same during 1824-28, 1839 and 1849. Maharashtra was in a perpetual state of revolt after the final defeat of the Peshwa. Prominent were the Bhil uprisings, 1818-31 (uprising tookplace in Khandesh region of Maharastra under the leadership of Sewaram due to the agrarian hardships) ;
    The Kittur uprising, led by Chinnava, 1824 (The British prevented the adopted son of the chief of Kittur (in Karnataka) from assuming power by taking over the administration, that resulted in form of revolt.);
    The Satara uprising, 1841 (This was a follow up of the Ramosi revolt because the ruler of Satara Pratap Singh was deposed by the British.); and the revolt of the Gadkaris,1844.

    Unattempted

    From 1763 to 1856, there were more than forty major civil rebellions apart from hundreds of minor ones. Displaced peasants and demobilized soldiers of Bengal led by religious monks and dispossessed zamindars were the first to rise up in the Sanyasi rebellion, made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand Math, that lasted from 1763 to 1800.
    It was followed by the Chuar uprising which covered five districts of Bengal and Bihar from 1766 to 1772 and then, again, from 1795 to 1816. Other major rebellions in Eastern India were those of Rangpur andDinajpur, 1783;Bishnupur and Birbhum, 1799; Orissa zamindars, 1804-17; and Sambalpur, 1827-40.
    The Kolis of Gujarat did the same during 1824-28, 1839 and 1849. Maharashtra was in a perpetual state of revolt after the final defeat of the Peshwa. Prominent were the Bhil uprisings, 1818-31 (uprising tookplace in Khandesh region of Maharastra under the leadership of Sewaram due to the agrarian hardships) ;
    The Kittur uprising, led by Chinnava, 1824 (The British prevented the adopted son of the chief of Kittur (in Karnataka) from assuming power by taking over the administration, that resulted in form of revolt.);
    The Satara uprising, 1841 (This was a follow up of the Ramosi revolt because the ruler of Satara Pratap Singh was deposed by the British.); and the revolt of the Gadkaris,1844.

  81. Question 81 of 100
    81. Question

    In the early 20th century, Annie Besant launched a campaign through her two papers, New India and Commonweal to
    (A) generate awareness among women about their political rights.
    (B) motivate people to join Congress party.
    (C) mediate between the moderates and extremists to come together to overthrow Britishers.
    (D) demand that India be granted self government ( home rule) on the lines of the White colonies after the War

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Annie Besant had begun her political career in England as a proponent of Free Thought, Radicalism, Fabianism and Theosophy, and had come to India in 1893 to work for the Theosophical Society. Since1907, she had been spreading the message of Theosophy from her headquarters in Adyar, a suburb of Madras, and had gained a large number of followers among the educated members of many communities that had experienced no cultural revival of their own. In 1914, she decided to enlarge the sphere of her activities to include the building of a movement for Home Rule on the lines of the Irish Home Rule League.
    In early 1915, Annie Besant launched a campaign through her two papers, New India and Commonweal, and organized public meetings and conferences to demand that India be granted self-government on the lines of the White colonies after the War.

    Unattempted

    Annie Besant had begun her political career in England as a proponent of Free Thought, Radicalism, Fabianism and Theosophy, and had come to India in 1893 to work for the Theosophical Society. Since1907, she had been spreading the message of Theosophy from her headquarters in Adyar, a suburb of Madras, and had gained a large number of followers among the educated members of many communities that had experienced no cultural revival of their own. In 1914, she decided to enlarge the sphere of her activities to include the building of a movement for Home Rule on the lines of the Irish Home Rule League.
    In early 1915, Annie Besant launched a campaign through her two papers, New India and Commonweal, and organized public meetings and conferences to demand that India be granted self-government on the lines of the White colonies after the War.

  82. Question 82 of 100
    82. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Treaty of Salbai :
    (1) It was signed between British and Tipu Sultan.
    (2) It was signed to end the Second Anglo Mysore War.
    (3) Under it British and Tipu Sultan agreed to returned the conquered territories as well as the prisoners.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Treaty Of Salbai was signed between British and Maratha in 1782 in which status quo was maintained between both powers. Peace treaty give the British Twenty Years of peace with Marathas. After this treaty British gave full attention to the Mysore.
    The second Anglo-Mysore war came to an end with the Treaty of Mangalore in Mar 11, 1784 signed between Tipu Sultan and the British East India Company; and under the terms of the treaty, both sidesonce again returned the conquered territories as well as the prisoners.
    Hence all the statements are not correct.

    Unattempted

    Treaty Of Salbai was signed between British and Maratha in 1782 in which status quo was maintained between both powers. Peace treaty give the British Twenty Years of peace with Marathas. After this treaty British gave full attention to the Mysore.
    The second Anglo-Mysore war came to an end with the Treaty of Mangalore in Mar 11, 1784 signed between Tipu Sultan and the British East India Company; and under the terms of the treaty, both sidesonce again returned the conquered territories as well as the prisoners.
    Hence all the statements are not correct.

