TEST 26 – PART 1

3rd Plan 2024 : Geography

Time limit: 0

0 of 100 questions completed

Questions:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29
30. 30
31. 31
32. 32
33. 33
34. 34
35. 35
36. 36
37. 37
38. 38
39. 39
40. 40
41. 41
42. 42
43. 43
44. 44
45. 45
46. 46
47. 47
48. 48
49. 49
50. 50
51. 51
52. 52
53. 53
54. 54
55. 55
56. 56
57. 57
58. 58
59. 59
60. 60
61. 61
62. 62
63. 63
64. 64
65. 65
66. 66
67. 67
68. 68
69. 69
70. 70
71. 71
72. 72
73. 73
74. 74
75. 75
76. 76
77. 77
78. 78
79. 79
80. 80
81. 81
82. 82
83. 83
84. 84
85. 85
86. 86
87. 87
88. 88
89. 89
90. 90
91. 91
92. 92
93. 93
94. 94
95. 95
96. 96
97. 97
98. 98
99. 99
100. 100

Information

.

You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.

Test is loading…

You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:

Your results are here!! for” 3rd Plan 2024 : Geography “

0 of 100 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0

1. Not categorized
   You have attempted: 0
   Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
   Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
   

maximum of 200 points

Pos.	Name	Entered on	Points	Result
Table is loading
No data available

Your result has been entered into leaderboard

Loading

Name: E-Mail:

Captcha:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29
30. 30
31. 31
32. 32
33. 33
34. 34
35. 35
36. 36
37. 37
38. 38
39. 39
40. 40
41. 41
42. 42
43. 43
44. 44
45. 45
46. 46
47. 47
48. 48
49. 49
50. 50
51. 51
52. 52
53. 53
54. 54
55. 55
56. 56
57. 57
58. 58
59. 59
60. 60
61. 61
62. 62
63. 63
64. 64
65. 65
66. 66
67. 67
68. 68
69. 69
70. 70
71. 71
72. 72
73. 73
74. 74
75. 75
76. 76
77. 77
78. 78
79. 79
80. 80
81. 81
82. 82
83. 83
84. 84
85. 85
86. 86
87. 87
88. 88
89. 89
90. 90
91. 91
92. 92
93. 93
94. 94
95. 95
96. 96
97. 97
98. 98
99. 99
100. 100

1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 100

   1. Question

   Consider the following statements regarding Kuroshio Current:
   (1) It is a cold current in the Western North Pacific Ocean.
   (2) It is responsible for sustaining the coral reefs of Japan.
   In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
   (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
   (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
   (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
   (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Kuroshio Current is a strong warm current in the Western North Pacific Ocean. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
   It begins in the east coast of Taiwan and flows northeastward past Japan, where it merges with the easterly drift of the North Pacific Current.
   It is sometimes referred to as the Black Stream (English translation of Kurashio) and as the Japan Current.
   It sustains the coral reefs of Japan and branches into the Sea of Japan as the Tsushima Current. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   The Kuroshio Current is a strong warm current in the Western North Pacific Ocean. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
   It begins in the east coast of Taiwan and flows northeastward past Japan, where it merges with the easterly drift of the North Pacific Current.
   It is sometimes referred to as the Black Stream (English translation of Kurashio) and as the Japan Current.
   It sustains the coral reefs of Japan and branches into the Sea of Japan as the Tsushima Current. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
2. Question 2 of 100

   2. Question

   The crustal surface is uneven because of:
   (1) variations in geothermal gradients within the earth
   (2) crustal thickness and strength
   In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
   (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
   (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
   (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
   (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes. This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction and primordial heat from the origin of the earth. This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere. Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal thickness and strength, the action of endogenic forces are not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven.
   Diastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes. All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. Volcanism includes the movement of molten rock (magma) onto or toward the earth’s surface and also formation of many intrusive and extrusive volcanic forms.

   Unattempted
   

   The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes. This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction and primordial heat from the origin of the earth. This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere. Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal thickness and strength, the action of endogenic forces are not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven.
   Diastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes. All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. Volcanism includes the movement of molten rock (magma) onto or toward the earth’s surface and also formation of many intrusive and extrusive volcanic forms.
3. Question 3 of 100

   3. Question

   Djibouti borders which of the following water bodies?
   (1) Gulf of Aden
   (2) Red Sea
   (3) Gulf of Suez
   (4) Persian Gulf
   How many of the above is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Republic of Djibouti, is a country located in the Horn of Africa. It is bordered by Eritrea in the north, Ethiopia in the west and south, and Somalia in the southeast. The remainder of the border is formed by the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden at the east.
   

   Unattempted
   

   Republic of Djibouti, is a country located in the Horn of Africa. It is bordered by Eritrea in the north, Ethiopia in the west and south, and Somalia in the southeast. The remainder of the border is formed by the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden at the east.
   
4. Question 4 of 100

   4. Question

   How many of the following atmospheric layers exhibit increase in temperature with increasing altitude?
   (1) Troposphere
   (2) Stratosphere
   (3) Mesosphere
   (4) Thermosphere
   Select the correct answer using the code given below :
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The atmosphere consists of different layers with varying density and temperature. Density is highest near the surface of the earth an decreases with increasing altitude. The column of atmosphere is divided into five differen layers depending upon the temperature condition. They are: troposphere, stratosphere mesosphere, thermosphere and exosphere. The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. This layer contains dust particles and water vapour. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1 °C for every 165m of height. This is the most important layer for a biological activity.
   The zone separating the tropsophere from stratosphere is known as the tropopause. The air temperature at the tropopause is about minus 800C over the equator and about minus 45oC over the poles. The temperature here is nearly constant, and hence, it is called the tropopause.
   The stratosphere is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km. One important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer. This layer absorbs ultra-violet radiationand shields life on the earth from intense, harmful form of energy. The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere, which extends up to a height of 80 km. In this layer, once again, temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100°C at the height of 80 km. The upper limit of mesosphere is known as the mesopause.The thermosphere is a layer of Earth's atmosphere. The thermosphere is directly above the mesosphere and below the exosphere. It extends from about 90 km (56 miles) to between 500 and 1,000 km (311 to 621 miles) above our planet. Temperatures climb sharply in the lower thermosphere (below 200 to 300 km altitude), then level off and hold fairly steady with increasing altitude above that height.
   Hence, only options 2 and 4 are correct.

   Unattempted
   

   The atmosphere consists of different layers with varying density and temperature. Density is highest near the surface of the earth an decreases with increasing altitude. The column of atmosphere is divided into five differen layers depending upon the temperature condition. They are: troposphere, stratosphere mesosphere, thermosphere and exosphere. The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. This layer contains dust particles and water vapour. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1 °C for every 165m of height. This is the most important layer for a biological activity.
   The zone separating the tropsophere from stratosphere is known as the tropopause. The air temperature at the tropopause is about minus 800C over the equator and about minus 45oC over the poles. The temperature here is nearly constant, and hence, it is called the tropopause.
   The stratosphere is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km. One important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer. This layer absorbs ultra-violet radiationand shields life on the earth from intense, harmful form of energy. The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere, which extends up to a height of 80 km. In this layer, once again, temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100°C at the height of 80 km. The upper limit of mesosphere is known as the mesopause.The thermosphere is a layer of Earth's atmosphere. The thermosphere is directly above the mesosphere and below the exosphere. It extends from about 90 km (56 miles) to between 500 and 1,000 km (311 to 621 miles) above our planet. Temperatures climb sharply in the lower thermosphere (below 200 to 300 km altitude), then level off and hold fairly steady with increasing altitude above that height.
   Hence, only options 2 and 4 are correct.
5. Question 5 of 100

   5. Question

   Which among the following processes is primarily responsible for flooding the atmosphere with oxygen during the evolution of Earth?
   (A) Degassing
   (B) Photosynthesis
   (C) Volcanic eruptions
   (D) Diastrophism

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   There are three stages in the evolution of the present atmosphere. The first stage is marked by the loss of primordial atmosphere. In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. Finally, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis. Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis. Eventually, oceans were saturated with oxygen, and 2,000 million years ago, oxygen began to flood the atmosphere.

   Unattempted
   

   There are three stages in the evolution of the present atmosphere. The first stage is marked by the loss of primordial atmosphere. In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. Finally, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis. Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis. Eventually, oceans were saturated with oxygen, and 2,000 million years ago, oxygen began to flood the atmosphere.
6. Question 6 of 100

   6. Question

   Consider the following pairs:
   River : Delta
   (1) Mississippi : Bird's Foot
   (2) Nile : Arcuate
   (3) Narmada : Lacustrine
   How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   A Bird's foot delta form where sea waves are weak in comparison to the strength of the river. The deposition of fine sediments extends out beyond the coastline. The channels of the river divide up into distributaries and looks like bird's feet. An example is the Mississippi Delta. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
   An Arcuate delta is in the shape of an arc. It looks like an upside down triangle when viewed from above. Arcuate deltas form where coarser materials such as gravel are deposited. The river deposits the material and new river channels are formed. The river Nile is an example. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
   Lacustrine deltas form at the mouth of a river when it flows into a Lake. River Narmada forms an Esturine delta as it flows directly into the Arabian Sea. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

   Unattempted
   

   A Bird's foot delta form where sea waves are weak in comparison to the strength of the river. The deposition of fine sediments extends out beyond the coastline. The channels of the river divide up into distributaries and looks like bird's feet. An example is the Mississippi Delta. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
   An Arcuate delta is in the shape of an arc. It looks like an upside down triangle when viewed from above. Arcuate deltas form where coarser materials such as gravel are deposited. The river deposits the material and new river channels are formed. The river Nile is an example. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
   Lacustrine deltas form at the mouth of a river when it flows into a Lake. River Narmada forms an Esturine delta as it flows directly into the Arabian Sea. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
7. Question 7 of 100

   7. Question

   While moving in the direction of the East African Rift Valley from south to north direction, how many of the following countries will be crossed?
   (1) Tanzania
   (2) Nigeria
   (3) Kenya
   (4) Ethiopia
   Select the correct answer using the code given below :
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) Only three
   (D) All

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The East African Rift Valley passes through several countries, but Nigeria is not one of them. So, while moving from south to north, we would cross Tanzania, Kenya, and Ethiopia.
   The East African Rift (EAR) is an active continental rift resulting from the splitting of the African plate into two. The EAR has two main branches: the Eastern Rift Valley, which comprises the Main Ethiopia Rift running from the Afar Triple Junction and continues south as the Kenyan Rift Valley, and the Western Rift Valley. Hence, options 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
   The following map shows the countries traversed by the EAR:
   

   Unattempted
   

   The East African Rift Valley passes through several countries, but Nigeria is not one of them. So, while moving from south to north, we would cross Tanzania, Kenya, and Ethiopia.
   The East African Rift (EAR) is an active continental rift resulting from the splitting of the African plate into two. The EAR has two main branches: the Eastern Rift Valley, which comprises the Main Ethiopia Rift running from the Afar Triple Junction and continues south as the Kenyan Rift Valley, and the Western Rift Valley. Hence, options 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
   The following map shows the countries traversed by the EAR:
   
8. Question 8 of 100

   8. Question

   A large part of the continent is arid and semi-arid land. It is known for its pastoral industries. It contains the world’s large artesian system’.
   Which of the following continents best fits the above description?
   (A) South America
   (B) Australia
   (C) North America
   (D) Africa

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   A large part of Australia is a rain-thirsty land. Only 4% of its land is under cultivation. But people have managed their limited land and water resources very well. It is known for its pastoral industries which are pursued on modern and scientific lines.
   Artesian well, deep drilled well through which water is forced upward under pressure. The water in an artesian well flows from an aquifer, which is a layer of very porous rock or sediment, usually sandstone, capable of holding and transmitting large quantities of water. The geologic conditions necessary for an artesian well are an inclined aquifer sandwiched between impervious rock layers above and below that trap water in it. Water enters the exposed edge of the aquifer at a high elevation and percolates downward through interconnected pore spaces. The water held in these spaces is under pressure because of the weight of water in the portion of the aquifer above it. If a well is drilled from the land surface through the overlying impervious layer into the aquifer, this pressure will cause the water to rise in the well. The largest artesian system in the world underlies nearly all of East and South Australia.
   

   Unattempted
   

   A large part of Australia is a rain-thirsty land. Only 4% of its land is under cultivation. But people have managed their limited land and water resources very well. It is known for its pastoral industries which are pursued on modern and scientific lines.
   Artesian well, deep drilled well through which water is forced upward under pressure. The water in an artesian well flows from an aquifer, which is a layer of very porous rock or sediment, usually sandstone, capable of holding and transmitting large quantities of water. The geologic conditions necessary for an artesian well are an inclined aquifer sandwiched between impervious rock layers above and below that trap water in it. Water enters the exposed edge of the aquifer at a high elevation and percolates downward through interconnected pore spaces. The water held in these spaces is under pressure because of the weight of water in the portion of the aquifer above it. If a well is drilled from the land surface through the overlying impervious layer into the aquifer, this pressure will cause the water to rise in the well. The largest artesian system in the world underlies nearly all of East and South Australia.
   
9. Question 9 of 100

   9. Question

   With reference to the tropical cyclone, consider the following statements:
   (1) Kerala is less prone to tropical cyclone as compared to Odisha.
   (2) Hyderabad is more prone to disaster from tropical cyclone thanVishakapatnam.
   In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
   (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
   (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
   (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
   (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The eastern coast of India is the most cyclone affected region. The cyclone prone states are: West Bengal, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Western coast is affected by the cyclones which originate in the Arabian Sea. Gujarat on the west coast is most affected by cyclones. The coastal areas and interior of Maharashtra are affected by cyclones too. More cyclones originate in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea than any other seas of the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
   The devastating effect of cyclone goes on decreasing as it moves away from sea. This is because the moisture supply has been cut. Coastal cities are more prone to tropical cyclone. Vishakhapatnam is a coastal city. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

   Unattempted
   

   The eastern coast of India is the most cyclone affected region. The cyclone prone states are: West Bengal, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Western coast is affected by the cyclones which originate in the Arabian Sea. Gujarat on the west coast is most affected by cyclones. The coastal areas and interior of Maharashtra are affected by cyclones too. More cyclones originate in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea than any other seas of the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
   The devastating effect of cyclone goes on decreasing as it moves away from sea. This is because the moisture supply has been cut. Coastal cities are more prone to tropical cyclone. Vishakhapatnam is a coastal city. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
10. Question 10 of 100

    10. Question

    How many of the following local and seasonal winds blow towards the Mediterranean sea from surrounding areas?
    (1) Chinook
    (2) Mistral
    (3) Sirocco
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A Chinook wind is a warm, dry wind originating from the Pacific Ocean that blows eastward over the Rocky Mountains, then down their slopes onto the prairies below. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
    Mistral, Italian maestrale, cold and dry strong wind in southern France that blows down from the north along the lower Rhone River valley toward the Mediterranean Sea. It may blow continuously for several days at a time, with velocities that average about 74 km (about 45 miles) per hour, and reach to a height of 2 to 3 km (about 1.2 to 1.9 miles). It is strongest and most frequent in winter, and it sometimes causes considerable damage to crops. The velocity of the wind is intensified as it blows down from the highlands to the coast and by the ―jet effect that results as it is funneled through the narrow Rhône valley. As the winds move out over the Rhône delta, they can reach velocities of 130 km (about 80 miles) per hour. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    Sirocco, warm, humid wind occurring over the northern Mediterranean Sea and southern Europe, where it blows from the south or southeast and brings uncomfortably humid air. The sirocco is produced on the east sides of low-pressure centres that travel eastward over the southern Mediterranean.
    It originates over North Africa as a dry wind and picks up moisture as it crosses the Mediterranean. Hence, option 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A Chinook wind is a warm, dry wind originating from the Pacific Ocean that blows eastward over the Rocky Mountains, then down their slopes onto the prairies below. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
    Mistral, Italian maestrale, cold and dry strong wind in southern France that blows down from the north along the lower Rhone River valley toward the Mediterranean Sea. It may blow continuously for several days at a time, with velocities that average about 74 km (about 45 miles) per hour, and reach to a height of 2 to 3 km (about 1.2 to 1.9 miles). It is strongest and most frequent in winter, and it sometimes causes considerable damage to crops. The velocity of the wind is intensified as it blows down from the highlands to the coast and by the ―jet effect that results as it is funneled through the narrow Rhône valley. As the winds move out over the Rhône delta, they can reach velocities of 130 km (about 80 miles) per hour. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    Sirocco, warm, humid wind occurring over the northern Mediterranean Sea and southern Europe, where it blows from the south or southeast and brings uncomfortably humid air. The sirocco is produced on the east sides of low-pressure centres that travel eastward over the southern Mediterranean.
    It originates over North Africa as a dry wind and picks up moisture as it crosses the Mediterranean. Hence, option 3 is correct.
11. Question 11 of 100

    11. Question

    How many of the following agricultural practices are found in the British Type of Climate?
    (1) Intensive Market Gardening
    (2) Mixed farming
    (3) Sheep Rearing
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The cool temperate western margins (British type climate) are under the permanent influence of the Westerlies all round the year. They are also regions of much cyclonic activity, typical of Britain, and are thus said to experience the British type of climate. From Britain, the climatic belt stretches far inland into the lowlands North-West Europe, including such regions as northern and western France, Belgium, the Netherlands, Denmark, western Norway and also north-western Iberia. In the southern hemisphere, the climate is experienced in southern Chile, Tasmania and most parts of New Zealand, particularly in SouthIsland.
    Option 1 is correct: Intensive Market Gardening is a carried out highly in the North Western Europe area. The highly industrialised and densely populated countries in North Western Europe drive the demand for this type of agriculture in the region. They are practised in specialized areas in North Western Europe like Vales of York and Evesham in the United Kingdom. Farms are small and close to industrial areas. High yield varieties are grown and the aim is to achieve maximum cash return. Inthis type of farming practice, most of the goods are perishable and hence require a good transportation network.
    Option 2 is correct: Farmers in this region (Britain and North-Western Europe) practise both arable farming and pastoral farming. Crops may be raised as cash crops or fodder for animals. The farmersin the region also engage in growing fruits, rear poultry and pigs and practise beekeeping for extracting honey.
    Option 3 is correct: A well developed practice in some parts of the region. Britain is home to some of the best-known sheep breeds that serve the dual purpose of meat and wool.

    Unattempted
    

    The cool temperate western margins (British type climate) are under the permanent influence of the Westerlies all round the year. They are also regions of much cyclonic activity, typical of Britain, and are thus said to experience the British type of climate. From Britain, the climatic belt stretches far inland into the lowlands North-West Europe, including such regions as northern and western France, Belgium, the Netherlands, Denmark, western Norway and also north-western Iberia. In the southern hemisphere, the climate is experienced in southern Chile, Tasmania and most parts of New Zealand, particularly in SouthIsland.
    Option 1 is correct: Intensive Market Gardening is a carried out highly in the North Western Europe area. The highly industrialised and densely populated countries in North Western Europe drive the demand for this type of agriculture in the region. They are practised in specialized areas in North Western Europe like Vales of York and Evesham in the United Kingdom. Farms are small and close to industrial areas. High yield varieties are grown and the aim is to achieve maximum cash return. Inthis type of farming practice, most of the goods are perishable and hence require a good transportation network.
    Option 2 is correct: Farmers in this region (Britain and North-Western Europe) practise both arable farming and pastoral farming. Crops may be raised as cash crops or fodder for animals. The farmersin the region also engage in growing fruits, rear poultry and pigs and practise beekeeping for extracting honey.
    Option 3 is correct: A well developed practice in some parts of the region. Britain is home to some of the best-known sheep breeds that serve the dual purpose of meat and wool.
12. Question 12 of 100

    12. Question

    The terms Mundakan, Aman and Agahani are related to which of the following?
    (A) Winter rice
    (B) Coastal winds
    (C) Coffee types
    (D) Local grass

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The main rice growing season in the country is the 'Kharif'. The sowing time of winter (kharif) rice is June-July and it is harvested in November-December.
    The term winter rice is known as per the harvesting time. Winter rice is known as 'Aman' in West Bengal, 'Sali' in Assam, 'Sarrad' in Orissa, 'Agahani' in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, 'Sarava' in Andhra Pradesh,'Mundakan' in Kerala and 'Samba/Thaladi' in Tamil Nadu.
    About 84% of the country's rice crop is grown in this season and generally, medium to long duration varieties are grown in this season.

    Unattempted
    

    The main rice growing season in the country is the 'Kharif'. The sowing time of winter (kharif) rice is June-July and it is harvested in November-December.
    The term winter rice is known as per the harvesting time. Winter rice is known as 'Aman' in West Bengal, 'Sali' in Assam, 'Sarrad' in Orissa, 'Agahani' in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, 'Sarava' in Andhra Pradesh,'Mundakan' in Kerala and 'Samba/Thaladi' in Tamil Nadu.
    About 84% of the country's rice crop is grown in this season and generally, medium to long duration varieties are grown in this season.
13. Question 13 of 100

    13. Question

    Which of the following port is popularly known as “Queen of the Arabian Sea” and has an advantageous location being close tothe Suez-Colombo route?
    (A) Mumbai Port
    (B) Marmagao Port
    (C) Tuticorin Port
    (D) Kochi Port

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Kochi Port, situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal, popularly known as the ―Queen of the Arabian Sea, is also a natural harbour. This port has an advantageous location being close to the Suez-Colombo route. It caters to the needs of Kerala, southern-Karnataka and southwestern Tamil Nadu.

