TEST 24 – PART 1 – Enlight IAS

TEST 24 - PART 1

TEST 24 - PART 1

CSAT TEST 1 : PRELIMS 2024
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Review

Question 1 of 80
1. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Higher learning centres in ancient India enjoyed no less academic, administrative and financial autonomy than the most autonomous universities in the world today. Forcing higher educational institutions to follow uniform standardised rules and regulations run counter to what the NEP provides for. Micromanagement of student admission, faculty recruitment, course contents, programme delivery and administration are a surefire recipe to take higher education farther away from excellence.
With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
I. More the autonomy more the excellence of Universities.
II. The Universities in India today are not fully autonomous.
III. Universities are not autonomous because of NEP.
Which of the above of assumption(s) is/ are valid?
(A) I and II only.
(B) II and III only.
(C) I and III only.
(D) All of the above.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 2 of 80
2. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Unity in diversity defined England’s successful march to the winners’s podium. Inclusivity was the watchword as the players from difference backgrounds performed in sync even as some fought migration-angst while other battled inner demons.
With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
I. Other teams lost because they were not inclusive like England.
II. Unity in Diversity is mainly needed to win games.
III. Immigrants show better loyalty to their adopted nation than their own.
IV. People who can handle inner conflict well handle external pressures also well.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid?
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) II, III and IV only
(C) III and IV only
(D) IV only
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 3 of 80
3. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
The talismanic all-rounder and England’s Test captain does give the Moses-vibe, parting seas, ushering in miracles and making fans believe that nothing is improbable on the cricketing turf. Yet, he is equally fragile. “Look he is a champion but he is a human too, there will be anxiety,” Rashid said. There are dual threads running here that are linked to history and the mind. Leap back to the 2016 final at Eden Gardens and you will recall Ian Bishop’s iconic final remark: “Carlos Brathwaite, remember the name!” The West Indian had just clattered four sixes off Stokes in the game’s concluding over. An improbable victory was seized and Stokes sat on his haunches, hid his head within his palms and wept. Cut to a more recent vintage and we now deal with a Stokes, who sought a break due to mental exhaustion. It takes courage to admit that athletes due to ingrained machismo tend to put on an invincible facade. Even Virat Kohli admitted to faking intensity when deep inside he was dealing with the shadows of the mind. Seen through that light, it is remarkable that despite the historical baggage and depression lurking below the surface, Stokes came back for good.
Winning the 2019 World Cup for Eoin Morgan’s men followed by some terrific exploits in Tests and now to make peace with the ghosts of the past is never easy. Stokes did precisely that and as his T20 skipper Jos Buttler said, he is a “big-match player.” To open the bowling and then to shepherd the middle-order in a nervous chase can be daunting and the pressure quadruples during a summit clash.
What is the most critical message from the above passage?
(A) Every champion is human too and become anxious.
(B) Stokes was a 'big match player' in recent World Cup.
(C) It takes courage to admit like Virat Kohli that sportsmen put on an invisible facade.
(D) The mind can keep in check past memories from adding to the pressures.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 4 of 80
4. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
India in November 2022 announced its long-term strategy to transition to a “low emissions” pathway at the United Nations Conference of Parties (COP) ongoing in Sharm el Sheikh, Egypt, which is premised on expanding its nuclear power capacity by at least three fold in the next decade, apart from becoming an international hub for producing green hydrogen and increasing the proportion of ethanol in petrol.
With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
I. With the increase in nuclear power, green hydrogen and ethanol, use of fossil fuels will become history in India.
II. Renewable energy is not part of Indian long-term strategy of low emissions.
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Assumption I is invalid practically and passage says ethanol would be mixed with petrol. Assumption II is valid since it Renewable Energy is considered as Zero Emission producer of energy.
Unattempted
Assumption I is invalid practically and passage says ethanol would be mixed with petrol. Assumption II is valid since it Renewable Energy is considered as Zero Emission producer of energy.

Question 5 of 80
5. Question
An iron tank 5 m x 2 m x 14 m is always filled with water up to half of its height. What surface area of the tank which is at a higher risk of corrosion?
(A) 110 cu. m
(B) 106 cu. m
(C) 108 cu. m
(D) 112 cu. m
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
If L, B and H are the dimensions Of the water column,
then the wet area (only 5 faces) = 2(BH + LH) + LB
= 2 x [(2 x 7+5 x 7)] +(5 x 2).
The result is 108 cu. m.
Unattempted
If L, B and H are the dimensions Of the water column,
then the wet area (only 5 faces) = 2(BH + LH) + LB
= 2 x [(2 x 7+5 x 7)] +(5 x 2).
The result is 108 cu. m.

Question 6 of 80
6. Question
In an annual day function, all the events are scheduled to occur at regular intervals of half an hour. Group singing began 26 minutes ago and Classical dance is the next event scheduled at 10.30. By how many minutes group singing started late?
(A) 3 minutes
(B) 4 minutes
(C) 5 minutes
(D) 6 minutes
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Since next event is scheduled at 10.30, Group singing must begin at 10.00
But it began only 26 mins before (at 10.04).
So the delay is 4 mins.
Unattempted
Since next event is scheduled at 10.30, Group singing must begin at 10.00
But it began only 26 mins before (at 10.04).
So the delay is 4 mins.

Question 7 of 80
7. Question
If 783945 is divisible by 11, where is a digit, then * is equal to ?
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 3
(D) 5
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
(7++9+5) – (8+3+4)
= 21 + -15 = 6 + *
6 + * , must be 11 or multiple of 11.
6 + * = 11, * = 5
Unattempted
(7++9+5) – (8+3+4)
= 21 + -15 = 6 + *
6 + * , must be 11 or multiple of 11.
6 + * = 11, * = 5

Question 8 of 80
8. Question
In a school of the boys are same in number as of the girls and of the girls are same in number as of the boys. The ratio of the boys to girls in that school is ?
(D) 2 : 1
(B) 5 : 2
(C) 4 : 3
(D) 3 : 2
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

Unattempted

Question 9 of 80
9. Question
In an office, there are 108 tables and 132 chairs. If 1/6 of the tables and 1/4 of the chairs are broken. How many people can work in the office if each person requires one table and one chair?
(A) 86
(B) 90
(C) 92
(D) 99
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Broken Chair =
un-broken chair = 108 – 18 = 90
Broken Table =
Un-broken Table = 132-33= 99
Un-broken pair of chair and table is 90.
Unattempted
Broken Chair =
un-broken chair = 108 – 18 = 90
Broken Table =
Un-broken Table = 132-33= 99
Un-broken pair of chair and table is 90.