  83. Question 83 of 100
    83. Question

    Which of the following statements is not correct about the Indian press in the moderate phase of the freedom struggle?
    (A) It played the institutional role of opposition to the Government.
    (B) Its influence was confined to the cities and larger towns.
    (C) It enabled the Indian National Congress to propogate its political work.
    (D) Newspapers were often financed as objects of philanthropy and not established as business enterprises.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Newspapers, during the early (moderate) phase of the freedom struggle, were not business enterprises, nor were the editors and journalists professionals. Newspapers were published as a national or public service. They were often financed as objects of philanthropy.
    Nearly all the major political controversies of the day were conducted through the Press. It also played the institutional role of opposition to the Government. Almost every act and every policy of the Government was subjected to sharp criticism, in many cases with great care and vast learning backing it up.
    The influence of the Press extended far beyond its literate subscribers. Nor was it confined to cities and large towns. A newspaper would reach remote villages and would then be read by a reader to tens of others. The newspaper not only became the political educator; reading or discussing it became a form of political participation.
    Even the work of the Indian National Congress was accomplished during these years largely through the Press. The Congress had no organization of its own for carrying on political work. Its resolutions and proceedings had to be propagated through newspapers. Nearly one-third of the founding fathers of the Congress in 1885 were journalists.

    Unattempted

    Newspapers, during the early (moderate) phase of the freedom struggle, were not business enterprises, nor were the editors and journalists professionals. Newspapers were published as a national or public service. They were often financed as objects of philanthropy.
    Nearly all the major political controversies of the day were conducted through the Press. It also played the institutional role of opposition to the Government. Almost every act and every policy of the Government was subjected to sharp criticism, in many cases with great care and vast learning backing it up.
    The influence of the Press extended far beyond its literate subscribers. Nor was it confined to cities and large towns. A newspaper would reach remote villages and would then be read by a reader to tens of others. The newspaper not only became the political educator; reading or discussing it became a form of political participation.
    Even the work of the Indian National Congress was accomplished during these years largely through the Press. The Congress had no organization of its own for carrying on political work. Its resolutions and proceedings had to be propagated through newspapers. Nearly one-third of the founding fathers of the Congress in 1885 were journalists.

  84. Question 84 of 100
    84. Question

    Which of the following was/were the main goals of Wavell’s Breakdown Plan?
    (1) A safe withdrawal of the British from India.
    (2) To avoid a partition of India by attempting to maintain it as onegeographic entity.
    (3) To give the Muslim League an equal say in constitution formation.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Breakdown Plan was prepared by Lord Wavell and his closest circle of advisors to deal with the fast evolving political situation in India. Two main political tendencies had crystallized in post-War India:Keeping India as one geographic entity; the second one was diametrically opposed to it, espoused by the Muslims, who wanted an independent Muslim-majority state.
    Wavell‘s breakdown plan was formulated with two main goals in mind: Firstly, a safe withdrawal of the British from India; secondly, to avoid a partition of India by attempting to maintain it as one geographic entity.
    For the first goal Wavell suggested a phased withdrawal‘ from India, which would be initiated from the Hindu-majority provinces of the south.
    The second goal was to be achieved by proposing a partition of both the Punjab and Bengal, as a bargaining tool with the Muslim League to deter from pursuing its agenda of a separate Muslim-majorityhomeland on religious grounds.
    Although Wavell‘s overall plan was rejected in London, parts of it were, however, incorporated in the final withdrawal plan laid down by Mountbatten, Wavell‘s successor, in his June 3 Plan. This included thepartitioning of both the Bengal and the Punjab thus dealing a blow to Muslim interests in both those provinces.

    Unattempted

    The Breakdown Plan was prepared by Lord Wavell and his closest circle of advisors to deal with the fast evolving political situation in India. Two main political tendencies had crystallized in post-War India:Keeping India as one geographic entity; the second one was diametrically opposed to it, espoused by the Muslims, who wanted an independent Muslim-majority state.
    Wavell‘s breakdown plan was formulated with two main goals in mind: Firstly, a safe withdrawal of the British from India; secondly, to avoid a partition of India by attempting to maintain it as one geographic entity.
    For the first goal Wavell suggested a phased withdrawal‘ from India, which would be initiated from the Hindu-majority provinces of the south.
    The second goal was to be achieved by proposing a partition of both the Punjab and Bengal, as a bargaining tool with the Muslim League to deter from pursuing its agenda of a separate Muslim-majorityhomeland on religious grounds.
    Although Wavell‘s overall plan was rejected in London, parts of it were, however, incorporated in the final withdrawal plan laid down by Mountbatten, Wavell‘s successor, in his June 3 Plan. This included thepartitioning of both the Bengal and the Punjab thus dealing a blow to Muslim interests in both those provinces.

