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FULL LENGTH TEST 4 – 2024

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1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 100

   1. Question

   Consider the following statements :
   (1) Tea Board of India is responsible for the assignment of certification numbers to exports of certain tea merchants.
   (2) Tea Board of India coordinates with research institutes, government bodies to ensure technical support to the tea trade in the global industry.
   (3) Assam is the largest producer of tea in India.
   How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Tea Board India is responsible for the assignment of certification numbers to exports of certain tea merchants. This certification is intended to ensure the teas’ origin, which in turn would reduce the amount of fraudulent labelling on rare teas such as ones harvested in Darjeeling.
   It coordinates research institutes, the tea trade and government bodies, ensuring the technical support of the tea trade in the global industry.
   Assam is the largest producer of tea in India. India is one of the largest producers of tea in the world, second only to China.

   Unattempted
   

   The Tea Board India is responsible for the assignment of certification numbers to exports of certain tea merchants. This certification is intended to ensure the teas’ origin, which in turn would reduce the amount of fraudulent labelling on rare teas such as ones harvested in Darjeeling.
   It coordinates research institutes, the tea trade and government bodies, ensuring the technical support of the tea trade in the global industry.
   Assam is the largest producer of tea in India. India is one of the largest producers of tea in the world, second only to China.
2. Question 2 of 100

   2. Question

   Identify the national park based on following features:
   (1) It is a part of world’s ‘hottest hotspots’ of biological diversity.
   (2) It is home to unique, threatened and endangered species like the lion-tailed macaques
   (3) Rivers Tunga, Bhadra and Netravati, originate from the heart of this National Park.
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
   (A) Mudumalai National Park
   (B) Bandipur National Park
   (C) Kudremukh National Park
   (D) Silent Valley National Park

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Kudremukh National Park is the second largest Wildlife Protected Area (600.32 km2) belonging to a tropical wet evergreen type of forest in the Western Ghats. Kudremukh National Park is located in Dakshina Kannada, Udupi District and Chikkamagaluru districts of the State of Karnataka.

   Unattempted
   

   The Kudremukh National Park is the second largest Wildlife Protected Area (600.32 km2) belonging to a tropical wet evergreen type of forest in the Western Ghats. Kudremukh National Park is located in Dakshina Kannada, Udupi District and Chikkamagaluru districts of the State of Karnataka.
3. Question 3 of 100

   3. Question

   Consider the following:
   Diseases: Vectors
   (1) Plague:Dog
   (2) Sleeping sickness:Tsetse fly
   (3) Encephalitis:Mosquitoes
   How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Various diseases spread on an epidemic scale due to waste accumulation on land and water bodies. Vectors like flies, mosquitoes, rodents and pet animals transmit these diseases.
   For example-
   Sand fly – Kala azar , Sandly fever etc
   Tsetse fly – Sleeping sickness. Hence, pair 2 is correct.
   Mosquitoes- Malaria, filaria, yellow fever, dengue, encephalitis, etc. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
   Rodents- Plague, salmonellosis, encephalitis‘ etc. Hence, pair 1 is incorrect.
   Pet animals-.
   {a} Dog – Rabies, hydrated diseases, {b} Cat –
   Dermatophytosis, anthrarx etc.

   Unattempted
   

   Various diseases spread on an epidemic scale due to waste accumulation on land and water bodies. Vectors like flies, mosquitoes, rodents and pet animals transmit these diseases.
   For example-
   Sand fly – Kala azar , Sandly fever etc
   Tsetse fly – Sleeping sickness. Hence, pair 2 is correct.
   Mosquitoes- Malaria, filaria, yellow fever, dengue, encephalitis, etc. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
   Rodents- Plague, salmonellosis, encephalitis‘ etc. Hence, pair 1 is incorrect.
   Pet animals-.
   {a} Dog – Rabies, hydrated diseases, {b} Cat –
   Dermatophytosis, anthrarx etc.
4. Question 4 of 100

   4. Question

   Consider the following statements with respect to the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization :
   (1) It is the national regulatory body for the import of drugs, approval of new drugs and clinical trials.
   (2) It is under the administrative control of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
   (3) DCGI is the head of the department of the CDSCO.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the national regulatory body for Indian pharmaceuticals and medical devices under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Major functions include: Regulatory control over the import of drugs, approval of new drugs and clinical trials, meetings of Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC) and Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB), approval of certain licenses as Central License.
   Under the Drug and Cosmetics Act, the regulation of manufacture, sale and distribution of Drugs is primarily the concern of the State authorities while the Central Authorities are responsible for approval of New Drugs, Clinical Trials in the country, laying down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality of imported Drugs, coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organisations and providing expert advice with a view of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
   Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is the head of the department of the CDSCO of the Government of India responsible for approval of licences of specified categories of drugs such as blood and blood products, IV fluids, vaccines and sera in India. DCGI also sets standards for the manufacturing, sales, import, and distribution of drugs in India.

   Unattempted
   

   The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the national regulatory body for Indian pharmaceuticals and medical devices under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Major functions include: Regulatory control over the import of drugs, approval of new drugs and clinical trials, meetings of Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC) and Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB), approval of certain licenses as Central License.
   Under the Drug and Cosmetics Act, the regulation of manufacture, sale and distribution of Drugs is primarily the concern of the State authorities while the Central Authorities are responsible for approval of New Drugs, Clinical Trials in the country, laying down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality of imported Drugs, coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organisations and providing expert advice with a view of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
   Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is the head of the department of the CDSCO of the Government of India responsible for approval of licences of specified categories of drugs such as blood and blood products, IV fluids, vaccines and sera in India. DCGI also sets standards for the manufacturing, sales, import, and distribution of drugs in India.
5. Question 5 of 100

   5. Question

   In India, coral reef are found in how many of the following areas ?
   (1) Lakshadweep
   (2) Gulf of Kutch
   (3) Palk Bay
   (4) Gulf of Mannar
   Select the correct answer using the code given below :
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) Only three
   (D) All

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Corals are massive wave resistant structures built largely by coral and consisting of skeletal and chemically precipitated material. These are made by polyps i.e. animals belonging to the class Coelenterata. There are basically three types of coral reefs- Fringing reefs, Barrier reefs and Atoll.
   In Indian seas, coral reefs are found in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk-bay, Lakshdweep (atolls), Gulf of Kutch, and Andaman and Nicobar sea areas.

   Unattempted
   

   Corals are massive wave resistant structures built largely by coral and consisting of skeletal and chemically precipitated material. These are made by polyps i.e. animals belonging to the class Coelenterata. There are basically three types of coral reefs- Fringing reefs, Barrier reefs and Atoll.
   In Indian seas, coral reefs are found in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk-bay, Lakshdweep (atolls), Gulf of Kutch, and Andaman and Nicobar sea areas.
6. Question 6 of 100

   6. Question

   With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Madam Bhikaji Cama is well-known for:
   (A) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement.
   (B) Hoisting Indian national flag at International Socialist Conference in Germany.
   (C) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army.
   (D) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Madam BhikajiCama, a Parsi revolutionary who had developed contacts with French socialists and who brought out BandeMataram.
   On August 21, 1907, at International Socialist Conference in Stuttgart, Germany BhikajiRustomCama unfurled the first version of the Indian national flag—a tricolour of green, saffron, and red stripes.
   Together with Singh RewabhaiRana and MunchershahBurjorji Godrej—she co-founded the Paris Indian Society. She wrote, published and distributed revolutionary literature for the movement, including BandeMataram (founded in response to the British ban on the patriotic poem) and later Madan‘sTalwar (in response to the execution of MadanLalDhingra).

   Unattempted
   

   Madam BhikajiCama, a Parsi revolutionary who had developed contacts with French socialists and who brought out BandeMataram.
   On August 21, 1907, at International Socialist Conference in Stuttgart, Germany BhikajiRustomCama unfurled the first version of the Indian national flag—a tricolour of green, saffron, and red stripes.
   Together with Singh RewabhaiRana and MunchershahBurjorji Godrej—she co-founded the Paris Indian Society. She wrote, published and distributed revolutionary literature for the movement, including BandeMataram (founded in response to the British ban on the patriotic poem) and later Madan‘sTalwar (in response to the execution of MadanLalDhingra).
7. Question 7 of 100

   7. Question

   How many of the following Greenhouse gases is/are emitted by Volcanoes?
   (1) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
   (2) Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S)
   (3) Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
   Select the correct answer using the code given below :
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Volcanoes also give off greenhouse gases. The most abundant gas released from volcanic eruptions is water vapor. Other emitted gases include carbon dioxide (CO2), sulfur dioxide (SO2), hydrogen sulfide (H2S), carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen chloride (HCl), and hydrogen fluoride (HF).
   Nitrogen oxides (also known as oxides if nitrogen, and abbreviated as NOx) is a collective term used to refer to two species of oxides of nitrogen: nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2). Nitric oxide is a colorless, flammable gas with a slight odour. Globally, quantities of nitrogen oxides produced naturally by bacterial and volcanic action, and lightning, outweigh man-made emissions. In the atmosphere, nitrogen oxides mix with water vapour producing nitric acid) This acidic pollution can be transported by win over many hundreds of miles, and deposited as acid rain.

   Unattempted
   

   Volcanoes also give off greenhouse gases. The most abundant gas released from volcanic eruptions is water vapor. Other emitted gases include carbon dioxide (CO2), sulfur dioxide (SO2), hydrogen sulfide (H2S), carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen chloride (HCl), and hydrogen fluoride (HF).
   Nitrogen oxides (also known as oxides if nitrogen, and abbreviated as NOx) is a collective term used to refer to two species of oxides of nitrogen: nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2). Nitric oxide is a colorless, flammable gas with a slight odour. Globally, quantities of nitrogen oxides produced naturally by bacterial and volcanic action, and lightning, outweigh man-made emissions. In the atmosphere, nitrogen oxides mix with water vapour producing nitric acid) This acidic pollution can be transported by win over many hundreds of miles, and deposited as acid rain.
8. Question 8 of 100

   8. Question

   Consider the following statements :
   (1) Aligarh Movement was a reformist movement while Deoband Movement was a revivalist movement.
   (2) Unlike the Deoband Movement, the Aligarh Movement supported formation of Indian National Congress.
   (3) Aligarh Movement emphasized modern education and English language proficiency as essential for Muslims to progress while Deoband movement emphasized the study of traditional Islamic sciences.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Syed Ahmed Khan started the Aligarh movement as a reformist movement. He wanted to reconcile western scientific education with the teachings of the Quran to be interpreted in the light of contemporary rationalism and science even though he also held the Quran to be the ultimate.The Deoband Movement was organized by the orthodox section among the Muslim ulema as a revivalist movement with the twin objectives of propagating pure teachings of the Quran and Hadis among Muslims and keeping alive the spirit of jihad against the foreign rulers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
   The Deoband school welcomed the formation of the Indian National Congress. On the other hand, Syed Ahmed Khan was opposed to political activity by the Muslims and urged Muslims not to join Indian National Congress. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
   Deoband movement emphasized the study of traditional Islamic sciences, such as Quranic studies, Hadith, jurisprudence, and theology, through a curriculum rooted in classical Islamic scholarship. Aligarh movement emphasized modern education, scientific thinking, and English language proficiency as essential for Muslims to progress and compete in the modern world. Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) was established as a result, with the goal of providing Western-style education to Muslims. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   Syed Ahmed Khan started the Aligarh movement as a reformist movement. He wanted to reconcile western scientific education with the teachings of the Quran to be interpreted in the light of contemporary rationalism and science even though he also held the Quran to be the ultimate.The Deoband Movement was organized by the orthodox section among the Muslim ulema as a revivalist movement with the twin objectives of propagating pure teachings of the Quran and Hadis among Muslims and keeping alive the spirit of jihad against the foreign rulers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
   The Deoband school welcomed the formation of the Indian National Congress. On the other hand, Syed Ahmed Khan was opposed to political activity by the Muslims and urged Muslims not to join Indian National Congress. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
   Deoband movement emphasized the study of traditional Islamic sciences, such as Quranic studies, Hadith, jurisprudence, and theology, through a curriculum rooted in classical Islamic scholarship. Aligarh movement emphasized modern education, scientific thinking, and English language proficiency as essential for Muslims to progress and compete in the modern world. Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) was established as a result, with the goal of providing Western-style education to Muslims. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
9. Question 9 of 100

   9. Question

   Consider the following statements with regard to a National Park:
   (1) It is recognized as Important Bird Area by Birdlife International.
   (2) It is a home to last surviving population of Pygmy hog in the wild.
   (3) It comes under project Tiger.
   Which of the following National Parks is characterized by the above features?
   (A) Sariska
   (B) Kaziranga
   (C) Manas
   (D) Rajaji

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Manas National Park is located in the Himalayan foothill bhabar area in the western Assam. It became a Tiger Reserve in 1974, a World Heritage Site in 1985, and a Biosphere Reserve in 1989. Then declared as a National Park in 1990. It is also an Important Bird Area recognized by Birdlife International. The Pygmy Hog is the critically endangered species and the smallest and the rarest wild suid in the world. Only viable population of the species, with a few hundred individuals, exists in small grassland pockets of Manas National Park nowhere else in the world.

   Unattempted
   

   Manas National Park is located in the Himalayan foothill bhabar area in the western Assam. It became a Tiger Reserve in 1974, a World Heritage Site in 1985, and a Biosphere Reserve in 1989. Then declared as a National Park in 1990. It is also an Important Bird Area recognized by Birdlife International. The Pygmy Hog is the critically endangered species and the smallest and the rarest wild suid in the world. Only viable population of the species, with a few hundred individuals, exists in small grassland pockets of Manas National Park nowhere else in the world.
10. Question 10 of 100

    10. Question

    As the number of species in a food web increases, it leads to which of the following?
    (A) Length of Food chain tends to decrease.
    (B) System tends to be more stable.
    (C) System tends to collapse.
    (D) System becomes less complex.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    More diverse ecosystems (in the sense of having a larger mean number of species) are more stable, in the sense that they have lower fluctuations in community size compared to the less diverse ones. If there were many species in a complex food web, predators could adjust to fluctuations in population by switching from less abundant to more abundant prey species. This would eventually allow the density of the less common species to increase.

    Unattempted
    

    More diverse ecosystems (in the sense of having a larger mean number of species) are more stable, in the sense that they have lower fluctuations in community size compared to the less diverse ones. If there were many species in a complex food web, predators could adjust to fluctuations in population by switching from less abundant to more abundant prey species. This would eventually allow the density of the less common species to increase.
11. Question 11 of 100

    11. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding 'Ravanachayya', a puppetry form:
    (1) It is a form of shadow puppetry.
    (2) It is practiced mainly in Odisha.
    (3) It is named after the eponymous evil king of the South Asian epic Ramayana.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Ravanachhaya, Odisha: It is a shadow puppetry. The puppets are in one piece and have no joints. They are not coloured, hence throw opaque shadows on the screen. The manipulation requires great dexterity, since there are no joints. The puppets are made of deer skin and are conceived in bold dramatic poses. Apart from human and animal characters, many props such as trees, mountains, chariots, etc) are also used.
    It is named after the eponymous evil king of the South Asian epic Ramayana. The lyrics for the performance are taken from the Bichitra Ramayana by the Odia poet Biswanatha Khuntia.

    Unattempted
    

    Ravanachhaya, Odisha: It is a shadow puppetry. The puppets are in one piece and have no joints. They are not coloured, hence throw opaque shadows on the screen. The manipulation requires great dexterity, since there are no joints. The puppets are made of deer skin and are conceived in bold dramatic poses. Apart from human and animal characters, many props such as trees, mountains, chariots, etc) are also used.
    It is named after the eponymous evil king of the South Asian epic Ramayana. The lyrics for the performance are taken from the Bichitra Ramayana by the Odia poet Biswanatha Khuntia.
12. Question 12 of 100

    12. Question

    The state is a part of Seven sisters of Northeast India. Phawngpui Tlang also known as the Blue Mountain are situated in the south-eastern part of the state. Chailam is a popular dance performed in the state. The state is also known as Molassis basin.
    Which of the following states is being referred in the above paragraph?
    (A) Manipur
    (B) Mizoram
    (C) Assam
    (D) Arunachal Pradesh

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mizoram is a land of rolling hills, rivers and lakes. As many as 21 major hills ranges or peaks of different heights run through the length and breadth of the state with the highest peak 'Phawngpui (Blue Mountain) towering 2,065 metres above the sea level. The terrain has, perhaps, the most variegated topography among all hilly areas in this part of the country. The hills are extremely rugged and sleep and the ranges and leaving some plains scattered occasionally here and there.Chailam is a popular dance performed on the occasion of 'Chapchar Kut' one of the most important festivals of the Mizos. In this dance, men and women stand alternatively in circles, with the women holding on to the waist of the man, and the man on the women's shoulder. In the middle of the circle are the musicians who play the drums and the mithun's horn.
    Mizoram is also known as Molassis Basin as it is made up of soft unconsolidated deposits.

    Unattempted
    

    Mizoram is a land of rolling hills, rivers and lakes. As many as 21 major hills ranges or peaks of different heights run through the length and breadth of the state with the highest peak 'Phawngpui (Blue Mountain) towering 2,065 metres above the sea level. The terrain has, perhaps, the most variegated topography among all hilly areas in this part of the country. The hills are extremely rugged and sleep and the ranges and leaving some plains scattered occasionally here and there.Chailam is a popular dance performed on the occasion of 'Chapchar Kut' one of the most important festivals of the Mizos. In this dance, men and women stand alternatively in circles, with the women holding on to the waist of the man, and the man on the women's shoulder. In the middle of the circle are the musicians who play the drums and the mithun's horn.
    Mizoram is also known as Molassis Basin as it is made up of soft unconsolidated deposits.
13. Question 13 of 100

    13. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the passage of budget in the Parliament:
    (1) Payments from the Consolidated Fund of India can be made to the government only after the Appropriation Bill gets the President's assent.
    (2) While the Consolidated Fund of India is operated through laws made by the legislature, operation of the Public Account of India can be made by the executive action without any parliamentary appropriation.
    (3) The budget can only be presented in the Lok Sabha.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Consolidated Fund of India: It is the fund in which all receipts are credited and from which all payments are credited) No money can be appropriated out of this fund, except in accordance with a parliamentary law.
    Statement 1 is correct: The Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act after the President's approval that authorises payments from the Consolidated Fund of India.
    Statement 2 is correct: Parliamentary law is needed to access the Consolidated Fund of India, whereas operation of the Public Account of India is done by executive action. Payments made to and from the Public Account of India are mostly in the nature of banking transactions.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The budget is presented to the Parliament – which includes both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. In consonance with the wider financial power enjoyed by the Lok Sabha in comparison with the Rajya Sabha, the Rajya Sabha can debate on the budget but cannot vote upon it. There is no such restriction on the Lok Sabha.

    Unattempted
    

    Consolidated Fund of India: It is the fund in which all receipts are credited and from which all payments are credited) No money can be appropriated out of this fund, except in accordance with a parliamentary law.
    Statement 1 is correct: The Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act after the President's approval that authorises payments from the Consolidated Fund of India.
    Statement 2 is correct: Parliamentary law is needed to access the Consolidated Fund of India, whereas operation of the Public Account of India is done by executive action. Payments made to and from the Public Account of India are mostly in the nature of banking transactions.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The budget is presented to the Parliament – which includes both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. In consonance with the wider financial power enjoyed by the Lok Sabha in comparison with the Rajya Sabha, the Rajya Sabha can debate on the budget but cannot vote upon it. There is no such restriction on the Lok Sabha.
14. Question 14 of 100

    14. Question

    In the context of solving pollution problems, how many of the following is/are the advantage(s) of Phytoremediation technique?
    (1) It can be used for river basin management through the hydraulic control of contaminants.
    (2) Organic and inorganic contaminants of soil and water can be treated by phytoremediation using living plants.
    (3) It can be utilised for creating low cost, ecologically friendly clean-up technology.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Phytoremediation (‘phyto‘ means plant) is a generic term for the group of technologies that use plants for remediating soils, sludges, sediments and water contaminated with organic and inorganic contaminants. Phytoremediation is an in situ remediation technology that utilises the inherent abilities of living plants. Phytoremediation can be defined as ―the efficient use of plants to remove, detoxify or immobilise environmental contaminants in a growth matrix (soil, water or sediments) through the natural biological, chemical or physical activities and processes of the plants. Some of the following are the advantages of Phytoremediation are:
    It is a low cost, ecologically friendly, solar-energy driven clean-up technology. It is based on the concept of using nature to cleanse nature.
    It is most useful for the sites that are shallow and low levels of contamination.
    Phytoremediation can be used to clean up metals, pesticides, solvents, explosives, crude oil, polyaromatic hydrocarbons, and landfill leachates.
    It can also be used for river basin management through the hydraulic control of contaminants.
    Phytoremediation using transgenic plants is a promising solution to many problems of environmental contamination. It utilizes transgenic plants for uptake, sequestration, detoxification, or volatilization of inorganic and organic pollutants from soils, water, sediments, and possibly air.

    Unattempted
    

    Phytoremediation (‘phyto‘ means plant) is a generic term for the group of technologies that use plants for remediating soils, sludges, sediments and water contaminated with organic and inorganic contaminants. Phytoremediation is an in situ remediation technology that utilises the inherent abilities of living plants. Phytoremediation can be defined as ―the efficient use of plants to remove, detoxify or immobilise environmental contaminants in a growth matrix (soil, water or sediments) through the natural biological, chemical or physical activities and processes of the plants. Some of the following are the advantages of Phytoremediation are:
    It is a low cost, ecologically friendly, solar-energy driven clean-up technology. It is based on the concept of using nature to cleanse nature.
    It is most useful for the sites that are shallow and low levels of contamination.
    Phytoremediation can be used to clean up metals, pesticides, solvents, explosives, crude oil, polyaromatic hydrocarbons, and landfill leachates.
    It can also be used for river basin management through the hydraulic control of contaminants.
    Phytoremediation using transgenic plants is a promising solution to many problems of environmental contamination. It utilizes transgenic plants for uptake, sequestration, detoxification, or volatilization of inorganic and organic pollutants from soils, water, sediments, and possibly air.
15. Question 15 of 100

    15. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding background extinction:
    (1) It occurs at a fairly steady rate over geological time.
    (2) It is the result of normal evolutionary processes.
    (3) Only a limited number of species in an ecosystem are being affected at any one time.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Background Extinction:The ongoing extinction of individual species due to environmental or ecological factors such as climate change, disease, loss of habitat, or competitive disadvantage in relation to other species.
    Background extinction occurs at a fairly steady rate over geological time and is the result of normal evolutionary processes, with only a limited number of species in an ecosystem being affected at any one time.
    Mass Extinction: The extinction of a large number of species within a relatively short period of geological time, thought to be due to factors such as a catastrophic global event or widespread environmental change that occurs too rapidly for most species to adapt.