Question 10 of 80
10. Question
Six numbers are arranged in decreasing order. The average of the first five numbers is 30 and the average of the last five numbers is 25. The difference of the first and the last numbers is
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 5
(D) 30
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
a>b>c>d>e>f
– (i)
– (ii)
(i) – (ii) =
a – f = 5×5 = 25
Unattempted
a>b>c>d>e>f
– (i)
– (ii)
(i) – (ii) =
a – f = 5×5 = 25

Question 11 of 80
11. Question
Pointing to Kathir, Sabitha said, “His mother’s brother is the father of my son Madhan.” How is Kathir related to Sabitha’s husband’s sister’s husband’s mother?
(A) Son
(B) Grandson
(C) Nephew
(D) Cousin
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Father of Sabitha’s son — Sabitha’s husband. So, Kathir is the son of sister of Sabitha’s husband.
Sabitha’s husband’s sister’s husband’s mother is Kathir’s grandmother.
So Kathir is her Grandson
Unattempted
Father of Sabitha’s son — Sabitha’s husband. So, Kathir is the son of sister of Sabitha’s husband.
Sabitha’s husband’s sister’s husband’s mother is Kathir’s grandmother.
So Kathir is her Grandson

Question 12 of 80
12. Question
A least number which should be added to 4196 so that it is divisible by 24, 50 and 105 is ____________
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 6
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
The LCM of 24, 50 and 105 = 4200. The lcm when divided by either of these numbers leaves the remainder O.
The minimum number to be added is 4200 – 4196 = 4.
Unattempted
The LCM of 24, 50 and 105 = 4200. The lcm when divided by either of these numbers leaves the remainder O.
The minimum number to be added is 4200 – 4196 = 4.

Question 13 of 80
13. Question
Three people are running around a circular track which is 3600m. Their speed is 75m/s, 80m/s and 90 m/s respectively. After how many minutes will they all again meet at a starting point?
(A) 12 minutes
(B) 16 minutes
(C) 18 minutes
(D) 20 minutes
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
T1 = 3600/75 = 48 minutes,
T2= 3600/80 = 45 mins,
T3 = 3600/9 = 40 mins.
T=LCM (T1, T2, T3) = 720 seconds.
Convert to mins = 720/60 = 12 mins.
Unattempted
T1 = 3600/75 = 48 minutes,
T2= 3600/80 = 45 mins,
T3 = 3600/9 = 40 mins.
T=LCM (T1, T2, T3) = 720 seconds.
Convert to mins = 720/60 = 12 mins.

Question 14 of 80
14. Question
The average number of visitors to a Museum on every Monday is 96, whereas it is 156 on other days of the month. What will be the average number of visitors for the entire month if it has 30 days and begins on Monday?
(A) 144
(B) 145
(C) 146
(D) 147
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
The month begins on a Monday, so there will be 5 Mondays.
The average = {(596) + (25156)} / 30
146
Unattempted
The month begins on a Monday, so there will be 5 Mondays.
The average = {(596) + (25156)} / 30
146

Question 15 of 80
15. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Traders of universally-prized Pashmina shawls are complaining that “obsolete testing methods” have resulted in many of their export consignments being flagged for presence of ‘Shahtoosh’ guard hair, which is obtained from endangered Tibetan antelopes. The traders claim the use of obsolete techniques such as ‘Light Microscopy’ by the authorities has resulted in several cases of ‘false positive’ leading to their wrongful prosecution.
The following assumptions have been drawn from the above passage:
I. Traders to make a profit mix Shahtooh Hair in Pashmina shawls.
II. Prices of Pashmina Shawls vary region / nation wise based on testing methodology.
III. Investment in improved testing methods will ensure quality control and facilitate exports.
IV. Technology improves testing and reduces corruption and harassment.
V. Pashmina is from mountain goats and mixing with Shahtoosh is not feasible as it is an antelope.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid?
(A) I, II, III and IV only
(B) II, III and V only
(C) III only
(D) I only
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 16 of 80
16. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
It is certainly appropriate for India to point to the great and growing global difficulties because of the Russian action. Mr. Jaishankar was correct when he said in Moscow on November 8, after his meeting with his Russian counterpart Sergei Lavrov, and, in his presence that “the global economy is simply too inter-dependent for a significant conflict anywhere, not to have major consequences elsewhere. We are seeing growing concerns on energy and food security from the conflict that are coming on top of severe stresses created by two years of COVID. The Global South, especially, is feeling the pain acutely.” It would also be correct for India to keep emphasising that the way out is through dialogue and diplomacy. It would, however, be counterproductive to go beyond such exhortations. This is not only because mediation efforts, if undertaken, may fail but also because they would expose the true extent of India’s global influence and the limitations of personal chemistry between leaders in influencing events. Leaders and diplomats, like angels, must always tread lightly.
Which of the following statements best reflects the critical message of the phrase ‘Leaders and diplomats, like angels, must always tread lightly’ in the above passage?
(A) Leaders and diplomats must not add additional stresses to the growing concerns on energy and food security and the severe stresses of past two years of COVID.
(B) Due to high Indian prestige presently in global affairs, Indian diplomats should intervene more and stop the conflict smoothly like angels.
(C) Pushing the envelope too much by leaders and diplomats may backfire.
(D) As the world is too interdependent too much intervention by leaders can lead to conflicts elsewhere and hence should tread lightly.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Beyond a limit diplomacy may fail and also show the weaknesses of India.
Unattempted
Beyond a limit diplomacy may fail and also show the weaknesses of India.

Question 17 of 80
17. Question
Pointing to a boy on the stage, Vidya said, “He is the only brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband.” How is the boy on the stage related to Vidya’s son’s sister?
(A) Brother
(B) Husband
(C) Cousin
(D) Nephew
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Wife of Vidya’s husband — Vidya;
Brother of daughter — Son.
So, the boy on the stage is Vidya’s son.
Vidya’s son’s sister is the sister of boy who is in the stage because Vidya’s daughter has only one brother.
Unattempted
Wife of Vidya’s husband — Vidya;
Brother of daughter — Son.
So, the boy on the stage is Vidya’s son.
Vidya’s son’s sister is the sister of boy who is in the stage because Vidya’s daughter has only one brother.

