Test 32 -Bilingual

CSAT FLT – 12 – PRELIMS 2024

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1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 80

   1. Question

   In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ALLAHABAD’ be permuted?
   (A) 7460
   (B) 7560
   (C) 7650
   (D) 7840

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The word ALLAHABAD has 9 letters in all. The letter A occurs 4 times, the letter L occurs 2 times and the remaining three letters H, B, D each occur once.
   = 9!/4!2!1!1!
   = 9×8×7×6×5×4!/4!×2
   = 9 x 8 x 7 x 3 x 5 = 7560.

   Unattempted
   

   The word ALLAHABAD has 9 letters in all. The letter A occurs 4 times, the letter L occurs 2 times and the remaining three letters H, B, D each occur once.
   = 9!/4!2!1!1!
   = 9×8×7×6×5×4!/4!×2
   = 9 x 8 x 7 x 3 x 5 = 7560.
2. Question 2 of 80

   2. Question

   How many integers between 1000 and 10000 have no digits other than 4, 5 or 6?
   (A) 51
   (B) 71
   (C) 81
   (D) 91

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Any number between 1000 and 10000 is of 4 digits. The unit’s place can be filled up by 4 or 5 or 6, that is, in 3 ways.
   Similarly, the ten’s place can be filled up by 4 or 5 or 6 that is, in 3 ways.
   The hundred’s place can be filled up by 4 or 5 or 6, that is in 3 ways and the thousand’s place can be filled up by 4 or 5 or 6, that is, in 3 ways.
   Hence, the required number of numbers = 3 x 3 x 3 x 3= 81.

   Unattempted
   

   Any number between 1000 and 10000 is of 4 digits. The unit’s place can be filled up by 4 or 5 or 6, that is, in 3 ways.
   Similarly, the ten’s place can be filled up by 4 or 5 or 6 that is, in 3 ways.
   The hundred’s place can be filled up by 4 or 5 or 6, that is in 3 ways and the thousand’s place can be filled up by 4 or 5 or 6, that is, in 3 ways.
   Hence, the required number of numbers = 3 x 3 x 3 x 3= 81.
3. Question 3 of 80

   3. Question

   There are 6 multiple choice questions on an examination. How many sequences of answers are possible, if the first three questions have 4 choices each and the next 3 have 5 each?
   (A) 6000
   (B) 7000
   (C) 8000
   (D) 9000

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Each of the first 3 questions can be answered in 4 ways.
   Each of the last 3 questions can be answered in 5 ways.
   By, the fundamental principle of counting, sequences of answers are
   4 × 4 × 4 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 64 × 125 = 8000.

   Unattempted
   

   Each of the first 3 questions can be answered in 4 ways.
   Each of the last 3 questions can be answered in 5 ways.
   By, the fundamental principle of counting, sequences of answers are
   4 × 4 × 4 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 64 × 125 = 8000.
4. Question 4 of 80

   4. Question

   In a simultaneous throw of a two dice, what is the probability of getting a doublet?
   (A) 1/2
   (B) 1/4
   (C) 1/6
   (D) 2/3

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   In a simultaneous throw of two dice, n(S) = (6 × 6) = 36.
   Let E = event of getting a doublet = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5,5), (6,6)}
   ∴ P(E) = n(E)/n(S)
   = 6/36
   = 1/6

   Unattempted
   

   In a simultaneous throw of two dice, n(S) = (6 × 6) = 36.
   Let E = event of getting a doublet = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5,5), (6,6)}
   ∴ P(E) = n(E)/n(S)
   = 6/36
   = 1/6
5. Question 5 of 80

   5. Question

   One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a face card?
   (A) 1/4
   (B) 1/13
   (C) 4/13
   (D) 9/52

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Clearly, there are 52 cards, out of which there are 16 face cards.
   ∴ P (getting a face card) = 16/52 = 4/13

   Unattempted
   

   Clearly, there are 52 cards, out of which there are 16 face cards.
   ∴ P (getting a face card) = 16/52 = 4/13
6. Question 6 of 80

   6. Question

   A box contains 4 red, 5 green and 6 white balls. A ball is drawn at random from the box. What is the probability that the ball drawn is either red or green?
   (A) 1/5
   (B) 2/5
   (C) 3/5
   (D) 7/15

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Total number of balls = (4 + 5 + 6) = 15.
   P(drawing a red ball or a green ball)
   = P(red) + P(green) = (4/15 + 5/15) = 9/15 = 3/5

   Unattempted
   

   Total number of balls = (4 + 5 + 6) = 15.
   P(drawing a red ball or a green ball)
   = P(red) + P(green) = (4/15 + 5/15) = 9/15 = 3/5
7. Question 7 of 80

   7. Question

   Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn bears a number which is a multiple of 3?
   (A) 1/2
   (B) 2/5
   (C) 3/10
   (D) 3/20

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Here, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, ……., 19, 20}.
   Let E = event of getting a multiple of 3
   = {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18}.
   ∴ P (E) = n(E)/n(S) = 6/20 = 3/10

   Unattempted
   

   Here, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, ……., 19, 20}.
   Let E = event of getting a multiple of 3
   = {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18}.
   ∴ P (E) = n(E)/n(S) = 6/20 = 3/10
8. Question 8 of 80

   8. Question

   A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is white?
   (A) 1/8
   (B) 3/4
   (C) 3/7
   (D) 4/7

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Total number of balls = (6 + 8) = 14.
   Number of white balls = 8.
   P(drawing a white ball) = 8/14
   = 4/7

   Unattempted
   

   Total number of balls = (6 + 8) = 14.
   Number of white balls = 8.
   P(drawing a white ball) = 8/14
   = 4/7
9. Question 9 of 80

   9. Question

   A bag contains 4 red, 5 yellow and 6 pick balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn are yellow in colour?
   (A) 1/7
   (B) 2/7
   (C) 3/7
   (D) 5/14

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Number of red balls = 4.
   Number of yellow ball = 5.
   Number of pink ball = 6.
   Total number of balls = 4 + 5 + 6 = 15.
   Total possible outcomes = selection of 2 balls out of 15 balls
   = 15C2 = 15!/2!(15–2)!
   = 15!/2!×13!
   = 15×14/1×2 = 105.
   Total favourable outcomes = selection of 2 balls out of 4 orange and 6 pink balls.
   10C2 = 10!/2!(10–2)!
   = 10!/2!(8!) = 10×9/1×2 = 45.
   ∴ Required probability = 45/105 = 3/7.