    Unattempted
    

    Background Extinction:The ongoing extinction of individual species due to environmental or ecological factors such as climate change, disease, loss of habitat, or competitive disadvantage in relation to other species.
    Background extinction occurs at a fairly steady rate over geological time and is the result of normal evolutionary processes, with only a limited number of species in an ecosystem being affected at any one time.
    Mass Extinction: The extinction of a large number of species within a relatively short period of geological time, thought to be due to factors such as a catastrophic global event or widespread environmental change that occurs too rapidly for most species to adapt.
16. Question 16 of 100

    16. Question

    With reference to the economic critique of British rule, consider thefollowing pairs:
    Personality: Work
    (1) Dadabhai Naoroji : Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
    (2) R.c) Dutt : India Today
    (3) R. P. Dutt : Economic History of India
    How many of the above pairs is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Dadabhai Naoroji wrote the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’. It discussed how the government was destructive and despotic to the Indians and un-British and suicidal to Britain. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    The book ‘Economic History of India’ was written by Romesh Chandra Dutt. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
    The book ‘India Today’ was written by written by R. Palme Dutt. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    Dadabhai Naoroji wrote the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’. It discussed how the government was destructive and despotic to the Indians and un-British and suicidal to Britain. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    The book ‘Economic History of India’ was written by Romesh Chandra Dutt. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
    The book ‘India Today’ was written by written by R. Palme Dutt. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
17. Question 17 of 100

    17. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The National Planning Committee was set up in 1938 under the chairmanship of Subhash Chandra Bose.
    (2) In 1944, British government created a Planning and Development department under a separate member of Viceroy’s executive council.
    (3) The mission of the National Planning Committee (1938) was to create an economic plan with the primary goal of ensuring a sufficient standard of living for the public.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In October 1938, at a conference of Ministers of Industries held under the Chairmanship of Shri Subhash Chander Bose, the then President of the Indian National Congress, a resolution was passed which stated “the problems such as of poverty and unemployment, of national Defense and of economic regeneration in general cannot be solved without industrialization. As a step towards such industrialization, a comprehensive scheme of National Planning should be formulated.”
    This was followed by the formulation of “National Planning Committee’ under the Chairmanship of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru. The committee consisted of 15 members. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    In 1944 that the British government created a Planning and Development Department under a separate member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council for organizing and cocoordinating economic planning in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The mission of the National Planning Committee (1938) was to create an economic plan with the primary goal of ensuring a sufficient standard of living for the public. The Committee estimated the irreducible minimum income at pre-war prices to be between Rs. 15 and Rs. 25 per capita per month. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    In October 1938, at a conference of Ministers of Industries held under the Chairmanship of Shri Subhash Chander Bose, the then President of the Indian National Congress, a resolution was passed which stated “the problems such as of poverty and unemployment, of national Defense and of economic regeneration in general cannot be solved without industrialization. As a step towards such industrialization, a comprehensive scheme of National Planning should be formulated.”
    This was followed by the formulation of “National Planning Committee’ under the Chairmanship of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru. The committee consisted of 15 members. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    In 1944 that the British government created a Planning and Development Department under a separate member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council for organizing and cocoordinating economic planning in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The mission of the National Planning Committee (1938) was to create an economic plan with the primary goal of ensuring a sufficient standard of living for the public. The Committee estimated the irreducible minimum income at pre-war prices to be between Rs. 15 and Rs. 25 per capita per month. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
18. Question 18 of 100

    18. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Geographical feature: Geomorphic agent
    (1) Peneplain: Running water
    (2) Doline:Glacier
    (3) Pediplain:Wind
    How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Peneplain: Overland flow of running water causes sheet erosion. Depending upon irregularities of the land surface, the overland flow may concentrate into narrow to wide paths. Because of the sheer friction of the column of flowing water, minor or major quantities of materials from the surface of the land are removed in the direction of flow and gradually small and narrow rills will form. These rills will gradually develop into long and wide gullies; the gullies will further deepen, widen, lengthen and unite to give rise to a network of valleys. In the early stages, down-cutting dominates during which irregularities such as waterfalls and cascades will be removed) In the middle stages, streams cut their beds slower, and lateral erosion of valley sides becomes severe. Gradually, the valley sides are reduced to lower and lower slopes. The divides between drainage basins are likewise lowered until they are almost completely flattened leaving finally, a lowland of faint relief with some low resistant remnants called monadnocks standing out here and there. This type of plain forming as a result of stream erosion is called a peneplain (an almost plain).
    Pediplains: Pediments and Pediplains are erosional landforms developed by action of wind) Landscape evolution in deserts is primarily concerned with the formation and extension of pediments. Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of debris, are called pediments. Such rocky floors form through the erosion of mountain front through a combination of lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding.Erosion starts along the steep margins of the landmass or the steep sides of the tectonically controlled steep incision features over the landmass. Once, pediments are formed with a steep wash slope followed by cliff or free face above it, the steep wash slope and free face retreat backwards. This method of erosion is termed as parallel retreat of slopes through backwasting. So, through parallel retreat of slopes, the pediments extend backwards at the expense of mountain front, and gradually, the mountain gets reduced leaving an inselberg which is a remnant of the mountain. That‘s how the high relief in desert areas is reduced to low featureless plains called pediplains.
    Doline: A doline, sink or sinkhole is a closed depression draining underground in karst areas. Groundwater plays a key role in the formation of dolines.
    Hence, pairs 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Peneplain: Overland flow of running water causes sheet erosion. Depending upon irregularities of the land surface, the overland flow may concentrate into narrow to wide paths. Because of the sheer friction of the column of flowing water, minor or major quantities of materials from the surface of the land are removed in the direction of flow and gradually small and narrow rills will form. These rills will gradually develop into long and wide gullies; the gullies will further deepen, widen, lengthen and unite to give rise to a network of valleys. In the early stages, down-cutting dominates during which irregularities such as waterfalls and cascades will be removed) In the middle stages, streams cut their beds slower, and lateral erosion of valley sides becomes severe. Gradually, the valley sides are reduced to lower and lower slopes. The divides between drainage basins are likewise lowered until they are almost completely flattened leaving finally, a lowland of faint relief with some low resistant remnants called monadnocks standing out here and there. This type of plain forming as a result of stream erosion is called a peneplain (an almost plain).
    Pediplains: Pediments and Pediplains are erosional landforms developed by action of wind) Landscape evolution in deserts is primarily concerned with the formation and extension of pediments. Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of debris, are called pediments. Such rocky floors form through the erosion of mountain front through a combination of lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding.Erosion starts along the steep margins of the landmass or the steep sides of the tectonically controlled steep incision features over the landmass. Once, pediments are formed with a steep wash slope followed by cliff or free face above it, the steep wash slope and free face retreat backwards. This method of erosion is termed as parallel retreat of slopes through backwasting. So, through parallel retreat of slopes, the pediments extend backwards at the expense of mountain front, and gradually, the mountain gets reduced leaving an inselberg which is a remnant of the mountain. That‘s how the high relief in desert areas is reduced to low featureless plains called pediplains.
    Doline: A doline, sink or sinkhole is a closed depression draining underground in karst areas. Groundwater plays a key role in the formation of dolines.
    Hence, pairs 1 and 3 are correct.
19. Question 19 of 100

    19. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) W.C. Bonnerjea was the first Indian to become member of the British Parliament.
    (2) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha was the first Indian to become a member of Viceroy's Council.
    (3) G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: Dadabhai Naoroji was the first Indian to become member of British Parliament. W.c) Bonnerjea was the first president of the Indian National Congress.
    Statement 2 is correct: Lord Satyendra Prasanna Sinha, a leading lawyer of the Calcutta High Court, was the first Indian advocate general of Bengal, the first Indian to become a member of the Viceroy‘s Council, the first Indian to become a member of the British ministry and the first Indian governor of an Indian province (then Bihar and Orissa). Sinha was a political moderate and believed Indians should campaign for political rights through constitutional means alone.
    Statement 3 is correct: Popularly known as Dadasaheb, Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar, the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha was born on November 27, 188
    (8) Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar remained Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly till the midnight of August 14-15, 1947 when, under the Indian Independence Act, 1947, the Central Legislative Assembly and the Council of States ceased to exist and the Constituent Assembly of India assumed full powers for the governance of the country. Mavalankar continued to occupy the office of the Speaker throughout the Provisional Parliament, i.e. till the First Lok Sabha was constituted in 1952.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: Dadabhai Naoroji was the first Indian to become member of British Parliament. W.c) Bonnerjea was the first president of the Indian National Congress.
    Statement 2 is correct: Lord Satyendra Prasanna Sinha, a leading lawyer of the Calcutta High Court, was the first Indian advocate general of Bengal, the first Indian to become a member of the Viceroy‘s Council, the first Indian to become a member of the British ministry and the first Indian governor of an Indian province (then Bihar and Orissa). Sinha was a political moderate and believed Indians should campaign for political rights through constitutional means alone.
    Statement 3 is correct: Popularly known as Dadasaheb, Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar, the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha was born on November 27, 188
    (8) Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar remained Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly till the midnight of August 14-15, 1947 when, under the Indian Independence Act, 1947, the Central Legislative Assembly and the Council of States ceased to exist and the Constituent Assembly of India assumed full powers for the governance of the country. Mavalankar continued to occupy the office of the Speaker throughout the Provisional Parliament, i.e. till the First Lok Sabha was constituted in 1952.
20. Question 20 of 100

    20. Question

    Consider the following international conventions related to Wild Life conservations:
    (1) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of wild fauna and flora (CITES)
    (2) International Whaling Commission (IWC)
    (3) Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
    India is party to which of the above conventions?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    India is a party to five major international conventions related to Wild Life conservation:
    Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of wild fauna and flora (CITES)
    International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
    International Whaling Commission (IWC)
    United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization-World Heritage Committee (UNESCO-WHC)
    Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)

    Unattempted
    

    India is a party to five major international conventions related to Wild Life conservation:
    Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of wild fauna and flora (CITES)
    International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
    International Whaling Commission (IWC)
    United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization-World Heritage Committee (UNESCO-WHC)
    Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
21. Question 21 of 100

    21. Question

    How many of the following methods can be used to harness energy from Solid Waste?
    (1) Pyrolysis
    (2) Combustion
    (3) Pelletisation
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Solid waste can be converted into heat and electricity in a number of ways. Depending on its source, these processes include: combustion, pyrolysis, gasification, liquefaction, pelletization.
    Pyrolysis is the thermochemical decomposition of organic material at high temperature and in the absence of oxygen or in an atmosphere of inert gases.
    Combustion means the thermal treatment of solid waste in a device which uses elevated temperatures as the primary means to change the chemical, physical, or biological character or composition of the waste.
    Pelletization of municipal solid waste involves the processes of segregating, crushing, mixing high and low heat value organic waste material and solidifying it to produce fuel pellets or briquettes, also referred to as Refuse Derived Fuel (RDF). The process is essentially a method that condenses the waste or changes its physical form and enriches its organic content through removal of inorganic materials and moisture. The calorific value of RDF pellets can be around 4000 kcal/ kg depending upon the percentage of organic matter in the waste, additives and binder materials used in the process.

    Unattempted
    

    Solid waste can be converted into heat and electricity in a number of ways. Depending on its source, these processes include: combustion, pyrolysis, gasification, liquefaction, pelletization.
    Pyrolysis is the thermochemical decomposition of organic material at high temperature and in the absence of oxygen or in an atmosphere of inert gases.
    Combustion means the thermal treatment of solid waste in a device which uses elevated temperatures as the primary means to change the chemical, physical, or biological character or composition of the waste.
    Pelletization of municipal solid waste involves the processes of segregating, crushing, mixing high and low heat value organic waste material and solidifying it to produce fuel pellets or briquettes, also referred to as Refuse Derived Fuel (RDF). The process is essentially a method that condenses the waste or changes its physical form and enriches its organic content through removal of inorganic materials and moisture. The calorific value of RDF pellets can be around 4000 kcal/ kg depending upon the percentage of organic matter in the waste, additives and binder materials used in the process.
22. Question 22 of 100

    22. Question

    As per the Parliamentary Proceedings, a member can raise matters of public importance considered to be urgent in character by how many of the following?
    (1) by Short Notice Questions in Lok Sabha
    (2) by Starred Question in Lok Sabha
    (3) by way of Special Mentions in Rajya Sabha
    (4) by Calling Attention in Rajya Sabha
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only three
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    As per Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha 'Short Notice Questions' has been mentioned under rule 5
    (4) It states that a question relating to a matter of public importance may be asked with notice shorter than ten clear days and the Speaker, if, is of the opinion that the question is of an urgent character, may direct that an enquiry may be made from the Minister concerned if such Minister is in a position to reply and, if so, on what date. Hence, option 1 is correct.
    Rule 36 defines Starred question. It states that a member who desires an oral answer to one‘s question shall distinguish it by an asterisk. If the member does not distinguish it by an asterisk, the question shall be placed on the list of questions for written answer. Starred question is asked during Question hour. To ask any question during the Question hour, not less than 15 days notice of a question shall be given. Hence matters of public importance urgent in character can be raised through short notice questions (as explained above) or Calling Attention in Lok Sabha (rule 197). Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
    As per Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), 'Special mention' has been mentioned under 180a) It states that a member who wishes to mention a matter of Public Importance in the Council shall give notice in writing addressed to the Secretary-General in the prescribed form; provided that no member shall give more than two such notices for any one sitting. Hence, option 3 is correct.'
    Calling attention to matters of urgent public importance' has been mentioned under rule 180. It states that a member may, with the previous permission of the Chairman, call the attention of a Minister to any matter of urgent public importance and the Minister may make a brief statement or ask for time to make a statement at a later hour or date. Hence, option 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    As per Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha 'Short Notice Questions' has been mentioned under rule 5
    (4) It states that a question relating to a matter of public importance may be asked with notice shorter than ten clear days and the Speaker, if, is of the opinion that the question is of an urgent character, may direct that an enquiry may be made from the Minister concerned if such Minister is in a position to reply and, if so, on what date. Hence, option 1 is correct.
    Rule 36 defines Starred question. It states that a member who desires an oral answer to one‘s question shall distinguish it by an asterisk. If the member does not distinguish it by an asterisk, the question shall be placed on the list of questions for written answer. Starred question is asked during Question hour. To ask any question during the Question hour, not less than 15 days notice of a question shall be given. Hence matters of public importance urgent in character can be raised through short notice questions (as explained above) or Calling Attention in Lok Sabha (rule 197). Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
    As per Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), 'Special mention' has been mentioned under 180a) It states that a member who wishes to mention a matter of Public Importance in the Council shall give notice in writing addressed to the Secretary-General in the prescribed form; provided that no member shall give more than two such notices for any one sitting. Hence, option 3 is correct.'
    Calling attention to matters of urgent public importance' has been mentioned under rule 180. It states that a member may, with the previous permission of the Chairman, call the attention of a Minister to any matter of urgent public importance and the Minister may make a brief statement or ask for time to make a statement at a later hour or date. Hence, option 4 is correct.
23. Question 23 of 100

    23. Question

    With reference to the seagrass, consider the following statements:
    (1) It grows in the shallow marine waters like bays and lagoons.
    (2) It is found on all continents except Antarctica.
    (3) Along the Indian coast, Gulf of Mannar is the only place whre we find this grass.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Citizen divers restore seagrass in just off the coast of Kiel in northern Germany, Baltic Sea to fight climate change.
    It is flowering plant that grows submerged in shallow marine waters like bays and lagoons.
    They are so-named because most species have long green, grass-like leaves.
    Seagrasses have roots, stems, and leaves and produce flowers and seeds.
    Like terrestrial plants, seagrass also photosynthesizes and manufactures their own food and releases oxygen.
    They evolved around 100 million years ago, and there are approximately 72 different seagrass species that belong to four major groups.
    Distribution:
    They are found on all continents except Antarctica.
    The tropical waters of the Indo-Pacific hold the highest diversity of seagrasses in the world.
    They occur all along the coastal areas of India mainly in the Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu.
    Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Citizen divers restore seagrass in just off the coast of Kiel in northern Germany, Baltic Sea to fight climate change.
    It is flowering plant that grows submerged in shallow marine waters like bays and lagoons.
    They are so-named because most species have long green, grass-like leaves.
    Seagrasses have roots, stems, and leaves and produce flowers and seeds.
    Like terrestrial plants, seagrass also photosynthesizes and manufactures their own food and releases oxygen.
    They evolved around 100 million years ago, and there are approximately 72 different seagrass species that belong to four major groups.
    Distribution:
    They are found on all continents except Antarctica.
    The tropical waters of the Indo-Pacific hold the highest diversity of seagrasses in the world.
    They occur all along the coastal areas of India mainly in the Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu.
    Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
24. Question 24 of 100

    24. Question

    The Saharanpur Rules of 1855 is related to which of the following subjects?
    (A) Ryotwari system
    (B) Permanent Revenue system
    (C) Mahalwari system
    (D) Industrial dispute Act, 1927

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Mahalwari tenure was introduced in1822 in major portions of the UP, the Central Provinces the Punjab and covered nearly 30% of the area.
    The Mahalwari system of land revenue worked under the scheme of 1833 was completed under the administration of James Thompson. The 66% rental demanded proved very harsh, too. In the Saharanpur Rules of 1855, it was revised to 50% by Lord Dalhousie.

    Unattempted
    

    The Mahalwari tenure was introduced in1822 in major portions of the UP, the Central Provinces the Punjab and covered nearly 30% of the area.
    The Mahalwari system of land revenue worked under the scheme of 1833 was completed under the administration of James Thompson. The 66% rental demanded proved very harsh, too. In the Saharanpur Rules of 1855, it was revised to 50% by Lord Dalhousie.
25. Question 25 of 100

    25. Question

    Consider the following statements :
    (1) Lord Curzon passed Co-operative Society Act in1904.
    (2) In 1914 the Government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of Sir Edward Mac Lagan to review the progress of co-operative movement.
    (3) Under the Montague- Chelmsford Act of 1919, co-operation became a provincial subject.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Famine Commission of 1901 strongly recommended that in order to prevent famine, agriculturists should be granted loans to improve agriculture. By 1904, the Co-operative Society Act was passed by the Viceroy Lord Curzon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    In 1914 the Government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of Sir Edward Mac Lagan to review the progress of co-operative movement.
    The committee observed that illiteracy and ignorance of the masses, misappropriation of funds, rampant nepotism, inordinate delay in granting loans and viewing co-operative movement as a government movement were some of the glaring defects of the co-operative movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Under the Montague- Chelmsford Act of 1919, co-operation became a provincial subject which gave further impetus to the movement. Various states passed their own Acts to make cooperative movement a successful one. The membership of the co-operative societies increasedconsiderably during this period. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Famine Commission of 1901 strongly recommended that in order to prevent famine, agriculturists should be granted loans to improve agriculture. By 1904, the Co-operative Society Act was passed by the Viceroy Lord Curzon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    In 1914 the Government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of Sir Edward Mac Lagan to review the progress of co-operative movement.
    The committee observed that illiteracy and ignorance of the masses, misappropriation of funds, rampant nepotism, inordinate delay in granting loans and viewing co-operative movement as a government movement were some of the glaring defects of the co-operative movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Under the Montague- Chelmsford Act of 1919, co-operation became a provincial subject which gave further impetus to the movement. Various states passed their own Acts to make cooperative movement a successful one. The membership of the co-operative societies increasedconsiderably during this period. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
26. Question 26 of 100

    26. Question

    With reference to the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a statutory body established to combat organized wildlife crime.
    (2) It was established under the Forest Act of 1928.
    (3) It has developed an online Wildlife Crime Database Management System to get real time data in order to help analyze trends in crime.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) has issued a ‘red alert’ directing the authorities to visit all tiger reserves.
    It is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
    It was constituted by amending the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
    Nodal Ministry: The Ministry of Environment and Forests.
    Headquarter: New Delhi
    Mandate: Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 it is mandated to
    To collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals.
    To establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
    In capacity building of the wildlife crime enforcement agencies for scientific and professional investigation into wildlife crimes and assist State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes;
    It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item.
    It has developed an online Wildlife Crime Database Management System to get real time data in order to help analyze trends in crime and devise effective measures to prevent and detect wildlife crimes across India.
    This system has been successfully used to analyse trends, helping put in preventive measures as well as for successfully carrying out operations such as Operation SAVE KURMA, THUNDERBIRD, WILDNET, LESKNOW, BIRBIL, THUNDERSTORM, LESKNOW-II
    Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) has issued a ‘red alert’ directing the authorities to visit all tiger reserves.
    It is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
    It was constituted by amending the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
    Nodal Ministry: The Ministry of Environment and Forests.
    Headquarter: New Delhi
    Mandate: Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 it is mandated to
    To collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals.
    To establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
    In capacity building of the wildlife crime enforcement agencies for scientific and professional investigation into wildlife crimes and assist State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes;
    It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item.
    It has developed an online Wildlife Crime Database Management System to get real time data in order to help analyze trends in crime and devise effective measures to prevent and detect wildlife crimes across India.
    This system has been successfully used to analyse trends, helping put in preventive measures as well as for successfully carrying out operations such as Operation SAVE KURMA, THUNDERBIRD, WILDNET, LESKNOW, BIRBIL, THUNDERSTORM, LESKNOW-II
    Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
27. Question 27 of 100

    27. Question

    Ol Chiki script, which was recently seen in the news is used to write which of the following language?
    (A) Santhali
    (B) Bodo
    (C) Manipuri
    (D) None of the Above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the Prime Minister India for saluting the immortal tribal revolutionaries on Hul Diwas used Ol Chiki script of Santhali language.
    It was created in 1925 by Raghunath Murmu (1905-1982), writer and teacher from what is Mayurbhanj State (now part of Odisha) in India as a way to write Santali a Munda language.
    Ol Chiki is also known as Ol Cemet', Ol Ciki, Ol or the Santali alphabet.
    It was created as a way to promote Santali culture.
    The script was first publicized in 1939 at the Mayurbhanj State exhibition.
    Murmu published over 150 books in Santali in the Ol Chiki script, including novels, poetry, drama, grammars, dictionaries and other information about the language and script.
    Santali is also written with the Latin, Odia, Bengali and Devanagari alphabets.
    Santhali language is spoken mainly in Jharkhand and West Bengal states in northern India, and also in northwestern Bangladesh, eastern Nepal and Bhutan.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the Prime Minister India for saluting the immortal tribal revolutionaries on Hul Diwas used Ol Chiki script of Santhali language.
    It was created in 1925 by Raghunath Murmu (1905-1982), writer and teacher from what is Mayurbhanj State (now part of Odisha) in India as a way to write Santali a Munda language.
    Ol Chiki is also known as Ol Cemet', Ol Ciki, Ol or the Santali alphabet.
    It was created as a way to promote Santali culture.
    The script was first publicized in 1939 at the Mayurbhanj State exhibition.
    Murmu published over 150 books in Santali in the Ol Chiki script, including novels, poetry, drama, grammars, dictionaries and other information about the language and script.
    Santali is also written with the Latin, Odia, Bengali and Devanagari alphabets.
    Santhali language is spoken mainly in Jharkhand and West Bengal states in northern India, and also in northwestern Bangladesh, eastern Nepal and Bhutan.
28. Question 28 of 100

    28. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plans :
    1.These are the principal instruments for implementing the Convention on Biological Diversity at the national level.
    2.It aims to integrate biodiversity into countries’s socio-economic development and natural resource management.
    3.These plans will help in improving protection of genetic diversity and to avoid extinctions.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    National Biodiversity Strategies and Action Plans (NBSAPs) are the principal instruments for implementing the Convention on Biological Diversity at the national level. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Convention requires countries to prepare a national biodiversity strategy (or equivalent instrument) and to ensure that this strategy is mainstreamed into the planning and activities of all those sectors whose activities can have an impact (positive and negative) on biodiversity. The main objectives of the Strategy and Action Plan are:
    Achieving mobilization of adequate financial resources for the management and conservation of biodiversity, developing the human resource base and strengthen institutional capacity for biodiversity conservation and management and improving public awareness and education.
    Mainstreaming biodiversity into development, poverty reduction, natural resource management plans, and climate change plans (among other sectoral plans)
    Increasing and/or improving protection, to protect genetic diversity and to avoid extinction. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Safeguarding, restoring and increasing resilience of critical ecosystem services.
    NBSAPs are the principal policy instruments through which Parties implement the CBD at all levels/ scales. NBSAPs facilitate planning for the conservation of biodiversity and healthy ecosystems, while ensuring the sustainable use of related resources, and the equitable sharing of the benefits of genetic diversity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    National Biodiversity Strategies and Action Plans (NBSAPs) are the principal instruments for implementing the Convention on Biological Diversity at the national level. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Convention requires countries to prepare a national biodiversity strategy (or equivalent instrument) and to ensure that this strategy is mainstreamed into the planning and activities of all those sectors whose activities can have an impact (positive and negative) on biodiversity. The main objectives of the Strategy and Action Plan are:
    Achieving mobilization of adequate financial resources for the management and conservation of biodiversity, developing the human resource base and strengthen institutional capacity for biodiversity conservation and management and improving public awareness and education.
    Mainstreaming biodiversity into development, poverty reduction, natural resource management plans, and climate change plans (among other sectoral plans)
    Increasing and/or improving protection, to protect genetic diversity and to avoid extinction. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Safeguarding, restoring and increasing resilience of critical ecosystem services.
    NBSAPs are the principal policy instruments through which Parties implement the CBD at all levels/ scales. NBSAPs facilitate planning for the conservation of biodiversity and healthy ecosystems, while ensuring the sustainable use of related resources, and the equitable sharing of the benefits of genetic diversity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
29. Question 29 of 100

    29. Question

    How many of the following is/are endogenic geomorphic processes affecting earth’s surface?
    (1) Diastrophism
    (2) Mass wasting
    (3) Volcanism
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The endogenic and exogenic forces causing physical stresses and chemical actions on earth materials and bringing about changes in the configuration of the surface of the earth are known as geomorphic processes. Diastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes. Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.
    Weathering, mass wasting, erosion and deposition are exogenic geomorphic processes.