Question 18 of 80
18. Question
Which one of the following is a factor of the sum of first 25 natural numbers?
(A) 26
(B) 24
(C) 13
(D) 12
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Sum of first 25 natural numbers is
=
Unattempted
Sum of first 25 natural numbers is
=

Question 19 of 80
19. Question
In an exam the sum of the scores of A and B is 120, that of B and C is 130 and that of C and A is 140. Then the score of C is
(A) 65
(B) 75
(C) 70
(D) 60
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
A+B=120, B+C=130, C+D=140
(A+B) + (B+C) + (C+A) = 120+130+140
2(A+B+C) = 390
A+B+C= 195
C = (A+B+C) – (A+B)
= 195-120 = 75
Unattempted
A+B=120, B+C=130, C+D=140
(A+B) + (B+C) + (C+A) = 120+130+140
2(A+B+C) = 390
A+B+C= 195
C = (A+B+C) – (A+B)
= 195-120 = 75

Question 20 of 80
20. Question
If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier than Monday, What day will it be on the 20th day of the month?
(A) Thursday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Saturday
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
The seventh day of the month is three days earlier than Monday, which is Friday.
So, the 21st day is also Friday and thus, the 20th day is Thursday.
Unattempted
The seventh day of the month is three days earlier than Monday, which is Friday.
So, the 21st day is also Friday and thus, the 20th day is Thursday.

Question 21 of 80
21. Question
Sameer remembers that birthday of Sam is after Jan 19 but before Jan 24. But Ganesh remembers that it is between 17 and 21st Jan. If it was Tuesday on Jan 17, what is the day in which the common probable date for Sam’s birthday fall on?
(A) Friday
(B) Saturday
(C) Thursday
(D) Sunday
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Probable dates according to Sameer are 20,21,22,23.
Probable dates according to Ganesh are 18,19,20
The common date is 20.
If 17 is Tuesday
20 will be Friday.
Unattempted
Probable dates according to Sameer are 20,21,22,23.
Probable dates according to Ganesh are 18,19,20
The common date is 20.
If 17 is Tuesday
20 will be Friday.

Question 22 of 80
22. Question
Mixture of liquid A and B with total capacity 300 liters contains 70% of liquid A. How many more liters of liquid B should be added so that the proportions of liquid A and B become equal?
(A) 119 liters
(B) 120 liters
(C) 121 liters
(D) 122 liters
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
The volume of liquid A = 70% of 300 = 210 liters.
The volume of liquid B at present is 300-210 = 90 liters.
We need to make the volume of Liquid A equal to that of the Liquid B.
=> 210 = 90 + x
x = 120 litres.
Unattempted
The volume of liquid A = 70% of 300 = 210 liters.
The volume of liquid B at present is 300-210 = 90 liters.
We need to make the volume of Liquid A equal to that of the Liquid B.
=> 210 = 90 + x
x = 120 litres.

Question 23 of 80
23. Question
When a certain amount is invested in a simple interest scheme, it increases by 40% in 4 years. What will be compound interest after 3 years on an amount of Rs. 12000, at the same interest rate, and annual compounding?
(A) Rs. 3972
(B) Rs. 3852
(C) Rs. 3162
(D) Rs. 3632
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Simple interest on Rs. 100 in 4 years is Rs. 40, so rate is 40/4 = 10%.
Compound interest for 3 years = 12000* (1+ 10/100)3
12000(11/10)3
12000 11 * 11 * 11/1000
= Rs. 15972
Interest = A- 15972 – 12000 = Rs. 3972
Unattempted
Simple interest on Rs. 100 in 4 years is Rs. 40, so rate is 40/4 = 10%.
Compound interest for 3 years = 12000* (1+ 10/100)3
12000(11/10)3
12000 11 * 11 * 11/1000
= Rs. 15972
Interest = A- 15972 – 12000 = Rs. 3972

Question 24 of 80
24. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Regions with the most blocks with critical groundwater levels are in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh, where, despite replenishable systems, indiscriminate groundwater withdrawal has depressed the water table. Other endangered blocks are in Rajasthan and Gujarat, where due to an arid climate, groundwater recharge itself is limited, and finally, parts of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, where due to inherent characteristics of crystalline water-storing aquifers, groundwater availability is low. That much more needs to be done to conserve groundwater is a foregone conclusion. There is no central law governing the use of groundwater and various States have their own laws on regulating its extraction that are deployed in a perfunctory manner. A draft National Water Policy has recommended a shift in usage from water-guzzling crops and prioritising recycled over freshwater for industrial purposes. Water ought not to be considered a free, private resource but one whose costs must be measured and borne equitably. While water remains a politically contentious subject in India, the climate crisis should inspire consensus across the political spectrum on disincentivising wasteful consumption of this precious resource.
Which of the following statements best reflects the critical message of the above passage?
(A) Need of a central law to regulate extraction and replenishment of water is imperative.
(B) Each State based on terrain peculiarities should regulate indiscriminate groundwater withdrawal and take measures to conserve and recharge groundwater.
(C) Preciousness of water and its egalitarian belonging needs to be highlighted by all including leaders of all hues and wastage penalised.
(D) Water usage should not be free but charged.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 25 of 80
25. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
The release of the six remaining convicts in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case marks the end of a tragic episode that began with India’s disastrous involvement in Sri Lanka’s internal strife in the 1980s. The assassination in May 1991, ordered by the LTTE leadership and carried out by a suicide bomber, caused revulsion. However, over time, the prolonged incarceration of the seven persons ultimately found guilty evoked some public sympathy. Political parties in Tamil Nadu campaigned for the release of the four convicts on death row and three serving life terms. The Supreme Court commuted the death sentences to life in 2014. A resolution adopted by the Tamil Nadu Cabinet in 2018 for releasing them under Article 161 of the Constitution was not acted upon by the then Governor for a long time. Ultimately, he forwarded it to the Centre for its opinion. The Court, earlier this year, found no constitutional basis for the Governor’s action and invoked its extraordinary powers to order the release of A.G. Perarivalan. The same benefit has now been extended to others. While their release is no occasion to celebrate, contrary to what sections of the media and the political class seem to believe, it is not one for lamentation either. The plot’s masterminds are dead and only mid-level operatives and some local collaborators were apprehended. A sense that 31 years of imprisonment is punishment enough does indeed prevail.
Which of the following statements best gives the reason for the release of the six remaining convicts?
(A) The convicts were in jail for 31 years which is punishment enough.
(B) Politcal parties in Tamil Nadu campaigned for the release of the convicts.
(C) A resolution was adopted by the Tamil Nadu Cabinet in 2018 for releasing them.
(D) The precedence of release of A.G. Perarivalan using Courts extraordinary powers.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 26 of 80
26. Question
The difference between the greatest and the least four-digit numbers that begin with 3 and ends with 5 is ?
(A) 999
(B) 900
(C) 990
(D) 909
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
3995 – 3005 = 990
Unattempted
3995 – 3005 = 990

Question 27 of 80
27. Question
I have x marbles. My elder brother has 3 more than mine, while my younger brother has 3 less than mine. If the total number of marbles is 15, then the number of marbles that I have is ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
x + (x+3) + (x-3) = 15
3 x = 15 ,
x= 5
Unattempted
x + (x+3) + (x-3) = 15
3 x = 15 ,
x= 5