   Unattempted
   

   Number of red balls = 4.
   Number of yellow ball = 5.
   Number of pink ball = 6.
   Total number of balls = 4 + 5 + 6 = 15.
   Total possible outcomes = selection of 2 balls out of 15 balls
   = 15C2 = 15!/2!(15–2)!
   = 15!/2!×13!
   = 15×14/1×2 = 105.
   Total favourable outcomes = selection of 2 balls out of 4 orange and 6 pink balls.
   10C2 = 10!/2!(10–2)!
   = 10!/2!(8!) = 10×9/1×2 = 45.
   ∴ Required probability = 45/105 = 3/7.
10. Question 10 of 80

    10. Question

    In a simultaneous throw of two coins, the probability of getting at least one head is
    (A) 1/2
    (B) 1/3
    (C) 2/3
    (D) 3/4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Here S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
    Let E = event of getting at least one head = {HT, TH, HH}.
    ∴ P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 3/4.

    Unattempted
    

    Here S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
    Let E = event of getting at least one head = {HT, TH, HH}.
    ∴ P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 3/4.
11. Question 11 of 80

    11. Question

    The day on 5th March of a year is the same day on what date of the same year?
    (A) 5th August
    (B) 5th October
    (C) 5th November
    (D) 5th December

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Since any date in March is the same day of the week as the corresponding date in November of that year, so the same day falls on 5th November.

    Unattempted
    

    Since any date in March is the same day of the week as the corresponding date in November of that year, so the same day falls on 5th November.
12. Question 12 of 80

    12. Question

    In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘PRAISE’ be arranged?
    (A) 210
    (B) 360
    (C) 610
    (D) 720

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    6 letters of the word PRAISE can be arranged in 6! ways = 720 ways.

    Unattempted
    

    6 letters of the word PRAISE can be arranged in 6! ways = 720 ways.
13. Question 13 of 80

    13. Question

    How many times do the hands of a clock point towards each other in a day?
    (A) 12
    (B) 20
    (C) 22
    (D) 24

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The hands of a clock point towards each other 11 times in every 12 hours. (because between 5 and 7, at 6 O’clock only they point towards each other).
    So, in a day the hands point towars each other 22 times.

    Unattempted
    

    The hands of a clock point towards each other 11 times in every 12 hours. (because between 5 and 7, at 6 O’clock only they point towards each other).
    So, in a day the hands point towars each other 22 times.
14. Question 14 of 80

    14. Question

    January 7, 1992 was Tuesday. Find the day of the week on the same date after 5 years, i.e., on January 7, 1997?
    (A) Monday
    (B) Tuesday
    (C) Wednesday
    (D) Friday

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    During the interval we have two leap years as 1992 and 1996 and it contains February of both these years.
    ∴, The interval has (5 + 2) = 7 odd days or 0 odd day.
    Hence, January 7, 1997 was also Tuesday.

    Unattempted
    

    During the interval we have two leap years as 1992 and 1996 and it contains February of both these years.
    ∴, The interval has (5 + 2) = 7 odd days or 0 odd day.
    Hence, January 7, 1997 was also Tuesday.
15. Question 15 of 80

    15. Question

    Find the next term in the series.
    41, 55, 71, 89, 109, ?
    (A) 134
    (B) 126
    (C) 131
    (D) 115

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The pattern is as follows:
    5 x 8 + 1 = 41
    6 x 9 + 1 = 55
    7 x 10 + 1 = 71
    8 x 11 + 1 = 89
    9 x 12 + 1 = 109
    10 x 13 + 1 = 131

    Unattempted
    

    The pattern is as follows:
    5 x 8 + 1 = 41
    6 x 9 + 1 = 55
    7 x 10 + 1 = 71
    8 x 11 + 1 = 89
    9 x 12 + 1 = 109
    10 x 13 + 1 = 131
16. Question 16 of 80

    16. Question

    Find the next term in the series.
    46, 69, 138, 345, 1035, ?
    (A) 4457.5
    (B) 3545.5
    (C) 3622.5
    (D) 3825.5

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The pattern is as follows:
    46 x 1.5 = 69
    69 x 2 = 138
    138 x 2.5 = 345
    345 x 3 = 1035
    1035 x 3.5 = 3622.5

    Unattempted
    

    The pattern is as follows:
    46 x 1.5 = 69
    69 x 2 = 138
    138 x 2.5 = 345
    345 x 3 = 1035
    1035 x 3.5 = 3622.5
17. Question 17 of 80

    17. Question

    Find the next term in the series.
    5228, 5164, 5064, 4920, 4724, ?
    (A) 4468
    (B) 4358
    (C) 4493
    (D) 4498

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The pattern is as follows:
    5228 – 82 = 5164
    5164 – 102 = 5064
    5064 – 122 = 4920
    4920 – 142 = 4724
    4724 – 162 = 4468

    Unattempted
    

    The pattern is as follows:
    5228 – 82 = 5164
    5164 – 102 = 5064
    5064 – 122 = 4920
    4920 – 142 = 4724
    4724 – 162 = 4468
18. Question 18 of 80

    18. Question

    In a row of 60 persons, Ganesh is 26th from left end. Find out his position from the right end.
    (A) 35
    (B) 36
    (C) 34
    (D) Can’t be determined

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The total number of person = Position of Ganesh from the right ends + Position of Ganesh from the left ends – 1
    Now, Position of Ganesh from the right ends = The total number of person – Position of Ganesh from the left ends + 1
    = 60 – 26 + 1 = 35.
    Hence, Ganesh is 35th from the right ends.