    Unattempted
    

    Kochi Port, situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal, popularly known as the ―Queen of the Arabian Sea, is also a natural harbour. This port has an advantageous location being close to the Suez-Colombo route. It caters to the needs of Kerala, southern-Karnataka and southwestern Tamil Nadu.
14. Question 14 of 100

    14. Question

    Consider the following pairs regarding tribes and their location:
    Tribe : Location
    (1) Yobin : India
    (2) Bindibu : Australia
    (3) Hausa : Kenya
    How many of the above pair(s) is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Yobins are a geographically isolated tribe in Arunachal Pradesh. They are of the Mongoloid race and of the Tibeto-Burman Language group.
    The Hausa tribes are found in the African Savvana region. They are located in the Kenya & Tanzania and Nigeria respectively.
    Bindibu are tribes found in Australia.

    Unattempted
    

    Yobins are a geographically isolated tribe in Arunachal Pradesh. They are of the Mongoloid race and of the Tibeto-Burman Language group.
    The Hausa tribes are found in the African Savvana region. They are located in the Kenya & Tanzania and Nigeria respectively.
    Bindibu are tribes found in Australia.
15. Question 15 of 100

    15. Question

    With reference to atmospheric carbon dioxide, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is the largest constituent of the Earth's atmosphere.
    (2) In the atmosphere, it is not found beyond the troposphere.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Carbon Dioxide is meterologically a very important gas as it is transparent to the incoming solar radiation but opaque to the outgoing terrestrial radiation. It absorbs the terrestrial radation and reflects some part of it back towards the Earth's surface. Thus, it is also largely responsible for the greenhouse effect. Carbon Dioxide (0.036) is the fourth largest component of the Earth's atmosphere after Nitrogen (78.8), Oxygen (20.95) and Argon (0.93). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The atmosphere is composed of gases, water vapour and dust particles. The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that carbon dioxide and water vapourare found only up to 90 km from the surface of the Earth. The troposphere extends upward to about 10 km above sea level. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Carbon Dioxide is meterologically a very important gas as it is transparent to the incoming solar radiation but opaque to the outgoing terrestrial radiation. It absorbs the terrestrial radation and reflects some part of it back towards the Earth's surface. Thus, it is also largely responsible for the greenhouse effect. Carbon Dioxide (0.036) is the fourth largest component of the Earth's atmosphere after Nitrogen (78.8), Oxygen (20.95) and Argon (0.93). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The atmosphere is composed of gases, water vapour and dust particles. The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that carbon dioxide and water vapourare found only up to 90 km from the surface of the Earth. The troposphere extends upward to about 10 km above sea level. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
16. Question 16 of 100

    16. Question

    With reference to alluvial soils, consider the following statements:
    (1) They cover entire northern plains.
    (2) They are generally rich in potash.
    (3) They are highly fertile soils due to richness of humus content.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.
    Statement 2 is correct: Alluvial soils are generally rich in potash and lime but poor in phosphorous.
    Statement 3 is not correct: Alluvial soils are fertile because of having fine silt particles deposited annually by floods. These soils are poor in humus and nitrogen except the alluvial of Ganga deltaic region. Hence, it also support large variety of rabi and kharif crops.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.
    Statement 2 is correct: Alluvial soils are generally rich in potash and lime but poor in phosphorous.
    Statement 3 is not correct: Alluvial soils are fertile because of having fine silt particles deposited annually by floods. These soils are poor in humus and nitrogen except the alluvial of Ganga deltaic region. Hence, it also support large variety of rabi and kharif crops.
17. Question 17 of 100

    17. Question

    How many of the following is/are factors responsible for condensation?
    (1) presence of hygroscopic nuclei
    (2) low temperature
    (3) presence of moisture
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The transformation of water vapour into water is called condensation.
    In free air, condensation results from cooling around very small particles termed as hygroscopic condensation nuclei. (Free air is air not under restraint by pressure or flow or any kind of turbulence.)
    Particles of dust, smoke and salt from the ocean are particularly good nuclei because they absorb water. The most favourable condition for condensation is the decrease in air temperature.
    Condensation is influenced by the volume of air, temperature, pressure and humidity. After condensation the water vapour or the moisture in the atmosphere takes one of the following forms — dew, frost, fog and clouds.

    Unattempted
    

    The transformation of water vapour into water is called condensation.
    In free air, condensation results from cooling around very small particles termed as hygroscopic condensation nuclei. (Free air is air not under restraint by pressure or flow or any kind of turbulence.)
    Particles of dust, smoke and salt from the ocean are particularly good nuclei because they absorb water. The most favourable condition for condensation is the decrease in air temperature.
    Condensation is influenced by the volume of air, temperature, pressure and humidity. After condensation the water vapour or the moisture in the atmosphere takes one of the following forms — dew, frost, fog and clouds.
18. Question 18 of 100

    18. Question

    Which of the following climatic regions receives the maximum insolation at the surface?
    (A) Equatorial forests
    (B) Subtropical deserts
    (C) Sub-polar Ice sheets
    (D) Temperate Grasslands

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m2 in the tropics to about 70 Watt/m2 in the poles. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics.
    Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.

    Unattempted
    

    The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m2 in the tropics to about 70 Watt/m2 in the poles. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics.
    Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.
19. Question 19 of 100

    19. Question

    Which of the following is the correct sequence of rivers in decreasing order of their drainage basin in India?
    (A) Brahmaputra>Mahanadi>Narmada>Krishna
    (B) Krishna>Brahmaputra>Mahanadi>Narmada
    (C) Brahmaputra>Narmada>Mahanadi>Krishna
    (D) Mahanadi>Narmada>Brahmaputra>Krishna

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The correct order is Krishna > Brahmaputra > Mahanadi > Narmada.
    Krishna Basin has an area of about 2,58,948sq km. River Krishna originates from Satara district of Maharashtra and has a length of 1400 km. It flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh emptying into the Bay of Bengal. Its principal tributaries are Ghatprabha, Malprabha, Bhima, Musi, Munner.
    Brahmaputra Basin has an area about 1,94,413sq km with a total length of about 2900 km of which it travels only 916 km in India. Its principal tributaries are Lohit, Dibang, Subansiri, Kameng, Teesta, Dikhow etc.
    Mahanadi Basin has roughly an area of about 1,41,589sq km which soreads over five states of Chattisgarh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Maharashtra. Its principal tributaries are Seonath,Hasdeo, Ong, Ib, Tel and Jonk.
    Narmada basin extends over states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh having an area of 98,796 Sq.km which is nearly 3% of the total geographical area of the country. It is bounded bythe Vindhyas on the north, by the Maikala range on the east, by the Satpuras on the south and by the Arabian Sea on the west.

    Unattempted
    

    The correct order is Krishna > Brahmaputra > Mahanadi > Narmada.
    Krishna Basin has an area of about 2,58,948sq km. River Krishna originates from Satara district of Maharashtra and has a length of 1400 km. It flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh emptying into the Bay of Bengal. Its principal tributaries are Ghatprabha, Malprabha, Bhima, Musi, Munner.
    Brahmaputra Basin has an area about 1,94,413sq km with a total length of about 2900 km of which it travels only 916 km in India. Its principal tributaries are Lohit, Dibang, Subansiri, Kameng, Teesta, Dikhow etc.
    Mahanadi Basin has roughly an area of about 1,41,589sq km which soreads over five states of Chattisgarh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Maharashtra. Its principal tributaries are Seonath,Hasdeo, Ong, Ib, Tel and Jonk.
    Narmada basin extends over states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh having an area of 98,796 Sq.km which is nearly 3% of the total geographical area of the country. It is bounded bythe Vindhyas on the north, by the Maikala range on the east, by the Satpuras on the south and by the Arabian Sea on the west.
20. Question 20 of 100

    20. Question

    Soils of tropical and equatorial climates are very low in humus content because of:
    (1) high precipitation
    (2) low bacterial growth
    In the light of the above options, choose the correct answer :
    (A) Both options 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both options 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Option 1 is correct but option 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Option 1 is incorrect but option 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Biological activity is an integral part of formation of soil, as it helps in adding organic matter, moisture retention, nitrogen etc. But there is a difference between soils of cold and warm climate due to intensity of bacterial activity. In humid, tropical and equatorial climate, there is high precipitation because of which soil leaching is high which makes the soils low in humus content . Also, bacterial growth and action is intense and dead vegetation is rapidly oxidized leaving very low humus content in the soil. On the other hand, humus accumulates in cold climate and bacterial growth is also low. Because of low bacterial growth, organic matter remains undecomposed and layers of peat develop in sub-arctic and tundra climate. Hence, soils of cold climate have high humus content.
    Hence, only option 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Biological activity is an integral part of formation of soil, as it helps in adding organic matter, moisture retention, nitrogen etc. But there is a difference between soils of cold and warm climate due to intensity of bacterial activity. In humid, tropical and equatorial climate, there is high precipitation because of which soil leaching is high which makes the soils low in humus content . Also, bacterial growth and action is intense and dead vegetation is rapidly oxidized leaving very low humus content in the soil. On the other hand, humus accumulates in cold climate and bacterial growth is also low. Because of low bacterial growth, organic matter remains undecomposed and layers of peat develop in sub-arctic and tundra climate. Hence, soils of cold climate have high humus content.
    Hence, only option 1 is correct.
21. Question 21 of 100

    21. Question

    Which of the following phenomena may be associated with temperature inversion?
    (1) Occurrence of dense fogs in winter mornings.
    (2) Accumulation of smoke and dust particles in lower atmosphere.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times, the situations is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called inversion of temperature. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion. Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere.
    Dense fogs in mornings are common occurrences especially during winter season. This inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up and beings to warm the earth. Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times, the situations is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called inversion of temperature. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion. Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere.
    Dense fogs in mornings are common occurrences especially during winter season. This inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up and beings to warm the earth. Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
22. Question 22 of 100

    22. Question

    With respect to India’s borders with its neighbours, consider the following statements:
    (1) India- Myanmar boundary runs along the watershed between Brahmaputra and Irrawady rivers.
    (2) India shares longest international border with Pakistan.
    (3) India shares boundary with Afghanistan through Wakhan corridor.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: India- Myanmar boundary runs roughly along the watershed between the Brahmaputra and Ayeyarwady [Irrawaddy]. It passes through thickly forested regions, with Mizo Hills, Manipur and Nagaland on the Indian side and Chin Hills, Naga Hills and Kachin state on the Myanmar side.
    Statement 2 is not correct:India shares longest international border with Bangladesh. It is 4,096 km long.
    Statement 3 is correct: India shares boundary with Afghanistan through Wakhan corridor. The Wakhan Corridor is about 210km long (130 miles) long.
    

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: India- Myanmar boundary runs roughly along the watershed between the Brahmaputra and Ayeyarwady [Irrawaddy]. It passes through thickly forested regions, with Mizo Hills, Manipur and Nagaland on the Indian side and Chin Hills, Naga Hills and Kachin state on the Myanmar side.
    Statement 2 is not correct:India shares longest international border with Bangladesh. It is 4,096 km long.
    Statement 3 is correct: India shares boundary with Afghanistan through Wakhan corridor. The Wakhan Corridor is about 210km long (130 miles) long.
    
23. Question 23 of 100

    23. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Minor Feature : Relief Properties
    (1) Seamount : a mountain with pointed summits, rising from the seafloor
    (2) Submarine canyons : a ring-shaped reef
    (3) Atoll : deep valleys in continental shelves and slopes
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Minor Relief Features :
    Some minor but significant features predominate in different parts of the oceans are:
    Mid-Oceanic Ridges : A mid-oceanic ridge is composed of two chains of mountains separated by a large depression. The mountain ranges can have peaks as high as 2,500 m and some even reach above the ocean’s surface. Iceland, a part of the mid Atlantic Ridge, is an example.
    Seamount : It is a mountain with pointed summits, rising from the seafloor that does not reach the surface of the ocean. Seamounts are volcanic in origin. These can be 3,000-4,500 m tall. The Emperor seamount, an extension of the Hawaiian Islands in the Pacific Ocean, is a good example. Hence, only pair 1 is correct.
    Submarine Canyons : Submarine canyons are deep valleys cut into the continental slope, not ring-shaped reefs. These are deep valleys cut into the continental slope (not ring-shaped reefs), some comparable to the Grand Canyon of the Colorado river. They are sometimes found cutting across the continental shelves and slopes, often extending from the mouths of large rivers. The Hudson Canyon is the best known submarine canyon in the world.
    Guyots : It is a flat topped seamount. They show evidences of gradual subsidence through stages to become flat topped submerged mountains. It is estimated that more than 10,000 seamounts and guyots exist in the Pacific Ocean alone.
    Atoll : These are low islands found in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs surrounding a central depression. It may be a part of the sea (lagoon), or sometimes form enclosing a body of fresh, brackish, or highly saline water. An atoll is a ring-shaped coral reef enclosing a lagoon, not deep valleys in continental shelves and slopes.

    Unattempted
    

    Minor Relief Features :
    Some minor but significant features predominate in different parts of the oceans are:
    Mid-Oceanic Ridges : A mid-oceanic ridge is composed of two chains of mountains separated by a large depression. The mountain ranges can have peaks as high as 2,500 m and some even reach above the ocean’s surface. Iceland, a part of the mid Atlantic Ridge, is an example.
    Seamount : It is a mountain with pointed summits, rising from the seafloor that does not reach the surface of the ocean. Seamounts are volcanic in origin. These can be 3,000-4,500 m tall. The Emperor seamount, an extension of the Hawaiian Islands in the Pacific Ocean, is a good example. Hence, only pair 1 is correct.
    Submarine Canyons : Submarine canyons are deep valleys cut into the continental slope, not ring-shaped reefs. These are deep valleys cut into the continental slope (not ring-shaped reefs), some comparable to the Grand Canyon of the Colorado river. They are sometimes found cutting across the continental shelves and slopes, often extending from the mouths of large rivers. The Hudson Canyon is the best known submarine canyon in the world.
    Guyots : It is a flat topped seamount. They show evidences of gradual subsidence through stages to become flat topped submerged mountains. It is estimated that more than 10,000 seamounts and guyots exist in the Pacific Ocean alone.
    Atoll : These are low islands found in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs surrounding a central depression. It may be a part of the sea (lagoon), or sometimes form enclosing a body of fresh, brackish, or highly saline water. An atoll is a ring-shaped coral reef enclosing a lagoon, not deep valleys in continental shelves and slopes.
24. Question 24 of 100

    24. Question

    With respect to Brent Oil, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is the only internationally-recognized type of crude oil that is used as benchmarks for prices of crude oil.
    (2) It is a blend of crude oil extracted from all member countries of the Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC).
    (3) It is a dense blend of crude oil and contains high sulphur content.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Brent blend is the name of one of two internationally-recognized types of crude oil that are used as benchmarks for prices of crude oil. Other being the West Texas Intermediate (WTI) crude oil. Brent blend is also called Brent oil, Brent Crude and London Brent. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Brent blend is a blend of crude oil extracted from oilfields in the North Sea between the United Kingdom and Norway. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    It is an industry standard because it is “light,” meaning not overly dense, and “sweet,” meaning it's low in sulphur content. Brent blend is the benchmark for most of the crude oil from the Atlantic basin and is the benchmark used to price two-thirds of the crude oil traded internationally. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Brent blend is the name of one of two internationally-recognized types of crude oil that are used as benchmarks for prices of crude oil. Other being the West Texas Intermediate (WTI) crude oil. Brent blend is also called Brent oil, Brent Crude and London Brent. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Brent blend is a blend of crude oil extracted from oilfields in the North Sea between the United Kingdom and Norway. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    It is an industry standard because it is “light,” meaning not overly dense, and “sweet,” meaning it's low in sulphur content. Brent blend is the benchmark for most of the crude oil from the Atlantic basin and is the benchmark used to price two-thirds of the crude oil traded internationally. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
25. Question 25 of 100

    25. Question

    With reference to the Palamu Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is located in the Bhander Plateau region.
    (2) Burha river flows through this reserve.
    (3) Its vegetation is dominated by the Tropical Dry Deciduous forest.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The tiger which was trapped by a camera in the Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR) recently is reportedly a new one and not the one that was captured this year.
    Location: Chhota Nagpur plateau region of Jharkhand.
    The reserve forms a part of the Betla National Park.
    It is one of the first 9 tiger reserves created in the country at the inception of ‘Project Tiger’.
    It is the first reserve in the world in which a tiger census was carried out as a pugmark count, as early as 1932 under the supervision of J.W. Nicholson.
    Three rivers namely North Koyal, Auranga and Burha flow through the valleys.
    The Reserve is very rich in minerals like Bauxite and Coal.
    Vegetation:
    It is primarily dominated by Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous, Sal Forest and its associates.
    Smaller patches of Northern tropical Moist Deciduous forests exist too in the Reserve.
    Flora: Shorea robusta, Acacia catechu, Madhuca indica, Terminalia tomentosa, Butea monosperma, Pterocarpus marsupium, Anogeisus latifolia, Indigofera pulchela etc.
    Fauna: Some keystone and principal species found in the reserve include Tiger, Asiatic Elephant and Leopard, Grey wolf, Wild dog, Gaur, Sloth bear and four horned antelope etc.
    Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The tiger which was trapped by a camera in the Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR) recently is reportedly a new one and not the one that was captured this year.
    Location: Chhota Nagpur plateau region of Jharkhand.
    The reserve forms a part of the Betla National Park.
    It is one of the first 9 tiger reserves created in the country at the inception of ‘Project Tiger’.
    It is the first reserve in the world in which a tiger census was carried out as a pugmark count, as early as 1932 under the supervision of J.W. Nicholson.
    Three rivers namely North Koyal, Auranga and Burha flow through the valleys.
    The Reserve is very rich in minerals like Bauxite and Coal.
    Vegetation:
    It is primarily dominated by Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous, Sal Forest and its associates.
    Smaller patches of Northern tropical Moist Deciduous forests exist too in the Reserve.
    Flora: Shorea robusta, Acacia catechu, Madhuca indica, Terminalia tomentosa, Butea monosperma, Pterocarpus marsupium, Anogeisus latifolia, Indigofera pulchela etc.
    Fauna: Some keystone and principal species found in the reserve include Tiger, Asiatic Elephant and Leopard, Grey wolf, Wild dog, Gaur, Sloth bear and four horned antelope etc.
    Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
26. Question 26 of 100

    26. Question

    Kadaknath Chicken, which has received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, is a native of:
    (A) Gujarat
    (B) Odisha
    (C) Madhya Pradesh
    (D) Karnataka

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    With the Madhya Pradesh assembly elections just around the corner, the demand and price of Kadaknath chicken have increased in Jhabua.
    About Kadaknath Chicken:
    Kadaknath, a native of Madhya Pradesh (MP), is prominently found in the Jhabua district of the state.
    It has black flesh, and, as such, this chicken is also called black chicken or Kali Masi.
    It’s not just the meat, but even the organs and bones of this chicken are black. The eggs of this chicken are black as well.
    This chicken from the Jhabua district also received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2018.
    It is known for its high iron content and much lower cholesterol than other breeds.
    It has a high protein content and is considered ideal for muscle repair and building.
    It is a rich source of vitamins and minerals and is considered nutritional because of its lean meat.
    In certain traditional systems of medicine, Kadaknath chicken is believed to have therapeutic properties. It is often claimed to be beneficial for individuals with certain health conditions, such as asthma and respiratory issues.

    Unattempted
    

    With the Madhya Pradesh assembly elections just around the corner, the demand and price of Kadaknath chicken have increased in Jhabua.
    About Kadaknath Chicken:
    Kadaknath, a native of Madhya Pradesh (MP), is prominently found in the Jhabua district of the state.
    It has black flesh, and, as such, this chicken is also called black chicken or Kali Masi.
    It’s not just the meat, but even the organs and bones of this chicken are black. The eggs of this chicken are black as well.
    This chicken from the Jhabua district also received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2018.
    It is known for its high iron content and much lower cholesterol than other breeds.
    It has a high protein content and is considered ideal for muscle repair and building.
    It is a rich source of vitamins and minerals and is considered nutritional because of its lean meat.
    In certain traditional systems of medicine, Kadaknath chicken is believed to have therapeutic properties. It is often claimed to be beneficial for individuals with certain health conditions, such as asthma and respiratory issues.
27. Question 27 of 100

    27. Question

    Pavana River, recently seen in the news, flows through which one of the following cities?
    (A) Hyderabad
    (B) Bengaluru
    (C) Kolkata
    (D) Pune

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Citizens and environmental activists have expressed concern over the thick layer of (toxic) foam seen on the Pavana River recently.
    About Pavana River:
    It is situated in the west of Maharashtra state, in the Pune District. The river is a notable river crossing Pune city and divides Pune City and the Pimpri-Chinchwad area.
    Origin: It originates from the Western Ghats, about 6 km south of Lonavala.
    It is a tributary of the Bhima River and merges in the Mula River in Pune city.
    Course: Flowing eastward initially, it becomes southbound and passes through the suburbs of Dehu, Chinchwad, Pimpri, and Dapodi before its confluence with the Mula river.
    A dam is built on this river at Pavana Nagar, called the “Pavana Nagar Dam”.
    Pavana Nagar Dam:
    It is an earth-filled gravity dam.
    It is 1,329 m (4,360 ft) long and 42.37 m (139.0 ft) high, with a gross storage capacity of 30,500.00 km3.
    It is built with the purpose of providing sufficient water to the nearby localities. It is the main source of water in the region.