Question 28 of 80
28. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
The Delhi High Court has remarked that the intention of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was to protect children below the age of 18 from sexual exploitation and that it was never meant to criminalise consensual romantic relationships between young adults.
With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
I. POSCO will stop sexual exploitation of children.
II. Children below age of 18 having consensual sex can be charged under POSCO.
III. Using POSCO against romantic relationships is absurd and can be misused.
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid?
(A) All of the above.
(B) None of the above.
(C) II and III only.
(D) III only.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 29 of 80
29. Question
Arrange the following fractions in decreasing order :

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Convert fraction to decimal

Unattempted
Convert fraction to decimal

Question 30 of 80
30. Question
The digit in unit’s place of the following number is ?
(1570)2 + (1571)2 + (1572)2 + (1573)2
(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unit digit in (1570)2= 0
Unit digit in (1571)2= 12 =1
Unit digit in (1572)2= 22 =4
Unit digit in (1573)2= 32 =9
0+1+4+9 =14
Unit digit is 4
Unattempted
Unit digit in (1570)2= 0
Unit digit in (1571)2= 12 =1
Unit digit in (1572)2= 22 =4
Unit digit in (1573)2= 32 =9
0+1+4+9 =14
Unit digit is 4

Question 31 of 80
31. Question
Which is the largest of the following fractions?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Covert all into decimal 2/3 = 0.66,
3/5 = 0.6,
8/11 = 0.73,
11/17 = 0.65
Unattempted
Covert all into decimal 2/3 = 0.66,
3/5 = 0.6,
8/11 = 0.73,
11/17 = 0.65

Question 32 of 80
32. Question
The largest among the following numbers is ?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

0.01< 0.02 < 0.11< 0.12
Unattempted

0.01< 0.02 < 0.11< 0.12

Question 33 of 80
33. Question
Which of the following number is the greatest of all ?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

Unattempted

Question 34 of 80
34. Question
Directions : Examine the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
The age (in years) of each of seven sisters – Deepa, Gaya, Mamta, Neeta, Piya, Rita and Sarita is different and is among 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10. Also,
Rita is one year younger than Sarita.
Gaya is three years older than Deepa.
Piya is neither the youngest nor the eldest and Neeta is younger than Deepa.
Mamta has as many sisters younger to her as elder to her.
Who is the youngest sister?
(A) Neeta
(B) Rita
(C) Gaya
(D) Deepa
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
From the given information seven sisters can be arranged according to their ages are shown below :
10–Sarita
9–Rita
8–Gaya
7–Mamta
6–Piya
5–Deepa
4– Neeta
Neeta is the youngest of all sisters.
Unattempted
From the given information seven sisters can be arranged according to their ages are shown below :
10–Sarita
9–Rita
8–Gaya
7–Mamta
6–Piya
5–Deepa
4– Neeta
Neeta is the youngest of all sisters.

Question 35 of 80
35. Question
Select the missing number from the options given below :

(A) 1012
(B) 48
(C) 25
(D) 36
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
2 × 21 × 26 = 1092
1 × 22 × 46 = 1012
Similarly, 2 × ? × 20 = 1000
? = 1000/40 = 25
Unattempted
2 × 21 × 26 = 1092
1 × 22 × 46 = 1012
Similarly, 2 × ? × 20 = 1000
? = 1000/40 = 25

Question 36 of 80
36. Question
How many dots are there on the face opposite to the face with two dots?

(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
From dices 1 & 2
Side having 5 dots is common
Writing anticlockwise,154871042655
5 3 2
5 4 6
Dice 6 is opposite to Dice 2.
Unattempted
From dices 1 & 2
Side having 5 dots is common
Writing anticlockwise,154871042655
5 3 2
5 4 6
Dice 6 is opposite to Dice 2.

Question 37 of 80
37. Question
One’s digit of the number (22)23 is ?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 2
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
21=2, 22=4, 23=8, 24=16, 25=32, 26=64 ……
After index 4, the unit digit of 2 is repeated.
Divide index 23 by 4 and remainder is 3.
Therefore, unit digit in (22)23 = unit digit in 223 = unit digit in 23 = 8.
Unattempted
21=2, 22=4, 23=8, 24=16, 25=32, 26=64 ……
After index 4, the unit digit of 2 is repeated.
Divide index 23 by 4 and remainder is 3.
Therefore, unit digit in (22)23 = unit digit in 223 = unit digit in 23 = 8.

Question 38 of 80
38. Question
Two trains 121 m and 99 m in length respectively are running in opposite directions, one at the rate of 40 kmph and the other at the rate of 32 kmph. How long will they take to be completely clear of each other from the moment they meet?
(A) 110 sec
(B) 99 sec
(C) 88 sec
(D) 11 sec
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Time taken to cover=(121+99)=220
at the rate of (32 + 40), i.e. 72 km/h
= 220/(72×5/18) sec =11 sec.
Unattempted
Time taken to cover=(121+99)=220
at the rate of (32 + 40), i.e. 72 km/h
= 220/(72×5/18) sec =11 sec.

Question 39 of 80
39. Question
Raju, walking at the rate of 6 kmph, covers a certain distance in three hours. In how much time will Raju cover this distance running at the speed of 18 kmph?
(A) 1 hour
(B) 3 hours
(C) 60 hours
(D) 22 hours
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Let the distance be X.
=>Distance = Speed x Time taken = 6 x 3 = 18 km.
Now, speed = 18 km/hr.
=>Time taken = Distance/Speed
= 18/ 18 = 1 hour.
Unattempted
Let the distance be X.
=>Distance = Speed x Time taken = 6 x 3 = 18 km.
Now, speed = 18 km/hr.
=>Time taken = Distance/Speed
= 18/ 18 = 1 hour.