  85. Question 85 of 100
    85. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct about Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
    (1) He started the practice of using traditional religious festivals topropagate nationalist ideas.
    (2) He did not see the necessity of bringing the peasants into the Congress.
    (3) He organised a campaign for the boycott of foreign cloth.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 2 only
    (D) 3 only

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statements 1 and 3 are correct: In 1893, Bal Gangadhar Tilak started the practice of using the traditional religious Ganapati festival to propagate nationalist ideas through patriotic songs and speeches. In 1896, he started the Shivaji festival to stimulate nationalism among young Maharashtrians.
    In the same year, he organized an all-Maharashtra campaign for the boycott of foreign cloth in protest against the imposition of the excise duty on cotton.
    Statement 2 is not correct: He was perhaps the first among the national leaders to grasp the important role that the lower middle classes, peasants, artisans and workers could play in the national movement and, therefore, he saw the necessity of bringing them into the Congress fold. In pursuance of this objective, he initiated a no-tax campaign in Maharashtra during 1896-97 with the help of the young workers of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha. Referring to the official famine code whose copies he got printed in Marathi and distributed by the thousand, he asked the famine-stricken peasants of Maharashtra to withhold payment of land revenue if their crops had failed.

    Unattempted

    Statements 1 and 3 are correct: In 1893, Bal Gangadhar Tilak started the practice of using the traditional religious Ganapati festival to propagate nationalist ideas through patriotic songs and speeches. In 1896, he started the Shivaji festival to stimulate nationalism among young Maharashtrians.
    In the same year, he organized an all-Maharashtra campaign for the boycott of foreign cloth in protest against the imposition of the excise duty on cotton.
    Statement 2 is not correct: He was perhaps the first among the national leaders to grasp the important role that the lower middle classes, peasants, artisans and workers could play in the national movement and, therefore, he saw the necessity of bringing them into the Congress fold. In pursuance of this objective, he initiated a no-tax campaign in Maharashtra during 1896-97 with the help of the young workers of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha. Referring to the official famine code whose copies he got printed in Marathi and distributed by the thousand, he asked the famine-stricken peasants of Maharashtra to withhold payment of land revenue if their crops had failed.

  86. Question 86 of 100
    86. Question

    With reference to the Geospatial Intelligence, consider the following statements:
    (1) Geospatial technology uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System) and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis.
    (2) The technology may be used to create intelligent maps to help identify spatial patterns in large volumes of data.
    (3) Geospatial intelligence supports the development of autonomous vehicles by providing detailed ground-level data, contributing to safer and smarter transportation systems.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Geospatial technology uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System) and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    These tools capture spatial information about objects, events and phenomena (indexed to their geographical location on earth, geotag). The location data may be Static or Dynamic. Static location data include position of a road, an earthquake event or malnutrition among children in a particular region while dynamic location data include data related to a moving vehicle or pedestrian, the spread of an infectious disease etc.
    The technology may be used to create intelligent maps to help identify spatial patterns in large volumes of data. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The technology facilitates decision making based on the importance and priority of scarce resources.
    Geospatial intelligence supports the development of autonomous vehicles by providing detailed ground-level data, contributing to safer and smarter transportation systems. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Geospatial technology uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System) and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    These tools capture spatial information about objects, events and phenomena (indexed to their geographical location on earth, geotag). The location data may be Static or Dynamic. Static location data include position of a road, an earthquake event or malnutrition among children in a particular region while dynamic location data include data related to a moving vehicle or pedestrian, the spread of an infectious disease etc.
    The technology may be used to create intelligent maps to help identify spatial patterns in large volumes of data. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The technology facilitates decision making based on the importance and priority of scarce resources.
    Geospatial intelligence supports the development of autonomous vehicles by providing detailed ground-level data, contributing to safer and smarter transportation systems. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  87. Question 87 of 100
    87. Question

    With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
    (1) Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
    (2) The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
    (3) After each Census, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act in accordance with Article 82.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. The commission's main task is to redraw the boundaries based on a recent census. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Article 82 and Article 170 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States respectively, after every census. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted

    Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. The commission's main task is to redraw the boundaries based on a recent census. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Article 82 and Article 170 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States respectively, after every census. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  88. Question 88 of 100
    88. Question

    With reference to Cripps Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) Its aim was to secure active cooperation of Indians in the war.
    (2) It proposed complete independence to India after the war.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is correct: To secure the cooperation of Indians during the world war II, the British Government sent to India in March 1942 a mission headed by a Cabinet minister Stafford Cripps. He was left-wing Labourite who had earlier actively supported the Indian national movement.
    Statement 2 is not correct: The Draft Declaration of Cripps promised India Dominion Status and a constitution-making body after the War whose members would be elected by the provincial assembliesand nominated by the rulers in case of the princely states. The Pakistan demand was accommodated by the provision that any province which was not prepared to accept the new constitution would have the right tosign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
    The Congress objected to the provision for Dominion Status rather than full independence, the representation of the princely states in the constituent assembly not by the people of the states but by the nominees of the rulers, and above all by the provision for the partition of India.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is correct: To secure the cooperation of Indians during the world war II, the British Government sent to India in March 1942 a mission headed by a Cabinet minister Stafford Cripps. He was left-wing Labourite who had earlier actively supported the Indian national movement.
    Statement 2 is not correct: The Draft Declaration of Cripps promised India Dominion Status and a constitution-making body after the War whose members would be elected by the provincial assembliesand nominated by the rulers in case of the princely states. The Pakistan demand was accommodated by the provision that any province which was not prepared to accept the new constitution would have the right tosign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
    The Congress objected to the provision for Dominion Status rather than full independence, the representation of the princely states in the constituent assembly not by the people of the states but by the nominees of the rulers, and above all by the provision for the partition of India.