    Unattempted
    

    Citizens and environmental activists have expressed concern over the thick layer of (toxic) foam seen on the Pavana River recently.
    About Pavana River:
    It is situated in the west of Maharashtra state, in the Pune District. The river is a notable river crossing Pune city and divides Pune City and the Pimpri-Chinchwad area.
    Origin: It originates from the Western Ghats, about 6 km south of Lonavala.
    It is a tributary of the Bhima River and merges in the Mula River in Pune city.
    Course: Flowing eastward initially, it becomes southbound and passes through the suburbs of Dehu, Chinchwad, Pimpri, and Dapodi before its confluence with the Mula river.
    A dam is built on this river at Pavana Nagar, called the “Pavana Nagar Dam”.
    Pavana Nagar Dam:
    It is an earth-filled gravity dam.
    It is 1,329 m (4,360 ft) long and 42.37 m (139.0 ft) high, with a gross storage capacity of 30,500.00 km3.
    It is built with the purpose of providing sufficient water to the nearby localities. It is the main source of water in the region.
28. Question 28 of 100

    28. Question

    How many of the following factor(s) has/have made fishing off Japan coast a major economic activity?
    (1) Meeting of warm and cold ocean currents near Japan’s coast.
    (2) Scarcity of productive agricultural land.
    (3) Indented coastline of Japan.
    Choose the correct answer :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In the north-west Pacific, surrounding the islands of Japan is a major fishing area of the world.
    Some of the factors that have contributed to this are:
    Japan is not well endowed with natural resources, for as much as 80 per cent of her land is classed ‘non-agricultural‘. She has to take to the sea if she wants to survive. This has compelled the people to develop the seas, and fishing has for centuries been the traditional occupation of many coastal Japanese.
    The continental shelves around the islands of Japan are rich in plankton, due to the meeting of the warm Kuroshio and the cold Oyashio currents and provide excellent breeding grounds for all kinds of fish including herring, cod, mackerel, bonito, salmon, sardine and tuna, as well as carbs and lobsters.
    The indented coastline of Japan, provides sheltered fishing ports, calm waters and safe landing places, ideal for the fishing industry. In Hokkaido, where the Laurentian type of climate is too cold for active agriculture, fishing takes first place.

    Unattempted
    

    In the north-west Pacific, surrounding the islands of Japan is a major fishing area of the world.
    Some of the factors that have contributed to this are:
    Japan is not well endowed with natural resources, for as much as 80 per cent of her land is classed ‘non-agricultural‘. She has to take to the sea if she wants to survive. This has compelled the people to develop the seas, and fishing has for centuries been the traditional occupation of many coastal Japanese.
    The continental shelves around the islands of Japan are rich in plankton, due to the meeting of the warm Kuroshio and the cold Oyashio currents and provide excellent breeding grounds for all kinds of fish including herring, cod, mackerel, bonito, salmon, sardine and tuna, as well as carbs and lobsters.
    The indented coastline of Japan, provides sheltered fishing ports, calm waters and safe landing places, ideal for the fishing industry. In Hokkaido, where the Laurentian type of climate is too cold for active agriculture, fishing takes first place.
29. Question 29 of 100

    29. Question

    How many of the following cities of the world have automobile industry as their predominant industrial activity?
    (1) Detroit
    (2) Nagoya
    (3) Wolfsburg
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Detroit is the largest and most populous city in the U.S. state of Michigan, the largest city on the United States–Canada border. Detroit is best known as the center of the U.S. automobile industry, and the “Big Three” auto manufacturers General Motors, Ford, and Chrysler are all headquartered in Metro Detroit.
    Nagoya is Japan's fourth-largest incorporated city and the third-most-populous urban area. Nagoya's main industry is automobile. Toyota's luxury brand Lexus, Denso, Aisin Seiki Co., Toyota Industries,JTEKT and Toyota Boshoku have their headquarters in or near Nagoya. Wolfsburg is the fifth largest city in the German state of Lower Saxony.
    Wolfsburg is famous as the location of Volkswagen AG's headquarters and the world's biggest car plant. It is located in Germany.

    Unattempted
    

    Detroit is the largest and most populous city in the U.S. state of Michigan, the largest city on the United States–Canada border. Detroit is best known as the center of the U.S. automobile industry, and the “Big Three” auto manufacturers General Motors, Ford, and Chrysler are all headquartered in Metro Detroit.
    Nagoya is Japan's fourth-largest incorporated city and the third-most-populous urban area. Nagoya's main industry is automobile. Toyota's luxury brand Lexus, Denso, Aisin Seiki Co., Toyota Industries,JTEKT and Toyota Boshoku have their headquarters in or near Nagoya. Wolfsburg is the fifth largest city in the German state of Lower Saxony.
    Wolfsburg is famous as the location of Volkswagen AG's headquarters and the world's biggest car plant. It is located in Germany.
30. Question 30 of 100

    30. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    City : Climate
    (1) Rome : Meditteranean
    (2) Sydney : Savannah
    (3) Kuala Lumpur : Equatorial
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by very distinctive climatic features. The summers have a relatively warm and dry summer is experienced with off-shore trade winds. A temperature of roughly 76˚F is observed in Rome. Rainfall is concentrated in the winters with on-shore westerlies bringing cyclonic rain. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
    Sydney experiences China type of climate, also known as the Warm Temperate Eastern Margin type which is characterized by a warm moist summer and a cool dry winter. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
    In Kuala Lumpur the hot and wet equatorial type of climate is observed. There is uniformity of temperature throughout the year. Cloudiness and precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    The Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by very distinctive climatic features. The summers have a relatively warm and dry summer is experienced with off-shore trade winds. A temperature of roughly 76˚F is observed in Rome. Rainfall is concentrated in the winters with on-shore westerlies bringing cyclonic rain. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
    Sydney experiences China type of climate, also known as the Warm Temperate Eastern Margin type which is characterized by a warm moist summer and a cool dry winter. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
    In Kuala Lumpur the hot and wet equatorial type of climate is observed. There is uniformity of temperature throughout the year. Cloudiness and precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
31. Question 31 of 100

    31. Question

    Doklam plateau is a tri-junction between
    (A) China, India and Nepal
    (B) China, Nepal and Bhutan
    (C) Bangladesh, India, Bhutan
    (D) China, Bhutan, India

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Doklam is an area with a plateau and a valley, lying between Tibet's Chumbi Valley to the north, Bhutan's Ha Valley to the east and India's Sikkim state to the west. It has been depicted as part of Bhutan in the Bhutanese maps since 1961, but it is also claimed by China. To date, the dispute has not been resolved despite several rounds of border negotiations between Bhutan and China.

    Unattempted
    

    Doklam is an area with a plateau and a valley, lying between Tibet's Chumbi Valley to the north, Bhutan's Ha Valley to the east and India's Sikkim state to the west. It has been depicted as part of Bhutan in the Bhutanese maps since 1961, but it is also claimed by China. To date, the dispute has not been resolved despite several rounds of border negotiations between Bhutan and China.
32. Question 32 of 100

    32. Question

    With reference to temperate and tropical deserts, consider the following statements:
    (1) Cold ocean currents help in the formation of both temperate and tropical deserts.
    (2) The annual range of temperature in temperate desert is higher than tropical desert.
    (3) While the major temperate deserts are located on the eastern coast of the continents, the tropical deserts are located on the western coast.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Temperate deserts are in the interior of large land mass on the leeward side of mountains and rainfall bearing winds cannot reach there, this contributes to the formation of these deserts.
    Apart from this, cold ocean currents also helps in the formation of temperate desert for instance, cold Falkland current off the Atlantic coast of South America gives aridity to the Patagonian Desert. On the other hand, tropical deserts have less than 25cm rainfall. Since these deserts are located on western margins of the continents, trade winds that blow in the region shed their moisture in the eastern margins ofcontinents. They become dry by the time these winds reach western side. Cold ocean currents also help in formation of tropical deserts as they do not cause rain, mist and fog and lower the temperature.
    Statement 2 is correct: Temperate deserts differ from those at lower latitude in the sense that they have far greater annual temperature range and much lower winter temperature.
    Statement 3 is not correct: Majority of mid-latitude deserts (Temperate deserts) are found on plateaux and are at considerable distance from the sea. On the other hand, major hot deserts of the world are located on the western coasts of continents between latitudes 15 and 30 degree North and South respectively.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Temperate deserts are in the interior of large land mass on the leeward side of mountains and rainfall bearing winds cannot reach there, this contributes to the formation of these deserts.
    Apart from this, cold ocean currents also helps in the formation of temperate desert for instance, cold Falkland current off the Atlantic coast of South America gives aridity to the Patagonian Desert. On the other hand, tropical deserts have less than 25cm rainfall. Since these deserts are located on western margins of the continents, trade winds that blow in the region shed their moisture in the eastern margins ofcontinents. They become dry by the time these winds reach western side. Cold ocean currents also help in formation of tropical deserts as they do not cause rain, mist and fog and lower the temperature.
    Statement 2 is correct: Temperate deserts differ from those at lower latitude in the sense that they have far greater annual temperature range and much lower winter temperature.
    Statement 3 is not correct: Majority of mid-latitude deserts (Temperate deserts) are found on plateaux and are at considerable distance from the sea. On the other hand, major hot deserts of the world are located on the western coasts of continents between latitudes 15 and 30 degree North and South respectively.
33. Question 33 of 100

    33. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding epeirogenic forces:
    (1) They form continents and oceans.
    (2) Fold formation in the crust is the predominant feature of epeirogenic forces.
    (3) Under it, rock masses move in vertical direction to the earth's surface under epeirogenic forces.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Epeirogenic forces are the part of Diastrophic (large scale) forces along with orogenic forces. These forces works vertically and horizontally to create various reliefs on the surface of the earth. The difference between these forces are as follows-
    (1) Orogeny is a mountain building process while epeirogeny is a continent building process. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    (2) In orogeny, crust is severely deformed into folds and it is predominant feature, while in epeirogeny there may be simple deformation . Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    (3) In orogeny, the rock masses move in tangential direction to the earth's surface while in epeirogeny the rock masses move in radial or vertical direction to the earth's surface. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    (4) In orogeny elevated mountains are formed which increases earth’s albedo whereas in epeirogeny sea level rise and fall as new plate materials modify the shape of ocean basins.

    Unattempted
    

    Epeirogenic forces are the part of Diastrophic (large scale) forces along with orogenic forces. These forces works vertically and horizontally to create various reliefs on the surface of the earth. The difference between these forces are as follows-
    (1) Orogeny is a mountain building process while epeirogeny is a continent building process. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    (2) In orogeny, crust is severely deformed into folds and it is predominant feature, while in epeirogeny there may be simple deformation . Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    (3) In orogeny, the rock masses move in tangential direction to the earth's surface while in epeirogeny the rock masses move in radial or vertical direction to the earth's surface. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    (4) In orogeny elevated mountains are formed which increases earth’s albedo whereas in epeirogeny sea level rise and fall as new plate materials modify the shape of ocean basins.
34. Question 34 of 100

    34. Question

    With reference to Technology Development Board, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a statutory body.
    (2) It aims to promote development and commercialization of indigenous technology.
    (3) It provides financial assistance to research and development institutions.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, to bolster the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector in India, the Technology Development Board (TDB) and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) have formalized a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU).
    It is a statutory body constituted under the Technology Development Board Act, 1995.
    It aims to promote development and commercialization of indigenous technology and adaptation of imported technology for wider application.
    The board consists of 11 Board members.
    It provides equity capital or loans to industrial concerns and financial assistance to research and development institutions.
    The Fund has been receiving grants from the Government of India out of the cess collections from the industrial concerns under the provisions of the Research and Development Cess Act, 1986, as amended in 1995.
    Key Facts about Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
    It was established under an Act of Parliament in 1990.
    It is the Principal Financial Institution engaged in the promotion, financing & development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector and the coordination of the functions of the various institutions engaged in similar activities.
    Objective: To offer loans (both direct and indirect) to MSMEs to help in addressing the development and financial gaps in the ecosystem of MSMEs.
    It helps MSMEs in acquiring the funds they require to grow market, develop and commercialize their technologies and innovative products.
    It was made responsible for administering Small Industries Development Fund and National Equity Fund.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, to bolster the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector in India, the Technology Development Board (TDB) and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) have formalized a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU).
    It is a statutory body constituted under the Technology Development Board Act, 1995.
    It aims to promote development and commercialization of indigenous technology and adaptation of imported technology for wider application.
    The board consists of 11 Board members.
    It provides equity capital or loans to industrial concerns and financial assistance to research and development institutions.
    The Fund has been receiving grants from the Government of India out of the cess collections from the industrial concerns under the provisions of the Research and Development Cess Act, 1986, as amended in 1995.
    Key Facts about Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
    It was established under an Act of Parliament in 1990.
    It is the Principal Financial Institution engaged in the promotion, financing & development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector and the coordination of the functions of the various institutions engaged in similar activities.
    Objective: To offer loans (both direct and indirect) to MSMEs to help in addressing the development and financial gaps in the ecosystem of MSMEs.
    It helps MSMEs in acquiring the funds they require to grow market, develop and commercialize their technologies and innovative products.
    It was made responsible for administering Small Industries Development Fund and National Equity Fund.
35. Question 35 of 100

    35. Question

    Deepor Beel is a perennial freshwater lake located in:
    (A) Kerala
    (B) Manipur
    (C) Assam
    (D) Himachal Pradesh

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Assam Environment and Forest Minister recently said the state government will “simply rules” to allow water sports and tourism-related activities in ‘Deepor Beel’.
    About Deepor Beel:
    It is a perennial freshwater lake located 10 km south-west of Guwahati city, Assam.
    It is a permanent freshwater wetland in a former channel of the Brahmaputra River.
    It covers an area of 40.14 sq km and varies in depth from approximately 4 m to 1 m depending on the season (monsoon or dry season).
    Its basin is drained by a system of rivulets and hill streams that connect the neighbouring hills and the forests to the river Brahmaputra through an outlet called the Khanajan.
    It was recognised as a Ramsar Site in 2002 and as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) in 2004. It is the only Ramsar site in the state of Assam.
    It is a staging site on migratory flyways, and some of the largest concentrations of aquatic birds in Assam can be seen, especially in winter.
    Some globally threatened birds are supported, including the Spotbilled Pelican, Lesser and Greater Adjutant Stork, and Baer's Pochard.
    About 50 fish species and aquatic resources provide livelihood support to about 1,200 households residing in about 12 villages on the fringes of the wetland.
    The Rani and Garbhanga hills, the habitat of the Asiatic elephants in the southern side of the beel, are part of this ecosystem.

    Unattempted
    

    The Assam Environment and Forest Minister recently said the state government will “simply rules” to allow water sports and tourism-related activities in ‘Deepor Beel’.
    About Deepor Beel:
    It is a perennial freshwater lake located 10 km south-west of Guwahati city, Assam.
    It is a permanent freshwater wetland in a former channel of the Brahmaputra River.
    It covers an area of 40.14 sq km and varies in depth from approximately 4 m to 1 m depending on the season (monsoon or dry season).
    Its basin is drained by a system of rivulets and hill streams that connect the neighbouring hills and the forests to the river Brahmaputra through an outlet called the Khanajan.
    It was recognised as a Ramsar Site in 2002 and as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) in 2004. It is the only Ramsar site in the state of Assam.
    It is a staging site on migratory flyways, and some of the largest concentrations of aquatic birds in Assam can be seen, especially in winter.
    Some globally threatened birds are supported, including the Spotbilled Pelican, Lesser and Greater Adjutant Stork, and Baer's Pochard.
    About 50 fish species and aquatic resources provide livelihood support to about 1,200 households residing in about 12 villages on the fringes of the wetland.
    The Rani and Garbhanga hills, the habitat of the Asiatic elephants in the southern side of the beel, are part of this ecosystem.
36. Question 36 of 100

    36. Question

    Which of the following rivers is/are part of the Arabian Sea drainage?
    (1) Periyar
    (2) Palar
    (3) Penneru
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Periyar River, river in southern Kerala state, southwestern India.Periyar is also the name given to a lake in the river’s course. The river, 140 miles (225 km) long, rises in the Western Ghats range near the border with Tamil Nadu state and flows north a short distance to Periyar Lake. The river continues northwest, descending out of the mountains and onto the coastal plain, and turns west before emptying into the Arabian sea about 15 miles (24 km) north of Kochi.
    Palar River, river in southern India. It rises near the Ponnaiyar River, southwest of Chintamani, in Karnataka state, and flows 183 miles (295 km) southeastward through Tamil Nadu state to the Bay of Bengal, south of Chennai (Madras). Its major tributaries are the Ponnai and Cheyyar rivers.
    The Penneru rises in an upland region on the Deccan plateau, 7 miles (11 km) west-southwest of ChikBallapur in southeastern Karnataka. It flows north into Andhra Pradesh state and turns east and then southeast. After passage through a gap in the Eastern Ghats range, it again bends east toward the Coromandel Coast, emptying into the Bay of Bengal near Nellore. The river is seasonal, becoming a torrent after the rains and a thin stream during dry periods.

    Unattempted
    

    Periyar River, river in southern Kerala state, southwestern India.Periyar is also the name given to a lake in the river’s course. The river, 140 miles (225 km) long, rises in the Western Ghats range near the border with Tamil Nadu state and flows north a short distance to Periyar Lake. The river continues northwest, descending out of the mountains and onto the coastal plain, and turns west before emptying into the Arabian sea about 15 miles (24 km) north of Kochi.
    Palar River, river in southern India. It rises near the Ponnaiyar River, southwest of Chintamani, in Karnataka state, and flows 183 miles (295 km) southeastward through Tamil Nadu state to the Bay of Bengal, south of Chennai (Madras). Its major tributaries are the Ponnai and Cheyyar rivers.
    The Penneru rises in an upland region on the Deccan plateau, 7 miles (11 km) west-southwest of ChikBallapur in southeastern Karnataka. It flows north into Andhra Pradesh state and turns east and then southeast. After passage through a gap in the Eastern Ghats range, it again bends east toward the Coromandel Coast, emptying into the Bay of Bengal near Nellore. The river is seasonal, becoming a torrent after the rains and a thin stream during dry periods.
37. Question 37 of 100

    37. Question

    How many of the following give evidences that the Earth has gone through glacial and interglacial periods?
    (1) Traces of advances and retreats of glaciers at high latitudes and altitudes
    (2) Sediment deposits in glacial lakes
    (3) Rings in trees
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The planet earth has witnessed many variations in climate since the beginning. Geological records show alteration of glacial and inter-glacial periods. The geomorphological features, especially in high altitudes and high latitudes, exhibit traces of advances and retreats of glaciers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The sediment deposits in glacial lakes also reveal the occurrence of warm and cold periods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The rings in the trees provide clues about wet and dry periods. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    All these evidences indicate that change in climate is a natural and continuous process.

    Unattempted
    

    The planet earth has witnessed many variations in climate since the beginning. Geological records show alteration of glacial and inter-glacial periods. The geomorphological features, especially in high altitudes and high latitudes, exhibit traces of advances and retreats of glaciers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The sediment deposits in glacial lakes also reveal the occurrence of warm and cold periods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The rings in the trees provide clues about wet and dry periods. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    All these evidences indicate that change in climate is a natural and continuous process.
38. Question 38 of 100

    38. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC):
    (1) It is a Navratna public-sector enterprise under the administrative control of the Ministry of Mines.
    (2) It is the largest producer of iron ore in India.
    (3) It operates the only mechanized diamond mine in India at Panna, Madhya Pradesh.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) Ltd. is diversifying its mineral portfolio by initiating gold mining operations in Western Australia through its subsidiary, Legacy Iron Ore Ltd.
    About National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC):
    Incorporated in 1958 as a Government of India public enterprise, NMDC is India’s largest producer of iron ore. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It is a Navratna public-sector enterprise under the administrative control of the Ministry of Steel. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    The company is engaged in the exploration of a range of minerals, including iron ore, copper, rock phosphate, limestone, dolomite, gypsum, bentonite, magnesite, diamond, tin, tungsten, graphite, and beach sands.It owns and operates highly mechanized iron ore mines in Chhattisgarh and Karnataka.

    It also operates the only mechanized diamond mine in India at Panna, Madhya Pradesh. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    NMDC is considered to be one of the low-cost producers of iron ore in the world.
    The company sells most of their high-grade iron ore production to the Indian domestic steel market, primarily pursuant to long-term sales contracts.
    The registered office is located in the city of Hyderabad, Telangana.

    Unattempted
    

    National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) Ltd. is diversifying its mineral portfolio by initiating gold mining operations in Western Australia through its subsidiary, Legacy Iron Ore Ltd.
    About National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC):
    Incorporated in 1958 as a Government of India public enterprise, NMDC is India’s largest producer of iron ore. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It is a Navratna public-sector enterprise under the administrative control of the Ministry of Steel. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    The company is engaged in the exploration of a range of minerals, including iron ore, copper, rock phosphate, limestone, dolomite, gypsum, bentonite, magnesite, diamond, tin, tungsten, graphite, and beach sands.It owns and operates highly mechanized iron ore mines in Chhattisgarh and Karnataka.