Question 40 of 80
40. Question
Two cyclists start together to travel to a certain destination, one at the rate of 4 km/h and the other at the rate of 5 km/h. Find the distance if the former arrives half an hour after the latter.
(A) 2 km
(B) 10m
(C) 10000m
(D) 1 km
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Let the distance be X km. Now Time= distance/ speed.
=>Time for the first rider = X/14.
Similarly, time for the second cyclist = X/5.
Given that: X/14 – X/5 =1/2
=> X= 10 km = 10000 m
Unattempted
Let the distance be X km. Now Time= distance/ speed.
=>Time for the first rider = X/14.
Similarly, time for the second cyclist = X/5.
Given that: X/14 – X/5 =1/2
=> X= 10 km = 10000 m

Question 41 of 80
41. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Chief Justice of India, Chandrachud sets great store in a judge’s ability to foresee democratic erosion. He says the subversion of constitutional democracy does not happen with sweeping changes but through very small, incremental changes, which if left unguarded open up the danger of eventually and cumulatively affecting the democratic polity. “No case is too small… even if the case deals with the free speech of one individual”. A judge, he said, should read a case not just through the eyes or the mind, but also through intuition and go beyond the legalese to spot the human problem lying hidden somewhere among the pages.
It is this ability to travel beyond the strict confines of law that led to Justice Chandrachud's judgment recognising privacy as a fundamental right and his historic dissent of the Aadhaar policy. While upholding the rights of activists in the Bhima Koregaon case, the Justice said persecution was not the answer to dissent. “Voices in opposition cannot be muzzled”.
The following assumptions have been drawn from the above passage:
I. Every single case needs to be given due importance by Judges.
II. Silencing dissent leads to subversion of constitutional democracy.
III. Judiciary is the bulwark against gradual erosion of democratic norms.
IV. Activists work against elected governments and hence have to be strongly dealt with.
V. Judges should go blindly as per the law and not subjective.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid:
(A) All of the above
(B) I, II, III and IV only
(C) I, II, III only
(D) I and II only
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 42 of 80
42. Question
5349 is added to 3957. Then 7062 is subtracted from the sum. The result is not divisible by ?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 11
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
(5349 + 3957) −7062 = 2244
It is devisable by 3, 4, 11, but not 7
Unattempted
(5349 + 3957) −7062 = 2244
It is devisable by 3, 4, 11, but not 7

Question 43 of 80
43. Question
Simplify 3 15 * 2 5 5 3
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 12
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
3 15 * 2 5 5 3 = 3 * 2/5 155/3
= 6/5 55
= 6/5 5 = 6
Unattempted
3 15 * 2 5 5 3 = 3 * 2/5 155/3
= 6/5 55
= 6/5 5 = 6

Question 44 of 80
44. Question
On dividing a number by 9, the remainder is 8. The quotient so obtained when divided by 11, leaves the remainder 9. Now the quotient so obtained when divided by 13, leaves the remainder 8. Find the remainder when then given number is divided by 1287.
(A) 879
(B) 881
(C) 883
(D) 885
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Suppose the given number is N. We have N = 9Q1 + 8,
Q1 = 11Q2 + 8,
Q2 = 13Q3 + 8.
Here Q1, Q2 and Q3 are first, second and 3rd quotient.
Now N = 9 [11 (13Q3 + 8) + 9] + 8 = 1287Q3 + 881.
Unattempted
Suppose the given number is N. We have N = 9Q1 + 8,
Q1 = 11Q2 + 8,
Q2 = 13Q3 + 8.
Here Q1, Q2 and Q3 are first, second and 3rd quotient.
Now N = 9 [11 (13Q3 + 8) + 9] + 8 = 1287Q3 + 881.

Question 45 of 80
45. Question
When n is divided by 6, the remainder is 4. When 2n is divided by 6, the remainder is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Let quotient be q then
n = 6q + 4
2n = 12 q + 8
2n = 6(2q+1) + 2
Here remainder is 2.
Unattempted
Let quotient be q then
n = 6q + 4
2n = 12 q + 8
2n = 6(2q+1) + 2
Here remainder is 2.

Question 46 of 80
46. Question
A number when divided by 136 leaves remainder 36. If the same number is divided by 17, then the remainder will be ?
(A) 9
(B) 7
(C) 3
(D) 2
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
if the first divisor is exactly divisible by second divisor then Required remainder
= Remainder obtained on dividing first remainder by second divisor.
136 is exactly devisable by 17.
Therefore, Remainder on dividing 36 by 17 = 2
Unattempted
if the first divisor is exactly divisible by second divisor then Required remainder
= Remainder obtained on dividing first remainder by second divisor.
136 is exactly devisable by 17.
Therefore, Remainder on dividing 36 by 17 = 2

Question 47 of 80
47. Question
A number, when divided by 119, leaves a remainder of 19. If it is divided by 17, it will leave a remainder of ?
(A) 19
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 2
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Number = 119q + 19
=17x7xq + 17×1 + 2
= 17(7q+1) + 2
Hence, the same number divided by 17 will leave a remainder of 2.
Unattempted
Number = 119q + 19
=17x7xq + 17×1 + 2
= 17(7q+1) + 2
Hence, the same number divided by 17 will leave a remainder of 2.

Question 48 of 80
48. Question
If 'we are reaching Delhi' means 'kiz kip kil kih', 'Delhi is really beautiful' means 'kih kid kim kin', 'is akash reaching there' means 'kil kit kic kid' and 'we really need akash' means 'kim kiw kit kip', then how would you code 'akash is reaching delhi'?
(A) kic kim kip kih
(B) kid kin kip kih
(C) kit kid kil kih
(D) kip kim kil kih
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
code for 'Akash' is ‘kit'
code for ‘Is’ is ‘kid’
code for ‘Reaching’ is ‘kil’
code for ‘Delhi’ is kih
Unattempted
code for 'Akash' is ‘kit'
code for ‘Is’ is ‘kid’
code for ‘Reaching’ is ‘kil’
code for ‘Delhi’ is kih

Question 49 of 80
49. Question
In a certain code 'BEAD' is written as '7#94' and 'GREY' is written as '$%#8'. How is 'READY' written in that code?
(A) $%497.
(B) %#948.
(C) 794$%#.
(D) 847%$#.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Codes: R–>%,
E–>#,
A–>9,
D–>4 and
Y–>8.
So, READY would be coded as %#948.
Unattempted
Codes: R–>%,
E–>#,
A–>9,
D–>4 and
Y–>8.
So, READY would be coded as %#948.

Question 50 of 80
50. Question
The Following series has at least two different characters. Find the missing number in the series.
x_yzzxx_z_xx_zz
(A) xyzy
(B) zzxy
(C) yxzx
(D) xyzx
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
The series is xxyzz —– xxyzz —– xxyzz.
Unattempted
The series is xxyzz —– xxyzz —– xxyzz.

Question 51 of 80
51. Question
is divisible by ?
(A) 11
(B) 16
(C) 25
(D) 30
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

The number is multiple of prime number 2, 3 and 5, hence divisible by 2x3x5 = 30.
Unattempted

The number is multiple of prime number 2, 3 and 5, hence divisible by 2x3x5 = 30.

Question 52 of 80
52. Question
The sum of first 60 numbers from 1 to 60 is divisible by ?
(A) 13
(B) 59
(C) 60
(D) 61
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Sum of 1+2+3+4 …… +60

=
1830 is divisible by 61.
Unattempted
Sum of 1+2+3+4 …… +60

=
1830 is divisible by 61.