  89. Question 89 of 100
    89. Question

    In the context of Indian National Movement, Atmashakti, Dhumketu and Navayuga were
    (A) Journals
    (B) Secret Societies
    (C) Peasant groups
    (D) Labour unions

    Correct

    Incorrect

    In 1920s Atmashakti, Dhumketu and Navayuga were left nationalist journals. Atmashakti and Dhumketu were published in Calcutta. Navayuga was published in Guntur.

    Unattempted

    In 1920s Atmashakti, Dhumketu and Navayuga were left nationalist journals. Atmashakti and Dhumketu were published in Calcutta. Navayuga was published in Guntur.

  90. Question 90 of 100
    90. Question

    With reference to the Trade Disputes Act, 1929, consider the following statements:
    (1) The appointment of courts of Inquiry and Consultation Boards for settling industrial disputes was made compulsory.
    (2) It encouraged political activity by trade unions.
    (3) The strikes in public utility services were prohibited unless preceded by an advance notice of one month.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Trade Disputes Act, 1929 provided for the following:
    It made compulsory, the appointment of courts of Inquiry and Consultation Boards for settling industrial disputes.
    It forbade trade union activity of coercive or purely political nature and even sympathetic strikes. Hence, only statement 2 is not correct.
    It made illegal the strikes in public utility services unless preceded by an advance notice of one month to the administration.

    Unattempted

    Trade Disputes Act, 1929 provided for the following:
    It made compulsory, the appointment of courts of Inquiry and Consultation Boards for settling industrial disputes.
    It forbade trade union activity of coercive or purely political nature and even sympathetic strikes. Hence, only statement 2 is not correct.
    It made illegal the strikes in public utility services unless preceded by an advance notice of one month to the administration.

  91. Question 91 of 100
    91. Question

    East India Company continued their expansion in south Indian peninsula because:
    (1) The regular raids by the Maratha chiefs weakened the area economically and politically.
    (2) French army from the South helped the English East India Company to invade Mysore and Hyderabad.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Statement 1 is correct: Marathas used to invade Hyderabad and the rest of south India for collecting chauth. The regular raids by the Maratha chiefs weaken the area economically and politically resulted in politically unsettled conditions and administrative disorganisation and provided britishers opportunity to continue their expansion in Southern India.
    Statement 2 is not correct: French were the biggest rivals of Britishers in India and they fought three Carnatic wars with them and French army did not supported the English east India Company to invade Mysore and Hyderabad.

    Unattempted

    Statement 1 is correct: Marathas used to invade Hyderabad and the rest of south India for collecting chauth. The regular raids by the Maratha chiefs weaken the area economically and politically resulted in politically unsettled conditions and administrative disorganisation and provided britishers opportunity to continue their expansion in Southern India.
    Statement 2 is not correct: French were the biggest rivals of Britishers in India and they fought three Carnatic wars with them and French army did not supported the English east India Company to invade Mysore and Hyderabad.

  92. Question 92 of 100
    92. Question

    With reference to the Justice movement, consider the following statements:
    (1) It aimed to secure representation for the non-brahmins in the legislature.
    (2) It was centered in the Bombay presidency.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Justice movement in Madras Presidency was started by C.N. Mudaliar, T.M. Nair and P. Tyagaraja to secure jobs and representation for the non-brahmins in the legislature. In 1917, Madras Presidency Association was formed which demanded separate representation for the lower castes in the legislature.
    Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

    Unattempted

    Justice movement in Madras Presidency was started by C.N. Mudaliar, T.M. Nair and P. Tyagaraja to secure jobs and representation for the non-brahmins in the legislature. In 1917, Madras Presidency Association was formed which demanded separate representation for the lower castes in the legislature.
    Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

  93. Question 93 of 100
    93. Question

    With reference to the Hoysala temple architecture, consider the following statements:
    (1) This architecture was influenced by the Bhumija mode widely used in Central India.
    (2) The temples have a circumambulatory platform and a large-scale sculptural gallery.
    (3) This architecture style is contemporary to Mughal period.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Recently, the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas, which includes three temples in Karnataka, has been inscribed on the UNESCO’s World Heritage List.
    The Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas consist of a collection of Hoysala temples.
    These are built in the 12th-13th centuries and represented here by the three components of Belur, Halebid and Somnathapura.
    The three temples include:
    The Chennakeshava temple: It is the main temple in the complex at Belur (Hassan district), located at the centre of the traditional settlement which is surrounded by the remnants of a mud fort and a moat.
    The Hoysaleswara Temple: It is on the banks of Dwarasamudra tank in Halebidu (Hassan district), a town which has many protected and unprotected temples, archaeological ruins and mounds.
    The Keshava Temple: It is at the centre of Somanathapura village (Mysore district).
    These are primarily dedicated to Hindu deities like Shiva and Vishnu, with some also devoted to the Jain faith.
    The Hoysala temples have a basic Dravidian morphology but show strong influences of the Bhumija mode widely used in Central India, the Nagara traditions of northern and western India, and the Karntata Dravida modes favoured by the Kalyani Chalukyas.
    Features of the architecture:
    The Hoysala architects made considered and informed eclectic selections of features from other temple typologies which they further modified and then complemented with their own particular innovations.
    The Hoysala style was created through a careful selection of contemporary temple features and those from the past to create a different identity from neighboring kingdoms.
    The shrines are characterized by hyper-real sculptures and stone carvings that cover the entire architectural surface, a circumambulatory platform, a large-scale sculptural gallery, a multi-tiered frieze, and sculptures of the Sala legend.
    Hence only statement 1 and 2 are correct.