    Unattempted
    

    The endogenic and exogenic forces causing physical stresses and chemical actions on earth materials and bringing about changes in the configuration of the surface of the earth are known as geomorphic processes. Diastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes. Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.
    Weathering, mass wasting, erosion and deposition are exogenic geomorphic processes.
30. Question 30 of 100

    30. Question

    How many of the following is/are branch/branches of the North Atlantic Drift?
    (1) Irminger current
    (2) Benguela Current
    (3) Canary Current
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    North Atlantic Current, also called North Atlantic Drift, part of a clockwise-setting ocean-current system in the North Atlantic Ocean, extending from southeast of the Grand Bank, off Newfoundland, Canada, to the Norwegian Sea, off northwestern Europe.
    It constitutes the northeastward extension of the Gulf Stream; the latter issues from the Gulf of Mexico and gradually emerges as the North Atlantic Current in mid-ocean. Major branches of the current include the Irminger, Norway, and Canary currents.
    Irminger Current, branch of the warm North Atlantic Current, flowing generally westward along the south coast of Iceland.
    Canary Current, also called Canaries Current, part of a clockwise-setting ocean-current system in the North Atlantic Ocean. It branches south from the North Atlantic Current and flows southwestward along the northwest coast of Africa as far south as Senegal before turning westward to eventually join the Atlantic North Equatorial Current.
    Benguela Current, oceanic current that is a branch of the West Wind Drift of the Southern Hemisphere. It flows northward in the South Atlantic Ocean along the west coast of southern Africa nearly to the Equator before merging with the westward-flowing Atlantic South Equatorial Current.
    Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    North Atlantic Current, also called North Atlantic Drift, part of a clockwise-setting ocean-current system in the North Atlantic Ocean, extending from southeast of the Grand Bank, off Newfoundland, Canada, to the Norwegian Sea, off northwestern Europe.
    It constitutes the northeastward extension of the Gulf Stream; the latter issues from the Gulf of Mexico and gradually emerges as the North Atlantic Current in mid-ocean. Major branches of the current include the Irminger, Norway, and Canary currents.
    Irminger Current, branch of the warm North Atlantic Current, flowing generally westward along the south coast of Iceland.
    Canary Current, also called Canaries Current, part of a clockwise-setting ocean-current system in the North Atlantic Ocean. It branches south from the North Atlantic Current and flows southwestward along the northwest coast of Africa as far south as Senegal before turning westward to eventually join the Atlantic North Equatorial Current.
    Benguela Current, oceanic current that is a branch of the West Wind Drift of the Southern Hemisphere. It flows northward in the South Atlantic Ocean along the west coast of southern Africa nearly to the Equator before merging with the westward-flowing Atlantic South Equatorial Current.
    Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.
31. Question 31 of 100

    31. Question

    Which of the following are possible impacts of the US Federal Reserve interest rate hike on the Indian Economy?
    (1) Capital outflow from Indian markets.
    (2) Weakening of Indian Rupee.
    (3) Depletion of Indian Forex Reserve.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 and 2 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The US Federal Reserve recently raised its benchmark lending rate to the highest level since 2001 to tackle above-target inflation.
    About US Federal Reserve:
    The United States Federal Reserve, commonly referred to as the Federal Reserve or simply the Fed, is the central banking system of the United States.
    It provides the country with a safe, flexible, and stable monetary and financial system.
    The Federal Reserve System is composed of 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks that are each responsible for a specific geographic area of the U.S.
    The Fed's main duties include conducting national monetary policy, supervising and regulating banks, maintaining financial stability, and providing banking services.
    Impacts of US Federal Reserve Interest Hike:
    The US Fed is the world's most powerful central bank.
    When the Fed adjusts interest rates, the effects are felt worldwide, influencing both developed and emerging economies.
    Conventional wisdom suggests that higher interest rates in the US would make American assets more appealing to investors, potentially leading to capital outflows from emerging and riskier markets.
    In such a scenario, capital-intensive sectors, which heavily rely on Foreign Direct Investments (FDIs), could be the first to feel the impact.
    Higher US interest rates could lead to a tightening of global liquidity, making borrowing more expensive for foreign investors.
    Possible impacts on the Indian Economy:
    After a rate hike by the US Fed, the difference between interest rates in US and India shrinks, which affects the currency trade negatively.
    Foreign investors will be tempted to withdraw from the Indian market and invest in US assets, as the Dollar and the US Treasury yield become more attractive in the US and the Indian market begins to see capital outflow.
    Thus, an interest rate hike in the US increases the relative returns on dollar investments, leading the US currency to strengthen.
    This makes the rupee weaker, and it prompts RBI for a rate hike in India.
    So when the US Fed increases rates, RBI also has to increase interest rates here in India so that the outflows of funds from the FIIs (Foreign Institutional Investors) can be curtailed to save guard the rupee.
    If the rupee falls significantly, the RBI may be forced to sell some dollars to help shore up the domestic currency. This depletes the domestic Forex reserve.
    Hence all three statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The US Federal Reserve recently raised its benchmark lending rate to the highest level since 2001 to tackle above-target inflation.
    About US Federal Reserve:
    The United States Federal Reserve, commonly referred to as the Federal Reserve or simply the Fed, is the central banking system of the United States.
    It provides the country with a safe, flexible, and stable monetary and financial system.
    The Federal Reserve System is composed of 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks that are each responsible for a specific geographic area of the U.S.
    The Fed's main duties include conducting national monetary policy, supervising and regulating banks, maintaining financial stability, and providing banking services.
    Impacts of US Federal Reserve Interest Hike:
    The US Fed is the world's most powerful central bank.
    When the Fed adjusts interest rates, the effects are felt worldwide, influencing both developed and emerging economies.
    Conventional wisdom suggests that higher interest rates in the US would make American assets more appealing to investors, potentially leading to capital outflows from emerging and riskier markets.
    In such a scenario, capital-intensive sectors, which heavily rely on Foreign Direct Investments (FDIs), could be the first to feel the impact.
    Higher US interest rates could lead to a tightening of global liquidity, making borrowing more expensive for foreign investors.
    Possible impacts on the Indian Economy:
    After a rate hike by the US Fed, the difference between interest rates in US and India shrinks, which affects the currency trade negatively.
    Foreign investors will be tempted to withdraw from the Indian market and invest in US assets, as the Dollar and the US Treasury yield become more attractive in the US and the Indian market begins to see capital outflow.
    Thus, an interest rate hike in the US increases the relative returns on dollar investments, leading the US currency to strengthen.
    This makes the rupee weaker, and it prompts RBI for a rate hike in India.
    So when the US Fed increases rates, RBI also has to increase interest rates here in India so that the outflows of funds from the FIIs (Foreign Institutional Investors) can be curtailed to save guard the rupee.
    If the rupee falls significantly, the RBI may be forced to sell some dollars to help shore up the domestic currency. This depletes the domestic Forex reserve.
    Hence all three statements are correct.
32. Question 32 of 100

    32. Question

    With reference to Gulf of Oman, consider the following statements:
    (1) It forms the only entrance to the Persian Gulf from the Indian Ocean.
    (2) It connects the Arabian Sea with the Strait of Hormuz.
    (3) It is bordered by Pakistan and Iran in the north.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Iran recently made an attempt to seize two oil tankers near the strategically significant Strait of Hormuz.
    About Strait of Hormuz:
    Strait of Hormuz, also called Strait of Ormuz is a channel linking the Persian Gulf (west) with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea.
    The strait is 35 to 60 miles (55 to 95 km) wide and separates Iran (north) from the Arabian Peninsula (south).
    It contains the islands of Qeshm (Qishm), Hormuz, and Hengām (Henjām).
    The Strait of Hormuz is the world's most important oil chokepoint because of the large volumes of oil that flow through the strait.
    Key facts about Gulf of Oman:
    The Gulf of Oman or Sea of Oman, also known as the Gulf of Makran or Sea of Makran, forms the only entrance to the Persian Gulf from the Indian Ocean.
    It connects the Arabian Sea with the Strait of Hormuz, which then empties into the Persian Gulf.
    Bordering Countries: It is bordered by Pakistan and Iran in the north, by the United Arab Emirates in the west and by Oman in the south.
    The gulf is relatively shallow because of its origin as a fissure in the mountain spine now divided between Iran and Oman.
    The Gulf of Oman is about 320 km wide at its widest point between Cape al-Hadd in Oman and Gwadar Bay on the Iran-Pakistan border. It narrows to 35 miles (56 km) at the Strait of Hormuz.

    Unattempted
    

    Iran recently made an attempt to seize two oil tankers near the strategically significant Strait of Hormuz.
    About Strait of Hormuz:
    Strait of Hormuz, also called Strait of Ormuz is a channel linking the Persian Gulf (west) with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea.
    The strait is 35 to 60 miles (55 to 95 km) wide and separates Iran (north) from the Arabian Peninsula (south).
    It contains the islands of Qeshm (Qishm), Hormuz, and Hengām (Henjām).
    The Strait of Hormuz is the world's most important oil chokepoint because of the large volumes of oil that flow through the strait.
    Key facts about Gulf of Oman:
    The Gulf of Oman or Sea of Oman, also known as the Gulf of Makran or Sea of Makran, forms the only entrance to the Persian Gulf from the Indian Ocean.
    It connects the Arabian Sea with the Strait of Hormuz, which then empties into the Persian Gulf.
    Bordering Countries: It is bordered by Pakistan and Iran in the north, by the United Arab Emirates in the west and by Oman in the south.
    The gulf is relatively shallow because of its origin as a fissure in the mountain spine now divided between Iran and Oman.
    The Gulf of Oman is about 320 km wide at its widest point between Cape al-Hadd in Oman and Gwadar Bay on the Iran-Pakistan border. It narrows to 35 miles (56 km) at the Strait of Hormuz.
33. Question 33 of 100

    33. Question

    With reference to the Mosaic Virus, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is parasite that destroys only horticultural crops.
    (2) This virus can be spread through infected seeds and saplings.
    (3) The Cucumber Mosaic Virus spreads by aphids.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Tomato growers in Maharashtra and Karnataka have blamed two different mosaic viruses for the loss of yields earlier this year.
    It is a parasite that destroys plants, gardens, and crops down to their molecular level.
    Once a plant contacts the mosaic virus, the infected plant can then spread the virus to other plants and even affect an entire harvest if left untreated.
    It affects a wide variety of horticultural and vegetable crops — roses, beans, tobacco, tomatoes, potatoes, cucumbers, pumpkins, squash, melons, and peppers.
    What is Tomato Mosaic Virus ?
    XIt belongs to the Virgaviridae family and is closely related to the tobacco mosaic virus (TMV).
    It hosts include tomato, tobacco, peppers, and certain ornamental plants.
    It spreads mainly through infected seeds, saplings, agricultural tools.
    It would require only a few infected saplings for the virus to take over an entire field in a matter of days.
    It can remain dormant in weeds and plant remains around the field, and come back later.
    What is Cucumber Mosaic Virus ?
    It has a much larger host pool that includes cucumber, melon, eggplant, tomato, carrot, lettuce etc.
    It was identified in cucumber in 1934, which gave the virus its name.
    It is spread by aphids which are sap-sucking insects.
    It can also spread through human touch, but the chances of that are extremely low.
    Conditions of high temperature followed by intermittent rain, which allow aphids to multiply, are conducive to the spread of CMV.
    Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Tomato growers in Maharashtra and Karnataka have blamed two different mosaic viruses for the loss of yields earlier this year.
    It is a parasite that destroys plants, gardens, and crops down to their molecular level.
    Once a plant contacts the mosaic virus, the infected plant can then spread the virus to other plants and even affect an entire harvest if left untreated.
    It affects a wide variety of horticultural and vegetable crops — roses, beans, tobacco, tomatoes, potatoes, cucumbers, pumpkins, squash, melons, and peppers.
    What is Tomato Mosaic Virus ?
    XIt belongs to the Virgaviridae family and is closely related to the tobacco mosaic virus (TMV).
    It hosts include tomato, tobacco, peppers, and certain ornamental plants.
    It spreads mainly through infected seeds, saplings, agricultural tools.
    It would require only a few infected saplings for the virus to take over an entire field in a matter of days.
    It can remain dormant in weeds and plant remains around the field, and come back later.
    What is Cucumber Mosaic Virus ?
    It has a much larger host pool that includes cucumber, melon, eggplant, tomato, carrot, lettuce etc.
    It was identified in cucumber in 1934, which gave the virus its name.
    It is spread by aphids which are sap-sucking insects.
    It can also spread through human touch, but the chances of that are extremely low.
    Conditions of high temperature followed by intermittent rain, which allow aphids to multiply, are conducive to the spread of CMV.
    Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
34. Question 34 of 100

    34. Question

    With reference to medieval history of India, the terms 'Nayakar' and 'Ayagar' refer to
    (A) administrative systems in Vijayanagar kingdom
    (B) bhakti saints of South India
    (C) artists who performed the Yakshagana
    (D) titles given to military officials of the Chola empire

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Nayakar and Ayagar were the two most important administrative systems of Vijayanagar Empire.
    The Ayagar system: It was an important feature of the village organization in Vijayanagar. According to this, every village was a separate unit and its affairs were conducted by a team of 12 functionaries who were collectively known as the ayagars‘. They were granted tax-free lands (manyams) which they were to enjoy in perpectuity for their services. Once granted, these ayagars had a hereditary right over their offieces. The ayagars could also sell or mortgage their offices. For justice, very harsh punishments like mutilation of body, throwing to elephants were delivered.
    The Nayakara system: Under this system, the king was considered to be the owner of the soil and he distributed the lands to his nayakas. Nayakas had to pay a fixed annual financial contribution to the imperial exchequer which, according to the chronicle of Nuniz, was generally half their revenue. They were required to maintain a sufficient number of troops for the king and serve them in his war. The nayaka enjoyed greater freedom in his province. There was no system of transfer from one district to another.

    Unattempted
    

    The Nayakar and Ayagar were the two most important administrative systems of Vijayanagar Empire.
    The Ayagar system: It was an important feature of the village organization in Vijayanagar. According to this, every village was a separate unit and its affairs were conducted by a team of 12 functionaries who were collectively known as the ayagars‘. They were granted tax-free lands (manyams) which they were to enjoy in perpectuity for their services. Once granted, these ayagars had a hereditary right over their offieces. The ayagars could also sell or mortgage their offices. For justice, very harsh punishments like mutilation of body, throwing to elephants were delivered.
    The Nayakara system: Under this system, the king was considered to be the owner of the soil and he distributed the lands to his nayakas. Nayakas had to pay a fixed annual financial contribution to the imperial exchequer which, according to the chronicle of Nuniz, was generally half their revenue. They were required to maintain a sufficient number of troops for the king and serve them in his war. The nayaka enjoyed greater freedom in his province. There was no system of transfer from one district to another.
35. Question 35 of 100

    35. Question

    How many of the following religions was/were patronized by the Kushan rulers?
    (1) Buddhism
    (2) Hinduism
    (3) Zoroastrianism
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Kushan emperors represented a wide variety of faiths, including Zoroastrianism, Buddhism, and Hinduism.
    The Kushans are believed to have been predominantly practitioners of Zoroastrianism, one of the world‘s oldest monotheistic religions founded by the Prophet Zoroaster in ancient Iran approximately 3,500 years ago.
    According to the testimony of the Greek and Aramaic versions of the rock edicts of Asoka, the beginning of Bubddhist missions to Bactria dates back to the third century b.c) The spread of Buddhism and Brahmanism was due to Indian merchants and craftsmen emigrating to the great centres of Graeco-Bactria) The Greeks were also open to Indian religious ideas as is attested by the pillar inscription of Heliodoros, the ambassador of King Antialcidas who became a worshipper of Vishnu and erected the Garuda pillar with an inscription in Brahmi in honour of Vishnu at Besnagar.

    Unattempted
    

    Kushan emperors represented a wide variety of faiths, including Zoroastrianism, Buddhism, and Hinduism.
    The Kushans are believed to have been predominantly practitioners of Zoroastrianism, one of the world‘s oldest monotheistic religions founded by the Prophet Zoroaster in ancient Iran approximately 3,500 years ago.
    According to the testimony of the Greek and Aramaic versions of the rock edicts of Asoka, the beginning of Bubddhist missions to Bactria dates back to the third century b.c) The spread of Buddhism and Brahmanism was due to Indian merchants and craftsmen emigrating to the great centres of Graeco-Bactria) The Greeks were also open to Indian religious ideas as is attested by the pillar inscription of Heliodoros, the ambassador of King Antialcidas who became a worshipper of Vishnu and erected the Garuda pillar with an inscription in Brahmi in honour of Vishnu at Besnagar.
36. Question 36 of 100

    36. Question

    Parliament has exclusive jurisdiction to make laws related to which of the following Fundamental Rights?
    (1) Prescribing residence as a condition for employment under the state.
    (2) Prescribing punishment for Untouchability.
    (3) Prescribing punishment for traffic in human beings and forced labour.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws to give effect to certain specified Fundamental Rights shall vest only in Parliament and not is the state legislatures. The Article contains the following provisions-
    1.The Parliament shall have (and the state legislature shall not have) power to make laws with respect to:
    Prescribing residence as a condition for employment under the state (Article 16)
    Empowering courts other than the Supreme Court and the high courts to issue directions and writs of all kinds for enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Article 32)
    Restricting the application of Fundamental Rights to armed forces (Article 33)
    Indemnifying any government servant or any other person for any act done during the operation of martial law (Article 34)
    (2) The Parliament shall have (and the state legislature shall not have) power to make laws for prescribing punishment for those acts that are declared to be offences under Fundamental Rights-
    Untouchability (Article 17)
    Traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23)

    Unattempted
    

    Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws to give effect to certain specified Fundamental Rights shall vest only in Parliament and not is the state legislatures. The Article contains the following provisions-
    1.The Parliament shall have (and the state legislature shall not have) power to make laws with respect to:
    Prescribing residence as a condition for employment under the state (Article 16)
    Empowering courts other than the Supreme Court and the high courts to issue directions and writs of all kinds for enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Article 32)
    Restricting the application of Fundamental Rights to armed forces (Article 33)
    Indemnifying any government servant or any other person for any act done during the operation of martial law (Article 34)
    (2) The Parliament shall have (and the state legislature shall not have) power to make laws for prescribing punishment for those acts that are declared to be offences under Fundamental Rights-
    Untouchability (Article 17)
    Traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23)
37. Question 37 of 100

    37. Question

    With reference to Ashoka's policy of Dhamma, consider the following statements:
    (1) It aimed at prohibition of animal sacrifices and festive gatherings.
    (2) It propagated religious toleration.
    (3) It aimed to strengthen the institution of family.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    All the statements are correct.
    Asokan edicts illustrate the basic attributes of Dhamma- compassion (daya), charity (dana), truthfulness, purity and gentleness.
    Ashoka's Dhamma emphasized to promote a harmonious life both in the family and community. He considered the family as the ideal nucleus for development of Dhamma.
    Pillar Edict III asks subjects to control violence, cruelty, anger and envy.
    Rock edict I calls for a ban on animal sacrifice and festive gatherings.
    Another important aspect of Dhamma was the generation of mutual respect among people belonging to different sects and religious communities. Dhamma did not propagate one belief, and this aspect demonstrates religious toleration.