    Unattempted
    

    The total number of person = Position of Ganesh from the right ends + Position of Ganesh from the left ends – 1
    Now, Position of Ganesh from the right ends = The total number of person – Position of Ganesh from the left ends + 1
    = 60 – 26 + 1 = 35.
    Hence, Ganesh is 35th from the right ends.
19. Question 19 of 80

    19. Question

    In a row, Yash is 15th from left end while Rima is 56th from right end and 16th to the right of Monu. Find out total number of persons of this queue?
    (A) 65
    (B) 83
    (C) 94
    (D) Can’t be determined

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    To find out the total member of a row we have to know the position of a person from the left end and the position of a person from the right end and there must be a relation among that two persons.
    Here, the position of Yash and Rima are given but there is no relation among them.
    Hence, the given data is not sufficient to answer this question.

    Unattempted
    

    To find out the total member of a row we have to know the position of a person from the left end and the position of a person from the right end and there must be a relation among that two persons.
    Here, the position of Yash and Rima are given but there is no relation among them.
    Hence, the given data is not sufficient to answer this question.
20. Question 20 of 80

    20. Question

    Directions for the following item: Consider the information given below and answer the item that follow.
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 are eight professors teaching in different departments of a university. They are seated around a rectangular table on chairs, such that each longer side of the table has four chairs each.
    Further, the following information is known:
    i. The professor of Mathematics is seated opposite to the professor of Biology.
    ii. 1 is seated opposite to the professor of Chemistry.
    iii. The professor of History is seated second to the left of the professor of Economics on the same side of the table. The professor of Economics sits opposite to 4.
    iv. Exactly one professor is seated between the professors of Biology and Literature on the same side of the table.
    v. The professor of Computer Science is seated third to the right of 8 on the same side of the table. 8 is seated opposite to the professor of Literature.
    vi. One professor belongs to the Department of Physics.
    If 2 is the only professor who is seated between 6 and the professor of Physics, which department does 2 belong to?
    (A) Mathematics
    (B) Computer Science
    (C) Biology
    (D) Cannot be determined

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Given the new condition, the only possibility is: 
    

    Unattempted
    

    Given the new condition, the only possibility is: 
    
21. Question 21 of 80

    21. Question

    Directions for the following item: Consider the information given below and answer the item that follow.
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 are eight professors teaching in different departments of a university. They are seated around a rectangular table on chairs, such that each longer side of the table has four chairs each.
    Further, the following information is known:
    i. The professor of Mathematics is seated opposite to the professor of Biology.
    ii. 1 is seated opposite to the professor of Chemistry.
    iii. The professor of History is seated second to the left of the professor of Economics on the same side of the table. The professor of Economics sits opposite to 4.
    iv. Exactly one professor is seated between the professors of Biology and Literature on the same side of the table.
    v. The professor of Computer Science is seated third to the right of 8 on the same side of the table. 8 is seated opposite to the professor of Literature.
    vi. One professor belongs to the Department of Physics.
    If 8 and the professor of History swap their seats, then which of the following statements cannot be correct?
    (A) Professors of History and Physics are seated farthest apart from each other.
    (B) Professors of History and Physics are seated next to each other.
    (C) Professors of Chemistry and Economics are seated next to each other.
    (D) Professors of Physics and Biology are seated next to each other.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Professors of Chemistry and Economics cannot be seated next to each other in any scenario.
    

    Unattempted
    

    Professors of Chemistry and Economics cannot be seated next to each other in any scenario.
    
22. Question 22 of 80

    22. Question

    Directions for the following item: Consider the information given below and answer the item that follow.
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 are eight professors teaching in different departments of a university. They are seated around a rectangular table on chairs, such that each longer side of the table has four chairs each.
    Further, the following information is known:
    i. The professor of Mathematics is seated opposite to the professor of Biology.
    ii. 1 is seated opposite to the professor of Chemistry.
    iii. The professor of History is seated second to the left of the professor of Economics on the same side of the table. The professor of Economics sits opposite to 4.
    iv. Exactly one professor is seated between the professors of Biology and Literature on the same side of the table.
    v. The professor of Computer Science is seated third to the right of 8 on the same side of the table. 8 is seated opposite to the professor of Literature.
    vi. One professor belongs to the Department of Physics.
    If 8 and the professor of History swap their seats, then which of the following statements can be correct?
    (A) The professor of Physics is seated between the professors of History and Mathematics on the same side of the table.
    (B) The professor of Mathematics is seated between the professors of Computer Science and History on the same side of the table.
    (C) The professor of Biology is seated between the professors of Literature and Economics on the same side of the table.
    (D) The professor of Physics is seated between the professors of Computer Science and Economics on the same side of the table.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The professor of Physics may be seated between the professors of History and Mathematics on the same side of the table in one of the scenarios.

    Unattempted
    

    The professor of Physics may be seated between the professors of History and Mathematics on the same side of the table in one of the scenarios.
23. Question 23 of 80

    23. Question

    In a row of certain persons, Pradip is sitting 463 from the left end and 531 from the right end. Find out the total number of persons in that row?
    (A) 963
    (B) 942
    (C) 993
    (D) Can’t be determined

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The total number of persons is = Position of Pradip from the right ends + Position of Pradip from the left ends – 1
    = 463 + 531 – 1 = 993
    Hence, the total number of persons is 993.

    Unattempted
    

    The total number of persons is = Position of Pradip from the right ends + Position of Pradip from the left ends – 1
    = 463 + 531 – 1 = 993
    Hence, the total number of persons is 993.
24. Question 24 of 80

    24. Question

    In a row all the persons are facing north, Rahul is 33rd from the left end and in the right side of Rahul, there are only 16 persons. Find out total number of person in this queue?
    (A) 49
    (B) 50
    (C) 51
    (D) Can’t be determined

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The total number of person is = Position of Rahul from the one of the ends + Number of person are there in the opposite direction of Rahul = 33 + 16 = 49
    Hence, the total number of person is 49.