    Unattempted

    Recently, the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas, which includes three temples in Karnataka, has been inscribed on the UNESCO’s World Heritage List.
    The Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas consist of a collection of Hoysala temples.
    These are built in the 12th-13th centuries and represented here by the three components of Belur, Halebid and Somnathapura.
    The three temples include:
    The Chennakeshava temple: It is the main temple in the complex at Belur (Hassan district), located at the centre of the traditional settlement which is surrounded by the remnants of a mud fort and a moat.
    The Hoysaleswara Temple: It is on the banks of Dwarasamudra tank in Halebidu (Hassan district), a town which has many protected and unprotected temples, archaeological ruins and mounds.
    The Keshava Temple: It is at the centre of Somanathapura village (Mysore district).
    These are primarily dedicated to Hindu deities like Shiva and Vishnu, with some also devoted to the Jain faith.
    The Hoysala temples have a basic Dravidian morphology but show strong influences of the Bhumija mode widely used in Central India, the Nagara traditions of northern and western India, and the Karntata Dravida modes favoured by the Kalyani Chalukyas.
    Features of the architecture:
    The Hoysala architects made considered and informed eclectic selections of features from other temple typologies which they further modified and then complemented with their own particular innovations.
    The Hoysala style was created through a careful selection of contemporary temple features and those from the past to create a different identity from neighboring kingdoms.
    The shrines are characterized by hyper-real sculptures and stone carvings that cover the entire architectural surface, a circumambulatory platform, a large-scale sculptural gallery, a multi-tiered frieze, and sculptures of the Sala legend.
    Hence only statement 1 and 2 are correct.

  94. Question 94 of 100
    94. Question

    Bima Sugam platform, which was recently seen in the news is an initiative of which of the following organization/Ministry?
    (A) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
    (B) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
    (C) Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)
    (D) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Recently, Insurance regulator Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has formed a steering committee, which will act as the apex decision making body for creation of its ambitious Bima Sugam platform.
    It will enable individuals to buy a life, health, motor or property insurance policies online.
    The platform will enable easy access under a single roof for insurance companies, agents, brokers, banks and even aggregators.
    The platform will act as a centralised database which will assist consumers with all insurance related queries.
    It will also pave the way for a speedy acceptance of new or sandbox products.
    The Cyril Amarchand Mangaldas (CAM) has been appointed as the legal counsel for the project.
    Responsibilities of CAM will include incorporation of Section 8 not-for-profit company which will be the company owning the Bima Sugam platform.
    The platform will support all personal and commercial/business insurance requirements and support in identifying and comparing optimal products to meet user requirements within stipulated timelines.The entire spectrum of insurance offerings through the platform will include life insurance and all its variants — term plans, savings (Par and Non-Par), annuity and pension plans etc.
    The platform will have to demonstrate end-to-end digital on-boarding journey for all insurance products without any manual interventions.

    Unattempted

    Recently, Insurance regulator Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has formed a steering committee, which will act as the apex decision making body for creation of its ambitious Bima Sugam platform.
    It will enable individuals to buy a life, health, motor or property insurance policies online.
    The platform will enable easy access under a single roof for insurance companies, agents, brokers, banks and even aggregators.
    The platform will act as a centralised database which will assist consumers with all insurance related queries.
    It will also pave the way for a speedy acceptance of new or sandbox products.
    The Cyril Amarchand Mangaldas (CAM) has been appointed as the legal counsel for the project.
    Responsibilities of CAM will include incorporation of Section 8 not-for-profit company which will be the company owning the Bima Sugam platform.
    The platform will support all personal and commercial/business insurance requirements and support in identifying and comparing optimal products to meet user requirements within stipulated timelines.The entire spectrum of insurance offerings through the platform will include life insurance and all its variants — term plans, savings (Par and Non-Par), annuity and pension plans etc.
    The platform will have to demonstrate end-to-end digital on-boarding journey for all insurance products without any manual interventions.