    It also operates the only mechanized diamond mine in India at Panna, Madhya Pradesh. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    NMDC is considered to be one of the low-cost producers of iron ore in the world.
    The company sells most of their high-grade iron ore production to the Indian domestic steel market, primarily pursuant to long-term sales contracts.
    The registered office is located in the city of Hyderabad, Telangana.
39. Question 39 of 100

    39. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR):
    (1) It is located in the Vindhyan mountain range in Madhya Pradesh.
    (2) Ken River flows from south to north through the reserve.
    (3) It was declared a Project Tiger Reserve by the Government of India in 1994.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, a delegation of senior forest officers and frontline staff from Cambodia came for training at Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) and studied India’s tiger reintroduction programme and all its aspects.
    About Panna Tiger Reserve:
    Location: It is a critical tiger habitat located in the Vindhyan mountain range in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It was declared a Project Tiger Reserve by the Government of India in 1994. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Landscape:
    It is characterized with a 'Table Top' topography.
    It consists of extensive plateaus and gorges.
    River: Ken River flows from south to north through the reserve. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Flora:
    The dominant vegetation type is dry deciduous forest interspersed with grassland areas.
    In the north, it is surrounded by teak forest, and in the east, it is surrounded by Teak-Kardhai mixed forest.
    The tree species Acacia catachu dominates the dry, steep slopes of the plateaus here.
    Fauna:
    It supports a sizable population of Sloth Bear, Leopard, and Striped Hyena.
    Other prominent carnivores are Jackal, Wolf, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat, and Rusty Spotted Cat.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, a delegation of senior forest officers and frontline staff from Cambodia came for training at Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) and studied India’s tiger reintroduction programme and all its aspects.
    About Panna Tiger Reserve:
    Location: It is a critical tiger habitat located in the Vindhyan mountain range in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It was declared a Project Tiger Reserve by the Government of India in 1994. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Landscape:
    It is characterized with a 'Table Top' topography.
    It consists of extensive plateaus and gorges.
    River: Ken River flows from south to north through the reserve. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Flora:
    The dominant vegetation type is dry deciduous forest interspersed with grassland areas.
    In the north, it is surrounded by teak forest, and in the east, it is surrounded by Teak-Kardhai mixed forest.
    The tree species Acacia catachu dominates the dry, steep slopes of the plateaus here.
    Fauna:
    It supports a sizable population of Sloth Bear, Leopard, and Striped Hyena.
    Other prominent carnivores are Jackal, Wolf, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat, and Rusty Spotted Cat.
40. Question 40 of 100

    40. Question

    Ogasawara Islands, recently seen in the news, is located in:
    (A) Pacific Ocean
    (B) Indian Ocean
    (C) Atlantic Ocean
    (D) Arctic Ocean

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, a new island emerged near Japan's Ogasawara island chain after an undersea volcano erupted.
    A new island near Japan's Ogasawara island chain was formed by phreatomagmatic eruption.
    It is an eruption that involves both magma and water.
    It typically interacts explosively leading to concurrent ejection of steam and pyroclastic fragments.
    Phreatomagmatic ash is formed by the same mechanism over a wide range of basic and acidic compositions.
    A blocky and uniform crust with low vesicle content is formed.
    Deposits from phreatomagmatic eruptions are thought to be better classified and finer-grained than those from magmatic eruptions.
    This is the result of higher fragmentation of phreatomagmatic eruptions.
    Key facts about Ogasawara Islands
    The Ogasawara Islands are located in the North-Western Pacific Ocean.
    It is also known as Bonin Islands.
    It is a volcanic arc comprising more than 30 islands and islets.
    The landscape is dominated by subtropical forest types and sclerophyllous shrublands surrounded by steep cliffs.
    It is one of the famous UNESCO World Heritage sites of Japan.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, a new island emerged near Japan's Ogasawara island chain after an undersea volcano erupted.
    A new island near Japan's Ogasawara island chain was formed by phreatomagmatic eruption.
    It is an eruption that involves both magma and water.
    It typically interacts explosively leading to concurrent ejection of steam and pyroclastic fragments.
    Phreatomagmatic ash is formed by the same mechanism over a wide range of basic and acidic compositions.
    A blocky and uniform crust with low vesicle content is formed.
    Deposits from phreatomagmatic eruptions are thought to be better classified and finer-grained than those from magmatic eruptions.
    This is the result of higher fragmentation of phreatomagmatic eruptions.
    Key facts about Ogasawara Islands
    The Ogasawara Islands are located in the North-Western Pacific Ocean.
    It is also known as Bonin Islands.
    It is a volcanic arc comprising more than 30 islands and islets.
    The landscape is dominated by subtropical forest types and sclerophyllous shrublands surrounded by steep cliffs.
    It is one of the famous UNESCO World Heritage sites of Japan.
41. Question 41 of 100

    41. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Trishakti Prahar Exercise, recently seen in the news:
    (1) It is a multilateral military exercise involving India, Australia and USA.
    (2) It seeks to serves as a platform to evaluate the effectiveness of modern warfare technologies.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Much-anticipated joint exercise 'Trishakti Prahar' recently began near the western border of Rajasthan in Jaisalmer.
    About Trishakti Prahar:
    It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, the Indian Navy, and the Indian Air Force.
    Objectives:
    It aims to enhance mutual coordination and operational efficiency.
    It seeks to create new strategies and assess operational capabilities in the context of modern warfare.
    During the exercise, all three wings of the Indian Army actively engage in live practice sessions, simulating real war scenarios with complete coordination.
    The exercise includes long-range attacks by reconnaissance aircraft, emphasizing precision and high-volume attacks to effectively neutralize hypothetical adversaries.
    It involves a diverse array of military assets, including various types of howitzers, helicopters, and weaponry. This encompasses the deployment of the Army's T-90s and Arjun main battle tanks.
    A major highlight of the exercise is the demonstration of the operational capability and readiness of the Pune-based Southwestern Command of the Indian Air Force. This segment showcases the Air Force's preparedness for integrated air-land operations, combined arms operations, and its fast mobility and deep strike offensive capabilities.
    Fighter aircraft, Apache attack helicopters, Chinook heavy lift helicopters, and various Navy aircraft contribute to the multifaceted nature of the exercise.
    It serves as a platform to evaluate the effectiveness of modern warfare technologies such as unmanned aerial vehicles, precision-guided missiles, loiter munitions, counter-drone systems, communication systems, and automatic spectrum monitoring systems in a simulated operational environment.

    Unattempted
    

    Much-anticipated joint exercise 'Trishakti Prahar' recently began near the western border of Rajasthan in Jaisalmer.
    About Trishakti Prahar:
    It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, the Indian Navy, and the Indian Air Force.
    Objectives:
    It aims to enhance mutual coordination and operational efficiency.
    It seeks to create new strategies and assess operational capabilities in the context of modern warfare.
    During the exercise, all three wings of the Indian Army actively engage in live practice sessions, simulating real war scenarios with complete coordination.
    The exercise includes long-range attacks by reconnaissance aircraft, emphasizing precision and high-volume attacks to effectively neutralize hypothetical adversaries.
    It involves a diverse array of military assets, including various types of howitzers, helicopters, and weaponry. This encompasses the deployment of the Army's T-90s and Arjun main battle tanks.
    A major highlight of the exercise is the demonstration of the operational capability and readiness of the Pune-based Southwestern Command of the Indian Air Force. This segment showcases the Air Force's preparedness for integrated air-land operations, combined arms operations, and its fast mobility and deep strike offensive capabilities.
    Fighter aircraft, Apache attack helicopters, Chinook heavy lift helicopters, and various Navy aircraft contribute to the multifaceted nature of the exercise.
    It serves as a platform to evaluate the effectiveness of modern warfare technologies such as unmanned aerial vehicles, precision-guided missiles, loiter munitions, counter-drone systems, communication systems, and automatic spectrum monitoring systems in a simulated operational environment.
42. Question 42 of 100

    42. Question

    Arrange the following European Rivers in the direction of West to East:
    (1) Rhine
    (2) Thames
    (3) Danube
    (4) Volga
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 3-2-1-4
    (B) 2-1-3-4
    (C) 1-2-3-4
    (D) 2-3-4-1

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The correct sequence –
    (1) Thames
    (2) Rhine
    (3) Danube
    (4) Volga
    

    Unattempted
    

    The correct sequence –
    (1) Thames
    (2) Rhine
    (3) Danube
    (4) Volga
    
43. Question 43 of 100

    43. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Load carried by a river : Material
    (1) Dissolved load : lime
    (2) Suspended load : pebbles
    (3) Bedload : silt
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Dissolved load: This typically consists of minerals like calcium carbonate (lime) that are dissolved in the water. So, the first pair is correctly matched.
    Suspended load: This consists of fine particles like silt and clay, not pebbles. So, the second pair is not correctly matched.
    Bedload: This typically consists of larger particles like sand, gravel, and pebbles, not silt. So, the third pair is not correctly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    Dissolved load: This typically consists of minerals like calcium carbonate (lime) that are dissolved in the water. So, the first pair is correctly matched.
    Suspended load: This consists of fine particles like silt and clay, not pebbles. So, the second pair is not correctly matched.
    Bedload: This typically consists of larger particles like sand, gravel, and pebbles, not silt. So, the third pair is not correctly matched.
44. Question 44 of 100

    44. Question

    How many of the following is/are the methods of soil conservation?
    (1) Contour ploughing
    (2) Terrace farming
    (3) Construction of dams
    (4) Strip cropping
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Soil conservation is a methodology to maintain soil fertility, prevent soil erosion and exhaustion and improve the degraded condition of the soil.
    There are the different methods of soil conservation such as
    (1) Terrace farming: On hilly slopes terrace act as buds prevent the soil from being washed away by running water.
    (2) Contour ploughing: Ploughing along contours of the slopes prevent soils being washed away by rainwater or by surface runoff.
    (3) Plugging gullies: Gullies made in soil due water erosion should be plugged with deposition of silt during heavy rains.
    (4) Construction of dams: Rivers cause soil erosion. Dams are built in upper course of rivers to control the erosion of soil.
    Other methods of soil conservation are shelter belts, strip cropping, planting trees.

    Unattempted
    

    Soil conservation is a methodology to maintain soil fertility, prevent soil erosion and exhaustion and improve the degraded condition of the soil.
    There are the different methods of soil conservation such as
    (1) Terrace farming: On hilly slopes terrace act as buds prevent the soil from being washed away by running water.
    (2) Contour ploughing: Ploughing along contours of the slopes prevent soils being washed away by rainwater or by surface runoff.
    (3) Plugging gullies: Gullies made in soil due water erosion should be plugged with deposition of silt during heavy rains.
    (4) Construction of dams: Rivers cause soil erosion. Dams are built in upper course of rivers to control the erosion of soil.
    Other methods of soil conservation are shelter belts, strip cropping, planting trees.
45. Question 45 of 100

    45. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Islands : Location
    (1) Paracel : South China Sea
    (2) Hawaii : Atlantic Ocean
    (3) Diego Garcia : Pacific Ocean
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Paracel Islands are located in the South China Sea and are among the disputed islands there. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    Hawaii Islands are in the North Pacific Ocean.
    Diego Garcia Islands are in the Indian Ocean. Hence, pairs 2 and 3 are not correctly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    Paracel Islands are located in the South China Sea and are among the disputed islands there. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    Hawaii Islands are in the North Pacific Ocean.
    Diego Garcia Islands are in the Indian Ocean. Hence, pairs 2 and 3 are not correctly matched.
46. Question 46 of 100

    46. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Kali Tiger Reserve (KTR):
    (1) It comprises protected areas of Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary and Anshi National Park.
    (2) It is primarily composed of moist deciduous and semi-evergreen forest.
    (3) The Kali River, which forms the major source of water for Uttara Kannada, flows through the tiger reserve.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Kali Tiger Reserve officials recently arrested five habitual wildlife offenders and recovered a huge cache of poached animal parts from them.
    About Kali Tiger Reserve:
    Location: Kali Tiger Reserve, earlier known as Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve is located in the central portion of the Uttara Kannada (North Canara) district of Karnataka state.
    It comprises two important protected areas of the region, viz., Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary and Anshi National Park. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary (475.018 sq km) and Anshi National Park (339.866 sq km) are contiguous to each other and form a single tract of protected area located in the biologically sensitive Western Ghats.
    River: The Kali River, which forms the major source of water for Uttara Kannada, flows through the tiger reserve, and hence the name. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Vegetation: Forests are primarily moist deciduous and semi-evergreen, with excellent patches of evergreen forests in the westernmost parts as well as in deep valleys. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Flora: The complex floral tapestry comprises hardwood trees like teak, silver oak, Malabar tamrind, jamba, lantana, bamboo, shrubbery, and dense vegetative undergrowth on the floor.
    Fauna: Prominent species are the Asiatic elephant, tiger, leopard, gaur, chevrotain, spotted deer, barking deer, sloth bear, dhole, jungle and leopard cat, Malabar civet, and giant civet.

    Unattempted
    

    Kali Tiger Reserve officials recently arrested five habitual wildlife offenders and recovered a huge cache of poached animal parts from them.
    About Kali Tiger Reserve:
    Location: Kali Tiger Reserve, earlier known as Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve is located in the central portion of the Uttara Kannada (North Canara) district of Karnataka state.
    It comprises two important protected areas of the region, viz., Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary and Anshi National Park. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary (475.018 sq km) and Anshi National Park (339.866 sq km) are contiguous to each other and form a single tract of protected area located in the biologically sensitive Western Ghats.
    River: The Kali River, which forms the major source of water for Uttara Kannada, flows through the tiger reserve, and hence the name. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Vegetation: Forests are primarily moist deciduous and semi-evergreen, with excellent patches of evergreen forests in the westernmost parts as well as in deep valleys. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Flora: The complex floral tapestry comprises hardwood trees like teak, silver oak, Malabar tamrind, jamba, lantana, bamboo, shrubbery, and dense vegetative undergrowth on the floor.
    Fauna: Prominent species are the Asiatic elephant, tiger, leopard, gaur, chevrotain, spotted deer, barking deer, sloth bear, dhole, jungle and leopard cat, Malabar civet, and giant civet.
47. Question 47 of 100

    47. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Lake Titicaca:
    (1) It is the highest navigable water body in the world.
    (2) It is located in the Rocky Mountains of North America.
    (3) It is situated in the Andes on the border between Bolivia and Peru.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The water levels at Lake Titicaca are now reaching record lows, worsened by the El Nino weather phenomenon, compounding a long dry spell and rare high temperatures.
    About Lake Titicaca:
    It is the highest navigable body of water in the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It is located at 3,810 metres above sea level in the Andes Mountains of South America. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    It lies on the border between Peru to the west and Bolivia to the east. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Titicaca is the second-largest lake in South America (after Maracaibo).
    It covers some 8,300 square km and extends in a northwest-to-southeast direction for a distance of 190 km.
    It is 50 miles (80 km) across at its widest point.
    A narrow strait, Tiquina, separates the lake into two bodies of water.
    The lake averages between 140 and 180 metres in depth, but the bottom tilts sharply toward the Bolivian shore.
    The lake is 284 m deep at its deepest point, located in the northeastern section of the lake.
    More than 25 rivers empty their waters into Titicaca; the largest, the Ramis, drains about two-fifths of the entire Titicaca Basin.
    Forty-one islands rise from Titicaca’s waters, the largest of which, Titicaca Island, can be seen just off the tip of the Copacabana Peninsula in Bolivia.
    Lake Titicaca is a designated Ramsar Site of International Importance.

    Unattempted
    

    The water levels at Lake Titicaca are now reaching record lows, worsened by the El Nino weather phenomenon, compounding a long dry spell and rare high temperatures.
    About Lake Titicaca:
    It is the highest navigable body of water in the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It is located at 3,810 metres above sea level in the Andes Mountains of South America. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    It lies on the border between Peru to the west and Bolivia to the east. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Titicaca is the second-largest lake in South America (after Maracaibo).
    It covers some 8,300 square km and extends in a northwest-to-southeast direction for a distance of 190 km.
    It is 50 miles (80 km) across at its widest point.
    A narrow strait, Tiquina, separates the lake into two bodies of water.
    The lake averages between 140 and 180 metres in depth, but the bottom tilts sharply toward the Bolivian shore.
    The lake is 284 m deep at its deepest point, located in the northeastern section of the lake.
    More than 25 rivers empty their waters into Titicaca; the largest, the Ramis, drains about two-fifths of the entire Titicaca Basin.
    Forty-one islands rise from Titicaca’s waters, the largest of which, Titicaca Island, can be seen just off the tip of the Copacabana Peninsula in Bolivia.
    Lake Titicaca is a designated Ramsar Site of International Importance.
48. Question 48 of 100

    48. Question

    Consider the following:
    (1) China
    (2) India
    (3) Thailand
    How many of the above countries border Shan State in Myanmar?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Myanmar is concerned about the conflict in northern Shan State, which has affected Mandalay-based traders.
    About Shan State:
    It is a state in Myanmar.
    It borders China to the north, Laos to the east, Thailand to the south, and five administrative divisions of Myanmar in the west.
    The largest of the 14 administrative divisions by land area, Shan State covers 155,800 km2, almost a quarter of the total area of Myanmar.
    The state gets its name from the Burmese name for the Tai people: “Shan people”.
    The Shan constitute the majority among several ethnic groups that inhabit the area. The Shan are Theravada Buddhists and have their own written language and literature.
    The Thanlwin River (also known as the Salween/Namkhong) cuts across the state, which is also home to Inle Lake, the second-largest natural expanse of water in Myanmar.
    Shan is largely rural, with only three cities of significant size: Lashio, Kengtung, and the capital, Taunggyi.
    Shan State, with its many ethnic groups, is home to several armed ethnic armies.
    While the military government has signed ceasefire agreements with most groups, vast areas of the state, especially those east of the Thanlwin River, remain outside the central government’s control and in recent years have come under heavy ethnic-Han-Chinese economic and political influence. Other areas are under the control of military groups, such as the Shan State Army.

    Unattempted
    

    Myanmar is concerned about the conflict in northern Shan State, which has affected Mandalay-based traders.
    About Shan State:
    It is a state in Myanmar.
    It borders China to the north, Laos to the east, Thailand to the south, and five administrative divisions of Myanmar in the west.
    The largest of the 14 administrative divisions by land area, Shan State covers 155,800 km2, almost a quarter of the total area of Myanmar.
    The state gets its name from the Burmese name for the Tai people: “Shan people”.
    The Shan constitute the majority among several ethnic groups that inhabit the area. The Shan are Theravada Buddhists and have their own written language and literature.
    The Thanlwin River (also known as the Salween/Namkhong) cuts across the state, which is also home to Inle Lake, the second-largest natural expanse of water in Myanmar.
    Shan is largely rural, with only three cities of significant size: Lashio, Kengtung, and the capital, Taunggyi.
    Shan State, with its many ethnic groups, is home to several armed ethnic armies.
    While the military government has signed ceasefire agreements with most groups, vast areas of the state, especially those east of the Thanlwin River, remain outside the central government’s control and in recent years have come under heavy ethnic-Han-Chinese economic and political influence. Other areas are under the control of military groups, such as the Shan State Army.
49. Question 49 of 100

    49. Question

    Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of montane, moist deciduous and evergreen forests?
    (A) North-eastern Hills
    (B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    (C) Eastern Highlands
    (D) Western Himalayas

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Hilly regions of north-eastern states have combination of montane forests, moist deciduous forests and evergreen forests.
    Montane forests are found between altitude of 1000-2000m in higher hilly ranges of northeastern India, as evergreen broad leaf trees in which oak and chestnut are predominant.
    Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 10-200 cm. These forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of Himalayas as well as easternHimalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and Orissa.
    Tropical evergreen forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annualprecipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22 degrees.

    Unattempted
    

    Hilly regions of north-eastern states have combination of montane forests, moist deciduous forests and evergreen forests.
    Montane forests are found between altitude of 1000-2000m in higher hilly ranges of northeastern India, as evergreen broad leaf trees in which oak and chestnut are predominant.
    Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 10-200 cm. These forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of Himalayas as well as easternHimalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and Orissa.
    Tropical evergreen forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annualprecipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22 degrees.
50. Question 50 of 100

    50. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Aurora:
    (1) It is formed when the Sun’s charged particles interact with Earth's ionosphere.
    (2) It is visible only in the Northern hemisphere of the earth.
    (3) This was the first time that the aurora was captured on camera in India by the Indian Astronomical Observatory.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) in Ladakh captured stunning images of a rare red-colored aurora known as a Stable Auroral Arc. This was the first time that the aurora was captured on camera in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    It is a rare atmospheric phenomenon which was observed during a strong G3-class geomagnetic storm.
    Unlike auroras, which occur when charged particles from space hit the atmosphere causing it to glow, SAR arcs form differently.
    They are an indication of heat energy leaking into the upper atmosphere from Earth's ring current system, a donut-shaped circuit carrying millions of amps around our planet.
    During the recent geomagnetic storm, the ring current was energised by hours of intense geomagnetic activity, with energy dissipating into these SAR arcs.
    This global event was registered in many parts of the world.
    How does Aurora form?
    It is formed when the sun is ejecting charged particles from its corona, creating solar wind. When that wind slams into Earth's ionosphere, the aurora is born. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    In the Northern Hemisphere, the phenomenon is called the northern lights (aurora borealis), while in the Southern Hemisphere, it's called the southern lights (aurora australis). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The hemispheric asymmetry of the aurora is due in part to the sun's magnetic field interfering with Earth's magnetic field.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) in Ladakh captured stunning images of a rare red-colored aurora known as a Stable Auroral Arc. This was the first time that the aurora was captured on camera in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    It is a rare atmospheric phenomenon which was observed during a strong G3-class geomagnetic storm.
    Unlike auroras, which occur when charged particles from space hit the atmosphere causing it to glow, SAR arcs form differently.
    They are an indication of heat energy leaking into the upper atmosphere from Earth's ring current system, a donut-shaped circuit carrying millions of amps around our planet.
    During the recent geomagnetic storm, the ring current was energised by hours of intense geomagnetic activity, with energy dissipating into these SAR arcs.
    This global event was registered in many parts of the world.
    How does Aurora form?
    It is formed when the sun is ejecting charged particles from its corona, creating solar wind. When that wind slams into Earth's ionosphere, the aurora is born. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    In the Northern Hemisphere, the phenomenon is called the northern lights (aurora borealis), while in the Southern Hemisphere, it's called the southern lights (aurora australis). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The hemispheric asymmetry of the aurora is due in part to the sun's magnetic field interfering with Earth's magnetic field.
51. Question 51 of 100

    51. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the National Coal Index:
    (1) It considers only non-coking coal transacted in the regulated sectors.
    (2) It is developed by the Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata.
    (3) The base year is FY 2017-18.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The National Coal Index (NCI) rose 3.83 points to 143.91 in September amid growing demand for coal.
    The NCI is a price index which reflects the change in the price level of coal on a particular month relative to the fixed base year.
    This price index combines the prices of coal from all the sales channels- Notified Prices, Auction Prices and Import Prices.
    It has been rolled out on 4th June 2020 and the aim is to have an index that will truly reflect the market price.
    The base year is FY 2017-18. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    The concept and design of the Index as well as the Representative Prices have been developed by the Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The Index is meant to encompass all transactions of raw coal in the Indian market.
    This includes coking and non-coking of various grades transacted in the regulated (power and fertilizer) and non-regulated sectors. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    The NCI's upward movement indicates rising demand of coal because of upcoming festive season and winter in the country, which will encourage coal producer to take maximum benefit by further scaling-up domestic coal production to meet the growing energy demands.