    Unattempted
    

    All the statements are correct.
    Asokan edicts illustrate the basic attributes of Dhamma- compassion (daya), charity (dana), truthfulness, purity and gentleness.
    Ashoka's Dhamma emphasized to promote a harmonious life both in the family and community. He considered the family as the ideal nucleus for development of Dhamma.
    Pillar Edict III asks subjects to control violence, cruelty, anger and envy.
    Rock edict I calls for a ban on animal sacrifice and festive gatherings.
    Another important aspect of Dhamma was the generation of mutual respect among people belonging to different sects and religious communities. Dhamma did not propagate one belief, and this aspect demonstrates religious toleration.
38. Question 38 of 100

    38. Question

    With reference to Sperm Whale, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is found in temperate and tropical waters throughout the world.
    (2) It is categorised as the critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, 9.5kg of ambergris was found in the carcass of a sperm whale which was washed up on a shore of the Canary Island of La Palm.
    It has long been recognized as one of nature’s most enigmatic phenomena.
    Ambergris which means grey amber in French, is a waxy substance that originates from the digestive system of protected sperm whales.
    The freshly passed ambergris is a light yellowish substance.
    Chemically, ambergris contains alkaloids, acids, and a specific compound called ambreine, which is similar to cholesterol.
    It is a rare substance, which contributes to its high demand and high price in the international market.
    It is used
    To produce perfumes which have notes of musk.
    While there are records of it being used to flavour food, alcoholic beverages and tobacco in some cultures in the past.
    There is a ban on the possession and trade of ambergris in countries like the USA, Australia and India.
    Key facts about Sperm Whale
    Sperm whales are the largest of the toothed whales and have one of the widest global distributions of any marine mammal species.
    Appearance
    It is dark blue-gray or brownish, with white patches on the belly.It is thickset and has small paddle like flippers and a series of rounded humps on its back.
    Habitat: It is found in temperate and tropical waters throughout the world.
    Conservation status
    IUCN: Vulnerable
    CITES : Appendix I
    Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: schedule 2
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, 9.5kg of ambergris was found in the carcass of a sperm whale which was washed up on a shore of the Canary Island of La Palm.
    It has long been recognized as one of nature’s most enigmatic phenomena.
    Ambergris which means grey amber in French, is a waxy substance that originates from the digestive system of protected sperm whales.
    The freshly passed ambergris is a light yellowish substance.
    Chemically, ambergris contains alkaloids, acids, and a specific compound called ambreine, which is similar to cholesterol.
    It is a rare substance, which contributes to its high demand and high price in the international market.
    It is used
    To produce perfumes which have notes of musk.
    While there are records of it being used to flavour food, alcoholic beverages and tobacco in some cultures in the past.
    There is a ban on the possession and trade of ambergris in countries like the USA, Australia and India.
    Key facts about Sperm Whale
    Sperm whales are the largest of the toothed whales and have one of the widest global distributions of any marine mammal species.
    Appearance
    It is dark blue-gray or brownish, with white patches on the belly.It is thickset and has small paddle like flippers and a series of rounded humps on its back.
    Habitat: It is found in temperate and tropical waters throughout the world.
    Conservation status
    IUCN: Vulnerable
    CITES : Appendix I
    Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: schedule 2
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
39. Question 39 of 100

    39. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA):
    (1) It is an Act to prevent money laundering and to provide for the confiscation of property derived from or involved in money laundering.
    (2) The Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND),under the Department of Revenue, is responsible for investigating the offenses of money laundering under the PMLA.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Central Government recently issued a notification to bring the Goods & Services Tax Network (GSTN) under the purview of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
    About Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA):
    It is an Act to prevent money laundering and to provide for the confiscation of property derived from or involved in money laundering.
    The Act was formulated for the following objectives:
    Prevent money-laundering.
    Combat/prevent channelising of money into illegal activities and economic crimes.
    Provide for the confiscation of property derived from, or involved/used in, money laundering.
    Provide for matters connected and incidental to the acts of money laundering.
    The Enforcement Directorate (ED) in the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, is responsible for investigating the offences of money laundering under the PMLA.
    Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND), under the Department of Revenue is the central national agency responsible for receiving, processing, analyzing, and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions.
    The scheduled offences are separately investigated by agencies mentioned under respective acts, for example, the local police, CBI, customs departments, SEBI, or any other investigative agency, as the case may be.
    Actions that can be initiated against the person involved in money laundering:
    Seizure/freezing of property and records and attachment of property obtained with the proceeds of crime.
    Any person who commits the offence of money laundering shall be punishable with –
    Rigorous imprisonment for a minimum term of three years and this may extend up to seven years.
    Fine (without any limit).
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Central Government recently issued a notification to bring the Goods & Services Tax Network (GSTN) under the purview of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
    About Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA):
    It is an Act to prevent money laundering and to provide for the confiscation of property derived from or involved in money laundering.
    The Act was formulated for the following objectives:
    Prevent money-laundering.
    Combat/prevent channelising of money into illegal activities and economic crimes.
    Provide for the confiscation of property derived from, or involved/used in, money laundering.
    Provide for matters connected and incidental to the acts of money laundering.
    The Enforcement Directorate (ED) in the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, is responsible for investigating the offences of money laundering under the PMLA.
    Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND), under the Department of Revenue is the central national agency responsible for receiving, processing, analyzing, and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions.
    The scheduled offences are separately investigated by agencies mentioned under respective acts, for example, the local police, CBI, customs departments, SEBI, or any other investigative agency, as the case may be.
    Actions that can be initiated against the person involved in money laundering:
    Seizure/freezing of property and records and attachment of property obtained with the proceeds of crime.
    Any person who commits the offence of money laundering shall be punishable with –
    Rigorous imprisonment for a minimum term of three years and this may extend up to seven years.
    Fine (without any limit).
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
40. Question 40 of 100

    40. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Messenger RNA (mRNA):
    (1) It is a type of double-stranded RNA involved in protein synthesis.
    (2) It is made from a DNA template during the process of transcription.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Researchers have recently developed an mRNA-based vaccine that can effectively target and stimulate protective immune cell responses against the malaria-causing parasite Plasmodium.
    What is mRNA?
    Messenger RNA (a mRNA) is a type of single-stranded RNA involved in protein synthesis.
    mRNA is made from a DNA template during the process of transcription.
    The role of mRNA is to carry protein information from the DNA in a cell’s nucleus to the cell’s cytoplasm (watery interior), where the protein-making machinery reads the mRNA sequence and translates each three-base codon into its corresponding amino acid in a growing protein chain.
    So mRNA really is a form of nucleic acid which helps the human genome, which is coded in DNA, to be read by the cellular machinery.
    About mRNA Vaccines:
    mRNA vaccines work by introducing a piece of mRNA that corresponds to a viral protein, usually a small piece of a protein found on the virus’s outer membrane.
    By using this mRNA, cells can produce the viral protein.
    As part of a normal immune response, the immune system recognizes that the protein is foreign and produces specialized proteins called antibodies.
    Once produced, antibodies remain in the body, even after the body has rid itself of the pathogen, so that the immune system can quickly respond if exposed again.
    Antibodies help protect the body against infection by recognizing individual viruses or other pathogens, attaching to them, and marking the pathogens for destruction.
    If a person is exposed to a virus after receiving mRNA vaccination for it, antibodies can quickly recognize it, attach to it, and mark it for destruction before it can cause serious illness.
    Individuals who get an mRNA vaccine are not exposed to the virus, nor can they become infected with the virus by the vaccine.
    How are mRNA vaccines made?
    To make an mRNA vaccine, scientists must first identify a protein on the outside of the virus that the body’s immune response will respond to (the “target” protein).
    The protein they choose must be sufficiently different from proteins on the outside of the body’s own cells, so the immune system only attacks the virus.
    They then identify the DNA that has the information for making the target protein.
    Scientists use the DNA to produce the mRNA for the target protein.
    Once enough mRNA has been made, the DNA is broken down to ensure that only the mRNA is packaged in the vaccine.
    The speed and efficiency of this process can make large amounts of mRNA in a short period of time.
    Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Researchers have recently developed an mRNA-based vaccine that can effectively target and stimulate protective immune cell responses against the malaria-causing parasite Plasmodium.
    What is mRNA?
    Messenger RNA (a mRNA) is a type of single-stranded RNA involved in protein synthesis.
    mRNA is made from a DNA template during the process of transcription.
    The role of mRNA is to carry protein information from the DNA in a cell’s nucleus to the cell’s cytoplasm (watery interior), where the protein-making machinery reads the mRNA sequence and translates each three-base codon into its corresponding amino acid in a growing protein chain.
    So mRNA really is a form of nucleic acid which helps the human genome, which is coded in DNA, to be read by the cellular machinery.
    About mRNA Vaccines:
    mRNA vaccines work by introducing a piece of mRNA that corresponds to a viral protein, usually a small piece of a protein found on the virus’s outer membrane.
    By using this mRNA, cells can produce the viral protein.
    As part of a normal immune response, the immune system recognizes that the protein is foreign and produces specialized proteins called antibodies.
    Once produced, antibodies remain in the body, even after the body has rid itself of the pathogen, so that the immune system can quickly respond if exposed again.
    Antibodies help protect the body against infection by recognizing individual viruses or other pathogens, attaching to them, and marking the pathogens for destruction.
    If a person is exposed to a virus after receiving mRNA vaccination for it, antibodies can quickly recognize it, attach to it, and mark it for destruction before it can cause serious illness.
    Individuals who get an mRNA vaccine are not exposed to the virus, nor can they become infected with the virus by the vaccine.
    How are mRNA vaccines made?
    To make an mRNA vaccine, scientists must first identify a protein on the outside of the virus that the body’s immune response will respond to (the “target” protein).
    The protein they choose must be sufficiently different from proteins on the outside of the body’s own cells, so the immune system only attacks the virus.
    They then identify the DNA that has the information for making the target protein.
    Scientists use the DNA to produce the mRNA for the target protein.
    Once enough mRNA has been made, the DNA is broken down to ensure that only the mRNA is packaged in the vaccine.
    The speed and efficiency of this process can make large amounts of mRNA in a short period of time.
    Hence, only statement 2 is correct.
41. Question 41 of 100

    41. Question

    With reference to Gulf Stream, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a swift and cold ocean current.
    (2) It originates in the Gulf of Mexico and follows a northeastward path across the western North Atlantic Ocean.
    (3) It is an essential part of the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC).
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A recent study suggests the Gulf Stream system could collapse as soon as 2025.
    About Gulf Stream:
    What is it? The Gulf Stream is a swift and warm ocean current that flows along the eastern coast of North America and crosses the Atlantic Ocean towards Europe.
    Key characteristics:
    Location: It originates in the Gulf of Mexico and is primarily formed by the convergence of warm waters from the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico. It then travels northward along the eastern coast of the United States.
    Direction: It follows a northeastward path across the western North Atlantic Ocean.
    Warmth: The current carries warm water from the tropics (around 25 to 28°C or 77 to 82°F) to higher latitudes.
    Width and Speed: The Gulf Stream is several hundred kilometers wide and can flow at an average speed of about 2.5 meters per second. However, its speed can vary depending on the location and other factors.
    Depth: The current is also very deep, extending to depths of up to 1,000 meters.
    Importance and Impact:
    Climate Regulation: It moderates the temperatures along the eastern coast of North America, keeping the coastal areas warmer in winter and cooler in summer compared to inland regions at the same latitudes. Since the Gulf Stream also extends toward Europe, it warms Western European countries as well.
    Weather Patterns: The warm and moist air above the Gulf Stream can lead to the formation of low-pressure systems, which may develop into storms or hurricanes. It can also contribute to the formation of fog in certain areas.
    Maritime Navigation: The Gulf Stream has been a crucial factor in maritime navigation for centuries. It provides a fast and efficient route for ships travelling between North America and Europe, as it aids in faster travel times due to its speed.
    Ocean Circulation: The Gulf Stream is an essential part of the larger oceanic circulation system known as the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC). The AMOC plays a vital role in redistributing heat around the Earth and regulating global climate patterns.
    Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A recent study suggests the Gulf Stream system could collapse as soon as 2025.
    About Gulf Stream:
    What is it? The Gulf Stream is a swift and warm ocean current that flows along the eastern coast of North America and crosses the Atlantic Ocean towards Europe.
    Key characteristics:
    Location: It originates in the Gulf of Mexico and is primarily formed by the convergence of warm waters from the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico. It then travels northward along the eastern coast of the United States.
    Direction: It follows a northeastward path across the western North Atlantic Ocean.
    Warmth: The current carries warm water from the tropics (around 25 to 28°C or 77 to 82°F) to higher latitudes.
    Width and Speed: The Gulf Stream is several hundred kilometers wide and can flow at an average speed of about 2.5 meters per second. However, its speed can vary depending on the location and other factors.
    Depth: The current is also very deep, extending to depths of up to 1,000 meters.
    Importance and Impact:
    Climate Regulation: It moderates the temperatures along the eastern coast of North America, keeping the coastal areas warmer in winter and cooler in summer compared to inland regions at the same latitudes. Since the Gulf Stream also extends toward Europe, it warms Western European countries as well.
    Weather Patterns: The warm and moist air above the Gulf Stream can lead to the formation of low-pressure systems, which may develop into storms or hurricanes. It can also contribute to the formation of fog in certain areas.
    Maritime Navigation: The Gulf Stream has been a crucial factor in maritime navigation for centuries. It provides a fast and efficient route for ships travelling between North America and Europe, as it aids in faster travel times due to its speed.
    Ocean Circulation: The Gulf Stream is an essential part of the larger oceanic circulation system known as the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC). The AMOC plays a vital role in redistributing heat around the Earth and regulating global climate patterns.
    Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
42. Question 42 of 100

    42. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Mekedatu Reservoir Project:
    (1) The project involves building a balancing reservoir in Karnataka.
    (2) The project is proposed at the confluence of Cauvery with its tributary Arkavathi.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Environmentalists recently advocated for the revival of the raja kaluve network and dead lakes in Bengaluru to resolve the city’s drinking water problem instead of moving ahead with the Mekedatu Reservoir Project.
    About Mekedatu Resrvoir Project:
    The Mekedatu multi-purpose (drinking and power) project involves building a balancing reservoir near Kanakapura in Ramanagara district of Karnataka.
    It is 4 km from the Tamil Nadu border and 100 km from Bengaluru.
    The estimated Rs 9,000-crore project, once completed, is aimed at ensuring drinking water to Bengaluru and neighbouring areas (4.75 TMC) and it can also generate 400 MW of power.
    Named after the village where the project is expected to be constructed, the reservoir will have a capacity of 284,000 million cubic feet (TMC).
    The project is proposed at the confluence of Cauvery with its tributary Arkavathi.
    Issue:
    Tamil Nadu — the lower riparian state — has claimed that the project is against the interest of the state’s water requirement.
    The lower riparian state has to give its no-objection for any project that comes up on the Cauvery as per the Cauvery tribunal and Supreme Court order.
    Hence both statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Environmentalists recently advocated for the revival of the raja kaluve network and dead lakes in Bengaluru to resolve the city’s drinking water problem instead of moving ahead with the Mekedatu Reservoir Project.
    About Mekedatu Resrvoir Project:
    The Mekedatu multi-purpose (drinking and power) project involves building a balancing reservoir near Kanakapura in Ramanagara district of Karnataka.
    It is 4 km from the Tamil Nadu border and 100 km from Bengaluru.
    The estimated Rs 9,000-crore project, once completed, is aimed at ensuring drinking water to Bengaluru and neighbouring areas (4.75 TMC) and it can also generate 400 MW of power.
    Named after the village where the project is expected to be constructed, the reservoir will have a capacity of 284,000 million cubic feet (TMC).
    The project is proposed at the confluence of Cauvery with its tributary Arkavathi.
    Issue:
    Tamil Nadu — the lower riparian state — has claimed that the project is against the interest of the state’s water requirement.
    The lower riparian state has to give its no-objection for any project that comes up on the Cauvery as per the Cauvery tribunal and Supreme Court order.
    Hence both statements are correct.
43. Question 43 of 100

    43. Question

    With reference to the hematene, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is extracted from naturally occurring hematite.
    (2) It is not capable of withstanding high laser intensities.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Researchers have come up with a new and highly efficient optical limiter using a novel 2D material, ‘hematene’.
    Nanoflakes of a material called hematene extracted from iron ore have been found capable of withstanding and acting as shield from high laser intensities.
    Hence it could be used to make devices called optical limiters that can protect sensitive optical equipment from light-induced damage.
    Radiation from laser sources is highly concentrated and powerful and can be detrimental to sensitive equipment such as sensors, detectors, and other optical devices.
    When the input intensity increases optical limiters control the amount of light that passes through, thereby preventing damage to the optical component.
    These devices are often useful in laser technologies, military, telecommunications, aircrafts, and scientific research in several ways.
    They found that 2D nanoflakes of hematene is capable of withstanding very high laser intensities, and they exhibited excellent optical limiting of green laser light (532 nm) while maintaining a high linear transmission (about 87%) for low-intensity light.
    Key facts about Hematene:
    It is extracted from naturally occurring hematite, the mineral form of iron(III) oxide, using a combination of sonication, centrifugation and vacuum-assisted filtration.
    It measures 3 atoms thick and has a more efficient photocatalysis.
    It is ferromagnetic (the mechanism by which certain materials like iron form permanent magnets, or are attracted to magnets) like a common magnet.
    It is capable of withstanding and acting as shield from high laser intensities.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Researchers have come up with a new and highly efficient optical limiter using a novel 2D material, ‘hematene’.
    Nanoflakes of a material called hematene extracted from iron ore have been found capable of withstanding and acting as shield from high laser intensities.
    Hence it could be used to make devices called optical limiters that can protect sensitive optical equipment from light-induced damage.
    Radiation from laser sources is highly concentrated and powerful and can be detrimental to sensitive equipment such as sensors, detectors, and other optical devices.
    When the input intensity increases optical limiters control the amount of light that passes through, thereby preventing damage to the optical component.
    These devices are often useful in laser technologies, military, telecommunications, aircrafts, and scientific research in several ways.
    They found that 2D nanoflakes of hematene is capable of withstanding very high laser intensities, and they exhibited excellent optical limiting of green laser light (532 nm) while maintaining a high linear transmission (about 87%) for low-intensity light.
    Key facts about Hematene:
    It is extracted from naturally occurring hematite, the mineral form of iron(III) oxide, using a combination of sonication, centrifugation and vacuum-assisted filtration.
    It measures 3 atoms thick and has a more efficient photocatalysis.
    It is ferromagnetic (the mechanism by which certain materials like iron form permanent magnets, or are attracted to magnets) like a common magnet.
    It is capable of withstanding and acting as shield from high laser intensities.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.
44. Question 44 of 100

    44. Question

    Environment Relief Fund is established under which of the following Acts?
    (A) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
    (B) The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
    (C) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
    (D) Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Public Liability Insurance (PLI) Act, 1991 makes it obligatory upon the user industries handling 179 types of chemicals and compounds and other classes of flammable substances to subscribe a special insurance policy to cover the liabilities likely to arise on account of any chemical (industrial) disaster/accident and payable to those affected people who are not the workers on no fault basis‘/ absolute liability‘.
    The Act establishes an Environment Relief Fund (ERF), which is subscribed by all such user industries by an amount equal to the annual premium amount of such insurance policies. In case the amount of relief awarded by the Collector exceeds the amount payable under the insurance policy purchased by the owner or exceeds the liability of the insurance company, ERF is to be utilized for paying claims.

    Unattempted
    

    The Public Liability Insurance (PLI) Act, 1991 makes it obligatory upon the user industries handling 179 types of chemicals and compounds and other classes of flammable substances to subscribe a special insurance policy to cover the liabilities likely to arise on account of any chemical (industrial) disaster/accident and payable to those affected people who are not the workers on no fault basis‘/ absolute liability‘.
    The Act establishes an Environment Relief Fund (ERF), which is subscribed by all such user industries by an amount equal to the annual premium amount of such insurance policies. In case the amount of relief awarded by the Collector exceeds the amount payable under the insurance policy purchased by the owner or exceeds the liability of the insurance company, ERF is to be utilized for paying claims.
45. Question 45 of 100

    45. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding SCORES Platform:
    (1) It is a web based centralized grievance redressal system of RBI.
    (2) It can register complaints related to mutual funds.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A total of 3,079 complaints against companies and market intermediaries have been disposed of through the Securities and Exchange Board of India's (SEBI) SCORES platform recently.
    About SCORES Platform:
    SCORES is a web based centralized grievance redressal system of SEBI that was launched in June 2011.
    SCORES enables investors to lodge and follow up their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from the above website from anywhere.
    This enables the market intermediaries and listed companies to receive the complaints online from investors, redress such complaints and report redressal online.
    All the activities starting from lodging of a complaint till its closure by SEBI would be online in an automated environment and the complainant can view the status of his complaint online.
    What types of complaints can be registered in the SCORE portal?
    According to the regulatory authority, complaints can be lodged on SCORES for any issues covered under the Sebi Act, Securities Contract Regulation Act, Depositories Act, and rules and regulations and provisions of Companies Act, 2013.
    Entities against which complaints are handled by SEBI include:
    Listed companies / registrar & transfer agents
    Brokers / stock exchanges
    Depository participants / depository
    Mutual funds
    Portfolio Managers
    Other entities (KYC Collective investment scheme, Merchant banker, Credit rating, Foreign institutional investor etc)
    What types of complaints cannot be registered in the SCORES portal?
    Bank deposits and banking; fixed deposits with non banking financial companies (NBFCs) and other matters pertaining to NBFCs. – RESERVE BANK OF INDIA (RBI)
    Fixed deposits with manufacturing companies; unlisted companies; mismanagement of companies, financial performance of the company, annual general meeting, annual report, minority shareholders' interest, non-receipt of preferential allotment shares; corporate actions as per the court order, such as mergers, amalgamation, reduction of share capital/par value, etc. – MINISTRY OF CORPORATE AFFAIRS
    Insurance companies / brokers / agents / products and services. – INSURANCE REGULATORY AND DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY ( IRDA)
    Commodities – FORWARD MARKETS COMMISSION
    Pension fund – PENSION FUND REGULATORY AND DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY (PFRDA)
    Monopoly and anti-competitive practices – COMPETITION COMMISSION OF INDIA (CCI)
    Housing finance companies – NATIONAL HOUSING BANK
    Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A total of 3,079 complaints against companies and market intermediaries have been disposed of through the Securities and Exchange Board of India's (SEBI) SCORES platform recently.
    About SCORES Platform:
    SCORES is a web based centralized grievance redressal system of SEBI that was launched in June 2011.
    SCORES enables investors to lodge and follow up their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from the above website from anywhere.
    This enables the market intermediaries and listed companies to receive the complaints online from investors, redress such complaints and report redressal online.
    All the activities starting from lodging of a complaint till its closure by SEBI would be online in an automated environment and the complainant can view the status of his complaint online.
    What types of complaints can be registered in the SCORE portal?
    According to the regulatory authority, complaints can be lodged on SCORES for any issues covered under the Sebi Act, Securities Contract Regulation Act, Depositories Act, and rules and regulations and provisions of Companies Act, 2013.
    Entities against which complaints are handled by SEBI include:
    Listed companies / registrar & transfer agents
    Brokers / stock exchanges
    Depository participants / depository
    Mutual funds
    Portfolio Managers
    Other entities (KYC Collective investment scheme, Merchant banker, Credit rating, Foreign institutional investor etc)
    What types of complaints cannot be registered in the SCORES portal?
    Bank deposits and banking; fixed deposits with non banking financial companies (NBFCs) and other matters pertaining to NBFCs. – RESERVE BANK OF INDIA (RBI)
    Fixed deposits with manufacturing companies; unlisted companies; mismanagement of companies, financial performance of the company, annual general meeting, annual report, minority shareholders' interest, non-receipt of preferential allotment shares; corporate actions as per the court order, such as mergers, amalgamation, reduction of share capital/par value, etc. – MINISTRY OF CORPORATE AFFAIRS
    Insurance companies / brokers / agents / products and services. – INSURANCE REGULATORY AND DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY ( IRDA)
    Commodities – FORWARD MARKETS COMMISSION
    Pension fund – PENSION FUND REGULATORY AND DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY (PFRDA)
    Monopoly and anti-competitive practices – COMPETITION COMMISSION OF INDIA (CCI)
    Housing finance companies – NATIONAL HOUSING BANK
    Hence, only statement 2 is correct.
46. Question 46 of 100

    46. Question

    With reference to the Chemical Weapons Convention, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a multilateral treaty that bans chemical weapons and requires their destruction within a specified period of time.
    (2) India is not a signatory of this convention.
    (3) The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons is the implementing body of this convention.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the United States has destroyed the last of its declared chemical weapons stockpile, a milestone in the history of warfare dating back to the First World War.
    Chemical Weapons Convention is a multilateral treaty that bans chemical weapons and requires their destruction within a specified period of time.
    It entered into force on April 29, 1997.
    It requires states-parties to declare in writing to the OPCW their chemical weapons stockpiles, chemical weapons production facilities (CWPFs), relevant chemical industry facilities, and other weapons-related information.
    The CWC is open to all nations and currently has 193 states-parties.
    India is a signatory and party to the Chemical Weapons Convention.
    It has signed the treaty at Paris on 14th day of January 1993.
    It is pursuant to provisions of the Convention enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000.
    What is Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)?
    It is the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC).
    Mission: To implement the provisions of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) in order to achieve the OPCW’s vision of a world that is free of chemical weapons and of the threat of their use, and in which cooperation in chemistry for peaceful purposes for all is fostered.
    Headquarters: Hague, Netherlands.
    It receives states-parties’ declarations detailing chemical weapons-related activities or materials and relevant industrial activities.
    It is authorized to perform inspections to verify that signatory states are complying with the convention.
    It also performs testing of sites and victims of suspected chemical weapons attacks.
    Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the United States has destroyed the last of its declared chemical weapons stockpile, a milestone in the history of warfare dating back to the First World War.
    Chemical Weapons Convention is a multilateral treaty that bans chemical weapons and requires their destruction within a specified period of time.
    It entered into force on April 29, 1997.
    It requires states-parties to declare in writing to the OPCW their chemical weapons stockpiles, chemical weapons production facilities (CWPFs), relevant chemical industry facilities, and other weapons-related information.
    The CWC is open to all nations and currently has 193 states-parties.
    India is a signatory and party to the Chemical Weapons Convention.
    It has signed the treaty at Paris on 14th day of January 1993.
    It is pursuant to provisions of the Convention enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000.
    What is Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)?
    It is the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC).
    Mission: To implement the provisions of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) in order to achieve the OPCW’s vision of a world that is free of chemical weapons and of the threat of their use, and in which cooperation in chemistry for peaceful purposes for all is fostered.
    Headquarters: Hague, Netherlands.
    It receives states-parties’ declarations detailing chemical weapons-related activities or materials and relevant industrial activities.
    It is authorized to perform inspections to verify that signatory states are complying with the convention.
    It also performs testing of sites and victims of suspected chemical weapons attacks.
    Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
47. Question 47 of 100

    47. Question

    Which of the following can reduce the deficit in Balance of Payments?
    (1) Reducing import custom duties
    (2) Restrictive monetary policy
    (3) Appreciation of domestic currency
    Select the correct answer using the code given below
    (A) 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Reducing import custom duties increase import inflows and restrictive monetary policy reduces the export potential due to reduced economic activities.