    Unattempted
    

    The total number of person is = Position of Rahul from the one of the ends + Number of person are there in the opposite direction of Rahul = 33 + 16 = 49
    Hence, the total number of person is 49.
25. Question 25 of 80

    25. Question

    Siya is 18th from left end and 12th to the right of Rinku who is 38th from the right end. If all of them are facing north, Find out total number of persons in the row?
    (A) 44
    (B) 43
    (C) 45
    (D) Can’t be determined

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Rinku is 38th from the right end, it means there are 37 person to the right side of Rinku.
    Siya is 18th from left end and 12th to the right of Rinku. It means there are 17 persons to the left side of Siya and there are 11 persons between Rinku and Siya in that row.
    Therefore, the number of person = 38 + 6 -1 = 43

    Unattempted
    

    Rinku is 38th from the right end, it means there are 37 person to the right side of Rinku.
    Siya is 18th from left end and 12th to the right of Rinku. It means there are 17 persons to the left side of Siya and there are 11 persons between Rinku and Siya in that row.
    Therefore, the number of person = 38 + 6 -1 = 43
26. Question 26 of 80

    26. Question

    In a group of 105 students, Ravi’s rank is 36th from the top and Sarika’s rank is 41st from the bottom. How many students are there in between Ravi and Sarika (if no two persons got the same rank)?
    (A) 28
    (B) 39
    (C) Can’t be determined
    (D) None of these

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Here, the number of students is greater than the sum of the ranks of Ravi and Sarika.
    Hence, the number of students in between Ravi and Sarika
    = 105 – (sum of the ranks of Ravi and Sarika)
    = 105 – (36 + 41) = 28

    Unattempted
    

    Here, the number of students is greater than the sum of the ranks of Ravi and Sarika.
    Hence, the number of students in between Ravi and Sarika
    = 105 – (sum of the ranks of Ravi and Sarika)
    = 105 – (36 + 41) = 28
27. Question 27 of 80

    27. Question

    In a batch of 100 students Kavya’s rank is 50th from the top and Lucky’s rank is 68th from the bottom. How many students are there in between Kavya and Lucky (if no two persons got the same rank)?
    (A) Less than 10
    (B) 16
    (C) Can’t be determined
    (D) 13

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Here, the number of students is less than the sum of the ranks of Kavya and Lucky.
    Hence, the number of students in between Kavya and Lucky is
    = (Sum of the ranks of Kavya and Lucky) – Total number of students – 2
    = (50 + 68) – 100 – 2 = 16

    Unattempted
    

    Here, the number of students is less than the sum of the ranks of Kavya and Lucky.
    Hence, the number of students in between Kavya and Lucky is
    = (Sum of the ranks of Kavya and Lucky) – Total number of students – 2
    = (50 + 68) – 100 – 2 = 16
28. Question 28 of 80

    28. Question

    In a single row, there are some girls and all of them are facing north. Diksha rank is 19th from the left ends and Trisha rank is 17th from the right end. If 5 students are sitting in between them. Find the number of students in the class.
    (A) 31
    (B) 49
    (C) 50
    (D) Can’t be determined

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Here, the number of persons between Diksha and Trisha < The lowest positioned person (In this case, the position of Trisha was lowest i.e., 17th) – 1
    Hence, two possibility will be there.

    Unattempted
    

    Here, the number of persons between Diksha and Trisha < The lowest positioned person (In this case, the position of Trisha was lowest i.e., 17th) – 1
    Hence, two possibility will be there.
29. Question 29 of 80

    29. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    Daffodil bulbs require well-drained soil and a sunny planting location. They should be planted in holes that are 3–6 inches deep and there should be 2–4 inches between bulbs. The bulb should be placed in the hole, pointed side up, root side down. Once the bulb is planted, water the area thoroughly.
    According to the above passage, which of the following is true?
    (A) Daffodils do best in sandy soil.
    (B) Daffodil bulbs should be planted in autumn for spring blooming.
    (C) It is possible to plant daffodil bulbs upside down.
    (D) Daffodil bulbs require daily watering.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The third sentence specifically mentions that the pointed side goes up and the root side faces down. This means that there is an up side and a down side and that it is possible for the bulb to be put into the soil upside down if someone didn’t know better. The other choices may be true but are not mentioned in the passage.

    Unattempted
    

    The third sentence specifically mentions that the pointed side goes up and the root side faces down. This means that there is an up side and a down side and that it is possible for the bulb to be put into the soil upside down if someone didn’t know better. The other choices may be true but are not mentioned in the passage.
30. Question 30 of 80

    30. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    Many cities haves distributed standardized recycling containers to all households with directions that read: “We would prefer that you use this new container as your primary recycling container as this will expedite pick-up of recyclables. Additional recycling containers may be purchased from the City.”
    According to the passage, each household :
    (A) may only use one recycling container.
    (B) must use the new recycling container.
    (C) should use the new recycling container.
    (D) must buy a new recycling container.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The passage indicate that the city prefers, but does not require, use of its new container, and that the customers may use more than one container if they purchase an additional one.

    Unattempted
    

    The passage indicate that the city prefers, but does not require, use of its new container, and that the customers may use more than one container if they purchase an additional one.
31. Question 31 of 80

    31. Question

    In a single row, there are some boys and all of them are facing north. Gaurav rank is 29th from the left ends and Tarun rank is 27th from the right end. If 26 students are sitting in between them. Find the number of students in the class.
    (A) 21
    (B) 9
    (C) 10
    (D) 82

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Here, the number of persons between Gaurav and Tarun < The lowest positioned person (In this case, the position of Tarun was lowest i.e. 27th) – 1
    Hence, Gaurav must be to the left side of Tarun.
    Therefore, the number of person is = 29 + 27 + 26 = 82

    Unattempted
    

    Here, the number of persons between Gaurav and Tarun < The lowest positioned person (In this case, the position of Tarun was lowest i.e. 27th) – 1
    Hence, Gaurav must be to the left side of Tarun.
    Therefore, the number of person is = 29 + 27 + 26 = 82
32. Question 32 of 80

    32. Question

    In a class, Vijay’s rank is 34th from the left and Ajay’s rank is 37th from the right. If Only Diwakar sits exactly in between them. What could be the minimum number of students in the class?
    (A) 59
    (B) 37
    (C) 68
    (D) Can’t be determined

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    To count the minimum number of students we have to consider this as the Case of Overlapping.
    Thus, the minimum number of students in the class is = Rank of Vijay + Rank of Ajay – 3
    = 34 + 37 – 3 = 68