    Unattempted
    

    The National Coal Index (NCI) rose 3.83 points to 143.91 in September amid growing demand for coal.
    The NCI is a price index which reflects the change in the price level of coal on a particular month relative to the fixed base year.
    This price index combines the prices of coal from all the sales channels- Notified Prices, Auction Prices and Import Prices.
    It has been rolled out on 4th June 2020 and the aim is to have an index that will truly reflect the market price.
    The base year is FY 2017-18. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    The concept and design of the Index as well as the Representative Prices have been developed by the Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The Index is meant to encompass all transactions of raw coal in the Indian market.
    This includes coking and non-coking of various grades transacted in the regulated (power and fertilizer) and non-regulated sectors. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    The NCI's upward movement indicates rising demand of coal because of upcoming festive season and winter in the country, which will encourage coal producer to take maximum benefit by further scaling-up domestic coal production to meet the growing energy demands.
52. Question 52 of 100

    52. Question

    With reference to the Galapagos Islands, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is situated in the Pacific Ocean on either side of the Equator.
    (2) Mount Azul is the highest point of the Galapagos Islands.
    (3) It is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage site.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Scientists recently found two new coral reefs and two unexplored seamounts in the Galapagos Islands.
    About Galapagos Islands:
    Location: It is situated in the Pacific Ocean roughly 600 miles off the coast of Ecuador.
    The Archipelago is a group of 19 islands, 13 large and 6 small, and dozens of islets and rocks that cover an area of over 17,000 square miles.
    It is distributed on either side of the Equator with an underwater wildlife spectacle with abundant life.
    Repeated volcanic eruptions helped to form the rugged mountain landscape of the Galápagos Islands.
    In comparison with most oceanic archipelagos, the Galapagos are very young with the largest and youngest islands, Isabela and Fernandina, with less than one million years of existence, and the oldest islands, Española and San Cristóbal, somewhere between three to five million years.
    Mount Azul at 5,541 feet is the highest point of the Galapagos Islands.
    Climate: It is characterized by low rainfall, low humidity, and relatively low air and water temperatures.
    It is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1978.
    Biodiversity:
    The Galápagos are best known for their diverse array of plant and animal species. Many species are endemic, as they are not found anywhere else in the world.
    These include the giant Galápagos tortoise (Chelonoidis nigra), the marine iguana (Amblyrhynchus cristatus), the flightless cormorant (Phalacrocoraz harrisi), and the Galápagos penguin.
    The Galápagos penguin (Spheniscus mendiculus) is the only penguin species to live in the Northern Hemisphere.

    Unattempted
    

    Scientists recently found two new coral reefs and two unexplored seamounts in the Galapagos Islands.
    About Galapagos Islands:
    Location: It is situated in the Pacific Ocean roughly 600 miles off the coast of Ecuador.
    The Archipelago is a group of 19 islands, 13 large and 6 small, and dozens of islets and rocks that cover an area of over 17,000 square miles.
    It is distributed on either side of the Equator with an underwater wildlife spectacle with abundant life.
    Repeated volcanic eruptions helped to form the rugged mountain landscape of the Galápagos Islands.
    In comparison with most oceanic archipelagos, the Galapagos are very young with the largest and youngest islands, Isabela and Fernandina, with less than one million years of existence, and the oldest islands, Española and San Cristóbal, somewhere between three to five million years.
    Mount Azul at 5,541 feet is the highest point of the Galapagos Islands.
    Climate: It is characterized by low rainfall, low humidity, and relatively low air and water temperatures.
    It is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1978.
    Biodiversity:
    The Galápagos are best known for their diverse array of plant and animal species. Many species are endemic, as they are not found anywhere else in the world.
    These include the giant Galápagos tortoise (Chelonoidis nigra), the marine iguana (Amblyrhynchus cristatus), the flightless cormorant (Phalacrocoraz harrisi), and the Galápagos penguin.
    The Galápagos penguin (Spheniscus mendiculus) is the only penguin species to live in the Northern Hemisphere.
53. Question 53 of 100

    53. Question

    With reference to Payment Aggregator (PA), consider the following statements:
    (1) They are third-party service providers that allow merchants to accept payments from customers.
    (2) Only Scheduled Commercial Banks can function as PAs in India.
    (3) They require authorization from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to function.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has brought under its direct regulation all entities facilitating cross-border payments for import and export of goods and services and termed them Payment Aggregator-Cross Border (PA-CB).
    About Payment Aggregator-Cross Border (PA-CB):
    PAs-CB facilitates cross-border online payments for import and export of permissible goods and services.
    The RBI has set a minimum net worth requirement of Rs 15 crore for these entities, which will be categorized as PA-CB.
    They will be accountable for ensuring that they do not facilitate payment transactions for the import of any restricted or prohibited goods and services.
    If the amount involved exceeds Rs 2.5 lakh, the PA-CB must carry out due diligence on the buyer as well.
    What is a Payment Aggregator (PA)?
    A PA (also known as a merchant aggregator) is a third-party service provider that allows merchants to accept payment from customers by integrating it into their websites or apps. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It facilitates different types of payment transactions, including cash/cheque, online payments through multiple payment sources, or offline touchpoints.
    It allows merchants to accept bank transfers without setting up a bank-based merchant account. It means a merchant need not have a merchant account directly with the bank.
    A PA in India is incorporated under the Companies Act 2013.
    A PA can be a bank or a non-bank entity.
    Since a PA handles funds, it requires a license from the RBI.
    Only non-bank payment aggregators require unique authorization from RBI as ‘handling funds’ is considered a part of the normal banking relationships for bank PAs. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Examples: Amazon (Pay) India, Google India, Razorpay, Pine Labs, etc.
    Scheduled Commercial Banks are not the exclusive entities that can function as PAs in India. Payment Aggregators can be independent entities that facilitate payment processing for merchants. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has brought under its direct regulation all entities facilitating cross-border payments for import and export of goods and services and termed them Payment Aggregator-Cross Border (PA-CB).
    About Payment Aggregator-Cross Border (PA-CB):
    PAs-CB facilitates cross-border online payments for import and export of permissible goods and services.
    The RBI has set a minimum net worth requirement of Rs 15 crore for these entities, which will be categorized as PA-CB.
    They will be accountable for ensuring that they do not facilitate payment transactions for the import of any restricted or prohibited goods and services.
    If the amount involved exceeds Rs 2.5 lakh, the PA-CB must carry out due diligence on the buyer as well.
    What is a Payment Aggregator (PA)?
    A PA (also known as a merchant aggregator) is a third-party service provider that allows merchants to accept payment from customers by integrating it into their websites or apps. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It facilitates different types of payment transactions, including cash/cheque, online payments through multiple payment sources, or offline touchpoints.
    It allows merchants to accept bank transfers without setting up a bank-based merchant account. It means a merchant need not have a merchant account directly with the bank.
    A PA in India is incorporated under the Companies Act 2013.
    A PA can be a bank or a non-bank entity.
    Since a PA handles funds, it requires a license from the RBI.
    Only non-bank payment aggregators require unique authorization from RBI as ‘handling funds’ is considered a part of the normal banking relationships for bank PAs. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    Examples: Amazon (Pay) India, Google India, Razorpay, Pine Labs, etc.
    Scheduled Commercial Banks are not the exclusive entities that can function as PAs in India. Payment Aggregators can be independent entities that facilitate payment processing for merchants. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
54. Question 54 of 100

    54. Question

    How many of the following is/are the characteristics of coniferous forests?
    (1) The leaves are broad leaved and trees have a large spread which provides shade during summer months.
    (2) There is no annual replacement of leaves.
    (3) They can be found in both temperate and tropical regions.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Coniferous trees consist of the four major species- Pine, Fir, Spruce and Larch.
    Coniferous forests have the following characteristics:
    The trees are conical in shape with sloping branches to adapt to the sub-arctic climate.
    The leaves are small, thick, leathery and needle-shaped to prevent excessive transpiration. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Almost all conifers are evergreen. The conifer has a two-year fructification cycle. There is no annual replacement of leaves as in deciduous trees. The same leaf remains on the tree for as long as fiveyears. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Coniferous forests are found in other climatic regions where altitude reduces the temperature. The conifers are dominant trees in mountainous districts of both temperate and tropical countries. Hence,statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Coniferous trees consist of the four major species- Pine, Fir, Spruce and Larch.
    Coniferous forests have the following characteristics:
    The trees are conical in shape with sloping branches to adapt to the sub-arctic climate.
    The leaves are small, thick, leathery and needle-shaped to prevent excessive transpiration. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Almost all conifers are evergreen. The conifer has a two-year fructification cycle. There is no annual replacement of leaves as in deciduous trees. The same leaf remains on the tree for as long as fiveyears. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Coniferous forests are found in other climatic regions where altitude reduces the temperature. The conifers are dominant trees in mountainous districts of both temperate and tropical countries. Hence,statement 3 is correct.
55. Question 55 of 100

    55. Question

    Which one of the following cells within the epidermis layer of the skin helps to protect the body from ultraviolet (UV) radiation present in sunlight?
    (A) Keratinocytes
    (B) Langerhans cells
    (C) Merkel cells
    (D) Melanocytes

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Researchers recently discovered that haemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells that binds oxygen, is also present in the epidermis.
    About Epidermis:
    It is the outermost layer of the skin and protects the body from the environment.
    The thickness of the epidermis varies in different types of skin; it is only .05 mm thick on the eyelids and 1.5 mm thick on the palms and the soles of the feet.
    The epidermis layer itself is made up of five sublayers that work together to continually rebuild the surface of the skin:
    The various cells present in epidermis are Keratinocytes, Melanocytes, Langerhans cells, and Merkel cells.
    Keratinocytes:
    They are the most common type of cell in the epidermis and are responsible for the synthesis of the protein keratin.
    These cells exist in progressive stages of differentiation from the deepest to the superficial layers of cells.
    Moreover, keratinocytes originate from the basal layer, which is the deepest layer of the epidermis, and gradually move up to the outside layer of the epidermis.
    Here, keratinocytes are shed from the skin and replaced by new maturing cells.
    Melanocytes:
    They are another type of cell in the epidermis that is present throughout the basal layer.
    These cells are responsible for the production of melanin, which contributes to the color of the skin of the individual.
    Melanin also helps to protect the body from ultraviolet (UV) radiation present in sunlight that can damage the DNA of the skin cells.
    Langerhans cells produced in the bone marrow are also present in the epidermis and work to detect foreign substances and infections as part of the immune system of the skin.
    These cells are also thought to be involved in the development of skin allergies.
    Merkel cells originate from neural crest cells and are responsible for the perception of gentle touch.
    These cells are present in the epidermis in specific areas of the skin, such as the nail beds and genitalia.

    Unattempted
    

    Researchers recently discovered that haemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells that binds oxygen, is also present in the epidermis.
    About Epidermis:
    It is the outermost layer of the skin and protects the body from the environment.
    The thickness of the epidermis varies in different types of skin; it is only .05 mm thick on the eyelids and 1.5 mm thick on the palms and the soles of the feet.
    The epidermis layer itself is made up of five sublayers that work together to continually rebuild the surface of the skin:
    The various cells present in epidermis are Keratinocytes, Melanocytes, Langerhans cells, and Merkel cells.
    Keratinocytes:
    They are the most common type of cell in the epidermis and are responsible for the synthesis of the protein keratin.
    These cells exist in progressive stages of differentiation from the deepest to the superficial layers of cells.
    Moreover, keratinocytes originate from the basal layer, which is the deepest layer of the epidermis, and gradually move up to the outside layer of the epidermis.
    Here, keratinocytes are shed from the skin and replaced by new maturing cells.
    Melanocytes:
    They are another type of cell in the epidermis that is present throughout the basal layer.
    These cells are responsible for the production of melanin, which contributes to the color of the skin of the individual.
    Melanin also helps to protect the body from ultraviolet (UV) radiation present in sunlight that can damage the DNA of the skin cells.
    Langerhans cells produced in the bone marrow are also present in the epidermis and work to detect foreign substances and infections as part of the immune system of the skin.
    These cells are also thought to be involved in the development of skin allergies.
    Merkel cells originate from neural crest cells and are responsible for the perception of gentle touch.
    These cells are present in the epidermis in specific areas of the skin, such as the nail beds and genitalia.
56. Question 56 of 100

    56. Question

    With reference to Narmada River, consider the following:
    (1) It is the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India.
    (2) It rises on the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh.
    (3) It flows in a rift valley and acts as a divider between north India and south India.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A division bench of MP High Court recently granted time to the state government to present in the court the guidelines for urban and rural areas through which river Narmada flows in the state as regard construction in the vicinity of the river.
    About Narmada River:
    It is the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India.
    Origin: The origin of the river is a tiny reservoir named Narmada Kund, which is situated on the Amarkantak Hill in Anuppur District of East Madhya Pradesh at an elevation of 1,057 m (3,467.8 ft).
    Course: The river flows through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat between Vindhya and Satpura hill ranges before falling into the Gulf of Cambay in the Arabian Sea about 10 km north of Bharuch, Gujarat.
    Length: The total length of the river from source to sea is 1312 kilometres (815 miles).
    It is one of the rivers that flow in a rift valley and acts as a divider between north India and south India.
    The river has numerous waterfalls, notably the Dhuandhar Falls, southwest of Jabalpur.
    Tributaries:
    The Narmada has several tributaries, with the most significant ones being the Tawa, Barna, Hiran, and Orsang rivers.
    The Tawa River is the longest tributary of the Narmada River. It joins the Narmada River at Bandra Bhan in Hoshangabad district, Madhya Pradesh.

    Unattempted
    

    A division bench of MP High Court recently granted time to the state government to present in the court the guidelines for urban and rural areas through which river Narmada flows in the state as regard construction in the vicinity of the river.
    About Narmada River:
    It is the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India.
    Origin: The origin of the river is a tiny reservoir named Narmada Kund, which is situated on the Amarkantak Hill in Anuppur District of East Madhya Pradesh at an elevation of 1,057 m (3,467.8 ft).
    Course: The river flows through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat between Vindhya and Satpura hill ranges before falling into the Gulf of Cambay in the Arabian Sea about 10 km north of Bharuch, Gujarat.
    Length: The total length of the river from source to sea is 1312 kilometres (815 miles).
    It is one of the rivers that flow in a rift valley and acts as a divider between north India and south India.
    The river has numerous waterfalls, notably the Dhuandhar Falls, southwest of Jabalpur.
    Tributaries:
    The Narmada has several tributaries, with the most significant ones being the Tawa, Barna, Hiran, and Orsang rivers.
    The Tawa River is the longest tributary of the Narmada River. It joins the Narmada River at Bandra Bhan in Hoshangabad district, Madhya Pradesh.
57. Question 57 of 100

    57. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Dudhwa Tiger Reserve:
    (1) It is located at the Indo-Nepal border in Uttar Pradesh.
    (2) It has a moist deciduous type of vegetation.
    (3) It is the only place in Uttar Pradesh where both Tigers and Rhinos can be spotted together.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    UP civil aviation department is working on a proposal to introduce chopper services from the state capital to Dudhwa Tiger Reserve (DTR).
    About Dudhwa Tiger Reserve:
    It is located on the Indo-Nepal border in the district Lakhimpur-Kheri in Uttar Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It includes the Dudhwa National Park and two nearby sanctuaries, viz. Kishanpur and Katerniaghat.
    It was established in 1988 and covers an area of 1,284 square kilometers.It is a typical Tarai-Bhabar habitat of the upper Gangetic plains Biogeographic province.
    Rivers: The Sharda River flows by the Kishanpur WL Sanctuary, the Geruwa River flows through the Katerniaghat WL Sanctuary, and the Suheli and Mohana streams flow in the Dudhwa National Park, all of which are tributaries of the mighty Ghagra River.
    Flora: The vegetation is of the North Indian Moist Deciduous type, containing some of the finest examples of Sal forests (Shorea robusta) in India, as well the most extensive tracts of moist grasslands that remain in this region. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Fauna: It is home to a large number of rare and endangered species, which include Tiger, Leopard cat, Sloth beer, rinosaurs (One horn), Hispid hare, Elephants, Black deer, Swamp deer, etc.
    It is the only place in Uttar Pradesh where both Tigers and Rhinos can be spotted together. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    UP civil aviation department is working on a proposal to introduce chopper services from the state capital to Dudhwa Tiger Reserve (DTR).
    About Dudhwa Tiger Reserve:
    It is located on the Indo-Nepal border in the district Lakhimpur-Kheri in Uttar Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It includes the Dudhwa National Park and two nearby sanctuaries, viz. Kishanpur and Katerniaghat.
    It was established in 1988 and covers an area of 1,284 square kilometers.It is a typical Tarai-Bhabar habitat of the upper Gangetic plains Biogeographic province.
    Rivers: The Sharda River flows by the Kishanpur WL Sanctuary, the Geruwa River flows through the Katerniaghat WL Sanctuary, and the Suheli and Mohana streams flow in the Dudhwa National Park, all of which are tributaries of the mighty Ghagra River.
    Flora: The vegetation is of the North Indian Moist Deciduous type, containing some of the finest examples of Sal forests (Shorea robusta) in India, as well the most extensive tracts of moist grasslands that remain in this region. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Fauna: It is home to a large number of rare and endangered species, which include Tiger, Leopard cat, Sloth beer, rinosaurs (One horn), Hispid hare, Elephants, Black deer, Swamp deer, etc.
    It is the only place in Uttar Pradesh where both Tigers and Rhinos can be spotted together. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
58. Question 58 of 100

    58. Question

    With reference to the Global Digital Public Infrastructure Repository, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is created by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
    (2) It is a comprehensive resource hub in which essential lessons and expertise from G20 members are pooled.
    (3) Only Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is incorporated in this repository from India.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the Prime Minister of India announced the launch of two India-led initiatives: the Global Digital Public Infrastructure Repository and a Social Impact Fund.
    It is created by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
    It is a comprehensive resource hub, pooling essential lessons and expertise from G20 members and guest nations.
    Its primary aim is to bridge the knowledge gap in the choices and methodologies required for the design, construction, deployment, and governance of DPIs.
    The GDPIR showcases the information in a standardized format from countries and organizations that have developed DPIs at scale, incorporating elements such as maturity scales, source codes (where available), and governance frameworks. Currently, the GDPIR features 54 DPIs from 16 countries.
    The DPIs from India that have been incorporated in the GDPIR are: Aaadhaar, Unified Payments Interface (UPI), DigiLocker, Umang, eSanjeevani, API Setu, Co-WIN, Government e-marketplace, Diksha, E-Hospital, Poshan Tracker and Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM).
    What is Digital public infrastructure (DPI)?
    It encompasses foundational elements or frameworks like digital identification, payment infrastructure, and data exchange solutions.
    These components play a crucial role in facilitating countries to provide vital services to their citizens, fostering empowerment, and enhancing lives through the promotion of digital inclusion.
    Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the Prime Minister of India announced the launch of two India-led initiatives: the Global Digital Public Infrastructure Repository and a Social Impact Fund.
    It is created by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
    It is a comprehensive resource hub, pooling essential lessons and expertise from G20 members and guest nations.
    Its primary aim is to bridge the knowledge gap in the choices and methodologies required for the design, construction, deployment, and governance of DPIs.
    The GDPIR showcases the information in a standardized format from countries and organizations that have developed DPIs at scale, incorporating elements such as maturity scales, source codes (where available), and governance frameworks. Currently, the GDPIR features 54 DPIs from 16 countries.
    The DPIs from India that have been incorporated in the GDPIR are: Aaadhaar, Unified Payments Interface (UPI), DigiLocker, Umang, eSanjeevani, API Setu, Co-WIN, Government e-marketplace, Diksha, E-Hospital, Poshan Tracker and Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM).
    What is Digital public infrastructure (DPI)?
    It encompasses foundational elements or frameworks like digital identification, payment infrastructure, and data exchange solutions.
    These components play a crucial role in facilitating countries to provide vital services to their citizens, fostering empowerment, and enhancing lives through the promotion of digital inclusion.
    Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
59. Question 59 of 100

    59. Question

    With reference to Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), consider the following:
    (1) A REIT is a company that owns and typically operates income-producing real estate assets.
    (2) They pool money from the investors and invest it in commercial real estate projects.
    (3) They are not publicly traded like stocks, which makes them less liquid.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Sebi Board recently approved amendments to the SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations 2014 (REIT Regulations) to create a new regulatory framework for small and medium REITs.
    About Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs):
    A REIT is a company that owns and typically operates income-producing real estate or related assets. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    They pool money from the investors and invest it in commercial real estate projects. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    These may include office buildings, shopping malls, apartments, hotels, resorts, self-storage facilities, warehouses, and mortgages or loans.
    Unlike other real estate companies, a REIT does not develop real estate properties to resell them. Instead, a REIT buys and develops properties primarily to operate them as part of its own investment portfolio.
    REITs provide a way for individual investors to earn a share of the income produced through commercial real estate ownership without actually having to go out and buy commercial real estate.
    In general, REITs specialize in a specific real estate sector. However, diversified and specialty REITs may hold different types of properties in their portfolios, such as a REIT that consists of both office and retail properties.
    Most REITs are publicly traded like stocks, which makes them highly liquid (unlike physical real estate investments). REITs are like shares that are listed on the stock exchange, which means you can buy or sell them anytime on the exchange. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The Sebi Board recently approved amendments to the SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations 2014 (REIT Regulations) to create a new regulatory framework for small and medium REITs.
    About Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs):
    A REIT is a company that owns and typically operates income-producing real estate or related assets. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    They pool money from the investors and invest it in commercial real estate projects. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    These may include office buildings, shopping malls, apartments, hotels, resorts, self-storage facilities, warehouses, and mortgages or loans.
    Unlike other real estate companies, a REIT does not develop real estate properties to resell them. Instead, a REIT buys and develops properties primarily to operate them as part of its own investment portfolio.
    REITs provide a way for individual investors to earn a share of the income produced through commercial real estate ownership without actually having to go out and buy commercial real estate.
    In general, REITs specialize in a specific real estate sector. However, diversified and specialty REITs may hold different types of properties in their portfolios, such as a REIT that consists of both office and retail properties.
    Most REITs are publicly traded like stocks, which makes them highly liquid (unlike physical real estate investments). REITs are like shares that are listed on the stock exchange, which means you can buy or sell them anytime on the exchange. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
60. Question 60 of 100