Question 53 of 80
53. Question
A student was asked to multiply a given number by 8/17. Instead, he divided the number by 8/17. His answer was 225 more than the correct answer. The given number was ?
(A) 64
(B) 289
(C) 136
(D) 225
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

n= 136
Unattempted

n= 136

Question 54 of 80
54. Question
In 24 hours, a boat can travel 288 km downstream. What is the speed of the boat in still water if it takes 72 hours to cover double distance in upstream?
(A) 10 kmph
(B) 12 kmph
(C) 14 kmph
(D) 16 kmph
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
The downstream speed 288/24 = 12 km/h,
and the upstream speed = 576/72 = 8 km/h
B = ½(D+U)
B = 12+8/2 = 10 km/h
Unattempted
The downstream speed 288/24 = 12 km/h,
and the upstream speed = 576/72 = 8 km/h
B = ½(D+U)
B = 12+8/2 = 10 km/h

Question 55 of 80
55. Question
The length of a road is one Kilometer. The number of plants required for plantation at a gap of 20 Meters in both sides of the road is ?
(A) 102
(B) 100
(C) 51
(D) 50
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Road length = 1000 Meters
One side at the distance of 20 Meters =
Both side of Road = 51 x2 = 102
Unattempted
Road length = 1000 Meters
One side at the distance of 20 Meters =
Both side of Road = 51 x2 = 102

Question 56 of 80
56. Question
A man reaches his office 30 min late, if he walks from his home at 3 km per hour and reaches 40 min early if he walks at 4 km per hour. How far is his office from his house?
(A) 7km
(B) 14 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 3 km
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Time gained = 30 + 40 = 70 min =70/60 hrs.
Let the distance be x km.
Therefore, x/3 – x/4=70×1/60
⇒x=14 km
Unattempted
Time gained = 30 + 40 = 70 min =70/60 hrs.
Let the distance be x km.
Therefore, x/3 – x/4=70×1/60
⇒x=14 km

Question 57 of 80
57. Question
Speeds of Arjun and Sarath are in the ratio 7 : 2.
What is the speed of Arjun if Sarath can cover a distance of 6 Km in 1 hour?
(A) 20 kmph
(B) 21 kmph
(C) 22 kmph
(D) 23 kmph
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
The speed of Sarath = 6/1 = 6 km/h
Ratio = 7 : 2.
Then 7/2 = x/6
x = 21 kmph
Unattempted
The speed of Sarath = 6/1 = 6 km/h
Ratio = 7 : 2.
Then 7/2 = x/6
x = 21 kmph

Question 58 of 80
58. Question
How many squares are there in the figure given below?

(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

Total number of squares : 12 + 22 = 5
When rows and columns are the same.
So, count the number of columns or row i.e 2
= 12 + 22
= 1 + 4 = 5
Unattempted

Total number of squares : 12 + 22 = 5
When rows and columns are the same.
So, count the number of columns or row i.e 2
= 12 + 22
= 1 + 4 = 5

Question 59 of 80
59. Question
What is the number of straight lines in the following figure?

(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 17
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
label the figure as shown below:

clearly in this figure:
There are 3 horizontal lines namely AG, BF, and CE.
There are 3 vertical lines namely AC, HD, and GE.
There are 6 slanting lines namely AD, AE, GC, GD, CD, AND CE.
Thus, There are 3+3+6=12 straight lines in all.
Unattempted
label the figure as shown below:

clearly in this figure:
There are 3 horizontal lines namely AG, BF, and CE.
There are 3 vertical lines namely AC, HD, and GE.
There are 6 slanting lines namely AD, AE, GC, GD, CD, AND CE.
Thus, There are 3+3+6=12 straight lines in all.

Question 60 of 80
60. Question
Two bangles of radii 19 and 11 cm are placed as concentric circles. What is the area of the portion that is inside the outer bangle but outside the inner bangle?
(A) 234π
(B) 236π
(C) 240π
(D) 242π
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
The required area is the difference in area of two bangles
= π (192-112)
= π (361 – 121) = 240 π
Unattempted
The required area is the difference in area of two bangles
= π (192-112)
= π (361 – 121) = 240 π

Question 61 of 80
61. Question
A person gives 1/4 of his property to his daughter, 1/2 to his sons and 1/5 for charity. How much has he given away?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

Unattempted

Question 62 of 80
62. Question
The decimal fraction is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

Unattempted

Question 63 of 80
63. Question
A tree increases annually by 1/8th of its height. By how much will it increase after 2 years, if it stands 64 cm high today?
(A) 72 cm
(B) 74 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 81 cm
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Height after one year 64 + 1/8 of 64 = 72
Height after second year 72+1/8 of 72 = 81
Unattempted
Height after one year 64 + 1/8 of 64 = 72
Height after second year 72+1/8 of 72 = 81

Question 64 of 80
64. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Energy is at the heart of the climate challenge – and key to the solution..
Which of the following statements best explains the above statement?
(A) Fossil fuels, such as coal, oil and gas, are by far the largest contributor to global climate change, accounting for over 75 percent of global greenhouse gas emissions.
(B) Need to end reliance on fossil fuels and invest in alternative sources of energy that are clean, accessible, affordable, sustainable, and reliable.
(C) A large chunk of the greenhouse gases that blanket the Earth and trap the sun’s heat are generated through energy production, by burning fossil fuels to generate electricity and heat.
(D) Energy consumption is the main cause of climate challenge and within the ambit of how energy is produced and utilized lies the answer.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 65 of 80
65. Question
Directions for the following item:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
With the 27th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP) in Sharm El Sheikh nearing its final stages and efforts being ramped up to arrive at a conclusive agreement, a consortium of countries that includes India has jointly stated that carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst parties, must be avoided. The European Union has proposed a policy — called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism — to tax products such as cement and steel, that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026.
BASIC, a group constituting Brazil, India, South Africa and China, and therefore large economies that are significantly dependent on coal, has for several years voiced common concerns and reiterated their right to use fossil fuel in the interim during their countries’ eventual transformation to clean energy sources “Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices, such as carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst Parties [signatory countries to the United Nations climate agreements], must be avoided. BASIC countries call for a united solidarity response by developing countries to any unfair shifting of responsibilities from developed to developing countries.”
Their joint statement on Wednesday expressed “grave concern” that developed countries were still not showing leadership or responding with a matching progression of effort. Developed countries had “backtracked on finance and mitigation commitments and pledges” and there was a “significant increase” in the consumption and production of fossil fuels in the past year by developed countries, their statement underlined, even as they continue to press developing countries to move away from the same resources. “Such double standards are incompatible with climate equity and justice.”
Which of the statements below best reflects the central thrust of the above passage ?
(A) Carbon Border Tax is a discriminatory practice according to BASIC.
(B) BASIC objections to the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism alongside other grievances against developed countries.
(C) Developed Countries double standards are incompatible with climate equity and justice is the conclusion of BASIC.
(D) Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices could result in market distortion and aggravate the climate crisis.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 66 of 80
66. Question
Directions for the following item:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
With the 27th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP) in Sharm El Sheikh nearing its final stages and efforts being ramped up to arrive at a conclusive agreement, a consortium of countries that includes India has jointly stated that carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst parties, must be avoided. The European Union has proposed a policy — called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism — to tax products such as cement and steel, that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026.
BASIC, a group constituting Brazil, India, South Africa and China, and therefore large economies that are significantly dependent on coal, has for several years voiced common concerns and reiterated their right to use fossil fuel in the interim during their countries’ eventual transformation to clean energy sources “Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices, such as carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst Parties [signatory countries to the United Nations climate agreements], must be avoided. BASIC countries call for a united solidarity response by developing countries to any unfair shifting of responsibilities from developed to developing countries.”
With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made regarding Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism:
I. Aim to distort markets and build trade tariffs.
II. Would reduce trading of extremely carbon intensive products.
III. Reduce fossil fuel consumption around the world.
IV. Attempt to put the burden on the developing nations to reduce carbon emissions.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid:
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) I, II and III only
(C) I, II and IV only
(D) II and IV only
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