    Unattempted
    

    Reducing import custom duties increase import inflows and restrictive monetary policy reduces the export potential due to reduced economic activities.
48. Question 48 of 100

    48. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to Foreign Currency Non Resident (Bank) Account :
    (1) It can be opened by the Non resident Indians and Overseas Corporate Bodies.
    (2) It can be opened as both savings as well as fixed deposit accounts.
    (3) The deposits in these accounts are included in India’s External debt.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Foreign Currency Non Resident (Bank) Accounts (FCNRb) ) accounts are term deposit accounts that can be opened by Non Resident Indians (NRIs) and Overseas Corporate Bodies (but not by resident Indians). Deposits of funds are allowed in different currencies including Pound Sterling, US Dollar, Japanese Yen and Euro. Repatriation of fund in FCNRb) accounts is permitted) Hence, these deposits are included in India‘s outstanding External debt. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
    FCNRs are not savings accounts but fixed deposit accounts. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Foreign Currency Non Resident (Bank) Accounts (FCNRb) ) accounts are term deposit accounts that can be opened by Non Resident Indians (NRIs) and Overseas Corporate Bodies (but not by resident Indians). Deposits of funds are allowed in different currencies including Pound Sterling, US Dollar, Japanese Yen and Euro. Repatriation of fund in FCNRb) accounts is permitted) Hence, these deposits are included in India‘s outstanding External debt. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
    FCNRs are not savings accounts but fixed deposit accounts. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
49. Question 49 of 100

    49. Question

    Consider the following statements about Green Sea Turtles:
    (1) They are herbivore species as they graze on seagrasses and algae.
    (2) They are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters.
    (3) They are given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The green turtle is one of the largest sea turtles and the only herbivore among the different species. Green turtles are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters. They are classified as endangered species in IUCN red list data as they are threatened by overharvesting of their eggs, hunting of adults, being caught in fishing gear and loss of nesting beach sites.
    These turtles graze on seagrasses and algae, which maintains the seagrass beds and makes them more productive. Seagrass consumed by green turtles is quickly digested and becomes available as recycled nutrients to the many species of plants and animals that live in the seagrass ecosystem. Green turtle feeding grounds seagrass beds are also at risk from coastal development onshore, which leads to pollution and sedimentation in the nearby waters. They are also given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
    Hence, all the statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The green turtle is one of the largest sea turtles and the only herbivore among the different species. Green turtles are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters. They are classified as endangered species in IUCN red list data as they are threatened by overharvesting of their eggs, hunting of adults, being caught in fishing gear and loss of nesting beach sites.
    These turtles graze on seagrasses and algae, which maintains the seagrass beds and makes them more productive. Seagrass consumed by green turtles is quickly digested and becomes available as recycled nutrients to the many species of plants and animals that live in the seagrass ecosystem. Green turtle feeding grounds seagrass beds are also at risk from coastal development onshore, which leads to pollution and sedimentation in the nearby waters. They are also given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
    Hence, all the statements are correct.
50. Question 50 of 100

    50. Question

    How many of the following is/are the causes of the Maratha defeat and victory of Ahmad Shah Abdali in the third battle of Panipat?
    (1) Ahmad Shah's forces outnumbered the forces under the command of the Marathas.
    (2) Near famine conditions prevailed in the Maratha camp at Panipat.
    (3) Absence of support to the Marathas by the other powers of northern India.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The third battle of Panipat took place on 14 January, 1761 between the Marathas under Sadashiv Rao Bhau and the Afghans under Ahmad Shah Abdali. The Afghan victory was complete and the Maratha casualties were very heavy, estimated at 75,000. A number of factors were responsible for the defeat of the Marathas and victory of Ahmad Shah Abdali:
    (1) Abdali's forces outnumbered the forces under the command of Bhauji. Abdali's army has been estimated at 60,000 while the Maratha combatants did not exceed 45,000.
    (2) Near famine conditions prevailed in the Maratha camp at Panipat. The road to Delhi was cut off. There was no food for men and no fodder for the horses. On the other hand, the Afghans kept their supply lines open with the Doab and the Delhi region. In fact, famine conditions in the Maratha camp compelled Bhau to precipitate the action of attack.
    (3) While all the Muslim powers of Northern India rallied to the side of Abdali, the Marathas had to fight alone. The overbearing attitude of the Marathas and their policy of indiscriminate plunder had estranged not only the Muslim powers but the Hindu powers like the Jats and the Rajputs. Even the Sikhs, the deadly enemies of the Afghans, did not help the Marathas.
    The other factors were the existence of mutual jealousies among the Maratha chiefs, the strict discipline of the better equipped Abdali's army and the overconfidence of Sadashiv Rao Bhau.

    Unattempted
    

    The third battle of Panipat took place on 14 January, 1761 between the Marathas under Sadashiv Rao Bhau and the Afghans under Ahmad Shah Abdali. The Afghan victory was complete and the Maratha casualties were very heavy, estimated at 75,000. A number of factors were responsible for the defeat of the Marathas and victory of Ahmad Shah Abdali:
    (1) Abdali's forces outnumbered the forces under the command of Bhauji. Abdali's army has been estimated at 60,000 while the Maratha combatants did not exceed 45,000.
    (2) Near famine conditions prevailed in the Maratha camp at Panipat. The road to Delhi was cut off. There was no food for men and no fodder for the horses. On the other hand, the Afghans kept their supply lines open with the Doab and the Delhi region. In fact, famine conditions in the Maratha camp compelled Bhau to precipitate the action of attack.
    (3) While all the Muslim powers of Northern India rallied to the side of Abdali, the Marathas had to fight alone. The overbearing attitude of the Marathas and their policy of indiscriminate plunder had estranged not only the Muslim powers but the Hindu powers like the Jats and the Rajputs. Even the Sikhs, the deadly enemies of the Afghans, did not help the Marathas.
    The other factors were the existence of mutual jealousies among the Maratha chiefs, the strict discipline of the better equipped Abdali's army and the overconfidence of Sadashiv Rao Bhau.
51. Question 51 of 100

    51. Question

    With reference to the 'August offer' and the 'Cripps Mission' proposals, consider the following statements:
    (1) The Cripps Mission promised Dominion status for India after the second World War while the August Offer was silent on this issue.
    (2) Both held that the making of a new Constitution would be solely in Indian hands.
    (3) Both were made during the Prime Ministership of Winston Churchill.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In August 1940, the Viceroy Lord Linlithgow announced an offer (“August Offer”) which proposed, among other things, the expansion of the Governor-General's Council with representation of the Indians, and the establishment of a War Advisory Council. The August Offer marked an important advance over the existing scheme of things, as it recognised the natural right of the people of India to determine the form of their future Constitution, and explicitly promised dominion Status.
    Due to Japanese advancement in the second world war and international pressure to seek an amicable settlement with India and obtain her active support in the war, Sir Strafford Cripps landed in India in 1942 with a set of proposals and negotiated with leaders of various political parties. The main feature of the Cripps Mission was that it provided for dominion status with the right of secession for the provinces. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Cripps Mission made a notable advance over the August offer as it granted that the making of the new Constitution would be solely in Indian hands (instead of only mainly in Indian hands as per the August Offer). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Winston Churchill was Prime Minister of Britain from 10 May,1940 to 26 July,1945. Thus, both the August offer and the Cripps Mission proposals were made during his term in office. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    In August 1940, the Viceroy Lord Linlithgow announced an offer (“August Offer”) which proposed, among other things, the expansion of the Governor-General's Council with representation of the Indians, and the establishment of a War Advisory Council. The August Offer marked an important advance over the existing scheme of things, as it recognised the natural right of the people of India to determine the form of their future Constitution, and explicitly promised dominion Status.
    Due to Japanese advancement in the second world war and international pressure to seek an amicable settlement with India and obtain her active support in the war, Sir Strafford Cripps landed in India in 1942 with a set of proposals and negotiated with leaders of various political parties. The main feature of the Cripps Mission was that it provided for dominion status with the right of secession for the provinces. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Cripps Mission made a notable advance over the August offer as it granted that the making of the new Constitution would be solely in Indian hands (instead of only mainly in Indian hands as per the August Offer). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Winston Churchill was Prime Minister of Britain from 10 May,1940 to 26 July,1945. Thus, both the August offer and the Cripps Mission proposals were made during his term in office. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
52. Question 52 of 100

    52. Question

    With reference to the Black Sea, consider the following:
    (1) Ukraine
    (2) Russia
    (3) Turkey
    (4) Romania
    (5) Greece
    How many of the above countries border the black sea?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only four
    (C) All
    (D) Only three

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Russia recently warned that ships sailing to Ukraine's Black Sea ports will be seen as potential military targets.
    About Black Sea:It is a large inland sea located in southeastern Europe.
    Bordering countries: It is bordered by six countries, Ukraine to the north, Russia to the northeast, Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, Bulgaria to the southwest, and Romania to the west.
    It is connected to the Mediterranean Sea through the Bosporus Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Dardanelles Strait.
    It covers an area of approximately 436,000 square kilometers (168,000 square miles).
    The Black Sea receives freshwater inflows all around the basin, but the important ones (Danube, Dniepr and Dniestr) discharge into the north-western coastal waters.
    Limited Oxygen Levels:
    The Black Sea's deeper waters have lower levels of oxygen due to its unique geological and hydrological conditions.
    The lack of oxygen in the lower layers creates a distinct environment, and it is one of the world's largest anoxic basins, meaning it has areas with very little dissolved oxygen.
    Islands: It contains several islands, with the largest ones being Snake Island (Ukraine), Giresun Island (Turkey) and St. Ivan Island (Bulgaria).
    Hence, only options 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Russia recently warned that ships sailing to Ukraine's Black Sea ports will be seen as potential military targets.
    About Black Sea:It is a large inland sea located in southeastern Europe.
    Bordering countries: It is bordered by six countries, Ukraine to the north, Russia to the northeast, Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, Bulgaria to the southwest, and Romania to the west.
    It is connected to the Mediterranean Sea through the Bosporus Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Dardanelles Strait.
    It covers an area of approximately 436,000 square kilometers (168,000 square miles).
    The Black Sea receives freshwater inflows all around the basin, but the important ones (Danube, Dniepr and Dniestr) discharge into the north-western coastal waters.
    Limited Oxygen Levels:
    The Black Sea's deeper waters have lower levels of oxygen due to its unique geological and hydrological conditions.
    The lack of oxygen in the lower layers creates a distinct environment, and it is one of the world's largest anoxic basins, meaning it has areas with very little dissolved oxygen.
    Islands: It contains several islands, with the largest ones being Snake Island (Ukraine), Giresun Island (Turkey) and St. Ivan Island (Bulgaria).
    Hence, only options 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
53. Question 53 of 100

    53. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Rule 267 in Rajya Sabha:
    (1) Under Rule 267, Rajya Sabha MPs can submit a written notice to suspend all listed business in the House and discuss an issue of public importance.
    (2) It is the discretion of the Chairman to decide whether to allow a motion under Rule 267.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Opposition parties in Rajya Sabha recently gave notices under Rule 267 to discuss the Manipur matter.
    About Rule 267:
    According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), Rule 267 relates to the suspension of rules.
    It says, “Any member may, with the consent of the Chairman, move that any rule may be suspended in its application to a motion related to the business listed before the Council of that day, and if the motion is carried, the rule in question shall be suspended for the time being; provided further that this rule shall not apply where specific provision already exists for suspension of a rule under a particular chapter of the Rules.”
    Simply put, under Rule 267, Rajya Sabha MPs can submit a written notice to suspend all listed business in the House and discuss an issue of importance that the country is facing.
    A motion under Rule 267 indicates that a matter was serious enough for the House to suspend its normal business to take it up.
    The rule further says, “The Chairman alone has the power to give consent for moving of a motion for suspension of a rule, and it is for the House to decide whether a particular rule should be suspended or not.”
    Thus, it is the discretion of the Chairman to decide whether to allow a motion under Rule 267, as it states that “the consent of the Chairman” is required for a member to bring such a motion.
    However, this rule does not apply where specific provisions already exist for the suspension of a rule under a particular chapter of the rules.
    Who can issue Rule 267?
    Any member of the Rajya Sabha can issue a notice to the Chairperson for a discussion on any subject under Rule 267.
    When was Rule 267 last invoked?
    The last time it was used was in November 2016, when the Upper House invoked Rule 267 to discuss demonetisation.
    Hence both statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Opposition parties in Rajya Sabha recently gave notices under Rule 267 to discuss the Manipur matter.
    About Rule 267:
    According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), Rule 267 relates to the suspension of rules.
    It says, “Any member may, with the consent of the Chairman, move that any rule may be suspended in its application to a motion related to the business listed before the Council of that day, and if the motion is carried, the rule in question shall be suspended for the time being; provided further that this rule shall not apply where specific provision already exists for suspension of a rule under a particular chapter of the Rules.”
    Simply put, under Rule 267, Rajya Sabha MPs can submit a written notice to suspend all listed business in the House and discuss an issue of importance that the country is facing.
    A motion under Rule 267 indicates that a matter was serious enough for the House to suspend its normal business to take it up.
    The rule further says, “The Chairman alone has the power to give consent for moving of a motion for suspension of a rule, and it is for the House to decide whether a particular rule should be suspended or not.”
    Thus, it is the discretion of the Chairman to decide whether to allow a motion under Rule 267, as it states that “the consent of the Chairman” is required for a member to bring such a motion.
    However, this rule does not apply where specific provisions already exist for the suspension of a rule under a particular chapter of the rules.
    Who can issue Rule 267?
    Any member of the Rajya Sabha can issue a notice to the Chairperson for a discussion on any subject under Rule 267.
    When was Rule 267 last invoked?
    The last time it was used was in November 2016, when the Upper House invoked Rule 267 to discuss demonetisation.
    Hence both statements are correct.
54. Question 54 of 100

    54. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Tornado :
    (1) It is a rapidly rotating column of air that is in contact with ground.
    (2) It forms from the energy released in a thunderstorm.
    (3) Tornadoes more frequently occur in equatorial regions.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A tornado is a narrow, violently rotating column of air that extends from the base of a thunderstorm to the ground. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Because wind is invisible, it is hard to see a tornado unless it forms a condensation funnel made up of water droplets, dust and debris. Tornadoes are the most violent of all atmospheric storms.
    Tornadoes come from the energy released in a thunderstorm. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    As powerful as they are, tornadoes account for only a tiny fraction of the energy in a thunderstorm. What makes them dangerous is that their energy is concentrated in a small area, perhaps only a hundred yards across.
    Tornadoes generally occur in middle latitudes. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    A tornado is a narrow, violently rotating column of air that extends from the base of a thunderstorm to the ground. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Because wind is invisible, it is hard to see a tornado unless it forms a condensation funnel made up of water droplets, dust and debris. Tornadoes are the most violent of all atmospheric storms.
    Tornadoes come from the energy released in a thunderstorm. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    As powerful as they are, tornadoes account for only a tiny fraction of the energy in a thunderstorm. What makes them dangerous is that their energy is concentrated in a small area, perhaps only a hundred yards across.
    Tornadoes generally occur in middle latitudes. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
55. Question 55 of 100

    55. Question

    Consider the following:
    Metal: Pathological effects
    (1) Mercury:Haemolysis
    (2) Arsenic:Lung Cancer
    (3) Cadmium:Bone deformation
    How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    MetalPathological effects
    (1) Mercury -Haemolysis , abdominal pain , Minamata disease
    (2) Lead -Damage of brain , live and kidney,anaemia etc
    (3) Arsenic -Lung Cancer, ulcer in gastrointestinal tract, mental depression etc
    (4) Cadmium -Bone deformation, growth retardation, hypertension, anaemia etc
    (5) Copper -Hypertension , sporadic fever, coma, uremia etc
    (6) Zinc -Vomiting, cramps, renal damage etc
    (7) Chromium -Diseases of central nervous system, nephritis etc
    (8) Cobalt -Low blood pressure, bone deformities, paralysis etc.

    Unattempted
    

    MetalPathological effects
    (1) Mercury -Haemolysis , abdominal pain , Minamata disease
    (2) Lead -Damage of brain , live and kidney,anaemia etc
    (3) Arsenic -Lung Cancer, ulcer in gastrointestinal tract, mental depression etc
    (4) Cadmium -Bone deformation, growth retardation, hypertension, anaemia etc
    (5) Copper -Hypertension , sporadic fever, coma, uremia etc
    (6) Zinc -Vomiting, cramps, renal damage etc
    (7) Chromium -Diseases of central nervous system, nephritis etc
    (8) Cobalt -Low blood pressure, bone deformities, paralysis etc.
56. Question 56 of 100

    56. Question

    With reference to the Solar flare, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is magnetic plasma ejected at great speed from the solar surface.
    (2) These are very helpful for astronauts and radio communications.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the Sun emitted X-class solar flares which disrupted radio communications over parts of the United States and the Pacific Ocean.
    What is it? These are magnetic plasma ejected at great speed from the solar surface.
    They occur during the release of magnetic energy associated with sunspots (‘dark’ regions on the Sun that are cooler than the surrounding photosphere), and can last for a few minutes or hours.
    These flares can be divided into various categories based on their brightness in X-ray wavelengths
    There are five different classes of solar flares: A, B, C, M, and X.
    Each class is at least ten times more potent than the one before it.
    X-class flares are large and M-class are medium-sized flares typically result in brief radio blackouts that affect the Earth’s Polar Regions.
    C-class flares are slight and have little effect on the Earth.
    Impact of Solar Flares on Earth
    The energy particles released by solar flares into space impact the ionosphere and radio communications at the Earth.
    They can even affect power grids and navigation signals and endanger astronauts and spacecraft.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the Sun emitted X-class solar flares which disrupted radio communications over parts of the United States and the Pacific Ocean.
    What is it? These are magnetic plasma ejected at great speed from the solar surface.
    They occur during the release of magnetic energy associated with sunspots (‘dark’ regions on the Sun that are cooler than the surrounding photosphere), and can last for a few minutes or hours.
    These flares can be divided into various categories based on their brightness in X-ray wavelengths
    There are five different classes of solar flares: A, B, C, M, and X.
    Each class is at least ten times more potent than the one before it.
    X-class flares are large and M-class are medium-sized flares typically result in brief radio blackouts that affect the Earth’s Polar Regions.
    C-class flares are slight and have little effect on the Earth.
    Impact of Solar Flares on Earth
    The energy particles released by solar flares into space impact the ionosphere and radio communications at the Earth.
    They can even affect power grids and navigation signals and endanger astronauts and spacecraft.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.
57. Question 57 of 100

    57. Question

    With reference to Candida auris, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a multi-drug resistant bacteria which is capable of causing invasive infections.
    (2) It can be spread through contact with contaminated surfaces.
    (3) The infected person is often treated with combination therapies.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, scientists from Delhi University and McMaster University in Canada have made a significant discovery by isolating and studying the first live culture of Candida auris from the ear canals of stray dogs in Delhi.
    It is a multi-drug resistant fungus that is capable of causing invasive infections in the human body.
    It was first identified in Japan in 2009
    The fungus has been reported in more than 40 countries, including the United States, United Kingdom, South Africa, and Australia.
    How is it contracted?
    It is primarily contracted in healthcare settings such as hospitals and nursing homes.
    It is generally thought to be spread through contact with contaminated surfaces or by person-to-person transmission.
    The fungus can either colonize a specific region of the body, such as the skin, rectum, or mouth, without causing symptoms or it can cause severe invasive infections by entering the bloodstream or wounds.
    Symptoms
    Its symptoms are often similar to those of other common diseases, such as fever and chills that do not go away after treatment with antibiotics.
    Treatment
    It is resistance to multiple classes of antifungal drugs.
    This makes treatment challenging and often requires the use of combination therapies.
    Antifungal drugs called echinocandins are used to treat this infection;
    Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, scientists from Delhi University and McMaster University in Canada have made a significant discovery by isolating and studying the first live culture of Candida auris from the ear canals of stray dogs in Delhi.
    It is a multi-drug resistant fungus that is capable of causing invasive infections in the human body.
    It was first identified in Japan in 2009
    The fungus has been reported in more than 40 countries, including the United States, United Kingdom, South Africa, and Australia.
    How is it contracted?
    It is primarily contracted in healthcare settings such as hospitals and nursing homes.
    It is generally thought to be spread through contact with contaminated surfaces or by person-to-person transmission.
    The fungus can either colonize a specific region of the body, such as the skin, rectum, or mouth, without causing symptoms or it can cause severe invasive infections by entering the bloodstream or wounds.
    Symptoms
    Its symptoms are often similar to those of other common diseases, such as fever and chills that do not go away after treatment with antibiotics.
    Treatment
    It is resistance to multiple classes of antifungal drugs.
    This makes treatment challenging and often requires the use of combination therapies.
    Antifungal drugs called echinocandins are used to treat this infection;
    Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
58. Question 58 of 100

    58. Question

    Consider the locations of the following hills in India:
    (1) Satmala hills
    (2) Rajmahal hills
    (3) Maikala hills
    (4) Ramgarh hills
    Which of the following is the correct sequence of above hills from east to west?
    (A) 2-4-3-1
    (B) 3-4-2-1
    (C) 1-2-4-3
    (D) 2-1-3-4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The correct sequence of hills from east to west is Rajmahal (located in Jharkhand ), Ramgarh (located in Chhattisgarh), Maikala (located in on the western boarder of Chhattisgarh and eastern border of Madhya Pradesh), Satmala Hills (Nasik, Maharashtra).

    Unattempted
    

    The correct sequence of hills from east to west is Rajmahal (located in Jharkhand ), Ramgarh (located in Chhattisgarh), Maikala (located in on the western boarder of Chhattisgarh and eastern border of Madhya Pradesh), Satmala Hills (Nasik, Maharashtra).
59. Question 59 of 100

    59. Question

    If you want to see Barasingha (swamp deer) in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best national park to visit?
    (A) Gir National Park
    (B) Pin Valley National Park
    (C) Keibul Lamjao National Park
    (D) Kanha National Park

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Kanha is National Park as well as Tiger Reserve located in the Mandla and Balaghat districts of Madhya Pradesh. It is renowned world-wide for the conservation of some of the most iconic wildlife species and significant habitat types.The Park is respected globally for saving the Barasingha (swamp deer) from near extinction. This species is listed as vulnerable in IUCN red list because of its habitat loss. Kanha National Park very well support its habitat as the deer inhabit flooded tall grasses and swamp area.

    Unattempted
    

    Kanha is National Park as well as Tiger Reserve located in the Mandla and Balaghat districts of Madhya Pradesh. It is renowned world-wide for the conservation of some of the most iconic wildlife species and significant habitat types.The Park is respected globally for saving the Barasingha (swamp deer) from near extinction. This species is listed as vulnerable in IUCN red list because of its habitat loss. Kanha National Park very well support its habitat as the deer inhabit flooded tall grasses and swamp area.
60. Question 60 of 100

    60. Question

    'Permaculture', a term often seen in news, pertains to:
    (A) cropping and vegetation in permafrost regions.
    (B) ex-situ growth of organisms facilitated in a semi-solid medium.
    (C) a bioremediation technique to remove oil spills.
    (D) development of sustainable agricultural ecosystems.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Permaculture is the development of agricultural ecosystems intended to be sustainable and self- sufficient. It emphasises traditional and new practices in which all the input is produced by the farm itself, resulting in food self-sufficiency. It originated as a design science for small-scale farmers to create quantity produce, ease their work and also to address environmental degradation. Although permaculture is growing rapidly in India, the average villager‘s reluctance to try different foods and habits slows down the movement. For example, only a few varieties of vegetables are consumed in areas even when a huge diversity is feasible.