    60. Question

    How many among the following include economic activities of Mediterranean climate?
    (1) Wine production
    (2) Orchard farming
    (3) Cotton cultivation
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mediterranean climate is ideal for the production of wines, because the best wine is essentially made from grapes. The long, sunny summer allows the grapes to ripen. Viticulture is by tradition a Mediterranean occupations and regions bordering the Mediterranean Sea account for three-quarters of the world’s production of wine. Hence, option 1 is correct.
    The Mediterranean lands are known as the world’s orchard lands as climate of the region suitable for the wide range of citrus fruits. The thick, leathery skin of the citrus fruits prevents excessive transpirationand long, sunny summer enables the fruits to be ripened and harvested. Besides this fruit trees have long roots to draw water from considerable depths during the long summer drought. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    Cotton cultivation is chief economic activity of China type climate. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Mediterranean climate is ideal for the production of wines, because the best wine is essentially made from grapes. The long, sunny summer allows the grapes to ripen. Viticulture is by tradition a Mediterranean occupations and regions bordering the Mediterranean Sea account for three-quarters of the world’s production of wine. Hence, option 1 is correct.
    The Mediterranean lands are known as the world’s orchard lands as climate of the region suitable for the wide range of citrus fruits. The thick, leathery skin of the citrus fruits prevents excessive transpirationand long, sunny summer enables the fruits to be ripened and harvested. Besides this fruit trees have long roots to draw water from considerable depths during the long summer drought. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    Cotton cultivation is chief economic activity of China type climate. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
61. Question 61 of 100

    61. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes.
    (2) In Northern Hemisphere, the eastern coast of higher latitudes are bordered by cold currents.
    (3) Agulhas current which flows down the African coast is a warm current.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Cold currents bring cold water into warm water areas. These currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres) and on the east coast in the higher latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    Agulhas current is a warm current which flows down the east coast of the African continent. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Cold currents bring cold water into warm water areas. These currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres) and on the east coast in the higher latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    Agulhas current is a warm current which flows down the east coast of the African continent. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
62. Question 62 of 100

    62. Question

    Consider the following statements about Duar formation:
    (1) They are alluvial floodplains found in Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas.
    (2) Sankosh river divides it into Eastern and Western Duars.
    (3) They are useful for plantation of tea.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas are famous for Duar formations. Duars are alluvial floodplains that lie south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas and north of the Brahmaputra River basin. This region is divided by the Sankosh River into Eastern and Western Duars. The Western Duars are also known as the Bengal Duars, and the Eastern Duars also as the Assam Duars. Duars is analogous with the Terai innorthern India and southern Nepal.
    Duars play an important role in the region as they support the tea plantations.
    Significantly, The Shiwaliks are absent in this region.

    Unattempted
    

    Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas are famous for Duar formations. Duars are alluvial floodplains that lie south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas and north of the Brahmaputra River basin. This region is divided by the Sankosh River into Eastern and Western Duars. The Western Duars are also known as the Bengal Duars, and the Eastern Duars also as the Assam Duars. Duars is analogous with the Terai innorthern India and southern Nepal.
    Duars play an important role in the region as they support the tea plantations.
    Significantly, The Shiwaliks are absent in this region.
63. Question 63 of 100

    63. Question

    Which among the following national waterways lies only in one state?
    (1) National Waterway-3
    (2) National Waterway-2
    (3) National Waterway-5
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Allahabad-Haldia stretch on the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, with a length of 1,620 Km (declared National Waterway No.1 in 1986).
    Sadiya-Dhubri stretch on River Brahmaputra in the state of Assam, with a length of 891 Km. (declared National Waterway No.2 in 1988).
    Kottapuram-Kollam stretch of the West Coast Canal, along with Udyogmandal and Champakara Canals in the state of Kerala, with a total length of 205 Km (declared National Waterway No.3 in 1993).
    Kakinada- Puducherry canals along with Godavari and Krishna rivers in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Union territory of Puducherry, with a total length of 1,078 Km. (declared NationalWaterway No.4 in 2008).
    Brahmani river and Mahanadi delta rivers, integrated with East Coast Canal in the states of West Bengal and Odisha, with a total length of 588 Km. (declared National Waterway No.5 in 2008).

    Unattempted
    

    Allahabad-Haldia stretch on the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, with a length of 1,620 Km (declared National Waterway No.1 in 1986).
    Sadiya-Dhubri stretch on River Brahmaputra in the state of Assam, with a length of 891 Km. (declared National Waterway No.2 in 1988).
    Kottapuram-Kollam stretch of the West Coast Canal, along with Udyogmandal and Champakara Canals in the state of Kerala, with a total length of 205 Km (declared National Waterway No.3 in 1993).
    Kakinada- Puducherry canals along with Godavari and Krishna rivers in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Union territory of Puducherry, with a total length of 1,078 Km. (declared NationalWaterway No.4 in 2008).
    Brahmani river and Mahanadi delta rivers, integrated with East Coast Canal in the states of West Bengal and Odisha, with a total length of 588 Km. (declared National Waterway No.5 in 2008).
64. Question 64 of 100

    64. Question

    With reference to Steppes, consider the following statements:
    (1) Steppes in northern hemisphere experience seasonal extremes oftemperatures due to continentality.
    (2) Steppe regions are the largest wheat growing areas of the world.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Steppes are temperate grasslands.
    Features of Steppes:They have extremes of temperature due to continentality. Temperature is highly contrasting between summer and winter. The summers are hot and the winters are cold. However, the steppe of southern hemisphere experience moderate to low-temperature variations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    These regions are the largest wheat producing areas in the world. They practice extensive mechanized farming. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Steppes are temperate grasslands.
    Features of Steppes:They have extremes of temperature due to continentality. Temperature is highly contrasting between summer and winter. The summers are hot and the winters are cold. However, the steppe of southern hemisphere experience moderate to low-temperature variations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    These regions are the largest wheat producing areas in the world. They practice extensive mechanized farming. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
65. Question 65 of 100

    65. Question

    With reference to varieties of silk found in India, consider the following pairs:
    – Type of silk – Producing States
    (1) Tasar silk : Jharkhand
    (2) Muga silk : Assam
    (3) Eri silk : Meghalaya
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Muga silk is golden yellow colour silk is prerogative of India and the pride of Assam state. It is obtained from the semi-domesticated multivoltine silkworm, Antheraea assamensis. Muga culture is specific to the state of Assam and an integral part of the tradition and culture of that state. The muga silk, a high-value product is used in products like sarees, mekhalas, chaddars, etc. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
    Tasar silk is copperish colour, coarse silk mainly used for furnishings and interiors. It is less lustrous than mulberry silk. Tasar silk is generated by the silkworm, Antheraea mylitta which mainly thrive on the foodplants Asan and Arjun. The rearings are conducted in nature on the trees in the open. In India, tasar silk is mainly produced in the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Orissa, besides Maharashtra, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh. Tasar culture is the mainstay for many a tribal community in India. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    Eri silk is multivoltine silk spun from open-ended cocoons, unlike other varieties of silk. Eri silk is the product of the domesticated silkworm, Philosamia ricini that feeds mainly on castor leaves. Ericulture is a household activity practised mainly for protein-rich pupae, a delicacy for the tribal. The silk is used indigenously for preparation of chaddars (wraps) for own use by these tribals. In India, this culture is practised mainly in the north-eastern states such as Assam and Meghalaya. It is also found in Bihar, West Bengal and Orissa. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    Muga silk is golden yellow colour silk is prerogative of India and the pride of Assam state. It is obtained from the semi-domesticated multivoltine silkworm, Antheraea assamensis. Muga culture is specific to the state of Assam and an integral part of the tradition and culture of that state. The muga silk, a high-value product is used in products like sarees, mekhalas, chaddars, etc. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
    Tasar silk is copperish colour, coarse silk mainly used for furnishings and interiors. It is less lustrous than mulberry silk. Tasar silk is generated by the silkworm, Antheraea mylitta which mainly thrive on the foodplants Asan and Arjun. The rearings are conducted in nature on the trees in the open. In India, tasar silk is mainly produced in the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Orissa, besides Maharashtra, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh. Tasar culture is the mainstay for many a tribal community in India. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    Eri silk is multivoltine silk spun from open-ended cocoons, unlike other varieties of silk. Eri silk is the product of the domesticated silkworm, Philosamia ricini that feeds mainly on castor leaves. Ericulture is a household activity practised mainly for protein-rich pupae, a delicacy for the tribal. The silk is used indigenously for preparation of chaddars (wraps) for own use by these tribals. In India, this culture is practised mainly in the north-eastern states such as Assam and Meghalaya. It is also found in Bihar, West Bengal and Orissa. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
66. Question 66 of 100

    66. Question

    With reference to the Lamprey, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a primitive jawless vertebrate species.
    (2) It is endemic to the African continent.
    (3) It is found in sea as well as freshwater habitat.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, Chinese palaeontologists have discovered two new species of lamprey from fossils considered 160 million years old.
    These are primitive fishlike jawless vertebrates placed with hagfishes in the class Agnatha.
    They belong to the family Petromyzonidae.
    Habitat: They live in coastal and fresh waters and are found in temperate regions around the world, except Africa.
    Appearance:
    The eel-like, scaleless animals range from about 15 to 100 centimetres (6 to 40 inches) long.
    They have well-developed eyes, one or two dorsal fins, a tail fin, a single nostril on top of the head, and seven gill openings on each side of the body.
    They lack bones, jaws, and paired fins.
    The skeleton of a lamprey consists of cartilage; the mouth is a round sucking aperture provided with horny teeth.
    Not all lampreys spend time in the sea. Some are landlocked and remain in fresh water. Example: Sea lamprey (Petromyzon marinus).
    Other lampreys, such as the brook lamprey (Lampetra planeri), also spend their entire lives in fresh water.
    They are nonparasitic, however, and do not feed after becoming adults; instead, they reproduce and die.
    Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, Chinese palaeontologists have discovered two new species of lamprey from fossils considered 160 million years old.
    These are primitive fishlike jawless vertebrates placed with hagfishes in the class Agnatha.
    They belong to the family Petromyzonidae.
    Habitat: They live in coastal and fresh waters and are found in temperate regions around the world, except Africa.
    Appearance:
    The eel-like, scaleless animals range from about 15 to 100 centimetres (6 to 40 inches) long.
    They have well-developed eyes, one or two dorsal fins, a tail fin, a single nostril on top of the head, and seven gill openings on each side of the body.
    They lack bones, jaws, and paired fins.
    The skeleton of a lamprey consists of cartilage; the mouth is a round sucking aperture provided with horny teeth.
    Not all lampreys spend time in the sea. Some are landlocked and remain in fresh water. Example: Sea lamprey (Petromyzon marinus).
    Other lampreys, such as the brook lamprey (Lampetra planeri), also spend their entire lives in fresh water.
    They are nonparasitic, however, and do not feed after becoming adults; instead, they reproduce and die.
    Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
67. Question 67 of 100

    67. Question

    With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is set up by Parliament every five years.
    (2) It consists of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President.
    (3) Its recommendations are binding on the government.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The government has started the process of constitution of the Sixteenth Finance Commission.
    About Finance Commission:
    It is a constitutional body for giving recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
    The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.
    It is constituted at the end of every fifth year or earlier, as deemed necessary by the President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Parliament may, by law, determine the requisite qualifications for appointment as members of the Commission and the procedure for their selection. On account of this, The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, was passed.
    Mandate: It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to:
    the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
    the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
    the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
    any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.
    Composition: It consists of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Qualifications of members: The Chairman of the Commission is selected from among persons who have had experience in public affairs, and the four other members are selected from among persons whoare, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as judges of a High Court; or
    have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of Government; or
    have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or
    have special knowledge of economics
    Tenure of members: Every member will be in office for the time period as specified in the order of the President and is eligible for reappointment.
    The recommendations of the Finance Commission are not binding on the government. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The government has started the process of constitution of the Sixteenth Finance Commission.
    About Finance Commission:
    It is a constitutional body for giving recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
    The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.
    It is constituted at the end of every fifth year or earlier, as deemed necessary by the President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Parliament may, by law, determine the requisite qualifications for appointment as members of the Commission and the procedure for their selection. On account of this, The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, was passed.
    Mandate: It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to:
    the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
    the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
    the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
    any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.
    Composition: It consists of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Qualifications of members: The Chairman of the Commission is selected from among persons who have had experience in public affairs, and the four other members are selected from among persons whoare, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as judges of a High Court; or
    have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of Government; or
    have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or
    have special knowledge of economics
    Tenure of members: Every member will be in office for the time period as specified in the order of the President and is eligible for reappointment.
    The recommendations of the Finance Commission are not binding on the government. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
68. Question 68 of 100

    68. Question

    Walvis Bay, known as the gateway port for trade between landlocked African countries and the rest of the world, is located along:
    (A) Atlantic Ocean
    (B) Indian Ocean
    (C) Pacific Ocean
    (D) Mediterranean Sea

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In a strategic move as part of the Indian Navy’s mission-based deployment to West Africa and the Atlantic, INS Sumedha conducted a port call at Walvis Bay.
    It is strategically located halfway down the coast of Namibia, with direct access to principal shipping routes.
    This strategic location has made it the gateway port for trade between landlocked African countries and the rest of the world.
    Apart from cargo transshipment, Walvis Bay is also known internationally for its commercial fishing industry.
    It is lying along the Atlantic Ocean.
    The town of Walvis Bay lies on the edge of the Namib Desert at the mouth of the intermittently flowing Kuiseb River.

    Unattempted
    

    In a strategic move as part of the Indian Navy’s mission-based deployment to West Africa and the Atlantic, INS Sumedha conducted a port call at Walvis Bay.
    It is strategically located halfway down the coast of Namibia, with direct access to principal shipping routes.
    This strategic location has made it the gateway port for trade between landlocked African countries and the rest of the world.
    Apart from cargo transshipment, Walvis Bay is also known internationally for its commercial fishing industry.
    It is lying along the Atlantic Ocean.
    The town of Walvis Bay lies on the edge of the Namib Desert at the mouth of the intermittently flowing Kuiseb River.
69. Question 69 of 100

    69. Question

    With reference to the Asian Development Bank (ADB), consider the following statements:
    (1) It has members from Asia and the Pacific region.
    (2) It does not finance private sector projects.
    (3) Its vote share is distributed in proportion to members' capital subscriptions.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, India signed a $400 million policy-based loan agreement with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) to create high-quality urban infrastructure, improve service delivery, and promote efficient governance systems.
    It is a multilateral development bank established on 19th December 1966.
    Mission: To foster economic growth and cooperation among countries in the Asia-Pacific Region.
    Functions:
    It assists members and partners by providing loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.
    It also provides financing to certain private sector projects as well as public-private partnerships.
    It regularly facilitates policy dialogues and provides advisory services.
    Members: It encompasses 68 members—of which 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside.
    It is run by a board of governors, which represents the member countries of the ADB.
    It is modelled closely on the World Bank and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed in proportion to members' capital subscriptions.
    As of 2022, ADB's five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People's Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%).
    Source of Funding: It relies on member contributions, retained earnings from lending, and the repayment of loans for the funding of the organization.
    Headquarters: Manila, Philippines.
    Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, India signed a $400 million policy-based loan agreement with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) to create high-quality urban infrastructure, improve service delivery, and promote efficient governance systems.
    It is a multilateral development bank established on 19th December 1966.
    Mission: To foster economic growth and cooperation among countries in the Asia-Pacific Region.
    Functions:
    It assists members and partners by providing loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.
    It also provides financing to certain private sector projects as well as public-private partnerships.
    It regularly facilitates policy dialogues and provides advisory services.
    Members: It encompasses 68 members—of which 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside.
    It is run by a board of governors, which represents the member countries of the ADB.
    It is modelled closely on the World Bank and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed in proportion to members' capital subscriptions.
    As of 2022, ADB's five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People's Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%).
    Source of Funding: It relies on member contributions, retained earnings from lending, and the repayment of loans for the funding of the organization.
    Headquarters: Manila, Philippines.
    Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
70. Question 70 of 100

    70. Question

    The frequent occurence of debris avalanches and landslides in the Himalayas can be attributed to:
    (1) Himalayas being a tectonically active region
    (2) the sedimentary deposits present in the region
    (3) the steep slopes present in the region
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The frequent occurence of debris avalanches and landslides in the Himalayas is caused due to the following reasons:
    (1) The Himalayas are tectonically active. Most parts of the Indian Himalaya fall in seismic zone V and IV, indicating a high degree of susceptibility to earthquakes. Field observations have indicated thatsuch landslides are often associated with earthquakes of magnitude 4 or more. About 20-25 % losses during earthquakes in hilly terrains have been attributed to landslides.
    (2) They are mostly made up of sedimentary rocks and unconsolidated and semi-consolidated deposits.
    (3) The slopes are very steep.

    Unattempted
    

    The frequent occurence of debris avalanches and landslides in the Himalayas is caused due to the following reasons:
    (1) The Himalayas are tectonically active. Most parts of the Indian Himalaya fall in seismic zone V and IV, indicating a high degree of susceptibility to earthquakes. Field observations have indicated thatsuch landslides are often associated with earthquakes of magnitude 4 or more. About 20-25 % losses during earthquakes in hilly terrains have been attributed to landslides.
    (2) They are mostly made up of sedimentary rocks and unconsolidated and semi-consolidated deposits.
    (3) The slopes are very steep.
71. Question 71 of 100

    71. Question

    With reference to the non-melanoma skin cancer, consider the following statements:
    (1) It develops in the upper layers of the skin.
    (2) It is mainly caused when a person exposed to ultraviolet light of the sun.
    (3) It is only seen in children.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    About one in every three deaths that take place from nonmelanoma skin cancer is reportedly caused by working outdoors under the sun, the World Health Organization has cautioned in a joint report along with the International Labour Organization (ILO).
    It refers to a group of cancers that develop in the upper layers of the skin. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The main types are basal cell carcinoma (BCC) and squamous cell carcinoma (SCC).
    The main cause is ultraviolet light, which comes from the sun and is used in sunbeds. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It is more common in older people, but younger people can also get it. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    The main symptom of non-melanoma skin cancer is a growth or unusual patch on the skin, but it's most common in areas exposed to the sun, such as head, face and ears neck and shoulders etc.
    Treatment: Surgery is the main treatment for non-melanoma skin cancer. Radiotherapy, targeted medicines, photodynamic therapy and chemotherapy are also sometimes used.

    Unattempted
    

    About one in every three deaths that take place from nonmelanoma skin cancer is reportedly caused by working outdoors under the sun, the World Health Organization has cautioned in a joint report along with the International Labour Organization (ILO).
    It refers to a group of cancers that develop in the upper layers of the skin. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The main types are basal cell carcinoma (BCC) and squamous cell carcinoma (SCC).
    The main cause is ultraviolet light, which comes from the sun and is used in sunbeds. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It is more common in older people, but younger people can also get it. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    The main symptom of non-melanoma skin cancer is a growth or unusual patch on the skin, but it's most common in areas exposed to the sun, such as head, face and ears neck and shoulders etc.
    Treatment: Surgery is the main treatment for non-melanoma skin cancer. Radiotherapy, targeted medicines, photodynamic therapy and chemotherapy are also sometimes used.
72. Question 72 of 100

    72. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Tributary River : Main River
    (1) Pranhita : Godavari
    (2) Koyna : Kaveri
    (3) Bhima : Krishna
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. Its basin extends over states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha in addition to smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Union territory of Puducherry. Pravara, Manjira and Maner are right bank tributaries and the Purna, Pranhita, Indravathi and Sabari are important left bank tributaries.
    Pair 2 is not correctly matched and Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Krishna River rises from the Western Ghats near Jor village of Satara district of Maharashtra. Its basin extends over Andhra Pradesh,Maharashtra and Karnataka. Its principal tributaries are Koyna, Ghatprabha, Malprabha and Tungabhadra, Bhima, Musi and Munneru.