Question 67 of 80
67. Question
Directions for the following item:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
With the 27th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP) in Sharm El Sheikh nearing its final stages and efforts being ramped up to arrive at a conclusive agreement, a consortium of countries that includes India has jointly stated that carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst parties, must be avoided. The European Union has proposed a policy — called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism — to tax products such as cement and steel, that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026.
BASIC, a group constituting Brazil, India, South Africa and China, and therefore large economies that are significantly dependent on coal, has for several years voiced common concerns and reiterated their right to use fossil fuel in the interim during their countries’ eventual transformation to clean energy sources “Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices, such as carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst Parties [signatory countries to the United Nations climate agreements], must be avoided. BASIC countries call for a united solidarity response by developing countries to any unfair shifting of responsibilities from developed to developing countries.”
According to the above passage what is not a “grave concern” of BASIC:
(A) Continued use of fossil fuel across the board.
(B) Unilateral measures and discriminatory practices.
(C) Leadership by developed countries in practice.
(D) Backtracking on commitments.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Continued use of fossil fuel is not a grave concern for BASIC according to the passage.
Unattempted
Continued use of fossil fuel is not a grave concern for BASIC according to the passage.

Question 68 of 80
68. Question
Directions : Study the following line graph carefully and answer the question given below.
026860500 Income (in Rs. lakhs)
Year
The percentage increase or decrease in the income of company C₂ is highest in which of the following years?
(A) 2013
(B) 2012
(C) 2011
(D) 2009
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
The percentage of increase/decrease in the income of company C2 in :
4328173365500
Unattempted
The percentage of increase/decrease in the income of company C2 in :
4328173365500

Question 69 of 80
69. Question
6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B is 7: 6 and A’s age after 6 years is 40 years. Present age of C is 10 years more than one – sixth of B’s present age. Find the ratio of present age of B and C?
(A) 3:2
(B) 2:1
(C) 4:5
(D) 1:3
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B = 7: 6 (7x, 6x)
Present ages of A and P = 7x + 6, 6x + 6
According to the question, A‘s age after 6 years is 40
7x + 6 + 6 = 40
7x = 28
x = 4
A’s present age = 7 x 4 + 6 = 34 years
B’s present age = 6 x 4 + 6 = 30 years
Present age of C = (1/6)B’s present age + 10
C’s present age = (1/6)30 + 10 = 15
Required ratio = 30: 15 = 2 : 1
Unattempted
6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B = 7: 6 (7x, 6x)
Present ages of A and P = 7x + 6, 6x + 6
According to the question, A‘s age after 6 years is 40
7x + 6 + 6 = 40
7x = 28
x = 4
A’s present age = 7 x 4 + 6 = 34 years
B’s present age = 6 x 4 + 6 = 30 years
Present age of C = (1/6)B’s present age + 10
C’s present age = (1/6)30 + 10 = 15
Required ratio = 30: 15 = 2 : 1

Question 70 of 80
70. Question
Directions : Examine the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
P, Q, R, S, T and U are members of a family. There are two married couples. Q is an engineer and the father of T. U is the grandfather of R and is a lawyer. S is the grandmother of T and is a housewife. There is one engineer, one lawyer, one teacher, one housewife and two students in the family.
Which of the following are two married couples?
(A) US and QP
(B) US and QT
(C) US and RP
(D) TS and RU
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
US and QP are two married couples.
Unattempted
US and QP are two married couples.

Question 71 of 80
71. Question
Directions : Examine the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
P, Q, R, S, T and U are members of a family. There are two married couples. Q is an engineer and the father of T. U is the grandfather of R and is a lawyer. S is the grandmother of T and is a housewife. There is one engineer, one lawyer, one teacher, one housewife and two students in the family.
Which of the following is definitely a group of male members?
(A) Q , U and T
(B) U and T
(C) Q, U and P
(D) Q and U
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Q and U are definitely males.
Unattempted
Q and U are definitely males.

Question 72 of 80
72. Question
In an organization 60 percent of the total number of employees earns more than Rs. 1 lakh per month. If 40 percent of the employees are men and 75% of the women earn more than Rs. 1 lakh in a month. What is the percentage of men who earns less than 1 lakh per month?
(A) 6412 %
(B) 6212%
(C) 6634%
(D) 6823%
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Let the total employees be 100.
Males = 40 and Females = 60
No. of women earning more than 1 lakh = 75% of 60 = 45.
No. of men earning more than 1 lakh = 60 – 45 = 15.
No. of men earning less than 1 lakh = 40 – 15 = 25.
Percentage of men who earns less than 1 lakh = 58100 = 125/2 = 6212%
Unattempted
Let the total employees be 100.
Males = 40 and Females = 60
No. of women earning more than 1 lakh = 75% of 60 = 45.
No. of men earning more than 1 lakh = 60 – 45 = 15.
No. of men earning less than 1 lakh = 40 – 15 = 25.
Percentage of men who earns less than 1 lakh = 58100 = 125/2 = 6212%