  95. Question 95 of 100
    95. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Indian pharmaceutical industry is the 3rd largest pharmaceutical industry in the world by value.
    (2) Recently, the governmnet has launched initiatives namely National Policy on Research and Development and Innovation in Pharma-MedTech Sector in India and Scheme for Promotion of Research and Innovation in Pharma MedTech Sector (PRIP).
    (3) India is the 2nd largest provider of generic medicines globally.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    Indian pharmaceutical industry is the 3rd largest pharmaceutical industry in the world by volume and 14th by value with current market size of around USD 50 Billions. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Recently, the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers has launched initiatives to nurture Innovation, research, and development in the Medical and Pharmaceutical sectors.
    These Initiatives are National Policy on Research and Development and Innovation in Pharma-MedTech Sector in India and Scheme for Promotion of Research and Innovation in Pharma MedTech Sector (PRIP). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    India is the largest provider of generic medicines globally, occupying a 20% share in global supply by volume, and is the leading vaccine manufacturer globally. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted

    Indian pharmaceutical industry is the 3rd largest pharmaceutical industry in the world by volume and 14th by value with current market size of around USD 50 Billions. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Recently, the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers has launched initiatives to nurture Innovation, research, and development in the Medical and Pharmaceutical sectors.
    These Initiatives are National Policy on Research and Development and Innovation in Pharma-MedTech Sector in India and Scheme for Promotion of Research and Innovation in Pharma MedTech Sector (PRIP). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    India is the largest provider of generic medicines globally, occupying a 20% share in global supply by volume, and is the leading vaccine manufacturer globally. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

  96. Question 96 of 100
    96. Question

    With reference to the Matsya-6000, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is an unmanned submersible vehicle developed under the Samudrayaan mission to facilitate humans in the deep ocean in exploring mineral resources.
    (2) It was developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai.
    (3) It relies only on gravity, water, and lithium-ion batteries for power.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    India is now set to launch 'Samudrayaan' – involving its first manned submersible called 'Matsya-6000' which will descend 6,000 metres into the Bay of Bengal with a three-man crew.
    About Matsya-6000:
    It is a manned submersible vehicle developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai.
    It was developed under the Samudrayaan mission to facilitate humans in the deep ocean in exploring mineral resources.
    It would make India only one among six countries (US, Russia, Japan, France, and China) to have piloted a crewed under-sea expedition beyond 5,000 metres.
    Objectives:
    It will look at chemosynthetic biodiversity in hydrothermal vents and low-temperature methane seeps in the ocean.
    It will also promote tourism and ocean literacy.
    Features:
    It is designed with the capability of operating in the deep sea for 12 hours, while in case of emergency, it can also operate up to 96 hours with all the necessary measures for human safety.
    Made of 80mm-thick titanium alloy, it will be able to withstand a pressure 600 times greater than that at sea level.
    It relies only on gravity, water, and lithium-ion batteries for power.
    It will also feature the ultra-short baseline acoustic positioning system (USBL). This will allow the mothership carrying the transponder to send information and the submersible to respond, which will then let the mothership know where the submersible is.
    This is a flotation device that will rise to the top of the ocean — thus helping to find the submersible even in case it cannot resurface.
    Key Facts about Samudrayaan Mission:
    It is India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.
    It is designed to study the deep ocean resources and conduct biodiversity assessments as well.
    The mission will not disturb the ecosystem as the submersible is used solely for exploration purposes.
    The project is part of the larger Deep Ocean Mission, which supports the Central Government’s Blue Economy policy.
    The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is the nodal ministry to implement this multi-institutional ambitious mission.

    Unattempted

    India is now set to launch 'Samudrayaan' – involving its first manned submersible called 'Matsya-6000' which will descend 6,000 metres into the Bay of Bengal with a three-man crew.
    About Matsya-6000:
    It is a manned submersible vehicle developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai.
    It was developed under the Samudrayaan mission to facilitate humans in the deep ocean in exploring mineral resources.
    It would make India only one among six countries (US, Russia, Japan, France, and China) to have piloted a crewed under-sea expedition beyond 5,000 metres.
    Objectives:
    It will look at chemosynthetic biodiversity in hydrothermal vents and low-temperature methane seeps in the ocean.
    It will also promote tourism and ocean literacy.
    Features:
    It is designed with the capability of operating in the deep sea for 12 hours, while in case of emergency, it can also operate up to 96 hours with all the necessary measures for human safety.
    Made of 80mm-thick titanium alloy, it will be able to withstand a pressure 600 times greater than that at sea level.
    It relies only on gravity, water, and lithium-ion batteries for power.
    It will also feature the ultra-short baseline acoustic positioning system (USBL). This will allow the mothership carrying the transponder to send information and the submersible to respond, which will then let the mothership know where the submersible is.
    This is a flotation device that will rise to the top of the ocean — thus helping to find the submersible even in case it cannot resurface.
    Key Facts about Samudrayaan Mission:
    It is India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.
    It is designed to study the deep ocean resources and conduct biodiversity assessments as well.
    The mission will not disturb the ecosystem as the submersible is used solely for exploration purposes.
    The project is part of the larger Deep Ocean Mission, which supports the Central Government’s Blue Economy policy.
    The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is the nodal ministry to implement this multi-institutional ambitious mission.