    Unattempted
    

    Permaculture is the development of agricultural ecosystems intended to be sustainable and self- sufficient. It emphasises traditional and new practices in which all the input is produced by the farm itself, resulting in food self-sufficiency. It originated as a design science for small-scale farmers to create quantity produce, ease their work and also to address environmental degradation. Although permaculture is growing rapidly in India, the average villager‘s reluctance to try different foods and habits slows down the movement. For example, only a few varieties of vegetables are consumed in areas even when a huge diversity is feasible.
61. Question 61 of 100

    61. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to 'Patlands' in India :
    (1) They are a series of lava capped step like sub-plateaus in central and eastern India.
    (2) They have rich deposits of Bauxite mineral.
    (3) Chhotanagpur plateau, located in the northeast part of the Peninsular plateau, is known as Pat lands.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Patlands consists of series of step like sub-plateaus which are lava capped in central and eastern India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Chotanagpur plateau is famous as the Patland plateau and known as Ruhr of India due to large mineral deposits.
    Bauxite is the ore which is used in manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.
    The patlands of Jharkhand in Lohardaga have rich deposits of Bauxite mineral. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Chhotanagpur plateau, located in the northeast part of the Peninsular plateau, is known as Pat lands. It includes Jharkhand, parts of Chhattisgarh, and West Bengal. This plateau consists of a series of step-like sub-plateaus, locally known as Patlands or high-level plateaus. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Patlands consists of series of step like sub-plateaus which are lava capped in central and eastern India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The Chotanagpur plateau is famous as the Patland plateau and known as Ruhr of India due to large mineral deposits.
    Bauxite is the ore which is used in manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.
    The patlands of Jharkhand in Lohardaga have rich deposits of Bauxite mineral. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Chhotanagpur plateau, located in the northeast part of the Peninsular plateau, is known as Pat lands. It includes Jharkhand, parts of Chhattisgarh, and West Bengal. This plateau consists of a series of step-like sub-plateaus, locally known as Patlands or high-level plateaus. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
62. Question 62 of 100

    62. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Nallamala Forest:
    (1) It is one of the largest stretches of undisturbed forest in Western Ghats.
    (2) It lies south of the Krishna river.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    While forest officials are attempting to ensure privacy and protection for tigers in the Nallamala forest areas to safeguard their reproductive cycle.
    About Nallamala Forest:
    It is one of the largest stretches of undisturbed forest in South India, apart from the Western Ghats.
    Location:
    It is spread over five districts in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
    It is located in Nallamala Hills, which is a part of the Eastern Ghats.
    It lies south of the Krishna river.
    The forest has a good tiger population, and a part of the forest belongs to the Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, the largest tiger reserve in the country.
    Climate:
    It has a warm to hot climate throughout the year, with summer especially hot and winters mostly cool and dry.
    It gets most of its rain during the South West monsoon.
    Vegetation: Tropical dry deciduous.
    Flora: It harbors endemic species like Andrographis nallamalayana, Eriolaena lushingtonii, Crotalaria madurensis var, Dicliptera beddomei and premna hamitonii.
    Fauna: It is home to as many as 700 species of animals besides tigers, leopards, such as black buck, wild hog, peacock, pangolin, Indian Python and King Cobras and several rare bird species.
    Hence only statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    While forest officials are attempting to ensure privacy and protection for tigers in the Nallamala forest areas to safeguard their reproductive cycle.
    About Nallamala Forest:
    It is one of the largest stretches of undisturbed forest in South India, apart from the Western Ghats.
    Location:
    It is spread over five districts in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
    It is located in Nallamala Hills, which is a part of the Eastern Ghats.
    It lies south of the Krishna river.
    The forest has a good tiger population, and a part of the forest belongs to the Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, the largest tiger reserve in the country.
    Climate:
    It has a warm to hot climate throughout the year, with summer especially hot and winters mostly cool and dry.
    It gets most of its rain during the South West monsoon.
    Vegetation: Tropical dry deciduous.
    Flora: It harbors endemic species like Andrographis nallamalayana, Eriolaena lushingtonii, Crotalaria madurensis var, Dicliptera beddomei and premna hamitonii.
    Fauna: It is home to as many as 700 species of animals besides tigers, leopards, such as black buck, wild hog, peacock, pangolin, Indian Python and King Cobras and several rare bird species.
    Hence only statement 2 is correct.
63. Question 63 of 100

    63. Question

    Which one of the following countries do not have a border with Belarus?
    (A) Russia
    (B) Ukraine
    (C) Lithuania
    (D) Romania

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Belarusian embassy in the Netherlands was reportedly vandalized recently.
    About Belarus:
    It is a landlocked country of eastern Europe.
    Bordering countries: It borders Russia to the northeast, Ukraine to the south, Poland to the west, and Lithuania and Latvia to the northwest.
    The capital and largest city is Minsk.
    Languages:
    Spoken languages are Belarusian (official) 24%, but 70% speak Russian (official).
    Ethnic Belarusians, who speak a language closely related to Russian and Ukrainian, make up more than three-quarters of the population.
    Relief:
    Much of the country consists of flat lowlands separated by low level-topped hills and uplands.
    About 40% of the country is forested; Białowieża Forest is one of the last and largest remaining parts of the immense primeval forest that once stretched across the European plain.
    Rivers:
    The greater part of the republic lies in the basin of the Dnieper—which flows across Belarus from north to south on its way to the Black Sea.
    The extreme southwestern corner of Belarus is drained by the Mukhavyets, a tributary of the Bug (Buh) River, which forms part of the border with Poland and flows to the Baltic Sea.
    Climate: It has a cool continental climate moderated by maritime influences from the Atlantic Ocean.
    Until it became independent in 1991, Belarus, formerly known as Belorussia or White Russia, was the smallest of the three Slavic republics included in the Soviet Union (the larger two being Russia and Ukraine).

    Unattempted
    

    Belarusian embassy in the Netherlands was reportedly vandalized recently.
    About Belarus:
    It is a landlocked country of eastern Europe.
    Bordering countries: It borders Russia to the northeast, Ukraine to the south, Poland to the west, and Lithuania and Latvia to the northwest.
    The capital and largest city is Minsk.
    Languages:
    Spoken languages are Belarusian (official) 24%, but 70% speak Russian (official).
    Ethnic Belarusians, who speak a language closely related to Russian and Ukrainian, make up more than three-quarters of the population.
    Relief:
    Much of the country consists of flat lowlands separated by low level-topped hills and uplands.
    About 40% of the country is forested; Białowieża Forest is one of the last and largest remaining parts of the immense primeval forest that once stretched across the European plain.
    Rivers:
    The greater part of the republic lies in the basin of the Dnieper—which flows across Belarus from north to south on its way to the Black Sea.
    The extreme southwestern corner of Belarus is drained by the Mukhavyets, a tributary of the Bug (Buh) River, which forms part of the border with Poland and flows to the Baltic Sea.
    Climate: It has a cool continental climate moderated by maritime influences from the Atlantic Ocean.
    Until it became independent in 1991, Belarus, formerly known as Belorussia or White Russia, was the smallest of the three Slavic republics included in the Soviet Union (the larger two being Russia and Ukraine).
64. Question 64 of 100

    64. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding India Climate Energy Dashboard (ICED) 3.0:
    (1) It is the country’s one-stop platform for near real-time data on the energy sector, climate, and related economic datasets based on government published sources.
    (2) It was developed by the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) in collaboration with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    NITI Aayog recently launched India Climate Energy Dashboard (ICED) 3.0.
    About India Climate Energy Dashboard (ICED) 3.0:
    It is the country’s one-stop platform for near real-time data on the energy sector, climate, and related economic datasets based on government published sources.
    It was developed by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the energy and climate think-tank Vasudha Foundation.
    Features:
    Developed as a user-friendly platform, ICED 3.0 enables users to freely access and analyse datasets using an analytical engine.
    It will facilitate insights and enhance understanding about the energy and climate sectors while identifying the key challenges.
    The Portal will draw insights from the available data parameters and hence immensely useful in monitoring the progress of India's clean energy transition journey.
    This dashboard offers more than 500 parameters, over 2000 infographics, and a number of interactive visualizations, allowing users to gain a holistic understanding of India's energy sector.
    Besides energy and climate, the dashboard also offers information on economy and demography for comparative study and its combined analysis along with the energy and climate issues.
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    NITI Aayog recently launched India Climate Energy Dashboard (ICED) 3.0.
    About India Climate Energy Dashboard (ICED) 3.0:
    It is the country’s one-stop platform for near real-time data on the energy sector, climate, and related economic datasets based on government published sources.
    It was developed by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the energy and climate think-tank Vasudha Foundation.
    Features:
    Developed as a user-friendly platform, ICED 3.0 enables users to freely access and analyse datasets using an analytical engine.
    It will facilitate insights and enhance understanding about the energy and climate sectors while identifying the key challenges.
    The Portal will draw insights from the available data parameters and hence immensely useful in monitoring the progress of India's clean energy transition journey.
    This dashboard offers more than 500 parameters, over 2000 infographics, and a number of interactive visualizations, allowing users to gain a holistic understanding of India's energy sector.
    Besides energy and climate, the dashboard also offers information on economy and demography for comparative study and its combined analysis along with the energy and climate issues.
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
65. Question 65 of 100

    65. Question

    With reference to the Credit Guarantee Scheme for livestock sector, consider the following statements:
    (1) This scheme targets first-generation entrepreneurs and underprivileged individuals.
    (2) The Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying has set up a credit guarantee fund trust of Rs 7500 crore.
    (3) The credit guarantee fund cover up to 25 per cent of credit facilities extended to eligible MSMEs by lending institutions.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying (DAHD) has introduced the ‘Credit Guarantee Scheme’ under the Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF) to support the Livestock sector's Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
    It aims to strengthen the credit delivery system and ensure smooth access to finance for entrepreneurs engaged in the Livestock sector.
    Objective:
    The main objective is to encourage lenders to focus on the viability of projects and provide credit facilities based on the primary security of the assets being financed.
    By providing access to financial assistance, it promotes investments in various areas of the livestock sector, such as dairy and meat processing, animal feed plants, breed improvement technology, waste management, and veterinary vaccine and drug manufacturing facilities.
    Funding
    The DAHD has set up a credit guarantee fund trust of Rs 750 crore, which will cover up to 25 per cent of credit facilities extended to eligible MSMEs by lending institutions.
    The trust, formed in partnership with NAB Sanrakshan Trustee Company Private Ltd, a subsidiary of NABARD, ensures credit guarantee for MSMEs under the AHIDF scheme.
    Key features include:
    Interest subvention of three per cent
    Loan of up to 90 per cent of the total project cost from any Scheduled Bank, National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC).
    Who is eligible for the scheme?
    The scheme targets underserved sections of society, including first-generation entrepreneurs and underprivileged individuals, who often lack collateral security for their ventures.
    Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying (DAHD) has introduced the ‘Credit Guarantee Scheme’ under the Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF) to support the Livestock sector's Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
    It aims to strengthen the credit delivery system and ensure smooth access to finance for entrepreneurs engaged in the Livestock sector.
    Objective:
    The main objective is to encourage lenders to focus on the viability of projects and provide credit facilities based on the primary security of the assets being financed.
    By providing access to financial assistance, it promotes investments in various areas of the livestock sector, such as dairy and meat processing, animal feed plants, breed improvement technology, waste management, and veterinary vaccine and drug manufacturing facilities.
    Funding
    The DAHD has set up a credit guarantee fund trust of Rs 750 crore, which will cover up to 25 per cent of credit facilities extended to eligible MSMEs by lending institutions.
    The trust, formed in partnership with NAB Sanrakshan Trustee Company Private Ltd, a subsidiary of NABARD, ensures credit guarantee for MSMEs under the AHIDF scheme.
    Key features include:
    Interest subvention of three per cent
    Loan of up to 90 per cent of the total project cost from any Scheduled Bank, National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC).
    Who is eligible for the scheme?
    The scheme targets underserved sections of society, including first-generation entrepreneurs and underprivileged individuals, who often lack collateral security for their ventures.
    Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
66. Question 66 of 100

    66. Question

    With reference to Kuchipudi, consider the following statements:
    (1) It emerged out of a long rich tradition of dance-drama.
    (2) It’s based on the themes of Bhagvat Purana.
    (3) “Tarangam” is a unique feature of this dance form.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Kuchipudi is one of the classical styles of Indian dance. Around the third and fourth decade of this century it emerged out of a long rich tradition of dance-drama enacted by Brahmins in temples. It was traditionally a male preserve.
    Under the impact of Vaishnavism, the themes began to be based on the Bhagvat Purana.
    The dance is named after the village of its birth, Kuchelapuram or Kuseelavapuri in Andhra Pradesh. The Kuseelavas (or Kuchigallu) were groups of actors going from village to village. Kuchipudi is the colloquial form of the Sanskrit term 'Kuseelavapuri'.
    The Vijayanagara kings patronized the dance form as did the Galconda rulers after them.
    In Kuchipudi, one can witness acting and also another thing that keeps it apart from others is the occasional use of dialogues. Dialogues are something that no other classical dance form of India is based on.
    The “Tarangam”, is another unique feature of Kuchipudi. In this, a dancer dances on the edge of a brass plate, matching to the rhythm of music) Sometimes, dancers also balance a pot of water on the head.
    Acrobatic dancing became part of the repertoire.
    The music that accompanies the dance is according to the classical school of Carnatic music and is delightfully syncopatic) The accompanying musicians, besides the vocalist are: a mridangam player to provide percussion music, a violin or veena player or both for providing instrumental melodic music, and a cymbal player who usually conducts the orchestra and recites the sollukattus(mnemonic rhythm syllables).

    Unattempted
    

    Kuchipudi is one of the classical styles of Indian dance. Around the third and fourth decade of this century it emerged out of a long rich tradition of dance-drama enacted by Brahmins in temples. It was traditionally a male preserve.
    Under the impact of Vaishnavism, the themes began to be based on the Bhagvat Purana.
    The dance is named after the village of its birth, Kuchelapuram or Kuseelavapuri in Andhra Pradesh. The Kuseelavas (or Kuchigallu) were groups of actors going from village to village. Kuchipudi is the colloquial form of the Sanskrit term 'Kuseelavapuri'.
    The Vijayanagara kings patronized the dance form as did the Galconda rulers after them.
    In Kuchipudi, one can witness acting and also another thing that keeps it apart from others is the occasional use of dialogues. Dialogues are something that no other classical dance form of India is based on.
    The “Tarangam”, is another unique feature of Kuchipudi. In this, a dancer dances on the edge of a brass plate, matching to the rhythm of music) Sometimes, dancers also balance a pot of water on the head.
    Acrobatic dancing became part of the repertoire.
    The music that accompanies the dance is according to the classical school of Carnatic music and is delightfully syncopatic) The accompanying musicians, besides the vocalist are: a mridangam player to provide percussion music, a violin or veena player or both for providing instrumental melodic music, and a cymbal player who usually conducts the orchestra and recites the sollukattus(mnemonic rhythm syllables).
67. Question 67 of 100

    67. Question

    With reference to the cultural history of India, 'Hamzanama' is related to:
    (A) autobiography of Humayun.
    (B) description of Mughal administration.
    (C) collection of miniature paintings.
    (D) royal orders issued by Mughal kings.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Hamzanama is a collection of 1200 miniature paintings and was one of the earliest important commissions by the third Mughal emperor Akbar. It tells the story of the adventures of Amir Hamza, the uncle of the Prophet Muhammad) These were painted on cotton cloth rather than paper. In this miniature one can observe that the architecture is Indo-Persian, the tree types are mainly derived from the Deccani painting and female types are adapted from the earlier Rajasthani paintings, Women are wearing four comered pointed skirts and transparent muslim veils. Turbans worn by men are small and tight, typical of the Akbar period.The Mughal style was further influenced by the European paintings which came in the Mughal court, and absorbed some of the Westem techniques like shading and perspective.Their production was an enormous undertaking for Akbar‘s atelier, which employed several eminent Persian artists, including Abd al-Samad and Mir Sayyid Ali.

    Unattempted
    

    The Hamzanama is a collection of 1200 miniature paintings and was one of the earliest important commissions by the third Mughal emperor Akbar. It tells the story of the adventures of Amir Hamza, the uncle of the Prophet Muhammad) These were painted on cotton cloth rather than paper. In this miniature one can observe that the architecture is Indo-Persian, the tree types are mainly derived from the Deccani painting and female types are adapted from the earlier Rajasthani paintings, Women are wearing four comered pointed skirts and transparent muslim veils. Turbans worn by men are small and tight, typical of the Akbar period.The Mughal style was further influenced by the European paintings which came in the Mughal court, and absorbed some of the Westem techniques like shading and perspective.Their production was an enormous undertaking for Akbar‘s atelier, which employed several eminent Persian artists, including Abd al-Samad and Mir Sayyid Ali.
68. Question 68 of 100

    68. Question

    How many of the following was/were the outcome of British intervention in judicial system of India?
    (1) Rule of law was established.
    (2) Codified laws replaced religious laws.
    (3) Judicial system got simplified and within reach of the masses.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Some of the positive aspects of Judiciary under the British:
    The rule of law was established. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The codified laws replaced the religious and personal laws of the rulers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Even European subjects were brought under the jurisdiction, although in criminal cases, they could be tried by European judges only.
    Government servants were made answerable, to the civil courts. Some negative aspects:
    The judicial system became more and more complicated and expensive. The rich could manipulate the system. There was ample scope for false evidence, deceit and treachery. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Dragged out litigation meant delayed justice.
    Courts became overburdened as litigation increased.
    Often, the European judges were not familiar with the Indian usage and traditions.

    Unattempted
    

    Some of the positive aspects of Judiciary under the British:
    The rule of law was established. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The codified laws replaced the religious and personal laws of the rulers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Even European subjects were brought under the jurisdiction, although in criminal cases, they could be tried by European judges only.
    Government servants were made answerable, to the civil courts. Some negative aspects:
    The judicial system became more and more complicated and expensive. The rich could manipulate the system. There was ample scope for false evidence, deceit and treachery. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Dragged out litigation meant delayed justice.
    Courts became overburdened as litigation increased.
    Often, the European judges were not familiar with the Indian usage and traditions.
69. Question 69 of 100

    69. Question

    With reference to protection provided under the article 20 of the Indian constitution, consider the following statements:
    (1) An ex-post-facto law is one that imposes penalties or which increases the penalties for such acts retrospectively .
    (2) A civil liability or a tax cannot be imposed retrospectively.
    (3) Clause (3) of Article 20 comprises the right against self-incrimination.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    An ex-post-facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively (retroactively), that is, upon acts already done or which increases the penalties for such acts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The enactment of such a law is prohibited by the first provision of Article 20. However, this limitation is imposed only on criminal laws and not on civil laws or tax laws.
    In other words, a civil liability or a tax can be imposed retrospectively. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Further, this provision prohibits only conviction or sentence under an ex-post-facto criminal law and not the trial thereof. Finally, the protection (immunity) under this provision cannot be claimed in case of preventive detention or demanding security from a person.
    Clause (3) of Article 20 of the Indian Constitution comprises the right against self-incrimination. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    An ex-post-facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively (retroactively), that is, upon acts already done or which increases the penalties for such acts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The enactment of such a law is prohibited by the first provision of Article 20. However, this limitation is imposed only on criminal laws and not on civil laws or tax laws.
    In other words, a civil liability or a tax can be imposed retrospectively. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Further, this provision prohibits only conviction or sentence under an ex-post-facto criminal law and not the trial thereof. Finally, the protection (immunity) under this provision cannot be claimed in case of preventive detention or demanding security from a person.
    Clause (3) of Article 20 of the Indian Constitution comprises the right against self-incrimination. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
70. Question 70 of 100

    70. Question

    Consider the following statements :
    (1) Periyar is the longest river of Kerala
    (2) Sabarimala dedicated to Lord Ayyappa is located on banks of Periyar River.
    (3) Kallada River discharges into Ashtamudi Lake.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Periyar  is the longest river in Kerala. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Sabarimala temple dedicated to Lord Ayyappa is located on the banks of the river Pamba. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
    Kallada River is a major river discharging into the Ashtamudi Lake. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    The Kallada river, which originates near Ponmudi from the Kulathupuzha hills Western Ghats is formed by the confluence of three rivers, viz., Kulathupuzha, Chenthurnipuzha, and Kalthuruthipuzha, and after traversing a distance of about 121 km (75 mi) through virgin forests finally debouches into the Ashtamudi wetland at Peringalam near Kollam.

    Unattempted
    

    Periyar  is the longest river in Kerala. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Sabarimala temple dedicated to Lord Ayyappa is located on the banks of the river Pamba. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
    Kallada River is a major river discharging into the Ashtamudi Lake. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    The Kallada river, which originates near Ponmudi from the Kulathupuzha hills Western Ghats is formed by the confluence of three rivers, viz., Kulathupuzha, Chenthurnipuzha, and Kalthuruthipuzha, and after traversing a distance of about 121 km (75 mi) through virgin forests finally debouches into the Ashtamudi wetland at Peringalam near Kollam.
71. Question 71 of 100

    71. Question

    In the context of the implementation of directive principles, how many of the following is/are correctly matched ?
    (1) Right to public assistance in certain cases – Atal pension Yojana
    (2) Provision for just and humane conditions for work – National Rural Health Mission
    (3) Separation of the executive from the Judiciary – National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
    Select the correct answer using the code using below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 41 of the Constitution provides that the State shall within the limits of its economic capacity and development make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.— Atal Pension Yojana targets the financial security of old age working poor in unorganised sector. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Article 42 states –the State shall make provision for securing just and human conditions of work and maternity relief. This article mainly deals with labour reforms concerned specifically for workforce of the Country. However, National Rural Health Mission targets the whole rural population and meets the objective of directive under article 47 i.e. duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Article 50 states that—the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state. Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all. Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. In 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted by the Parliament which came into force on 9th November, 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Article 41 of the Constitution provides that the State shall within the limits of its economic capacity and development make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.— Atal Pension Yojana targets the financial security of old age working poor in unorganised sector. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Article 42 states –the State shall make provision for securing just and human conditions of work and maternity relief. This article mainly deals with labour reforms concerned specifically for workforce of the Country. However, National Rural Health Mission targets the whole rural population and meets the objective of directive under article 47 i.e. duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Article 50 states that—the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state. Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all. Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. In 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted by the Parliament which came into force on 9th November, 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
72. Question 72 of 100

    72. Question

    Takeshima Island, which was recently seen in the news, is located in:
    (A) Atlantic Ocean
    (B) Indian Ocean
    (C) Sea of Japan
    (D) None of the Above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, Japan lodged a protest with South Korea over military drills it conducted on disputed Takeshima islands.
    Location: It is situated in the middle of the Sea of Japan.
    It is lying almost equidistant between the Korean Peninsula and Japan.
    It is called Dokdo in South Korea and Takeshima in Japan.
    It has also been known as the Liancourt Rocks, named by French whalers after their ship in 1849.
    The islands themselves consist of two main islands and about 30 smaller rocks.
    Key Facts about the Sea of Japan
    It is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean.
    It is located in Eastern Asia that is bounded by Japan and Sakhalin Island to the east and by Russia and Korea on the Asian mainland to the west.
    The sea itself lies in a deep basin, separated from the East China Sea to the south by the Tsushima and Korea straits and from the Sea of Okhotsk to the north by the La Perouse (or Sōya) and Tatar straits.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, Japan lodged a protest with South Korea over military drills it conducted on disputed Takeshima islands.
    Location: It is situated in the middle of the Sea of Japan.
    It is lying almost equidistant between the Korean Peninsula and Japan.
    It is called Dokdo in South Korea and Takeshima in Japan.
    It has also been known as the Liancourt Rocks, named by French whalers after their ship in 1849.
    The islands themselves consist of two main islands and about 30 smaller rocks.
    Key Facts about the Sea of Japan
    It is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean.
    It is located in Eastern Asia that is bounded by Japan and Sakhalin Island to the east and by Russia and Korea on the Asian mainland to the west.
    The sea itself lies in a deep basin, separated from the East China Sea to the south by the Tsushima and Korea straits and from the Sea of Okhotsk to the north by the La Perouse (or Sōya) and Tatar straits.
73. Question 73 of 100

    73. Question

    Mukurthi National Park was established with the prime motive of conserving which one of the following species?
    (A) Nilgiri Langur
    (B) Nilgiri Tahr
    (C) Bengal tiger
    (D) Indian elephant

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Tamil Nadu Forest Department recently steps up vigil around Mukurthi National Park in Nilgiris to curb poaching.
    About Mukurthi National Park:
    Location:
    It lies in the western corner of Nilgiris Plateau in the state of Tamil Nadu.
    The park is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is sandwiched between the Mudumalai National Park and the Silent Valley National Park.
    The area was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in 1982 and upgraded to a National Park in 1990.
    It was established with the prime motive of conserving its keystone species – the Nilgiri Tahr.
    It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and was formerly known as Nilgiri Tahr National Park.
    It is also home to Mukurthi Peak (2,554m), the fourth highest peak in the Nilgiri Hills.
    Rivers: Pykara and Kundah rivers flow through the park along with several perennial streams that originate in the park and drain into the Bhavani Puzha.
    Vegetation:
    The majority of the landscape in the reserve is covered with shrubs and mountainous grasslands.
    The area in the National Park which are at an elevation and experience high rainfall are covered with sholas and lush green tropical grasslands.
    Flora:
    Along sholas, shrubs like Gaultheria fragrantissima, Helichrysum and Berberis tinctoria are found.
    Other plants which can be seen here are Rhododendrons, Cinnamon, Mahonia, Satyrium, Raspberries etc.
    Fauna:The park houses some of the endangered wild species like Nilgiri tahr, Indian elephants, Nilgiri Langur, Bengal tiger and bonnet macaque.