    Unattempted
    

    To count the minimum number of students we have to consider this as the Case of Overlapping.
    Thus, the minimum number of students in the class is = Rank of Vijay + Rank of Ajay – 3
    = 34 + 37 – 3 = 68
33. Question 33 of 80

    33. Question

    There are five persons named Firoz, Quasif, Riyaz, Salman and Taukir. Quasif is taller than Salman and Riyaz but smaller than Firoz. Firoz is not the tallest among them. Who is the tallest person among all?
    (A) Taukir
    (B) Quasif
    (C) Salman
    (D) Firoz

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
34. Question 34 of 80

    34. Question

    Jinni is 7th from the right end and Money is 10th from the left end in a row of girls. If there are 10 girls between Jinni and Money, how many girls are there in that row?
    (A) 27
    (B) 32
    (C) 24
    (D) 25

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The number of girls is = 7 + 10 + 10 = 27

    Unattempted
    

    The number of girls is = 7 + 10 + 10 = 27
35. Question 35 of 80

    35. Question

    Directions for the following item:
    Read the following Passage and answer the item that follow. Your answers to this item should be based on the passages only.
    These questions are based on the information given below.
    A family of eight persons has three married couples. Amelie is the grandmother of Charles and is the mother-in-law of Floyd. Helen is the daughter of Bob, who is the brother of George. Diana is the only child of George and is the mother of Charles. Emma is the wife of Bob.
    How is George related to Helen?
    (A) Uncle
    (B) Father
    (C) Brother
    (D) Cousin

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Given that Helen is the daughter of Bob and Bob is the brother of George. Also Diana is the only child of George and is the mother of Charles. Emma is the wife of Bob.
    Also given that Amelie is the grandmother of Charles and is the mother-in-law of Floyd.
    ∴ Floyd should be the husband of Diana and Amelie should be the wife of George.
    
    Hence, George is the uncle of Helen.

    Unattempted
    

    Given that Helen is the daughter of Bob and Bob is the brother of George. Also Diana is the only child of George and is the mother of Charles. Emma is the wife of Bob.
    Also given that Amelie is the grandmother of Charles and is the mother-in-law of Floyd.
    ∴ Floyd should be the husband of Diana and Amelie should be the wife of George.
    
    Hence, George is the uncle of Helen.
36. Question 36 of 80

    36. Question

    Directions : Examine information given below and answer the questions that follow:
    Five executives A, B, C, D & E of Indian Corporation hold a conference in New Delhi.
    Mr. A converses in Hindi and Tamil.
    Mr. B converses in Hindi and English.
    Mr. C converses in English and Tamil.
    Mr. D converses in Bengali and Hindi.
    Mr. E, a native Tamil, can also converse in Bengali.
    Which of the following can act as an interpreter when Mr. C and Mr. D wish to converse?
    (A) Only Mr. A
    (B) Only Mr. B
    (C) Only Mr. E
    (D) Any of the other three executives

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    When Mr. C and Mr. D converse, they can use English, Tamil, Bengali and Hindi interpreter between them. Mr. A speaks Hindi and Tamil and Mr. B speaks English and Hindi. Mr. E speaks bengali and Tamil.

    Unattempted
    

    When Mr. C and Mr. D converse, they can use English, Tamil, Bengali and Hindi interpreter between them. Mr. A speaks Hindi and Tamil and Mr. B speaks English and Hindi. Mr. E speaks bengali and Tamil.
37. Question 37 of 80

    37. Question

    Directions : Examine information given below and answer the questions that follow:
    Five executives A, B, C, D & E of Indian Corporation hold a conference in New Delhi.
    Mr. A converses in Hindi and Tamil.
    Mr. B converses in Hindi and English.
    Mr. C converses in English and Tamil.
    Mr. D converses in Bengali and Hindi.
    Mr. E, a native Tamil, can also converse in Bengali.
    Which of the following pairs cannot converse without an interpreter?
    (A) Mr. B and Mr. E
    (B) Mr. A and Mr. B
    (C) Mr. A and Mr. C
    (D) Mr. B and Mr. D

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mr. B understands English and Hindi, while Mr. E speaks two other languages, Bengali and Tamil.

    Unattempted
    

    Mr. B understands English and Hindi, while Mr. E speaks two other languages, Bengali and Tamil.
38. Question 38 of 80

    38. Question

    An Indian who is a scientist as well as a politician is represented in the following diagram by an alphabet. Find the alphabet and choose the correct response.
    
    (A) b
    (B) a
    (C) c
    (D) g

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Since, the region ‘a’ is common between Indian scientists and politicians, therefore it represents Indian scientists who are also politicians.

    Unattempted
    

    Since, the region ‘a’ is common between Indian scientists and politicians, therefore it represents Indian scientists who are also politicians.
39. Question 39 of 80

    39. Question

    Directions : Examine the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
    Nine cities A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are connected with a oneway or a two way route.
    The oneway routes are from A to F; D to A; D to F; H to D; D to B; D to E; E to B; B to G; E to F; E to C.
    The two way routes are between G and H; H and A; A and I; I and C; F and C.
    No other routes exist except the above mentioned routes.
    Due to Bandh call given by a political party, no one is allowed to pass through city D. Then, which city can not be reached from any other city?
    (A) G
    (B) B
    (C) E
    (D) F

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
40. Question 40 of 80

    40. Question

    Directions : Study the following graph and answer the given question. Graph shows the variation in literacy per cent with the increase in the population of four different districts of a newly formulated state.
    
    Which district shows two different behaviour of literacy per cent with the increase in population?
    (A) A
    (B) B
    (C) C
    (D) D

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    District A & B are showing a fixed behaviour, while C is showing 3 distinct behaviours but District D shows two different types of behaviour because firstly, the graph is increasing proportionally and then constant throughout the increasing population.