    Unattempted
    

    Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. Its basin extends over states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha in addition to smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Union territory of Puducherry. Pravara, Manjira and Maner are right bank tributaries and the Purna, Pranhita, Indravathi and Sabari are important left bank tributaries.
    Pair 2 is not correctly matched and Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Krishna River rises from the Western Ghats near Jor village of Satara district of Maharashtra. Its basin extends over Andhra Pradesh,Maharashtra and Karnataka. Its principal tributaries are Koyna, Ghatprabha, Malprabha and Tungabhadra, Bhima, Musi and Munneru.
73. Question 73 of 100

    73. Question

    Which of the following statements regarding leaching is/are correct?
    (1) Leaching leads to washing away of lime and silica, leaving behind aluminium compounds.
    (2) Laterite soils are formed by leaching due to heavy tropical rains.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct as leaching involves desilication of soil. In this process, the lime and silica from soil percolates below leaving behind aluminium compounds at the top.As the process of leaching involves washing away of nutrients from top soil.The nutrients are percolated below the soil.
    Statement 2 is correct as the laterite soils are formed in regions of heavy seasonal rainfall resulting into weathering of rocks followed by leaching.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct as leaching involves desilication of soil. In this process, the lime and silica from soil percolates below leaving behind aluminium compounds at the top.As the process of leaching involves washing away of nutrients from top soil.The nutrients are percolated below the soil.
    Statement 2 is correct as the laterite soils are formed in regions of heavy seasonal rainfall resulting into weathering of rocks followed by leaching.
74. Question 74 of 100

    74. Question

    Why the majority of peninsular rivers fall into Bay of Bengal?
    (A) Submergence of western part of Peninsular in Arabian sea during the early Tertiary period.
    (B) Presence of Satpura in the northern part of Peninsular block.
    (C) Presence of igneous rocks.
    (D) Collision of Indian plate with the Eurasian plate created a trough faulting in the Peninsular block

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Slight tilting of the Peninsular block from northwest to the southeastern direction gave orientation to the entire drainage system towards the Bay of Bengal during the early Tertiary period.
    The tilting was caused when Western part of Peninsula cracked and submerged in the Arabian sea that thereby disturbed the river's course during the early Tertiary period. It has disturbed the symmetrical planof the river on either side of the original watershed.

    Unattempted
    

    Slight tilting of the Peninsular block from northwest to the southeastern direction gave orientation to the entire drainage system towards the Bay of Bengal during the early Tertiary period.
    The tilting was caused when Western part of Peninsula cracked and submerged in the Arabian sea that thereby disturbed the river's course during the early Tertiary period. It has disturbed the symmetrical planof the river on either side of the original watershed.
75. Question 75 of 100

    75. Question

    With reference to “heat wave condition” consider the following statements?
    (1) A heat wave is a prolonged period of excessive heat, often combined with excessive humidity.
    (2) In India, heat wave is declared only after the temperature of a station reaches at least 300C in plains and 400 C in hilly areas.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Heat waves form when high pressure aloft (from 10,000–25,000 feet (3,000-7,600 metres)) strengthens and remains over a region for several days up to several weeks. This is common in summer (in both Northern and Southern Hemispheres) as the jet stream 'follows the sun'. On the equator side of the jet stream, in the middle layers of the atmosphere, is the high pressure area.
    The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has defined heat wave under two categories. The first category includes places where the normal maximum temperature is more than 40°C. In such regions ifthe day temperature exceeds by 3 to 4°C above the normal, it is said to be affected by a heat wave. Similarly, when the day temperature is 5°C or more than the normal, severe heat wave condition persists.o The second category considers the regions where the normal maximum temperature is 40°C or less. In these areas, if the day temperature is 5-6°C above the normal, then the place is said to be affected by a moderate heat wave. A severe heat wave condition exists when the day temperature exceeds the normal maximum temperature over the place, by 6°C.
    Heat Wave need not be considered till maximum temperature of a station reaches atleast 40°C for plains and at least 30°C for hilly regions

    Unattempted
    

    Heat waves form when high pressure aloft (from 10,000–25,000 feet (3,000-7,600 metres)) strengthens and remains over a region for several days up to several weeks. This is common in summer (in both Northern and Southern Hemispheres) as the jet stream 'follows the sun'. On the equator side of the jet stream, in the middle layers of the atmosphere, is the high pressure area.
    The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has defined heat wave under two categories. The first category includes places where the normal maximum temperature is more than 40°C. In such regions ifthe day temperature exceeds by 3 to 4°C above the normal, it is said to be affected by a heat wave. Similarly, when the day temperature is 5°C or more than the normal, severe heat wave condition persists.o The second category considers the regions where the normal maximum temperature is 40°C or less. In these areas, if the day temperature is 5-6°C above the normal, then the place is said to be affected by a moderate heat wave. A severe heat wave condition exists when the day temperature exceeds the normal maximum temperature over the place, by 6°C.
    Heat Wave need not be considered till maximum temperature of a station reaches atleast 40°C for plains and at least 30°C for hilly regions
76. Question 76 of 100

    76. Question

    With reference to Cashew crop, consider the following statements:
    (1) It requires well-drained deep sandy loam soils for its growth.
    (2) It can grow in extreme low temperature regions.
    (3) In India, it is cultivated in parts of North East hill region.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the chairman of Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority said that APEDA facilitated exporting of over 30 tonnes of cashew on World Cashew Day.
    It is native to Brazil in Latin America and was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century (1570).
    Climatic condition:
    Soil and climate: Well-drained deep sandy loam soils are the best for growing cashew. In general, all soils from sandy to laterite are well suited for this crop.
    It is very well adapted to Indian coastal area under hot humid conditions.
    Temperature: In the range of 20 to 38 C, relative humidity in the range of 60 to 95%.
    Rain fall: Annual precipitation in the range of 2000 to 3500mm.
    Extreme low temperature and frost are not conducive to raise cashew plantations.
    The cultivation of this crop is being extended to non-traditional areas in the plains of Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and some parts of North East hill region.
    India holds the second-largest share in the world's cashew nut production and export.
    The country's top export destinations include the UAE, the Netherlands, Japan, and Saudi Arabia.
    Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the chairman of Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority said that APEDA facilitated exporting of over 30 tonnes of cashew on World Cashew Day.
    It is native to Brazil in Latin America and was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century (1570).
    Climatic condition:
    Soil and climate: Well-drained deep sandy loam soils are the best for growing cashew. In general, all soils from sandy to laterite are well suited for this crop.
    It is very well adapted to Indian coastal area under hot humid conditions.
    Temperature: In the range of 20 to 38 C, relative humidity in the range of 60 to 95%.
    Rain fall: Annual precipitation in the range of 2000 to 3500mm.
    Extreme low temperature and frost are not conducive to raise cashew plantations.
    The cultivation of this crop is being extended to non-traditional areas in the plains of Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and some parts of North East hill region.
    India holds the second-largest share in the world's cashew nut production and export.
    The country's top export destinations include the UAE, the Netherlands, Japan, and Saudi Arabia.
    Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.
77. Question 77 of 100

    77. Question

    Which one of the following pairs of islands are separated from each other by the “Eight Degree Channel”?
    (A) Andman and Nicobar
    (B) Nicobar and Sumatra
    (C) Maldives and Minicoy
    (D) Sumatra and Java

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Eight Degree Channel separates the Minicoy and Maldives.
    

    Unattempted
    

    The Eight Degree Channel separates the Minicoy and Maldives.
    
78. Question 78 of 100

    78. Question

    With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD), consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a phenomenon characterized by the difference in sea surface temperature of the western and eastern tropical Indian Ocean across equator.
    (2) Positive IOD results in abundant rainfall over the western Indian Ocean and scarce rainfall over eastern Indian Ocean.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Indian summer monsoon rainfall is influenced by a system of oscillating sea surface temperatures of western and eastern tropical Indian Ocean across equator known as the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean. IOD develops in the equatorial region of Indian Ocean from April to May peaking in October.
    A positive IOD occurs when the sea surface temperatures are greater than normal in the Arabian Sea and less than normal in the tropical eastern Indian Ocean. When the reverse is the case, a negative IOD is said to have developed. A positive IOD leads to greater monsoon rainfall and more active (above normal rainfall) monsoon days while negative IOD leads to less rainfall and more monsoon break days (no rainfall).
    

    Unattempted
    

    The Indian summer monsoon rainfall is influenced by a system of oscillating sea surface temperatures of western and eastern tropical Indian Ocean across equator known as the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean. IOD develops in the equatorial region of Indian Ocean from April to May peaking in October.
    A positive IOD occurs when the sea surface temperatures are greater than normal in the Arabian Sea and less than normal in the tropical eastern Indian Ocean. When the reverse is the case, a negative IOD is said to have developed. A positive IOD leads to greater monsoon rainfall and more active (above normal rainfall) monsoon days while negative IOD leads to less rainfall and more monsoon break days (no rainfall).
    
79. Question 79 of 100

    79. Question

    Which of the following is the correct sequence of the following tributaries of Ganga from west to east?
    (A) Gomati-Ghaghara-Gandak-Kosi
    (B) Ghaghara-Gomati-Gandak-Kosi
    (C) Gomati-Gandak-Kosi-Ghaghara
    (D) Gandak-Gomati-Ghaghara-Kosi

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    From West towards East, the correct sequence is:Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi
    

    Unattempted
    

    From West towards East, the correct sequence is:Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi
    
80. Question 80 of 100

    80. Question

    This region is marked by an extreme diurnal range of temperature. Trees are always present with the grasses. It is mainly confined within the tropics.
    Which of the following region has been described in the above passage?
    (A) Savanna
    (B) Mediterranean
    (C) Equatorial
    (D) Tropical Monsoon

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Savanna, also spelled savannah, is a vegetation type that grows under hot, seasonally dry climatic conditions and is characterized by an open tree canopy (i.e., scattered trees) above a continuous tall grass understory.
    Features of Savanah:
    – This region is marked by an extreme diurnal range of temperature. Days are hot and during the hot season, noon temperatures of around 40 degree Celsius are common. When night falls, the clear sky which promotes intense heating during the day also causes rapid radiation in the night. Temperature drops to around 10-degree Celsius.
    – Trees are always present with the grasses. Grasses are tall and the trees are short. These regions are also known as parklands or bush veldts.
    – It is mainly confined within the tropics. It is best developed in Sudan where dry and wet season is distinct

    Unattempted
    

    Savanna, also spelled savannah, is a vegetation type that grows under hot, seasonally dry climatic conditions and is characterized by an open tree canopy (i.e., scattered trees) above a continuous tall grass understory.
    Features of Savanah:
    – This region is marked by an extreme diurnal range of temperature. Days are hot and during the hot season, noon temperatures of around 40 degree Celsius are common. When night falls, the clear sky which promotes intense heating during the day also causes rapid radiation in the night. Temperature drops to around 10-degree Celsius.
    – Trees are always present with the grasses. Grasses are tall and the trees are short. These regions are also known as parklands or bush veldts.
    – It is mainly confined within the tropics. It is best developed in Sudan where dry and wet season is distinct
81. Question 81 of 100

    81. Question

    Parvati River is a tributary of which one of the following rivers?
    (A) Beas
    (B) Ravi
    (C) Jhelum
    (D) Chenab

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The body of a trekker who had fallen into the Parvati River in Himachal Pradesh's Kullu district was recently found on the banks of the river.
    About Parvati River:
    The Parvati River, also known as the Parbati River, is located in the Parvati Valley of Himachal Pradesh.
    It is a major tributary of the Beas River.
    It is named after the Hindu goddess Parvati, who was the wife of Lord Shiva.
    Course:
    It originates from the Man Talai Glacierbelow the Pin Parbati Pass.
    The river flows in a gradual curve from the north-northwest to the west-southwest, past the pilgrimage centre of Manikaran.
    It flows for approximately 150 km before merging into the Beas River at Bhuntar, which is located 10 km south of Kullu.
    The river is fed by the melting glaciers and the South West monsoons.
    Tributaries: The streams of Tos, Dibibokori, and Tichi feed this river along with many other tributaries.
    The river is very well known for carrying silver ore in the river sand.
    The river has fine first-growth forests in its upper reaches, which are being degraded as a consequence of the development of its vast hydroelectric potential.

    Unattempted
    

    The body of a trekker who had fallen into the Parvati River in Himachal Pradesh's Kullu district was recently found on the banks of the river.
    About Parvati River:
    The Parvati River, also known as the Parbati River, is located in the Parvati Valley of Himachal Pradesh.
    It is a major tributary of the Beas River.
    It is named after the Hindu goddess Parvati, who was the wife of Lord Shiva.
    Course:
    It originates from the Man Talai Glacierbelow the Pin Parbati Pass.
    The river flows in a gradual curve from the north-northwest to the west-southwest, past the pilgrimage centre of Manikaran.
    It flows for approximately 150 km before merging into the Beas River at Bhuntar, which is located 10 km south of Kullu.
    The river is fed by the melting glaciers and the South West monsoons.
    Tributaries: The streams of Tos, Dibibokori, and Tichi feed this river along with many other tributaries.
    The river is very well known for carrying silver ore in the river sand.
    The river has fine first-growth forests in its upper reaches, which are being degraded as a consequence of the development of its vast hydroelectric potential.
82. Question 82 of 100

    82. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Barak valley:
    (1) Barak valley lies between Great Himalayas and Dhauladhar range.
    (2) Rangeet river flows through Barak valley.
    (3) Borail is the only wildlife sanctuary of this region.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Barak valley The state of Assam is physically divided in to three parts, viz, . Brahmaputra valley, Barak valley and hill range. Barak Valley which forms southern part of Assam, is comparatively smaller in size.
    The two valleys derived their names from their respective main rivers, viz, Brahmaputra and Barak. The Barak, surma and Kushiara river system passes through this valley. The principal rivers of Barak Valley are Barak with its tributaries (Chiri, Jathinga, madhura, Dalu etc.), Kushiara (branch of Barak), Longai, Shingla, Sonai etc. The Rangeet or Rangit is a tributary of the Teesta river , which is the largest river in Indian state of Sikkim. The Rangeet river originates in the Himalayan mountains in western Sikkim district. The Dhauladhar range is one of the branches of the main Outer Himalayan chain of mountains in Himachal Pradesh. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
    Borail Wildlife Sanctuary situated in the Borail Hill Range on the transitional zone between Indian subregion and Indo-Chinese subregion in Cachar District(Barak valley is sub-division of it)p and Dima HasaoDistricts of Assam located 25 kilometres away from Silchar town and surrounded by tea gardens from the Southern side is spread over an area of 326.25 square kilometres. It is the only protected area in theBarak valley of Assam with rich biodiversity and habitat for wildlife. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Barak valley The state of Assam is physically divided in to three parts, viz, . Brahmaputra valley, Barak valley and hill range. Barak Valley which forms southern part of Assam, is comparatively smaller in size.
    The two valleys derived their names from their respective main rivers, viz, Brahmaputra and Barak. The Barak, surma and Kushiara river system passes through this valley. The principal rivers of Barak Valley are Barak with its tributaries (Chiri, Jathinga, madhura, Dalu etc.), Kushiara (branch of Barak), Longai, Shingla, Sonai etc. The Rangeet or Rangit is a tributary of the Teesta river , which is the largest river in Indian state of Sikkim. The Rangeet river originates in the Himalayan mountains in western Sikkim district. The Dhauladhar range is one of the branches of the main Outer Himalayan chain of mountains in Himachal Pradesh. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
    Borail Wildlife Sanctuary situated in the Borail Hill Range on the transitional zone between Indian subregion and Indo-Chinese subregion in Cachar District(Barak valley is sub-division of it)p and Dima HasaoDistricts of Assam located 25 kilometres away from Silchar town and surrounded by tea gardens from the Southern side is spread over an area of 326.25 square kilometres. It is the only protected area in theBarak valley of Assam with rich biodiversity and habitat for wildlife. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.
83. Question 83 of 100

    83. Question

    With reference to cash crops grown in Northern India, consider the following pairs:
    – Crop – Season
    (1) Cotton : Kharif
    (2) Watermelon : Zaid
    (3) Tobacco : Rabi
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Indian cropping season is classified into two main seasons-(i) Kharif and (ii) Rabi based on the monsoon. While based on sowing period, the crops are divided into three main types viz. Rabi, Kharif and Zaid crops.
    KHARIF CROP: The word ―Kharif is Arabic for autumn since the season coincides with the beginning of autumn or winter. Kharif crops also are known as monsoon crops. The Kharif season differs in every state of the country but is generally from June to September. These crops are usually sown at the beginning of the monsoon season around June and harvested by September or October.
    Major Kharif crops include Millets (Bajra & Jowar), Cotton, Soybean, Sugarcane, Turmeric, Paddy (Rice), Maize, Moong (Pulses), Groundnut, Red Chillies, etc.
    ZAID CROPS: There is a short season between Kharif and Rabi season in the months of March to July. The crops that grow in this season are Zaid crops. These crops are grown on irrigated lands and do not have to wait for monsoons.
    Some examples of Zaid types of crops are Muskmelon, Watermelon, Vegetables of the cucurbitacae family such as bitter gourd, pumpkin, ridged gourd etc.
    RABI CROP: October-March (winter)
    It is the spring harvest or winter crop in India.
    Tobacco is an important cash crop cultivated in Rabi season of India.
    It is sown in October last and harvested in March April every year.
    Major Rabi crops in India include Wheat, Barley, Mustard, Sesame, Peas etc.

    Unattempted
    

    The Indian cropping season is classified into two main seasons-(i) Kharif and (ii) Rabi based on the monsoon. While based on sowing period, the crops are divided into three main types viz. Rabi, Kharif and Zaid crops.
    KHARIF CROP: The word ―Kharif is Arabic for autumn since the season coincides with the beginning of autumn or winter. Kharif crops also are known as monsoon crops. The Kharif season differs in every state of the country but is generally from June to September. These crops are usually sown at the beginning of the monsoon season around June and harvested by September or October.
    Major Kharif crops include Millets (Bajra & Jowar), Cotton, Soybean, Sugarcane, Turmeric, Paddy (Rice), Maize, Moong (Pulses), Groundnut, Red Chillies, etc.
    ZAID CROPS: There is a short season between Kharif and Rabi season in the months of March to July. The crops that grow in this season are Zaid crops. These crops are grown on irrigated lands and do not have to wait for monsoons.
    Some examples of Zaid types of crops are Muskmelon, Watermelon, Vegetables of the cucurbitacae family such as bitter gourd, pumpkin, ridged gourd etc.
    RABI CROP: October-March (winter)
    It is the spring harvest or winter crop in India.
    Tobacco is an important cash crop cultivated in Rabi season of India.
    It is sown in October last and harvested in March April every year.
    Major Rabi crops in India include Wheat, Barley, Mustard, Sesame, Peas etc.
84. Question 84 of 100

    84. Question

    The Kerch Strait connects the Black Sea to which of following water bodies?
    (A) Sea of Azov
    (B) Mediterranean Sea
    (C) Red Sea
    (D) Adriatic Sea

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Kerch Strait is a strait connecting the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov, separating the Kerch Peninsula of Crimea in the west from the Taman Peninsula of Russia's Krasnodar Krai in the east.
    The narrow Kerch Strait, between Crimea and mainland Russia, leads from the Azov to the Black Sea, which in turn connects to Western Europe and to Asia via the Mediterranean and the Suez Canal.To the south it is linked by the narrow (about 4 km or 2.5 mi) Strait of Kerch to the Black Sea, and it is sometimes regarded as a northern extension of the Black Sea. The sea is bounded in the northwest byUkraine, in the southeast by Russia. The Don and Kuban are the major rivers that flow into it.
    The Sea of Azov is the shallowest sea in the world, with the depth varying between 0.9 and 14 metres (2 ft 11 in and 45 ft 11 in).There is a constant outflow of water from the Sea of Azov to the Black Sea.
    

    Unattempted
    

    The Kerch Strait is a strait connecting the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov, separating the Kerch Peninsula of Crimea in the west from the Taman Peninsula of Russia's Krasnodar Krai in the east.
    The narrow Kerch Strait, between Crimea and mainland Russia, leads from the Azov to the Black Sea, which in turn connects to Western Europe and to Asia via the Mediterranean and the Suez Canal.To the south it is linked by the narrow (about 4 km or 2.5 mi) Strait of Kerch to the Black Sea, and it is sometimes regarded as a northern extension of the Black Sea. The sea is bounded in the northwest byUkraine, in the southeast by Russia. The Don and Kuban are the major rivers that flow into it.
    The Sea of Azov is the shallowest sea in the world, with the depth varying between 0.9 and 14 metres (2 ft 11 in and 45 ft 11 in).There is a constant outflow of water from the Sea of Azov to the Black Sea.
    
85. Question 85 of 100

    85. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Bolivia:
    (1) It is a landlocked country located in the South America.
    (2) It is located in the Amazon basin.
    (3) It borders the countries of Argentina, Brazil, Chile, Paraguay, and Peru.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Bolivia recently said it had broken diplomatic ties with Israel because of its attacks on the Gaza Strip.
    About Bolivia:
    Bolivia, officially the Plurinational State of Bolivia, is a landlocked country located in western-central South America. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It is named after independence fighter Simon Bolivar.
    The country is located in the rugged Andes Mountain, with a highland plateau and lowland plains in the Amazon basin. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    One-third of the country is within the Andean mountain range.
    Bordering Countries: It borders the countries of Argentina, Brazil, Chile, Paraguay, and Peru. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Capital: The constitutional capital is Sucre, while the seat of government and executive capital is La Paz.
    Bolivia shares control of Lago Titicaca, the world’s highest lake navigable to large vessels, at 12,500 feet above sea level.
    During the 15th and 16th centuries, an ancient civilization called the Inca reigned over the region.
    In 1538, Spanish conquistadors (or ‘conquerors’) arrived from Europe and gained control of the territory.
    It broke away from Spanish rule in 1825.
    Much of its subsequent history has consisted of a series of coups and countercoups, with the last coup occurring in 1978.
    Democratic civilian rule was established in 1982.
    The government system is a republic; the new constitution defines Bolivia as a “Social Unitarian State.”
    The chief of state and head of government is the president.
    Currency: Bolivian boliviano
    Official Language: It has 37 official languages, including Spanish.
    Bolivia has a mixed economic system that includes a variety of private freedoms combined with centralized economic planning and government regulation.