    Unattempted
    

    Tamil Nadu Forest Department recently steps up vigil around Mukurthi National Park in Nilgiris to curb poaching.
    About Mukurthi National Park:
    Location:
    It lies in the western corner of Nilgiris Plateau in the state of Tamil Nadu.
    The park is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is sandwiched between the Mudumalai National Park and the Silent Valley National Park.
    The area was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in 1982 and upgraded to a National Park in 1990.
    It was established with the prime motive of conserving its keystone species – the Nilgiri Tahr.
    It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and was formerly known as Nilgiri Tahr National Park.
    It is also home to Mukurthi Peak (2,554m), the fourth highest peak in the Nilgiri Hills.
    Rivers: Pykara and Kundah rivers flow through the park along with several perennial streams that originate in the park and drain into the Bhavani Puzha.
    Vegetation:
    The majority of the landscape in the reserve is covered with shrubs and mountainous grasslands.
    The area in the National Park which are at an elevation and experience high rainfall are covered with sholas and lush green tropical grasslands.
    Flora:
    Along sholas, shrubs like Gaultheria fragrantissima, Helichrysum and Berberis tinctoria are found.
    Other plants which can be seen here are Rhododendrons, Cinnamon, Mahonia, Satyrium, Raspberries etc.
    Fauna:The park houses some of the endangered wild species like Nilgiri tahr, Indian elephants, Nilgiri Langur, Bengal tiger and bonnet macaque.
74. Question 74 of 100

    74. Question

    With reference to 'Zero Budget Natural Farming', which of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) It is a method of farming done without using any credit, and without spending any money on purchased inputs.
    (2) It aims to eliminate the use of chemical pesticides.
    (3) It is not practiced in India.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : ‘Zero budget‘ farming promises to end a reliance on loans and drastically cut production costs, ending the debt cycle for desperate farmers. The word ‘budget‘ refers to credit and expenses, thus the phrase 'Zero Budget' means without using any credit, and without spending any money on purchased inputs.
    Statement 2 is correct : The main aim of ZBNF is eliminate use of chemical pesticides and uses biological pesticides and promote of good agronomic practices. Farmers use earthworms, cow dung, urine, plants, human excreta and such biological fertilizers for crop protection.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : It has attained wide success in southern India, especially the southern Indian state of Karnataka where it first evolved) The movement in Karnataka state was born out of collaboration between Mr Subhash Palekar, who put together the ZBNF practices, and the state farmers association Karnataka Rajya Raitha Sangha (KRRS).

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : ‘Zero budget‘ farming promises to end a reliance on loans and drastically cut production costs, ending the debt cycle for desperate farmers. The word ‘budget‘ refers to credit and expenses, thus the phrase 'Zero Budget' means without using any credit, and without spending any money on purchased inputs.
    Statement 2 is correct : The main aim of ZBNF is eliminate use of chemical pesticides and uses biological pesticides and promote of good agronomic practices. Farmers use earthworms, cow dung, urine, plants, human excreta and such biological fertilizers for crop protection.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : It has attained wide success in southern India, especially the southern Indian state of Karnataka where it first evolved) The movement in Karnataka state was born out of collaboration between Mr Subhash Palekar, who put together the ZBNF practices, and the state farmers association Karnataka Rajya Raitha Sangha (KRRS).
75. Question 75 of 100

    75. Question

    With respect to the Financial Stability and Development Council, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is chaired by RBI Governor.
    (2) It is a statutory body.
    (3) It deals with financial literacy and financial inclusion.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Financial Stability and Development Council was constituted in December 2010.
    The Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and its members are Governor, RBI; Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs; Secretary, Department of Financial Services; Chief Economic Adviser, Ministry of Finance; Chairman, SEBI; Chairman, IRDA and Chairman, PFRDa). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    FSDC deals with issues relating to financial stability, financial sector development, inter–regulatory coordination, financial literacy, financial inclusion and macro prudential supervision of the economy including the functioning of large financial conglomerates. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    FSDC is not a statutory body. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Financial Stability and Development Council was constituted in December 2010.
    The Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and its members are Governor, RBI; Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs; Secretary, Department of Financial Services; Chief Economic Adviser, Ministry of Finance; Chairman, SEBI; Chairman, IRDA and Chairman, PFRDa). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    FSDC deals with issues relating to financial stability, financial sector development, inter–regulatory coordination, financial literacy, financial inclusion and macro prudential supervision of the economy including the functioning of large financial conglomerates. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    FSDC is not a statutory body. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
76. Question 76 of 100

    76. Question

    With reference to detention under preventive detention, consider the following statements:
    (1) A person can be detained against both civil and criminal laws.
    (2) The detention of a person cannot exceed three months under any circumstances.
    (3) The Supreme Court (SC) of India observed that preventive detention laws in India are a colonial legacy that does not confer arbitrary power to the state.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens and includes the following:
    (i) The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    (ii) The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed.
    (iii) The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order.
    Article 22 also authorises the Parliament to prescribe –
    (A) the circumstances and the classes of cases in which a person can be detained for more than three months under a preventive detention law without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board;
    (B) the maximum period for which a person can be detained in any classes of cases under a preventive detention law; and
    (C) the procedure to be followed by an advisory board in an inquiry.
    The Supreme Court has ruled that the arrest and detention in the first part of Article 22 do not cover arrest under the orders of a court, civil arrest, arrest on failure to pay the income tax, and deportation of an alien. They apply only to an act of a criminal or quasi-criminal nature or some activity prejudicial to public interest. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    The Supreme Court (SC) of India observed that preventive detention laws in India are a colonial legacy that confers arbitrary power to the state. The Court warned that these laws are extremely powerful and have the potential to provide the state with free discretion. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens and includes the following:
    (i) The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    (ii) The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed.
    (iii) The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order.
    Article 22 also authorises the Parliament to prescribe –
    (A) the circumstances and the classes of cases in which a person can be detained for more than three months under a preventive detention law without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board;
    (B) the maximum period for which a person can be detained in any classes of cases under a preventive detention law; and
    (C) the procedure to be followed by an advisory board in an inquiry.
    The Supreme Court has ruled that the arrest and detention in the first part of Article 22 do not cover arrest under the orders of a court, civil arrest, arrest on failure to pay the income tax, and deportation of an alien. They apply only to an act of a criminal or quasi-criminal nature or some activity prejudicial to public interest. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    The Supreme Court (SC) of India observed that preventive detention laws in India are a colonial legacy that confers arbitrary power to the state. The Court warned that these laws are extremely powerful and have the potential to provide the state with free discretion. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
77. Question 77 of 100

    77. Question

    Consider the following statements :
    (1) Contract Farming defined under Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule in constitution.
    (2) FDI up-to 100% under the automatic route, is not allowed in food processing Industries.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Contract Farming can be carried out based on a pre-harvest agreement between buyers and producers. It is defined under Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of constitution; however Agriculture is under State list. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    FDI up to 100%, under the automatic route, is allowed in food processing industries. Further, 100% FDI under Government route for retail trading, including through e-commerce, is permitted in respect of food products manufactured and/or produced in India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Contract Farming can be carried out based on a pre-harvest agreement between buyers and producers. It is defined under Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of constitution; however Agriculture is under State list. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    FDI up to 100%, under the automatic route, is allowed in food processing industries. Further, 100% FDI under Government route for retail trading, including through e-commerce, is permitted in respect of food products manufactured and/or produced in India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
78. Question 78 of 100

    78. Question

    Consider the following:
    (1) Fresh Snow
    (2) Grassland
    (3) Open Ocean
    (4) Desert Sand
    Which of the following is the correct sequence in decreasing order of albedo of the given surfaces?
    (A) 1-2-3-4
    (B) 2-1-3-4
    (C) 1-4-2-3
    (D) 1-4-3-2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The amount of incoming radiation which is reflected from the earth (albedo) has an important bearing on the earth‘s response to climate change. The albedo of different surfaces varies with vegetation and cover. The average albedo of the earth is normally taken to be 0.31. Typical ranges of values are:
    1110615128905

    Unattempted
    

    The amount of incoming radiation which is reflected from the earth (albedo) has an important bearing on the earth‘s response to climate change. The albedo of different surfaces varies with vegetation and cover. The average albedo of the earth is normally taken to be 0.31. Typical ranges of values are:
    1110615128905
79. Question 79 of 100

    79. Question

    How many of the following is/are the main reasons responsible for aridity of major hot deserts of the world?
    (1) Shifting of wind belts
    (2) Rain shadow position
    (3) Presence of cold currents
    (4) Off-shore trade winds
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Option 1 is incorrect : Shifting wind belts is a feature of Mediterranean climate which is responsible for summer being dry and rainfall in winter.
    Option 2 is incorrect : Rain shadow effect plays important role in aridity of Patagonian desert which is a mid-latitude desert.
    The reasons behind major hot deserts lying on the western margin of continents between 15 and 30 degrees latitudes are as follows –
    (1) sub-tropical high pressure belts where the air is descending, does not favour precipitation.
    (2) The rain bearing trade winds blow off-shore.
    (3) Presence of cold currents has a chilling effect on the wind which inhibits precipitation. Hence, options 3 and 4 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Option 1 is incorrect : Shifting wind belts is a feature of Mediterranean climate which is responsible for summer being dry and rainfall in winter.
    Option 2 is incorrect : Rain shadow effect plays important role in aridity of Patagonian desert which is a mid-latitude desert.
    The reasons behind major hot deserts lying on the western margin of continents between 15 and 30 degrees latitudes are as follows –
    (1) sub-tropical high pressure belts where the air is descending, does not favour precipitation.
    (2) The rain bearing trade winds blow off-shore.
    (3) Presence of cold currents has a chilling effect on the wind which inhibits precipitation. Hence, options 3 and 4 are correct.
80. Question 80 of 100

    80. Question

    In the context of cultural traditions of India, 'Pandavani', 'Chhakri', 'Ammanaivari' are related to:
    (A) folk dances
    (B) regional music
    (C) forms of puppetry
    (D) theatre forms

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pandavani, Chhattisgarh: In Pandavani, tales from Mahabharata are sung as a ballad and one or two episodes are chosen for the night‘s performance. The main singer continuously sits throughout the performance and with powerful singing and symbolic gestures he assumes all the characters of the episode one after another.
    Chhakri, Kashmir: Chhakri is a group song which is the most popular form of Kashmir‘s folk music) It is sung to the accompaniment of the noot (earthen pot) rababs, sarangi and tumbaknari (an earthen pot with high neck).
    Ammanaivari, Tamil Nadu: Ammanaivari are songs sung in praise of Chola monarch. Ammanai is a wooden ball and the women folk sing appropriate songs while playing the ball. This game of Ammanai is still current in Tamil Nadu.

    Unattempted
    

    Pandavani, Chhattisgarh: In Pandavani, tales from Mahabharata are sung as a ballad and one or two episodes are chosen for the night‘s performance. The main singer continuously sits throughout the performance and with powerful singing and symbolic gestures he assumes all the characters of the episode one after another.
    Chhakri, Kashmir: Chhakri is a group song which is the most popular form of Kashmir‘s folk music) It is sung to the accompaniment of the noot (earthen pot) rababs, sarangi and tumbaknari (an earthen pot with high neck).
    Ammanaivari, Tamil Nadu: Ammanaivari are songs sung in praise of Chola monarch. Ammanai is a wooden ball and the women folk sing appropriate songs while playing the ball. This game of Ammanai is still current in Tamil Nadu.
81. Question 81 of 100

    81. Question

    With reference to Rubber Board, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a statutory body under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
    (2) It is headed by a Chairman appointed by the Central Government.
    (3) It issues licenses to rubber producers, manufacturers, and exporters/traders.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Central Government has dismissed concerns over a new Rubber Bill and existence of the Rubber Board.
    About Rubber Board:
    It is a statutory organization constituted under the Rubber Act, 1947.
    It functions under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
    Functions:
    The Board is responsible for the development of the rubber industry in the country by assisting and encouraging research, development, extension and training activities related to rubber.
    It also maintains statistical data of rubber, takes steps to promote marketing of rubber and undertake labor welfare activities.
    A crucial function of the Rubber Board is issuing licenses to rubber producers, manufacturers, and exporters/traders. This license, known as the “Rubber Board license/registration,” is mandatory for anyone involved in rubber manufacturing and export
    Structure:
    The Board is headed by a Chairman appointed by the Central Government.
    It has 28 members representing various interests of the natural rubber industry.
    Headquarters: Kottayam, Kerala.
    The activities of the Board are exercised through Five Departments viz. General Services, Extension & Advisory Services, Research Services (rubber Research Institute of India), Training (Rubber Training Institute) & Finance.
    Hence, all three statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Central Government has dismissed concerns over a new Rubber Bill and existence of the Rubber Board.
    About Rubber Board:
    It is a statutory organization constituted under the Rubber Act, 1947.
    It functions under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
    Functions:
    The Board is responsible for the development of the rubber industry in the country by assisting and encouraging research, development, extension and training activities related to rubber.
    It also maintains statistical data of rubber, takes steps to promote marketing of rubber and undertake labor welfare activities.
    A crucial function of the Rubber Board is issuing licenses to rubber producers, manufacturers, and exporters/traders. This license, known as the “Rubber Board license/registration,” is mandatory for anyone involved in rubber manufacturing and export
    Structure:
    The Board is headed by a Chairman appointed by the Central Government.
    It has 28 members representing various interests of the natural rubber industry.
    Headquarters: Kottayam, Kerala.
    The activities of the Board are exercised through Five Departments viz. General Services, Extension & Advisory Services, Research Services (rubber Research Institute of India), Training (Rubber Training Institute) & Finance.
    Hence, all three statements are correct.
82. Question 82 of 100

    82. Question

    Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Hygroelectricity’, that was in the news recently?
    (A) Generation of electricity from sea waves.
    (B) Generation of electricity from the humidity of the air.
    (C) Generation of electricity from underground water.
    (D) None of the above.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Researchers have successfully developed a technology called hygroelectricity, which can generate electricity from humid air.
    About Hygroelectricity:
    Hygroelectricity is the generation of electricity from the humidity of the air.
    It is a type of renewable energy that has the potential to be a major source of power in the future.
    How it works?
    The key to harvesting electricity from humid air lies in a tiny device comprising two electrodes and a thin layer of material filled with nanopores.
    These nanopores, each less than 100 nanometers in diameter, allow water molecules from the air to pass through the device.
    As these molecules move from an upper chamber to a lower chamber, they interact with the edges of the nanopores, leading to a buildup of electric charge imbalances between the chambers.
    This process effectively transforms the device into a miniature battery, generating continuous electricity.
    Just as clouds create electrical charges and give rise to lightning bolts during storms, this revolutionary device converts air humidity into usable electricity.
    Advantage of Hygroelectricity: Unlike other renewable energy sources such as solar and wind, air humidity is continuously available, making it a sustainable reservoir of energy.
    Challenges:
    Currently, the fingernail-sized device can only produce electricity equivalent to a fraction of a volt.
    Scaling up the technology to meet practical energy demands is a significant hurdle.

    Unattempted
    

    Researchers have successfully developed a technology called hygroelectricity, which can generate electricity from humid air.
    About Hygroelectricity:
    Hygroelectricity is the generation of electricity from the humidity of the air.
    It is a type of renewable energy that has the potential to be a major source of power in the future.
    How it works?
    The key to harvesting electricity from humid air lies in a tiny device comprising two electrodes and a thin layer of material filled with nanopores.
    These nanopores, each less than 100 nanometers in diameter, allow water molecules from the air to pass through the device.
    As these molecules move from an upper chamber to a lower chamber, they interact with the edges of the nanopores, leading to a buildup of electric charge imbalances between the chambers.
    This process effectively transforms the device into a miniature battery, generating continuous electricity.
    Just as clouds create electrical charges and give rise to lightning bolts during storms, this revolutionary device converts air humidity into usable electricity.
    Advantage of Hygroelectricity: Unlike other renewable energy sources such as solar and wind, air humidity is continuously available, making it a sustainable reservoir of energy.
    Challenges:
    Currently, the fingernail-sized device can only produce electricity equivalent to a fraction of a volt.
    Scaling up the technology to meet practical energy demands is a significant hurdle.
83. Question 83 of 100

    83. Question

    How many of the following features was/were common to Bhakti and Sufi teachings?
    (1) They both had a strong dislike for the blind faith for sacred scriptures.
    (2) They both believed in guru-shishya philosophy.
    (3) They both gave importance to rituals and ceremonies.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Most of the Bhakti and Sufi saints had one ultimate goal, realisation of God for the individual.
    Bhakti gurus and Sufi pirs had a strong dislike of blind faith in sacred scriptures, and did not believe in the discriminatory restrictions of caste and creed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    For both, rituals and ceremonies were not important, rather the individual's relationship with the True Master (gurus and pirs) who could give them the right knowledge to realize God through their personal devotion to Him. Hence, statement 2 is correct but statement 3 is incorrect.
    The Bhakti saints, like the Sufis, believed that one need not go to places of worship to realise God) He resided within the heart of each individual. Each human should thus be respected as a temple of God.

    Unattempted
    

    Most of the Bhakti and Sufi saints had one ultimate goal, realisation of God for the individual.
    Bhakti gurus and Sufi pirs had a strong dislike of blind faith in sacred scriptures, and did not believe in the discriminatory restrictions of caste and creed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    For both, rituals and ceremonies were not important, rather the individual's relationship with the True Master (gurus and pirs) who could give them the right knowledge to realize God through their personal devotion to Him. Hence, statement 2 is correct but statement 3 is incorrect.
    The Bhakti saints, like the Sufis, believed that one need not go to places of worship to realise God) He resided within the heart of each individual. Each human should thus be respected as a temple of God.
84. Question 84 of 100

    84. Question

    How many of the following Constitutional authorities have the term “uphold the Constitution and laws” in their oath to office?
    (1) President
    (2) Governor
    (3) Supreme Court Judges
    (4) High Court Judges
    Choose the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Oath of President: ―I, A.B., (swear in the name of god/solemnly affirm) that I will faithfully execute the office of President (or discharge the functions of the President) of India and will to the best of my ability preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and well-being of the people of India. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
    Oath of Governor: ―I, A.B., (swear in the name of god/solemnly affirm) that I will faithfully execute the office of Governor (or discharge the functions of the Governor) of … (name of the State) and will to thebest of my ability preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and wellbeing of the people of … (name of the State). Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
    Oath of Supreme Court Judges: ―I, A.B., having been appointed Chief Justice (or a Judge) of the Supreme Court of India, (swear in the name of god/solemnly affirm) that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge and judgment perform the duties of my office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws. Hence, option 3 is correct.
    Oath of High Court Judges: ―I, A.B., having been appointed Chief Justice (or a Judge) of the High Court at (or of) …, (swear in the name of god/solemnly affirm) that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge, and judgment perform the duties ofmy office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws. Hence, option 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Oath of President: ―I, A.B., (swear in the name of god/solemnly affirm) that I will faithfully execute the office of President (or discharge the functions of the President) of India and will to the best of my ability preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and well-being of the people of India. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
    Oath of Governor: ―I, A.B., (swear in the name of god/solemnly affirm) that I will faithfully execute the office of Governor (or discharge the functions of the Governor) of … (name of the State) and will to thebest of my ability preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and wellbeing of the people of … (name of the State). Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
    Oath of Supreme Court Judges: ―I, A.B., having been appointed Chief Justice (or a Judge) of the Supreme Court of India, (swear in the name of god/solemnly affirm) that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge and judgment perform the duties of my office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws. Hence, option 3 is correct.
    Oath of High Court Judges: ―I, A.B., having been appointed Chief Justice (or a Judge) of the High Court at (or of) …, (swear in the name of god/solemnly affirm) that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge, and judgment perform the duties ofmy office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws. Hence, option 4 is correct.
85. Question 85 of 100

    85. Question

    How many of the following sectors do not come under the automatic approval route for FDI?
    (1) Food product retail trading
    (2) Manufacture of cigars and tobacco
    (3) Atomic energy
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is an enabler of economic growth since it enhances productivity by bringing capital, skills and technology to the host country. In 2015, the Government had brought most of the sectors under automatic approval route, except a small negative list comprising atomic energy, manufacture of cigars and tobacco, real estate business, lottery, gambling and chit fund etc. With these changes, India is now one of the most open economy in the world for FDI.
    However, government introduced composite caps in the FDI policy permitting 100 per cent FDI through automatic route in retail trading of food products with unqualified condition that such food products have to be manufactured and/or produced in India.