    Unattempted
    

    District A & B are showing a fixed behaviour, while C is showing 3 distinct behaviours but District D shows two different types of behaviour because firstly, the graph is increasing proportionally and then constant throughout the increasing population.
41. Question 41 of 80

    41. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTION THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    It's easy to forget that most of the world's languages are still transmitted orally with no widely established written form. While speech communities are increasingly involved in projects to protect their languages – in print, on air and online – orality is fragile and contributes to linguistic vulnerability. But indigenous languages are about much more than unusual words and intriguing grammar: They function as vehicles for the transmission of cultural traditions, environmental understandings and knowledge about medicinal plants, all at risk when elders die and livelihoods are disrupted.
    Both push and pull factors lead to the decline of languages. Through war, famine and natural disasters, whole communities can be destroyed, taking their language with them to the grave, such as the indigenous populations of Tasmania who were wiped out by colonists. More commonly, speakers live on but abandon their language in favor of another vernacular, a widespread process that linguists refer to as “language shift” from which few languages are immune. Such trading up and out of a speech form occurs for complex political, cultural and economic reasons – sometimes voluntary for economic and educational reasons, although often amplified by state coercion or neglect. Welsh, long stigmatized and disparaged by the British state, has rebounded with vigor.
    Many speakers of endangered, poorly documented languages have embraced new digital media with excitement. Speakers of previously exclusively oral tongues are turning to the web as a virtual space for languages to live on. Internet technology offers powerful ways for oral traditions and cultural practices to survive, even thrive, among increasingly mobile communities. I have watched as videos of traditional wedding ceremonies and songs are recorded on smartphones in London by Nepali migrants, then uploaded to YouTube and watched an hour later by relatives in remote Himalayan villages . . .Globalization is regularly, and often uncritically, pilloried as a major threat to linguistic diversity. But in fact, globalization is as much process as it is ideology, certainly when it comes to language. The real forces behind cultural homogenization are unbending beliefs, exchanged through a globalized delivery system, reinforced by the historical monolingualism prevalent in much of the West.
    Monolingualism – the condition of being able to speak only one language – is regularly accompanied by a deep-seated conviction in the value of that language over all others. Across the largest economies that make up the G8, being monolingual is still often the norm, with multilingualism appearing unusual and even somewhat exotic. The monolingual mindset stands in sharp contrast to the lived reality of most the world, which throughout its history has been more multilingual than unilingual. Monolingualism, then, not globalization, should be our primary concern.
    Multilingualism can help us live in a more connected and more interdependent world. By widening access to technology, globalization can support indigenous and scholarly communities engaged in documenting and protecting our shared linguistic heritage. For the last 5,000 years, the rise and fall of languages was intimately tied to the plow, sword and book. In our digital age, the keyboard, screen and web will play a decisive role in shaping the future linguistic diversity of our species.
    We can infer all of the following about indigenous languages from the passage EXCEPT that:
    (A) they are repositories of traditional knowledge about the environment and culture.
    (B) people are increasingly working on documenting these languages.
    (C) they are in danger of being wiped out as most can only be transmitted orally.
    (D) their vocabulary and grammatical constructs have been challenging to document.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    This question is pertaining to indigenous languages. From third paragraph, we can infer options A,B and C. Option D cannot be inferred because if many speakers of poorly documented languages have embraced new digital media with excitement, there would not be many challenges in it. Moreover, there is no evidence of any challenges faced.

    Unattempted
    

    This question is pertaining to indigenous languages. From third paragraph, we can infer options A,B and C. Option D cannot be inferred because if many speakers of poorly documented languages have embraced new digital media with excitement, there would not be many challenges in it. Moreover, there is no evidence of any challenges faced.
42. Question 42 of 80

    42. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTION THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    Today we can hardly conceive of ourselves without an unconscious. Yet between 1700 and1900, this notion developed as a genuinely original thought. The “unconscious” burst the shell of conventional language, coined as it had been to embody the fleeting ideas and the shifting conceptions of several generations until, finally, it became fixed and defined in specialized terms within the realm of medical psychology and Freudian psychoanalysis.
    The vocabulary concerning the soul and the mind increased enormously in the course of the nineteenth century. The enrichments of literary and intellectual language led to an altered understanding of the meanings that underlie time-honored expressions and traditional catchwords. At the same time, once coined, powerful new ideas attracted to themselves a whole host of seemingly unrelated issues, practices, and experiences, creating a peculiar network of preoccupations that as a group had not existed before. The drawn-out attempt to approach and define the unconscious brought together the spiritualist and the psychical researcher of borderline phenomena (such as apparitions, spectral illusions, haunted houses, mediums, trance, automatic writing); the psychiatrist or alienist probing the nature of mental disease, of abnormal ideation, hallucination, delirium, melancholia, mania; the surgeon performing operations with the aid of hypnotism; the magnetizer claiming to correct the disequilibrium in the universal flow of magnetic fluids but who soon came to be regarded as a clever manipulator of the imagination; the physiologist and the physician who puzzled oversleep, dreams, sleepwalking, anesthesia, the influence of the mind on the body in health and disease; the neurologist concerned with the functions of the brain and the physiological basis of mental life; the philosopher interested in the will, the emotions, consciousness, knowledge, imagination and the creative genius; and, last but not least, the psychologist.
    Significantly, most if not all of these practices (for example, hypnotism in surgery or psychological magnetism) originated in the waning years of the eighteenth century and during the early decades of the nineteenth century, as did some of the disciplines (such as psychology and psychical research). The majority of topics too were either new or assumed hitherto unknown colors. Thus, before 1790, few if any spoke, in medical terms, of the affinity between creative genius and the hallucinations of the insane .
    Striving vaguely and independently to give expression to a latent conception, various lines of thought can be brought together by some novel term. The new concept then serves as a kind of resting place or stocktaking in the development of ideas, giving satisfaction and a stimulus for further discussion or speculation. Thus, the massive introduction of the term unconscious by Hartmann in 1869 appeared to focalize many stray thoughts, affording a temporary feeling that a crucial step had been taken forward, a comprehensive knowledge gained, a knowledge that required only further elaboration, explication, and unfolding in order to bring in a bounty of higher understanding. Ultimately, Hartmann's attempt at defining the unconscious proved fruitless because he extended its reach into every realm of organic and inorganic, spiritual, intellectual, and instinctive existence, severely diluting the precision and compromising the impact of the concept.
    All of the following statements may be considered valid inferences from the passage, EXCEPT:
    (A) New conceptions in the nineteenth century could provide new knowledge because of the establishment of fields such as anaesthesiology.
    (B) Unrelated practices began to be treated as related to each other, as knowledge of the mind grew in the nineteenth century.
    (C) Without the linguistic developments of the nineteenth century, the growth of understanding of the soul and the mind may not have happened.
    (D) Eighteenth century thinkers were the first to perceive a connection between creative genius and insanity.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    This question apparently looks tough because it has the phrase “valid inferences… except”. Option B can be inferred from the entire second paragraph. From the first paragraph we can infer C. From the last sentence of second last paragraph we can infer D. Thus A is the best choice, as we don't have any evidence for A.