Question 73 of 80
73. Question
Directions for Question :
Study the following information given below to answer these questions.
There are 7 movies M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6, and M7 is released in 7 different month January, February, March, April, June, August, and October. M1 is released in the month having less than 31 days but not in April. There are 3 movies released between M1 and M3. M2 is released in one of the months after M4. No movie is released between M2 and M4. M5 is released in one of the months before M7. M5 is not released in a month having maximum number of days. No Movie is released between M7 and M5.
Which movie is released in the month of March?
(A) M6
(B) M7
(C) M1
(D) M3
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

Unattempted

Question 74 of 80
74. Question
Directions for Question :
Study the following information given below to answer these questions.
There are 7 movies M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6, and M7 is released in 7 different month January, February, March, April, June, August, and October. M1 is released in the month having less than 31 days but not in April. There are 3 movies released between M1 and M3. M2 is released in one of the months after M4. No movie is released between M2 and M4. M5 is released in one of the months before M7. M5 is not released in a month having maximum number of days. No Movie is released between M7 and M5.
Which movie among the following is released between the months of June and October?
(A) M4
(B) M6
(C) M7
(D) M2
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

Unattempted

Question 75 of 80
75. Question
Directions for Question :
Study the following information given below to answer these questions.
There are 7 movies M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6, and M7 is released in 7 different month January, February, March, April, June, August, and October. M1 is released in the month having less than 31 days but not in April. There are 3 movies released between M1 and M3. M2 is released in one of the months after M4. No movie is released between M2 and M4. M5 is released in one of the months before M7. M5 is not released in a month having maximum number of days. No Movie is released between M7 and M5.
Which of the following statements is true?
(A) M1 is released in the month of October.
(B) M3 is released between March and June.
(C) M6 is released in a month after M2
(D) None is true
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect

Unattempted

Question 76 of 80
76. Question
In a group of Lions and Crows the number of legs is 22 more than 2 times the number of heads. What is the number of Lions?
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 13
(D) 15
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
No. of Lions = x. No. of Crows = y.
Total number of legs = 4x + 2y.
The total number of heads = x + y.
Given, 4x + 2y = 2(x + y) + 22.
Solving for x, we get x = 11.
Unattempted
No. of Lions = x. No. of Crows = y.
Total number of legs = 4x + 2y.
The total number of heads = x + y.
Given, 4x + 2y = 2(x + y) + 22.
Solving for x, we get x = 11.

Question 77 of 80
77. Question
In a competitive exam, a candidate gets a score of 131 but attempts only 129 questions. If 4 marks are awarded for a correct answer, and 1 marks is deducted for a wrong answer, how many questions did he attempt wrongly?
(A) 75
(B) 76
(C) 77
(D) 78
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Let No. of wrong answers = n.
No. of correct questions = 129 – n.
[129 – n] x 4 – n(1) = 131.
516 – 4n – n = 131.
n = 77.
Unattempted
Let No. of wrong answers = n.
No. of correct questions = 129 – n.
[129 – n] x 4 – n(1) = 131.
516 – 4n – n = 131.
n = 77.

Question 78 of 80
78. Question
Rishi saves Rs.1250 after spending 55%,15% and 5% of his monthly income on household items, clothes and medicines respectively. What is Rishi’s Monthly income?
(A) Rs.5000
(B) Rs.4500
(C) Rs.5250
(D) Rs.6450
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Let the monthly income of Rishi be Rs. x.
Total expenditure = (55 + 15 + 5)% of x = 75% of x
Now, savings = (100 – 75)% of x = 1250
25% of x = 1250
x/4 = 1250
x = 41250
= Rs. 5000
Unattempted
Let the monthly income of Rishi be Rs. x.
Total expenditure = (55 + 15 + 5)% of x = 75% of x
Now, savings = (100 – 75)% of x = 1250
25% of x = 1250
x/4 = 1250
x = 41250
= Rs. 5000

Question 79 of 80
79. Question
Sreeja had three books in which Book A had 120 pages. Book B had 10% more pages than Book A and Book C had 10% less pages than Book A. If she tore roughly 5%, 10% and 15% of pages in A, B and C respectively, then approximately what percent of pages did she tear out?
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 11%
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
Given, Total No. of pages in book A = 120
Total No. of pages in book B
= 10% of 120 + 120
= 12 + 120
= 132
Total No. of pages in book C
= 120 – 10% of 120
= 120 – 12
= 108
No. of pages torn from book A = 5% of Total No. of pages in book A = (5/100) * 120 = 6
No. of pages torn from book B = 10% of 132 = 13.2
No. of pages torn from book C = 15% of 108 = 16.2
Total No. of pages torn out from books A, B, and C = 6 + 13.2 + 16.2 = 35.4
Now, Total No. of pages in books A,B, and C earlier = 120 + 132 + 108 = 360
Required Percentage
= (Total No. of pages torn out/Total No. of pages in books A, B and C earlier) * 100
= (35.4/360) * 100
= 9.83% (Around 10%)
Unattempted
Given, Total No. of pages in book A = 120
Total No. of pages in book B
= 10% of 120 + 120
= 12 + 120
= 132
Total No. of pages in book C
= 120 – 10% of 120
= 120 – 12
= 108
No. of pages torn from book A = 5% of Total No. of pages in book A = (5/100) * 120 = 6
No. of pages torn from book B = 10% of 132 = 13.2
No. of pages torn from book C = 15% of 108 = 16.2
Total No. of pages torn out from books A, B, and C = 6 + 13.2 + 16.2 = 35.4
Now, Total No. of pages in books A,B, and C earlier = 120 + 132 + 108 = 360
Required Percentage
= (Total No. of pages torn out/Total No. of pages in books A, B and C earlier) * 100
= (35.4/360) * 100
= 9.83% (Around 10%)

Question 80 of 80
80. Question
Direction for the following one item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud agreed to list in due course a writ petition to reconsider the Collegium system of judicial appointments to the Supreme Court and the High Courts. The petition sought the revival of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), which briefly gave the government an equal role along with the judiciary in the appointment of judges to the constitutional courts before it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015.
Which of the following statements best captures the logical and practical suggestion based on the challenges shared in the above passage ?
(A) The petitioners seeking NJAC to be revived is a sound suggestion as the Collegium System seems to have certain flaws.
(B) The NJAC system had its own flaws and hence Supreme Court had to struck it down and hence suggested not be revived.
(C) It is a battle between between Judiciary and Executive on who has the say in nominating judges and hence they need to find a via media and resolve it.
(D) Collegium System be reviewed, made more transparent/accountable to Constitutional norms keeping alive its independence from Executive/Legislature.
A
B
C
D
Correct
Incorrect
(D) seems more logical and sound than the other three suggestions.
Unattempted
(D) seems more logical and sound than the other three suggestions.