  97. Question 97 of 100
    97. Question

    How does the TTPs-based Cybercrime Investigation Framework, recently seen in the news, assist in cybercrime investigations?
    (A) It helps create vulnerabilities in computer systems for testing purposes.
    (B) It provides guidelines for ethical hacking.
    (C) It tracks and classifies cybercrimes, identifies evidence chains, and maps evidence for convicting criminals.
    (D) It offers free cybersecurity training to law enforcement agencies.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    IIT Kanpur recently developed TTPs-based cybercrime investigation framework.
    What are TTPs?
    TTPs stands for Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures.
    It is the term used by cybersecurity professionals to describe the behaviors, processes, actions and strategies used by a threat actor to develop threats and engage in cyberattacks.
    About TTPs-based Cybercrime Investigation Framework:
    It is a tool for apprehending cybercriminals’ modes of operations in a crime execution lifecycle.
    It was developed by the I-hub NTIHAC foundation (c3ihub) at IIT Kanpur with support from the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS).
    The framework can help in tracking and classifying cybercrimes, identifying the chain of evidences required to solve the case and mapping evidences onto the framework to convict criminals.
    The technology can create an approximate crime execution path and suggest a crime path based on user derived set of keywords.
    It can also compare modus operandi (Mode of Operation) used in different crimes, and manage user roles and track activity for crime paths.
    It could be highly effective as it restricts the number of forms and methods the investigation can be conducted and primarily relies on criminals’ TTPs. This leads to precise and rapid conviction of cybercriminals.

    Unattempted

    IIT Kanpur recently developed TTPs-based cybercrime investigation framework.
    What are TTPs?
    TTPs stands for Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures.
    It is the term used by cybersecurity professionals to describe the behaviors, processes, actions and strategies used by a threat actor to develop threats and engage in cyberattacks.
    About TTPs-based Cybercrime Investigation Framework:
    It is a tool for apprehending cybercriminals’ modes of operations in a crime execution lifecycle.
    It was developed by the I-hub NTIHAC foundation (c3ihub) at IIT Kanpur with support from the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS).
    The framework can help in tracking and classifying cybercrimes, identifying the chain of evidences required to solve the case and mapping evidences onto the framework to convict criminals.
    The technology can create an approximate crime execution path and suggest a crime path based on user derived set of keywords.
    It can also compare modus operandi (Mode of Operation) used in different crimes, and manage user roles and track activity for crime paths.
    It could be highly effective as it restricts the number of forms and methods the investigation can be conducted and primarily relies on criminals’ TTPs. This leads to precise and rapid conviction of cybercriminals.

  98. Question 98 of 100
    98. Question

    Which one of the following is the best description of ‘SamudraPrahari’, that was in the news recently?
    (A) It is a deep-submergence vehicle.
    (B) It is a guided missile destroyer.
    (C) It is a pollution control vessel.
    (D) It is an anti-submarine torpedo.

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Indian Coast Guard Ship (ICGS) SamudraPrahari is presently deployed on an overseas mission encompassing ASEAN nations.
    About SamudraPrahari:
    It is an Indian Coast Guard Ship (ICGS) specially designed for pollution control.
    It is the first pollution control vessel of its kind in South East Asia.Features:
    It is equipped with the most advanced pollution Response and Control equipment for mitigating oil spills in the Exclusive Economic Zone.
    It has tanks and inflatable barges for storage of oil spills.
    The ship is capable of unhindered oil recovery operations with a storage capacity of 500 KL.
    The vessel is designed to operate a twin-engine Advanced Light Helicopter and to operate and embark Chetak helicopter.
    Special features include an integrated platform management system, power management system, high power external fire fighting system and one indigenous gun mount with fire fighting system.
    The ship has unmanned machinery operation capability.

    Unattempted

    The Indian Coast Guard Ship (ICGS) SamudraPrahari is presently deployed on an overseas mission encompassing ASEAN nations.
    About SamudraPrahari:
    It is an Indian Coast Guard Ship (ICGS) specially designed for pollution control.
    It is the first pollution control vessel of its kind in South East Asia.Features:
    It is equipped with the most advanced pollution Response and Control equipment for mitigating oil spills in the Exclusive Economic Zone.
    It has tanks and inflatable barges for storage of oil spills.
    The ship is capable of unhindered oil recovery operations with a storage capacity of 500 KL.
    The vessel is designed to operate a twin-engine Advanced Light Helicopter and to operate and embark Chetak helicopter.
    Special features include an integrated platform management system, power management system, high power external fire fighting system and one indigenous gun mount with fire fighting system.
    The ship has unmanned machinery operation capability.

  99. Question 99 of 100
    99. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary:
    (1) It is situated in Uttar Pradesh.
    (2) River Chambal flows through the sanctuary, dividing it into two parts.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