    Unattempted
    

    This question apparently looks tough because it has the phrase “valid inferences… except”. Option B can be inferred from the entire second paragraph. From the first paragraph we can infer C. From the last sentence of second last paragraph we can infer D. Thus A is the best choice, as we don't have any evidence for A.
43. Question 43 of 80

    43. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTION THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    As high-level visits go, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Israel was bound to attract superlatives like ‘historic’ and ‘groundbreaking’. Still, it is clear that the buzz in the relationship is on account of Mr. Modi’s personal diplomatic style and his host’s equally warm response.
    Israel’s Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu set the tone when he welcomed Mr. Modi at the airport together with the spiritual leaders of all the major faiths in the region, an honor traditionally reserved for the U.S. President and the Pope. Mr. Modi’s trademark bear hugs were reciprocated, three at the airport, and by the time the visit ended, the TV commentators had lost count!
    Mr. Netanyahu gushingly described the relationship between the two countries as “a marriage made in heaven”, but behind the success was a receptive political backdrop as well as the careful planning undertaken by both sides.
    Marking 25 years of establishing diplomatic relations between the two countries added to the historic character of an Indian Prime Minister’s first visit to a country that had quietly emerged as a strong defense partner. There had been high-level exchanges but the Indian response was cautious. Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2000; President Ezer Weizman came in 1997, while President Pranab Mukherji’s visit only took place in 2015. The first Israeli Prime Minister to visit India was Ariel Sharon in 2003, and from the time Mr. Modi came to power, a return visit was a certainty. The two leaders had met on the margins of the UN General Assembly and continued their relationship by tweeting their greetings on Hanukkah and Diwali.
    Yet, official-level exchanges between the two countries have been intensive, beginning with the visit of Foreign Secretary J.N. Dixit in early 1993. While relations between Mossad and Research and Analysis Wing had existed earlier, the strategic partnership got cemented when National Security Adviser-level dialogue was established in 1999 between Brajesh Mishra and Gen. (retd.) David Ivry. Gen. Ivry was a former Air Force chief who had led the air raid on Osirak, the Iraqi nuclear reactor, in 1981. Incidentally, Israel was one of the few countries that showed a complete understanding of India’s decision to undertake the nuclear tests in 1998. This reinforced both the defense and the counter-terrorism cooperation relationship.
    By 2000, India was acquiring surface-to-air missiles (Barak 1) and UAVs (unmanned aerial vehicles) from Israel. Subsequently, the refurbishing of MiG-21 aircraft employed Israeli avionics. During the 1999 Kargil war, Israel assisted with laser-guidance kits mated with gravity bombs, carried by the Mirage 2000 aircraft. With U.S. concurrence, Israel sold India the Phalcon airborne early warning system and mounted on the Russian Il-76, provided AWACS capability. Subsequent acquisitions have included Spike anti-tank guided missiles and the long range surface-to-air missiles in both the naval and land versions. Today, Israel has emerged as the third-largest defense supplier for India and accounts for over 40% of Israel’s defense exports.
    Commercial relations between the diamond traders in Gujarat and Israel had existed before 1992, but now annual trade grew from $200 million to nearly $5 billion with gems and jewelry accounting for nearly 40%. Gradually, Science and technology, agriculture, biotech, and space emerged as new areas of cooperation.Tourism provided an impetus to people-to-people relations. India emerged as the preferred destination for young Israelis wanting to unwind after their compulsory military service and Hebrew signage in Varanasi, Manali, and Goa is a common sight. Ambassador Pavan Kapoor was being quite mattered of fact when he described the Modi visit as a ‘coming out visit’ for the relationship.
    Mr. Netanyahu Gushingly described the relationship between the two countries as:
    (A) A friendship made on earth
    (B) A friendship made in heaven
    (C) A marriage made in heaven
    (D) An enmity made in heaven

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mr. Netanyahu gushingly described the relationship between the two countries as “a marriage made in heaven”,

    Unattempted
    

    Mr. Netanyahu gushingly described the relationship between the two countries as “a marriage made in heaven”,
44. Question 44 of 80