    Unattempted
    

    Bolivia recently said it had broken diplomatic ties with Israel because of its attacks on the Gaza Strip.
    About Bolivia:
    Bolivia, officially the Plurinational State of Bolivia, is a landlocked country located in western-central South America. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    It is named after independence fighter Simon Bolivar.
    The country is located in the rugged Andes Mountain, with a highland plateau and lowland plains in the Amazon basin. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    One-third of the country is within the Andean mountain range.
    Bordering Countries: It borders the countries of Argentina, Brazil, Chile, Paraguay, and Peru. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    Capital: The constitutional capital is Sucre, while the seat of government and executive capital is La Paz.
    Bolivia shares control of Lago Titicaca, the world’s highest lake navigable to large vessels, at 12,500 feet above sea level.
    During the 15th and 16th centuries, an ancient civilization called the Inca reigned over the region.
    In 1538, Spanish conquistadors (or ‘conquerors’) arrived from Europe and gained control of the territory.
    It broke away from Spanish rule in 1825.
    Much of its subsequent history has consisted of a series of coups and countercoups, with the last coup occurring in 1978.
    Democratic civilian rule was established in 1982.
    The government system is a republic; the new constitution defines Bolivia as a “Social Unitarian State.”
    The chief of state and head of government is the president.
    Currency: Bolivian boliviano
    Official Language: It has 37 official languages, including Spanish.
    Bolivia has a mixed economic system that includes a variety of private freedoms combined with centralized economic planning and government regulation.
86. Question 86 of 100

    86. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Elephanta Caves:
    (1) They are rock-cut caves located in Western India.
    (2) They all are dedicated to Buddhism.
    (3) It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A team of researchers recently discovered two rock-cut Shaivite temple caves older than Elephanta near Rajapur, Ratnagiri.
    About Elephanta Caves:
    It is a specimen of rock-cut art and architecture from the times of medieval India.
    The Elephanta Caves are located in Western India on Elephanta Island (otherwise known as the Island of Gharapuri), about 7 kms from Mumbai’s mainland shore. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The rock-cut Elephanta Caves were constructed in the mid-5th to 6th centuries AD and most of them are dedicated to Lord Shiva.
    There are two groups of caves on the site of the Elephanta Caves, the first is a large group of five Hindu caves, and the second is a smaller group of two Buddhist caves. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The caves are hewn from solid basalt rock. Except for a few exceptions, much of the artwork is defaced and damaged.
    The caves are an expression of art and a number of important imageries are sculpted here, which include 'Trimurti' or three-headed Shiva, 'Gangadhar' which is a manifestation of the river Ganga as she descends to the earth and 'Ardhnareshwar', which is a representation of Shiva and Parvati in the same body.
    It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A team of researchers recently discovered two rock-cut Shaivite temple caves older than Elephanta near Rajapur, Ratnagiri.
    About Elephanta Caves:
    It is a specimen of rock-cut art and architecture from the times of medieval India.
    The Elephanta Caves are located in Western India on Elephanta Island (otherwise known as the Island of Gharapuri), about 7 kms from Mumbai’s mainland shore. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The rock-cut Elephanta Caves were constructed in the mid-5th to 6th centuries AD and most of them are dedicated to Lord Shiva.
    There are two groups of caves on the site of the Elephanta Caves, the first is a large group of five Hindu caves, and the second is a smaller group of two Buddhist caves. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    The caves are hewn from solid basalt rock. Except for a few exceptions, much of the artwork is defaced and damaged.
    The caves are an expression of art and a number of important imageries are sculpted here, which include 'Trimurti' or three-headed Shiva, 'Gangadhar' which is a manifestation of the river Ganga as she descends to the earth and 'Ardhnareshwar', which is a representation of Shiva and Parvati in the same body.
    It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
87. Question 87 of 100

    87. Question

    Which of the following correctly describes mixed-cropping?
    (A) Growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field.
    (B) Farming system which involves the growing of crops as well as the raising of livestock.
    (C) Growing of two or more crops in a sequence on same piece of land in a farming year
    (D) Growing forest trees along with the agricultural crops

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mixed Cropping refers to the growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field.
    Mixed Farming system involves the growing of crops as well as the raising of livestock.
    Sequential Cropping is defined as growing of two or more crops in a sequence on the same piece of land in a farming year. The succeeding crop is planted after the preceding crop has been harvested.
    Agroforestry refers to growing of forest trees along with the agricultural crops.

    Unattempted
    

    Mixed Cropping refers to the growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field.
    Mixed Farming system involves the growing of crops as well as the raising of livestock.
    Sequential Cropping is defined as growing of two or more crops in a sequence on the same piece of land in a farming year. The succeeding crop is planted after the preceding crop has been harvested.
    Agroforestry refers to growing of forest trees along with the agricultural crops.
88. Question 88 of 100

    88. Question

    Certain minerals occur as alluvial deposits called placer deposits. Which of the following are found as placer deposits?
    (1) Gold
    (2) Silver
    (3) Platinum
    (4) Tin
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (B) 1 and 3 only
    (C) 2 and 4 only
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills. These deposits are called ‘placer deposits‘ and generally contain minerals, which are not corroded by water. Gold, silver, tin and platinum are most important among such minerals.

    Unattempted
    

    Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills. These deposits are called ‘placer deposits‘ and generally contain minerals, which are not corroded by water. Gold, silver, tin and platinum are most important among such minerals.
89. Question 89 of 100

    89. Question

    How many of the following rivers is/are antecedent?
    (1) Satluj
    (2) Kosi
    (3) Subansiri
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Antecedent rivers are those rivers which are older than the structures they cut across.
    – The Satluj originates in the ‘Raksas tal’ near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4,555 m in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab. It flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering India and comes out of a gorge at Rupar. It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab plains. It is an antecedent river. It is a very important tributary as it feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal project.
    – The Kosi is an antecedent river with its source to the north of Mount Everest in Tibet, where its mainstream Arun rises. After crossing the Central Himalayas in Nepal, it is joined by the Son Kosi from the West and the Tamur Kosi from the east. It forms Sapt Kosi after uniting with the river Arun.
    – The Subansiri is a tributary of the Brahmaputra which has its origin in Tibet. It is an antecedent river.

    Unattempted
    

    Antecedent rivers are those rivers which are older than the structures they cut across.
    – The Satluj originates in the ‘Raksas tal’ near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4,555 m in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab. It flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering India and comes out of a gorge at Rupar. It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab plains. It is an antecedent river. It is a very important tributary as it feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal project.
    – The Kosi is an antecedent river with its source to the north of Mount Everest in Tibet, where its mainstream Arun rises. After crossing the Central Himalayas in Nepal, it is joined by the Son Kosi from the West and the Tamur Kosi from the east. It forms Sapt Kosi after uniting with the river Arun.
    – The Subansiri is a tributary of the Brahmaputra which has its origin in Tibet. It is an antecedent river.
90. Question 90 of 100

    90. Question

    With respect to peaty soils of India, consider the following statements:
    (1) These soils are low in humus and organic content.
    (2) They are generally found in areas that have high humidity and high precipitation.
    (3) It is known as Kari soil in Kerala.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 2 is correct: Peaty soils are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a good growth of vegetation.
    Statement 1 is not correct: Thus, a large quantity of dead organic matter accumulates in these areas, and this gives a rich humus and organic content to the soil. Organic matter in these soils may go even up to 40-50 per cent.
    These soils are normally heavy and black in colour. At many places, they are alkaline also. These soils are suitable for paddy cultivation.
    Statement 3 is correct: It occurs widely in the northern part of Bihar, the southern part of Uttarakhand and the coastal areas of West Bengal, Odisha and Tamil Nadu. These soils are also known as Kari soil in Kottayam and Alappuzha districts of Kerala.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 2 is correct: Peaty soils are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a good growth of vegetation.
    Statement 1 is not correct: Thus, a large quantity of dead organic matter accumulates in these areas, and this gives a rich humus and organic content to the soil. Organic matter in these soils may go even up to 40-50 per cent.
    These soils are normally heavy and black in colour. At many places, they are alkaline also. These soils are suitable for paddy cultivation.
    Statement 3 is correct: It occurs widely in the northern part of Bihar, the southern part of Uttarakhand and the coastal areas of West Bengal, Odisha and Tamil Nadu. These soils are also known as Kari soil in Kottayam and Alappuzha districts of Kerala.
91. Question 91 of 100

    91. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Ports : Country
    (1) Maracaibo : Egypt
    (2) Dover : England
    (3) Karwar : India
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Maracaibo in Venezuela is a tanker port, which is a type of oil port. Oil ports deal in the processing and shipping of oil. Some of these are tanker ports and some are refinery ports. Other tanker ports being Esskhira in Tunisia, Tripoli in Lebanon are tanker ports while Abadan on the Gulf of Persia is a refinery port. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
    Dover in England and Calais in France across the English Channel are called Packet station or ferry ports. These packet stations are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short distances. These stations occur in pairs located in such a way that they face each other across the water body. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
    Karwar port in Karnataka, India is a Naval Port. Naval Ports are ports which have only strategic importance. These ports serve warships and have repair workshops for them. Other being Kochi port in Kerala. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    Maracaibo in Venezuela is a tanker port, which is a type of oil port. Oil ports deal in the processing and shipping of oil. Some of these are tanker ports and some are refinery ports. Other tanker ports being Esskhira in Tunisia, Tripoli in Lebanon are tanker ports while Abadan on the Gulf of Persia is a refinery port. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
    Dover in England and Calais in France across the English Channel are called Packet station or ferry ports. These packet stations are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short distances. These stations occur in pairs located in such a way that they face each other across the water body. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
    Karwar port in Karnataka, India is a Naval Port. Naval Ports are ports which have only strategic importance. These ports serve warships and have repair workshops for them. Other being Kochi port in Kerala. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
92. Question 92 of 100

    92. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    – Mines – Known for
    (1) Panna belt : Gold
    (2) Hutti mines : Diamond
    (3) Zawar mines : Silver
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In India main diamond bearing areas are Panna belt in Madhya Pradesh, Wajrakarpur Kimberlite pipe in Anantapur district and gravels of Krishna river basins in Andhra Pradesh. The new kimberlite fields are discovered recently in Raichur-Gulbarga districts of Karnataka. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
    India is not a major producer of silver in the world. The main production comes from Zawar mines in Udaipur (Rajasthan). Here, silver is obtained as a by-product during the concentration and smelting of galena ore in Hindustan Zinc Smelter. Tundoo Lead smelter in Dhanbad (Jharkhand) another important producer of silver as a by-product of lead. Some silver produced by Kolar Gold Fields and Hutti gold mines in Karnataka during refining of gold. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
    There are three important goldfield in the country, Kolar Goldfield, Hutti Goldfield in Raichur district (both in Karnataka) and Ramgiri Goldfield in Anantapur district (Andhra Pradesh). In terms of metal content, Karnataka has the highest followed by Rajasthan, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand etc. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    In India main diamond bearing areas are Panna belt in Madhya Pradesh, Wajrakarpur Kimberlite pipe in Anantapur district and gravels of Krishna river basins in Andhra Pradesh. The new kimberlite fields are discovered recently in Raichur-Gulbarga districts of Karnataka. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
    India is not a major producer of silver in the world. The main production comes from Zawar mines in Udaipur (Rajasthan). Here, silver is obtained as a by-product during the concentration and smelting of galena ore in Hindustan Zinc Smelter. Tundoo Lead smelter in Dhanbad (Jharkhand) another important producer of silver as a by-product of lead. Some silver produced by Kolar Gold Fields and Hutti gold mines in Karnataka during refining of gold. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
    There are three important goldfield in the country, Kolar Goldfield, Hutti Goldfield in Raichur district (both in Karnataka) and Ramgiri Goldfield in Anantapur district (Andhra Pradesh). In terms of metal content, Karnataka has the highest followed by Rajasthan, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand etc. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
93. Question 93 of 100

    93. Question

    If you travel by road from Kerala to Andhra Pradesh, which crop cultivation are you most likely to see on red laterite soil?
    (A) Cotton
    (B) Groundnut
    (C) Cashewnut
    (D) Sugarcane

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashew nuts.
    Cashew is a tropical plant and can thrive even at high temperatures. Young plants are sensitive to frost. The distribution of cashew is restricted to altitudes up to 700 m above mean sea level where thetemperature does not fall below 20°C for a prolonged period. Areas where the temperatures range from 20 to 30°C with annual precipitation of 1000 – 2000 mm are ideal for cashew growing.

    Unattempted
    

    Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashew nuts.
    Cashew is a tropical plant and can thrive even at high temperatures. Young plants are sensitive to frost. The distribution of cashew is restricted to altitudes up to 700 m above mean sea level where thetemperature does not fall below 20°C for a prolonged period. Areas where the temperatures range from 20 to 30°C with annual precipitation of 1000 – 2000 mm are ideal for cashew growing.
94. Question 94 of 100

    94. Question

    Silvopastoral system is a method associated with:
    (A) agro-forestry
    (B) irrigation system
    (C) bee-keeping
    (D) silk production

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Silvopastoral method also known as agroforestry, is the practice of combining woodland (trees) and the grazing of domesticated animals in a mutually beneficial way. Advantages of a properly managed silvopasture operation are enhanced soil protection and increased long-term income due to the simultaneous production of trees and grazing animals. The trees are managed for high-value sawlogs, brushwood, foliage, fodder and, at the same time, provide shade and shelter for livestock and some forage, reducing stress and sometimes increasing forage production.

    Unattempted
    

    Silvopastoral method also known as agroforestry, is the practice of combining woodland (trees) and the grazing of domesticated animals in a mutually beneficial way. Advantages of a properly managed silvopasture operation are enhanced soil protection and increased long-term income due to the simultaneous production of trees and grazing animals. The trees are managed for high-value sawlogs, brushwood, foliage, fodder and, at the same time, provide shade and shelter for livestock and some forage, reducing stress and sometimes increasing forage production.
95. Question 95 of 100

    95. Question

    Which of the following is/are the likely implications of the overuse of groundwater?
    (1) Decrease in fluoride and arsenic concentration
    (2) Higher soil salinity
    (3) Land subsidence
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) 1 and 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 2 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The over-use of groundwater resources leads to a decline in the groundwater table along with the following consequences:
    Higher fluoride concentration in ground-water: Falling groundwater levels can lead to an increase in the concentration of arsenic and fluoride in water, as the volume of the groundwater in the aquifersfalls the same amount of contaminant will exist in higher concentration. Consumption of arseniccontaminated drinking water can lead to cancer. It can also cause arsenicosis, a condition that is as sinister as it sounds, manifesting as skin lesions, pigmentation changes and an abnormal thickening of the skin. Excessive fluoride may cause fluorosis that can cause discolouration of teeth or can lead to skeletal deformities. It can also cause damage to neurological, muscular and gastrointestinal systems.
    Land subsidence: It is ―a gradual settling or sudden sinking of the Earth‘s surface owing to subsurface movement of earth materials. Overuse of groundwater among other reasons can cause subsidence.
    Higher salinity: Coastal aquifers have zones of saltwater underlying the potable freshwater. Under natural conditions, the boundary between the freshwater and saltwater tends to be relatively stable, butpumping can cause saltwater to migrate inland, resulting in saltwater contamination of the water supply.

    Unattempted
    

    The over-use of groundwater resources leads to a decline in the groundwater table along with the following consequences:
    Higher fluoride concentration in ground-water: Falling groundwater levels can lead to an increase in the concentration of arsenic and fluoride in water, as the volume of the groundwater in the aquifersfalls the same amount of contaminant will exist in higher concentration. Consumption of arseniccontaminated drinking water can lead to cancer. It can also cause arsenicosis, a condition that is as sinister as it sounds, manifesting as skin lesions, pigmentation changes and an abnormal thickening of the skin. Excessive fluoride may cause fluorosis that can cause discolouration of teeth or can lead to skeletal deformities. It can also cause damage to neurological, muscular and gastrointestinal systems.
    Land subsidence: It is ―a gradual settling or sudden sinking of the Earth‘s surface owing to subsurface movement of earth materials. Overuse of groundwater among other reasons can cause subsidence.
    Higher salinity: Coastal aquifers have zones of saltwater underlying the potable freshwater. Under natural conditions, the boundary between the freshwater and saltwater tends to be relatively stable, butpumping can cause saltwater to migrate inland, resulting in saltwater contamination of the water supply.
96. Question 96 of 100

    96. Question

    In relation to Mediterranean Climate of the world, the term Sirocco refers to:
    (A) cold winds blowing down Rhone valley
    (B) agro-climatic region along the mediterrannean coast
    (C) wet showers causing blood rains in the North African coast
    (D) hot, dry and dusty wind originating from the Sahara Desert

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Sirocco is a hot, dry and dusty wind which originates from the Sahara Desert. Though it may occur at any time of the year, it's most frequent in the spring and normally lasts for only a few days. The Sirocco blows outwards in a southerly direction into the cooler Mediterranean sea. It is usually associated with depressions from the Atlantic passing from the eastwards inland. After crossing the Mediterranean Sea, the sirocco is slightly cooled by the absorption of water vapour. The sirocco causes dusty dry conditions along the northern coast of Africa, storms in the Mediterranean Sea, and cool wet weather in Europe. The sirocco's duration may be as short as half a day or may last several days. Whilepassing over the Mediterranean Sea, the sirocco picks up moisture; this results in rainfall in the southern part of Italy, known locally as “blood rain” due to the red sand mixed with the falling rain.
    Mistral is a cold wind from the north, rushing down the Rhone Valley.

    Unattempted
    

    Sirocco is a hot, dry and dusty wind which originates from the Sahara Desert. Though it may occur at any time of the year, it's most frequent in the spring and normally lasts for only a few days. The Sirocco blows outwards in a southerly direction into the cooler Mediterranean sea. It is usually associated with depressions from the Atlantic passing from the eastwards inland. After crossing the Mediterranean Sea, the sirocco is slightly cooled by the absorption of water vapour. The sirocco causes dusty dry conditions along the northern coast of Africa, storms in the Mediterranean Sea, and cool wet weather in Europe. The sirocco's duration may be as short as half a day or may last several days. Whilepassing over the Mediterranean Sea, the sirocco picks up moisture; this results in rainfall in the southern part of Italy, known locally as “blood rain” due to the red sand mixed with the falling rain.
    Mistral is a cold wind from the north, rushing down the Rhone Valley.
97. Question 97 of 100

    97. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Process : Deals with
    (1) Olericulture : Cultivation of vegetable crops
    (2) Viticulture : Cultivation of forest trees
    (3) Pisciculture : Artificial breeding of fishes
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Olericulture: It is the science of vegetable growing dealing with the culture of non-woody plants (herbaceous) plants for food.
    Viticulture: It is the science, production and study of grapes.
    Pisciculture: The breeding, rearing, and transplantation of fish by artificial means.

    Unattempted
    

    Olericulture: It is the science of vegetable growing dealing with the culture of non-woody plants (herbaceous) plants for food.
    Viticulture: It is the science, production and study of grapes.
    Pisciculture: The breeding, rearing, and transplantation of fish by artificial means.
98. Question 98 of 100

    98. Question

    Which among the following raw materials is/are used in paper and pulp industry?
    (1) Rice straw
    (2) Sabai grass
    (3) Bagasse
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 3 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1, 2 and 3
    (D) 1 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Following are the raw material used in the Paper and pulp industry:
    Bamboo: Bamboo has the advantage of the possessing long fibre, dense stands and quick regeneration. It reaches maturity in 2-3 years and provides a continuous flow of the renewable source of raw material. Assam, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Maharashtra are important producers of bamboo.
    Sabai grass: It is an important raw material for manufacturing paper. Sabai grass has long fibre and requires low chemical consumption, it grows in tufts intermixed with other vegetation. It mainly grows in the sub-Himalayan tracts of Shiwaliks and Tarai area.
    Bagasse: It is a fibrous residue of the sugarcane stalk, mainly from the sugar mills, obtained after sucrose is extracted by crushing the sugarcane. On an average 50-60 lakh tonnes of bagasse is produced in the country, half of which is used for manufacturing paper.
    Other materials: Paper is also manufactured by using materials other than those mentioned above.
    These include waste paper, rags, straw from rice and wheat, jute sticks and softwood obtained from eucalyptus, pine-wood, wattle and mulberry trees.

    Unattempted
    

    Following are the raw material used in the Paper and pulp industry:
    Bamboo: Bamboo has the advantage of the possessing long fibre, dense stands and quick regeneration. It reaches maturity in 2-3 years and provides a continuous flow of the renewable source of raw material. Assam, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Maharashtra are important producers of bamboo.
    Sabai grass: It is an important raw material for manufacturing paper. Sabai grass has long fibre and requires low chemical consumption, it grows in tufts intermixed with other vegetation. It mainly grows in the sub-Himalayan tracts of Shiwaliks and Tarai area.
    Bagasse: It is a fibrous residue of the sugarcane stalk, mainly from the sugar mills, obtained after sucrose is extracted by crushing the sugarcane. On an average 50-60 lakh tonnes of bagasse is produced in the country, half of which is used for manufacturing paper.
    Other materials: Paper is also manufactured by using materials other than those mentioned above.
    These include waste paper, rags, straw from rice and wheat, jute sticks and softwood obtained from eucalyptus, pine-wood, wattle and mulberry trees.
99. Question 99 of 100

    99. Question

    With reference to extensive commercial grain cultivation, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
    (2) Wheat is the principal crop in this type of cultivation.
    (3) It results in low yield per acre of land.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the midlatitudes. Wheat is the principal crop, though other crops like corn, barley, oats and rye are also grown. The size of the farm is very large, therefore entire operations of cultivation from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised. There is low yield per acre but high yield per person.

    Unattempted
    

    Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the midlatitudes. Wheat is the principal crop, though other crops like corn, barley, oats and rye are also grown. The size of the farm is very large, therefore entire operations of cultivation from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised. There is low yield per acre but high yield per person.
100. Question 100 of 100

     100. Question

     Consider the following cities:
     (1) Brussels
     (2) Copenhagen
     (3) Stockholm
     (4) Vienna
     Which of the following is the correct sequence from north to south of the given cities?
     (A) 1-2-3-4
     (B) 3-2-1-4
     (C) 2-3-4-1
     (D) 3-1-4-2

     • A
     • B
     • C
     • D
     Correct
     

     Incorrect
     

     

     Unattempted