    Incorrect

    India is preparing to import a fresh batch of cheetahs from South Africa and introduce them into Madhya Pradesh’s Gandhi Sagar wildlife sanctuary.
    About Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary:
    Location: It is situated on the northern boundary of the Mandsaur and Nimach districts in Madhya Pradesh.
    It is spread over an area of 368.62 km2 (142.32 sq mi) adjoining Rajasthan state.
    It lies in the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion.
    It was notified in the year 1974 and added to the list of sanctuaries in 1984.
    River Chambal flows through the sanctuary, dividing it into two parts.
    Topography: The sanctuary is characterized by its diverse topography, which includes hills, plateaus, and the catchment area of the Gandhi Sagar Dam on the Chambal River.
    The sanctuary has many places of historical, archeological, and religious importance, such as Chaurasigarh, Chaturbhujnath temple, Bhadkaji rock paintings, Narsinghjhar Hinglajgarh fort, Taxakeshwar temple etc.
    Flora: The principal tree species found here are Khair, Salai, Kardhai, Dhawda, Tendu and Palash.
    Fauna:
    Herbivores like Chinkara, Nilgai and Spotted Deer and carnivores like the Indian Leopard, Striped Hyena and Jackal are found in good numbers in the region.
    It also has a good population of crocodiles, fish, otters and turtles. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted

    India is preparing to import a fresh batch of cheetahs from South Africa and introduce them into Madhya Pradesh’s Gandhi Sagar wildlife sanctuary.
    About Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary:
    Location: It is situated on the northern boundary of the Mandsaur and Nimach districts in Madhya Pradesh.
    It is spread over an area of 368.62 km2 (142.32 sq mi) adjoining Rajasthan state.
    It lies in the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion.
    It was notified in the year 1974 and added to the list of sanctuaries in 1984.
    River Chambal flows through the sanctuary, dividing it into two parts.
    Topography: The sanctuary is characterized by its diverse topography, which includes hills, plateaus, and the catchment area of the Gandhi Sagar Dam on the Chambal River.
    The sanctuary has many places of historical, archeological, and religious importance, such as Chaurasigarh, Chaturbhujnath temple, Bhadkaji rock paintings, Narsinghjhar Hinglajgarh fort, Taxakeshwar temple etc.
    Flora: The principal tree species found here are Khair, Salai, Kardhai, Dhawda, Tendu and Palash.
    Fauna:
    Herbivores like Chinkara, Nilgai and Spotted Deer and carnivores like the Indian Leopard, Striped Hyena and Jackal are found in good numbers in the region.
    It also has a good population of crocodiles, fish, otters and turtles. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

  100. Question 100 of 100
    100. Question

    With reference to Bandipur Tiger Reserve (BTR), consider the following statements:
    (1) It is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
    (2) It has a tropical climate with distinct wet and dry seasons.
    (3) It is home to the largest population of wild Asian elephants in South Asia.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    Correct

    Incorrect

    The Karnataka Forest Department recently directed the Bandipur Tiger Reserve’s eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) monitoring panel to act against illegal cottages built within the reserve’s ESZ.
    About Bandipur Tiger Reserve (BTR):
    Location:
    It is situated in two contiguous districts (Mysore and Chamarajanagar) of Karnataka and located at the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
    Geographically, it is an “ecological confluence” of the Western and Eastern Ghats.
    History:
    It was once a hunting ground for the rulers of the neighbouring kingdom of Mysore.
    It was established in the year 1931 as Venugopala Wildlife Park by the Maharaja of Mysore.
    It was then expanded with the name Bandipur Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 1973.
    It is part of the larger Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
    BTR is surrounded by:
    Nagarahole Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the North West (Kabini Reservoir separates the two).
    Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the South.
    Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the South West.
    Rivers: It is surrounded by River Kabini in its north and River Moyar in its south.
    Climate: Bandipur has a typical tropical climate with distinct wet and dry seasons.
    Flora:
    It comprises diverse vegetation of dry deciduous to tropical mixed deciduous.
    It includes rosewood, Indian kino tree, sandalwood, Indian laurel, clumping bamboo and giant clumping bamboo etc.
    Fauna:
    It is a shelter for the largest population of wild Asian elephants in South Asia.
    It comprises other mammals such as Bengal tiger, gaur, sloth bear, golden jackal, dhole and four-horned antelope etc.

    Unattempted

    The Karnataka Forest Department recently directed the Bandipur Tiger Reserve’s eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) monitoring panel to act against illegal cottages built within the reserve’s ESZ.
    About Bandipur Tiger Reserve (BTR):
    Location:
    It is situated in two contiguous districts (Mysore and Chamarajanagar) of Karnataka and located at the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
    Geographically, it is an “ecological confluence” of the Western and Eastern Ghats.
    History:
    It was once a hunting ground for the rulers of the neighbouring kingdom of Mysore.
    It was established in the year 1931 as Venugopala Wildlife Park by the Maharaja of Mysore.
    It was then expanded with the name Bandipur Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 1973.
    It is part of the larger Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
    BTR is surrounded by:
    Nagarahole Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the North West (Kabini Reservoir separates the two).
    Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the South.
    Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the South West.
    Rivers: It is surrounded by River Kabini in its north and River Moyar in its south.
    Climate: Bandipur has a typical tropical climate with distinct wet and dry seasons.
    Flora:
    It comprises diverse vegetation of dry deciduous to tropical mixed deciduous.
    It includes rosewood, Indian kino tree, sandalwood, Indian laurel, clumping bamboo and giant clumping bamboo etc.
    Fauna:
    It is a shelter for the largest population of wild Asian elephants in South Asia.
    It comprises other mammals such as Bengal tiger, gaur, sloth bear, golden jackal, dhole and four-horned antelope etc.

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