    Unattempted
    

    Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is an enabler of economic growth since it enhances productivity by bringing capital, skills and technology to the host country. In 2015, the Government had brought most of the sectors under automatic approval route, except a small negative list comprising atomic energy, manufacture of cigars and tobacco, real estate business, lottery, gambling and chit fund etc. With these changes, India is now one of the most open economy in the world for FDI.
    However, government introduced composite caps in the FDI policy permitting 100 per cent FDI through automatic route in retail trading of food products with unqualified condition that such food products have to be manufactured and/or produced in India.
86. Question 86 of 100

    86. Question

    How many of the following is/are non-tax revenue receipts of Central Government of India?
    (1) Disinvestment of shares of PSUs
    (2) Interest receipt
    (3) Profits of government enterprises.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Current receipts are those sources of inflow of money which do not create any liability of repayment on government. Non Tax revenue is part of Current receipts. All the receipts under “Current receipts” which are not from taxes are called “Non-Tax Revenue”.
    Disinvestment of shares of PSUs would decrease the assets of the government. Hence it is a part of capital receipts.
    The non-tax revenues include receipts from fiscal services, interest receipts, dividends and profits of government enterprises, general services etc. Hence, options 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Current receipts are those sources of inflow of money which do not create any liability of repayment on government. Non Tax revenue is part of Current receipts. All the receipts under “Current receipts” which are not from taxes are called “Non-Tax Revenue”.
    Disinvestment of shares of PSUs would decrease the assets of the government. Hence it is a part of capital receipts.
    The non-tax revenues include receipts from fiscal services, interest receipts, dividends and profits of government enterprises, general services etc. Hence, options 2 and 3 are correct.
87. Question 87 of 100

    87. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Perovskite:
    (1) It has the same crystal structure as the mineral calcium titanium oxide.
    (2) It can be used as insulating material.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, Indian scientists have indigenously developed highly stable, low-cost Carbon-based perovskite solar cells with superior thermal and moisture stability.
    The Carbon-based perovskite solar cells is the first indigenous perovskite-powered niche product developed in India and can pave the way for futuristic stable perovskite solar cells.
    Issues with Perovskite photovoltaic cells
    They face the problem of degradation during operation when they come in contact with heat, moisture, light, and other environmental factors.
    This long-duration stability is a major hindrance in the large-scale commercialisation of the product.
    While Carbon-based perovskite solar cells (CPSCs) have been successful in minimizing device stability issues and fabrication costs, the sensitivity of perovskite materials toward humidity and thermal stress is a major obstacle for practical implementation.
    Scientists have engineered MaPbI3 (MAPI-Methylammonium-lead-iodide) to attain thermal stability by incorporating Guanidinium iodide (GuI) and moisture stability by surface passivation using 5- amino valeric acid iodide (5-AVAI).
    Significance:
    The indigenously developed perovskite solar cells can help resolve stability concerns in PSCs bring down high fabrication costs and could help speed up of commercialization in PSC-based niche products.
    Perovskite is a material that has the same crystal structure as the mineral calcium titanium oxide (CaTiO3), the first-discovered perovskite crystal.
    The mineral was discovered in the Ural Mountains of Russia by Gustav Rose in 1839 and is named after Russian mineralogist Lev Perovski.
    Generally, perovskite compounds have a chemical formula ABX3, where ‘A’ and ‘B’ represent cations, and X is an anion that bonds to both.
    Due to its compositional flexibility, scientists can design perovskite crystals to have a wide variety of physical, optical, and electrical characteristics from insulating, semiconducting, metallic, and superconducting characteristics.
    Hence, both statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, Indian scientists have indigenously developed highly stable, low-cost Carbon-based perovskite solar cells with superior thermal and moisture stability.
    The Carbon-based perovskite solar cells is the first indigenous perovskite-powered niche product developed in India and can pave the way for futuristic stable perovskite solar cells.
    Issues with Perovskite photovoltaic cells
    They face the problem of degradation during operation when they come in contact with heat, moisture, light, and other environmental factors.
    This long-duration stability is a major hindrance in the large-scale commercialisation of the product.
    While Carbon-based perovskite solar cells (CPSCs) have been successful in minimizing device stability issues and fabrication costs, the sensitivity of perovskite materials toward humidity and thermal stress is a major obstacle for practical implementation.
    Scientists have engineered MaPbI3 (MAPI-Methylammonium-lead-iodide) to attain thermal stability by incorporating Guanidinium iodide (GuI) and moisture stability by surface passivation using 5- amino valeric acid iodide (5-AVAI).
    Significance:
    The indigenously developed perovskite solar cells can help resolve stability concerns in PSCs bring down high fabrication costs and could help speed up of commercialization in PSC-based niche products.
    Perovskite is a material that has the same crystal structure as the mineral calcium titanium oxide (CaTiO3), the first-discovered perovskite crystal.
    The mineral was discovered in the Ural Mountains of Russia by Gustav Rose in 1839 and is named after Russian mineralogist Lev Perovski.
    Generally, perovskite compounds have a chemical formula ABX3, where ‘A’ and ‘B’ represent cations, and X is an anion that bonds to both.
    Due to its compositional flexibility, scientists can design perovskite crystals to have a wide variety of physical, optical, and electrical characteristics from insulating, semiconducting, metallic, and superconducting characteristics.
    Hence, both statements are correct.
88. Question 88 of 100

    88. Question

    With reference to the Additional tier-1 (AT-1) bonds, consider the following statements:
    (1) These are a type of perpetual bonds issued by the banks to improve their core capital base.
    (2) These are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The underwhelming subscription to State Bank of India’s additional tier-1 (AT-1) bond issue has dampened market sentiment and is expected to make fund-raising harder for other PSU banks.
    These are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to improve their core capital base.
    The money raised through these bonds is kept aside as a shock absorber by the bank.
    They have a call option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors.
    These bonds were created in the wake of the 2008 financial crisis to absorb the losses.
    These bonds are also called contingent convertible bonds or CoCos.
    These bonds are also mandatory under Basel=III norms.
    The banks must maintain capital at a minimum ratio of 11.5 per cent of their risk-weighted loans. Of this, 9.5 per cent needs to be in Tier-1 capital. AT1 bonds fall under this type of capital.
    These bonds are long-term and do not carry any maturity date. Because of a higher risk, they offer a higher yield.
    Regulation: In India AT-1 bonds are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The underwhelming subscription to State Bank of India’s additional tier-1 (AT-1) bond issue has dampened market sentiment and is expected to make fund-raising harder for other PSU banks.
    These are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to improve their core capital base.
    The money raised through these bonds is kept aside as a shock absorber by the bank.
    They have a call option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors.
    These bonds were created in the wake of the 2008 financial crisis to absorb the losses.
    These bonds are also called contingent convertible bonds or CoCos.
    These bonds are also mandatory under Basel=III norms.
    The banks must maintain capital at a minimum ratio of 11.5 per cent of their risk-weighted loans. Of this, 9.5 per cent needs to be in Tier-1 capital. AT1 bonds fall under this type of capital.
    These bonds are long-term and do not carry any maturity date. Because of a higher risk, they offer a higher yield.
    Regulation: In India AT-1 bonds are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
89. Question 89 of 100

    89. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the higher judiciary in India :
    (1) Strength of both the Supreme Court and the High courts are decided by the Parliament.
    (2) A distinguished jurist in the opinion of President is qualified to be as a judge of both the Supreme Court and High Courts.
    (3) Both the Supreme court and the high courts can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: As the work of the Court increased and arrears of cases began to cumulate, Parliament increased the number of Judges from 8 in 1950 to 11 in 1956, 14 in 1960, 18 in 1978 and 26 in 1986. Now, The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and 30 other Judges appointed by the President of India.
    The Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon its workload.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It is only in case of Supreme Court that a distinguished jurist can be appointed as Judge. In case of High Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of High Court.
    Statement 3 is correct: There is also a difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and that of the high court. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for other purposes. It means that the writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. But, the Parliament can confer on the Supreme Court, the power to issue writs for other purposes also.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect: As the work of the Court increased and arrears of cases began to cumulate, Parliament increased the number of Judges from 8 in 1950 to 11 in 1956, 14 in 1960, 18 in 1978 and 26 in 1986. Now, The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and 30 other Judges appointed by the President of India.
    The Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon its workload.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It is only in case of Supreme Court that a distinguished jurist can be appointed as Judge. In case of High Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of High Court.
    Statement 3 is correct: There is also a difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and that of the high court. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for other purposes. It means that the writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. But, the Parliament can confer on the Supreme Court, the power to issue writs for other purposes also.
90. Question 90 of 100

    90. Question

    How many of the following events/phenomenon will cease to happen if the earth stops rotating?
    (1) Diurnal cycle of day and night
    (2) Tropical Cyclones
    (3) Cycle of seasons
    (4) 6 months of polar day and polar night at poles
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Rotation of earth is responsible for diurnal cycle of day and night. If the earth stops rotating, half the earth is illuminated while half is dark. Hence, there will be no diurnal cycle of day and night.
    Statement 2 is correct: If the earth stops rotating, there will be no Coriolis force. Coriolis force forms one of the pre-condition for formation of Tropical Cyclone. Absence of coriolis force is the reason for absence of tropical cyclones near equator, inspite of presence of other pre-conditions.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Cycle of seasons is an outcome of earth‘s tilt and revolution. Owing to this, there is an apparent movement of Sun leading to differential heating and consequently cycle of seasons.
    Statement 4 is incorrect: 6 months of polar days and polar night at poles is because of Earth‘s tilt and revolution. Owing to this, there is an apparent movement of Sun leading to a situation wherer poles are 6months in sunlight (polar day) and 6 months in complete darkness (polar night)

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Rotation of earth is responsible for diurnal cycle of day and night. If the earth stops rotating, half the earth is illuminated while half is dark. Hence, there will be no diurnal cycle of day and night.
    Statement 2 is correct: If the earth stops rotating, there will be no Coriolis force. Coriolis force forms one of the pre-condition for formation of Tropical Cyclone. Absence of coriolis force is the reason for absence of tropical cyclones near equator, inspite of presence of other pre-conditions.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Cycle of seasons is an outcome of earth‘s tilt and revolution. Owing to this, there is an apparent movement of Sun leading to differential heating and consequently cycle of seasons.
    Statement 4 is incorrect: 6 months of polar days and polar night at poles is because of Earth‘s tilt and revolution. Owing to this, there is an apparent movement of Sun leading to a situation wherer poles are 6months in sunlight (polar day) and 6 months in complete darkness (polar night)
91. Question 91 of 100

    91. Question

    With respect to agriculture, seed replacement rate is a measure of
    (A) the net imports of seeds of each crop per season.
    (B) the production of seeds per farmer in an area.
    (C) the import of seeds required for a particular crop in a particular year.
    (D) the cropped area sown with certified seeds in comparison to farm saved seeds.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Seed Replacement Rate (SRR)
    It is a measure of how much of the total cropped area was sown with certified seeds in comparison to farm saved seeds.
    It represents the access of farmers to quality seed and directly proportional to productivity of farming.
    In India seed replacement rate continues to remain below the desired level of 20 per cent for most crops.
    Certified Seeds are produced by the National Seed Corporation.

    Unattempted
    

    Seed Replacement Rate (SRR)
    It is a measure of how much of the total cropped area was sown with certified seeds in comparison to farm saved seeds.
    It represents the access of farmers to quality seed and directly proportional to productivity of farming.
    In India seed replacement rate continues to remain below the desired level of 20 per cent for most crops.
    Certified Seeds are produced by the National Seed Corporation.
92. Question 92 of 100

    92. Question

    The price of any currency in international market can be fluctuated by how many of the following factors?
    (1) Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned.
    (2) Stability of the government of the concerned country.
    (3) World Bank
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    World Bank nearly plays no role in fluctuation of any country’s currency.

    Unattempted
    

    World Bank nearly plays no role in fluctuation of any country’s currency.
93. Question 93 of 100

    93. Question

    Consider the following statements
    (1) Currency devaluation can help to reduce current account deficit.
    (2) Full capital account convertibility brings stability to an economy.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Through Full Capital account convertibility a company or person can withdraw long term investments from a country at any point of time. Thus, bringing economic instability. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Through Full Capital account convertibility a company or person can withdraw long term investments from a country at any point of time. Thus, bringing economic instability. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
94. Question 94 of 100

    94. Question

    With reference to the Table of Precedence, arrange the following ranks in decreasing order of precedence:
    (1) Speaker of LokSabha
    (2) Vice-President
    (3) Judges of Supreme Court
    (4) Prime Minister
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 4-2-1-3
    (B) 2-4-1-3
    (C) 2-4-3-1
    (D) 4-2-3-1

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Table of Precedence is related to the rank and order of the officials of the Union and State Governments. The order of precedence is given below:
    (1) President
    (2) Vice-President
    (3) Prime Minister
    (4) Governors of states within their respective states
    (5) Former presidents
    (5a) Deputy Prime Minister
    (6) Chief Justice of India; Speaker of LokSabha
    (7) Cabinet Ministers of the Union; Chief Ministers of States within their respective States; ViceChairperson, NITI Aayog; Former Prime Ministers; Leaders of Opposition in RajyaSabha and LokSabha
    (7a) Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
    (8) Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of Commonwealth countries accredited to India; Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States Governors of States outside their respective States
    (9) Judges of Supreme Court
    (9a) Chairperson, Union Public Service Commission; Chief Election Commissioner; Comptroller & Auditor General of India

    Unattempted
    

    The Table of Precedence is related to the rank and order of the officials of the Union and State Governments. The order of precedence is given below:
    (1) President
    (2) Vice-President
    (3) Prime Minister
    (4) Governors of states within their respective states
    (5) Former presidents
    (5a) Deputy Prime Minister
    (6) Chief Justice of India; Speaker of LokSabha
    (7) Cabinet Ministers of the Union; Chief Ministers of States within their respective States; ViceChairperson, NITI Aayog; Former Prime Ministers; Leaders of Opposition in RajyaSabha and LokSabha
    (7a) Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
    (8) Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of Commonwealth countries accredited to India; Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States Governors of States outside their respective States
    (9) Judges of Supreme Court
    (9a) Chairperson, Union Public Service Commission; Chief Election Commissioner; Comptroller & Auditor General of India
95. Question 95 of 100

    95. Question

    With reference to a Shelf Cloud, consider the following statements:
    (1) It generally forms along the leading edge of thunderstorms.
    (2) It is a type of low-lying, vertical cloud formation characterized by a clearly defined line of solid clouds.
    (3) It appears as a broad arc across the sky that can sometimes appear to be rotating horizontally.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A terrifying shelf cloud recently appeared in Uttarakhand’s Haridwar.
    About Shelf Cloud:
    A “shelf cloud” or “Arcus cloud” generally forms along the leading edge of thunderstorms.
    It is a type of low-lying, horizontal cloud formation characterized by a clearly defined line of solid clouds.
    It is known for its distinctive wedge-shaped formation. They usually appear as a broad arc across the sky that can sometimes appear to be rotating horizontally.
    Formation:
    Shelf clouds form when cold and dense air is forced into a warmer air mass by wind.
    This rush of cold air often occurs in a thunderstorm’s downdraught, where cold air rushes towards the ground before spreading out to create a gust front.
    Shelf clouds produced by thunderstorms are always preceded by a rush of dry and cold air ahead of the cloud, with rain arriving after the shelf cloud has passed overhead.
    Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A terrifying shelf cloud recently appeared in Uttarakhand’s Haridwar.
    About Shelf Cloud:
    A “shelf cloud” or “Arcus cloud” generally forms along the leading edge of thunderstorms.
    It is a type of low-lying, horizontal cloud formation characterized by a clearly defined line of solid clouds.
    It is known for its distinctive wedge-shaped formation. They usually appear as a broad arc across the sky that can sometimes appear to be rotating horizontally.
    Formation:
    Shelf clouds form when cold and dense air is forced into a warmer air mass by wind.
    This rush of cold air often occurs in a thunderstorm’s downdraught, where cold air rushes towards the ground before spreading out to create a gust front.
    Shelf clouds produced by thunderstorms are always preceded by a rush of dry and cold air ahead of the cloud, with rain arriving after the shelf cloud has passed overhead.
    Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
96. Question 96 of 100

    96. Question

    With reference to the Urban 20 Summit, consider the following statements:
    (1) It provides a platform for G20 countries for discussions on urban development related issues.
    (2) It is a city diplomacy initiative launched during the Rio Earth Summit.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the two-day Urban 20 Mayoral Summit which was hosted by the chair city Ahmedabad, in Gandhinagar from 7-8 July, concluded with the handover of the Communiqué from the Mayors to G20 leaders.
    It is a city diplomacy initiative launched on December 12, 2017, at the One Planet Summit in Paris.
    It provides a platform for cities from G20 countries to facilitate discussions on various important issues of urban development including climate change, social inclusion, sustainable mobility, and affordable housing, and propose collective solutions.
    C40 Cities (C40) and United Cities and Local Governments (UCLG) convene the U20 under the leadership of a Chair city that rotates annually, based in the G20 host country.
    This year it was chaired by the City of Ahmedabad.
    The Communique was officially endorsed by 105 cities across the world, the highest ever number of endorsements received to date for any U20 Communiqué, and more than twice the number of endorsements for any previous communiqués.
    The Communiqué has been drafted as an action agenda for the six priorities identified collectively by U20 cities which include;
    Encouraging environmentally responsible behaviours, accelerating climate finance, championing local culture and economy, ensuring water security, catalysing digital urban futures, and reinventing frameworks for urban planning and governance.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the two-day Urban 20 Mayoral Summit which was hosted by the chair city Ahmedabad, in Gandhinagar from 7-8 July, concluded with the handover of the Communiqué from the Mayors to G20 leaders.
    It is a city diplomacy initiative launched on December 12, 2017, at the One Planet Summit in Paris.
    It provides a platform for cities from G20 countries to facilitate discussions on various important issues of urban development including climate change, social inclusion, sustainable mobility, and affordable housing, and propose collective solutions.
    C40 Cities (C40) and United Cities and Local Governments (UCLG) convene the U20 under the leadership of a Chair city that rotates annually, based in the G20 host country.
    This year it was chaired by the City of Ahmedabad.
    The Communique was officially endorsed by 105 cities across the world, the highest ever number of endorsements received to date for any U20 Communiqué, and more than twice the number of endorsements for any previous communiqués.
    The Communiqué has been drafted as an action agenda for the six priorities identified collectively by U20 cities which include;
    Encouraging environmentally responsible behaviours, accelerating climate finance, championing local culture and economy, ensuring water security, catalysing digital urban futures, and reinventing frameworks for urban planning and governance.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.
97. Question 97 of 100

    97. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Theatre form :State
    (1) Swang: Punjab
    (2) Nautanki: West Bengal
    (3) Krishnattam: Kerela
    How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Originally the theatre form from Haryana, Swang, was mainly music-based) Gradually, prose too, played its role in the dialogues. The softness of emotions, accomplishment of rasa alongwith the development of character can be seen in this theatre form. The two important styles of Swang are from Rohtak and Haathras. In the style belonging to Rohtak, the language used is Haryanvi (Bangru) and in Haathras, it is Brajbhasha.
    Nautanki is usually associated with Uttar Pradesh. The most popular centres of this traditional theatre form are Kanpur, Lucknow and Haathras. The meters used in the verses are: Doha, Chaubola, Chhappai, Behar-e-tabeel. There was a time when only men acted in Nautanki but nowadays, women have also started taking part in the performances. Among those remembered with reverence is Gulab Bai of Kanpur. She gave a new dimension to this old theatre form.
    Krishnattam, folk theatre of Kerala, came into existence in the middle of 17th century A.d) under the patronage of King Manavada of Calicut. Krishnattam is a cycle of eight plays performed for eight consecutive days. The plays are Avataram, Kaliamandana, Rasa krida, kamasavadha, Swayamvaram, Bana Yudham, Vivida Vadham, and Swargarohana) The episodes are based on the theme of Lord Krishna – his birth, childhood pranks and various deeds depicting victory of good over evil.

    Unattempted
    

    Originally the theatre form from Haryana, Swang, was mainly music-based) Gradually, prose too, played its role in the dialogues. The softness of emotions, accomplishment of rasa alongwith the development of character can be seen in this theatre form. The two important styles of Swang are from Rohtak and Haathras. In the style belonging to Rohtak, the language used is Haryanvi (Bangru) and in Haathras, it is Brajbhasha.
    Nautanki is usually associated with Uttar Pradesh. The most popular centres of this traditional theatre form are Kanpur, Lucknow and Haathras. The meters used in the verses are: Doha, Chaubola, Chhappai, Behar-e-tabeel. There was a time when only men acted in Nautanki but nowadays, women have also started taking part in the performances. Among those remembered with reverence is Gulab Bai of Kanpur. She gave a new dimension to this old theatre form.
    Krishnattam, folk theatre of Kerala, came into existence in the middle of 17th century A.d) under the patronage of King Manavada of Calicut. Krishnattam is a cycle of eight plays performed for eight consecutive days. The plays are Avataram, Kaliamandana, Rasa krida, kamasavadha, Swayamvaram, Bana Yudham, Vivida Vadham, and Swargarohana) The episodes are based on the theme of Lord Krishna – his birth, childhood pranks and various deeds depicting victory of good over evil.
98. Question 98 of 100

    98. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to Lord Lytton, the Viceroy of India from 1876-1880 :
    (1) He introduced uniform salt tax throughout British India.
    (2) He established Statutory Civil Services exclusively for Indians.
    (3) He favoured centralisation of financial powers.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Lord Lytton, the Viceroy of India from 1876-1880, is notoriously known for his Vernacular Press Act of 1878 and the Arms Act of 1878. He also undertook some reforms in administration such as: He introduced uniform salt tax throughout British India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    He also abolished many import duties and supported the Free Trade Policy. This had seriously affected the Indian economic interest. The system of decentralisation of finance that had begun in the time of Lord Mayo was continued during the time of Lord Lytton. The provincial governments were empowered with some control over the expenditure of all provincial matters like land-revenue, excise, stamps, law and justice. Lytton wanted to encourage the provinces in collecting the revenue and thereby strengthen the financial power and position of the provinces. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    In 1878, the Statutory Civil Service was established exclusively for Indians but this was abolished later. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Lord Lytton, the Viceroy of India from 1876-1880, is notoriously known for his Vernacular Press Act of 1878 and the Arms Act of 1878. He also undertook some reforms in administration such as: He introduced uniform salt tax throughout British India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    He also abolished many import duties and supported the Free Trade Policy. This had seriously affected the Indian economic interest. The system of decentralisation of finance that had begun in the time of Lord Mayo was continued during the time of Lord Lytton. The provincial governments were empowered with some control over the expenditure of all provincial matters like land-revenue, excise, stamps, law and justice. Lytton wanted to encourage the provinces in collecting the revenue and thereby strengthen the financial power and position of the provinces. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    In 1878, the Statutory Civil Service was established exclusively for Indians but this was abolished later. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
99. Question 99 of 100

    99. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding New Development Bank (NDB)
    (1) It is a multilateral development bank established by BRICS.
    (2) Bank supports public or private projects through loans, guarantees and equity participation.
    (3) The first regional office of the NDB is in New Delhi.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa). Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
    According to the Agreement on the NDB, “the Bank shall support public or private projects through loans, guarantees, equity participation and other financial instruments.” Moreover, the NDB “shall cooperate with international organizations and other financial entities, and provide technical assistance for projects to be supported by the Bank. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
    The bank is headquartered in Shanghai, China.
    The first regional office of the NDB is in Johannesburg, South Africa. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa). Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
    According to the Agreement on the NDB, “the Bank shall support public or private projects through loans, guarantees, equity participation and other financial instruments.” Moreover, the NDB “shall cooperate with international organizations and other financial entities, and provide technical assistance for projects to be supported by the Bank. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
    The bank is headquartered in Shanghai, China.
    The first regional office of the NDB is in Johannesburg, South Africa. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
100. Question 100 of 100

     100. Question

     Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign exchange reserves?
     (A) Foreign currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank.
     (B) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries.
     (C) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs.
     (D) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs.

     • A
     • B
     • C
     • D
     Correct
     

     Incorrect
     

     Reserve Bank of India Act and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 set the legal provisions for governing the foreign exchange reserves. Reserve Bank of India accumulates foreign currency reserves by purchasing from authorized dealers in open market operations. Foreign exchange reserves of India act as a cushion against rupee volatility once global interest rates start rising.
     The Foreign exchange reserves of India consists of below four categories;
     Foreign Currency Assets
     Gold
     Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
     Reserve Tranche Position.

     Unattempted
     

     Reserve Bank of India Act and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 set the legal provisions for governing the foreign exchange reserves. Reserve Bank of India accumulates foreign currency reserves by purchasing from authorized dealers in open market operations. Foreign exchange reserves of India act as a cushion against rupee volatility once global interest rates start rising.
     The Foreign exchange reserves of India consists of below four categories;
     Foreign Currency Assets
     Gold
     Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
     Reserve Tranche Position.