    44. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTION THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    As high-level visits go, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Israel was bound to attract superlatives like ‘historic’ and ‘groundbreaking’. Still, it is clear that the buzz in the relationship is on account of Mr. Modi’s personal diplomatic style and his host’s equally warm response.
    Israel’s Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu set the tone when he welcomed Mr. Modi at the airport together with the spiritual leaders of all the major faiths in the region, an honor traditionally reserved for the U.S. President and the Pope. Mr. Modi’s trademark bear hugs were reciprocated, three at the airport, and by the time the visit ended, the TV commentators had lost count!
    Mr. Netanyahu gushingly described the relationship between the two countries as “a marriage made in heaven”, but behind the success was a receptive political backdrop as well as the careful planning undertaken by both sides.
    Marking 25 years of establishing diplomatic relations between the two countries added to the historic character of an Indian Prime Minister’s first visit to a country that had quietly emerged as a strong defense partner. There had been high-level exchanges but the Indian response was cautious. Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2000; President Ezer Weizman came in 1997, while President Pranab Mukherji’s visit only took place in 2015. The first Israeli Prime Minister to visit India was Ariel Sharon in 2003, and from the time Mr. Modi came to power, a return visit was a certainty. The two leaders had met on the margins of the UN General Assembly and continued their relationship by tweeting their greetings on Hanukkah and Diwali.
    Yet, official-level exchanges between the two countries have been intensive, beginning with the visit of Foreign Secretary J.N. Dixit in early 1993. While relations between Mossad and Research and Analysis Wing had existed earlier, the strategic partnership got cemented when National Security Adviser-level dialogue was established in 1999 between Brajesh Mishra and Gen. (retd.) David Ivry. Gen. Ivry was a former Air Force chief who had led the air raid on Osirak, the Iraqi nuclear reactor, in 1981. Incidentally, Israel was one of the few countries that showed a complete understanding of India’s decision to undertake the nuclear tests in 1998. This reinforced both the defense and the counter-terrorism cooperation relationship.
    By 2000, India was acquiring surface-to-air missiles (Barak 1) and UAVs (unmanned aerial vehicles) from Israel. Subsequently, the refurbishing of MiG-21 aircraft employed Israeli avionics. During the 1999 Kargil war, Israel assisted with laser-guidance kits mated with gravity bombs, carried by the Mirage 2000 aircraft. With U.S. concurrence, Israel sold India the Phalcon airborne early warning system and mounted on the Russian Il-76, provided AWACS capability. Subsequent acquisitions have included Spike anti-tank guided missiles and the long range surface-to-air missiles in both the naval and land versions. Today, Israel has emerged as the third-largest defense supplier for India and accounts for over 40% of Israel’s defense exports.
    Commercial relations between the diamond traders in Gujarat and Israel had existed before 1992, but now annual trade grew from $200 million to nearly $5 billion with gems and jewelry accounting for nearly 40%. Gradually, Science and technology, agriculture, biotech, and space emerged as new areas of cooperation.Tourism provided an impetus to people-to-people relations. India emerged as the preferred destination for young Israelis wanting to unwind after their compulsory military service and Hebrew signage in Varanasi, Manali, and Goa is a common sight. Ambassador Pavan Kapoor was being quite mattered of fact when he described the Modi visit as a ‘coming out visit’ for the relationship.
    Which of the following statement is true according to the passage?
    I. Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2000; President Ezer Weizman came in 1997, while President Pranab Mukherji’s visit only took place in 2015
    II. Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2001; President Ezer Weizman came in 1997, while President Pranab Mukherji’s visit only took place in 2015
    III. Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2000; President Ezer Weizman came in 1998, while President Pranab Mukherji’s visit only took place in 2015
    (A) Only I
    (B) Only II
    (C) Only III
    (D) Both I and III

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2000; President Ezer Weizman came in 1997, while President Pranab Mukherji’s visit only took place in 2015.

    Unattempted
    

    Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2000; President Ezer Weizman came in 1997, while President Pranab Mukherji’s visit only took place in 2015.
45. Question 45 of 80

    45. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTION THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    As high-level visits go, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Israel was bound to attract superlatives like ‘historic’ and ‘groundbreaking’. Still, it is clear that the buzz in the relationship is on account of Mr. Modi’s personal diplomatic style and his host’s equally warm response.
    Israel’s Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu set the tone when he welcomed Mr. Modi at the airport together with the spiritual leaders of all the major faiths in the region, an honor traditionally reserved for the U.S. President and the Pope. Mr. Modi’s trademark bear hugs were reciprocated, three at the airport, and by the time the visit ended, the TV commentators had lost count!
    Mr. Netanyahu gushingly described the relationship between the two countries as “a marriage made in heaven”, but behind the success was a receptive political backdrop as well as the careful planning undertaken by both sides.
    Marking 25 years of establishing diplomatic relations between the two countries added to the historic character of an Indian Prime Minister’s first visit to a country that had quietly emerged as a strong defense partner. There had been high-level exchanges but the Indian response was cautious. Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2000; President Ezer Weizman came in 1997, while President Pranab Mukherji’s visit only took place in 2015. The first Israeli Prime Minister to visit India was Ariel Sharon in 2003, and from the time Mr. Modi came to power, a return visit was a certainty. The two leaders had met on the margins of the UN General Assembly and continued their relationship by tweeting their greetings on Hanukkah and Diwali.
    Yet, official-level exchanges between the two countries have been intensive, beginning with the visit of Foreign Secretary J.N. Dixit in early 1993. While relations between Mossad and Research and Analysis Wing had existed earlier, the strategic partnership got cemented when National Security Adviser-level dialogue was established in 1999 between Brajesh Mishra and Gen. (retd.) David Ivry. Gen. Ivry was a former Air Force chief who had led the air raid on Osirak, the Iraqi nuclear reactor, in 1981. Incidentally, Israel was one of the few countries that showed a complete understanding of India’s decision to undertake the nuclear tests in 1998. This reinforced both the defense and the counter-terrorism cooperation relationship.
    By 2000, India was acquiring surface-to-air missiles (Barak 1) and UAVs (unmanned aerial vehicles) from Israel. Subsequently, the refurbishing of MiG-21 aircraft employed Israeli avionics. During the 1999 Kargil war, Israel assisted with laser-guidance kits mated with gravity bombs, carried by the Mirage 2000 aircraft. With U.S. concurrence, Israel sold India the Phalcon airborne early warning system and mounted on the Russian Il-76, provided AWACS capability. Subsequent acquisitions have included Spike anti-tank guided missiles and the long range surface-to-air missiles in both the naval and land versions. Today, Israel has emerged as the third-largest defense supplier for India and accounts for over 40% of Israel’s defense exports.
    Commercial relations between the diamond traders in Gujarat and Israel had existed before 1992, but now annual trade grew from $200 million to nearly $5 billion with gems and jewelry accounting for nearly 40%. Gradually, Science and technology, agriculture, biotech, and space emerged as new areas of cooperation.Tourism provided an impetus to people-to-people relations. India emerged as the preferred destination for young Israelis wanting to unwind after their compulsory military service and Hebrew signage in Varanasi, Manali, and Goa is a common sight. Ambassador Pavan Kapoor was being quite mattered of fact when he described the Modi visit as a ‘coming out visit’ for the relationship.
    Which of the following statement is not true according to the passage?
    I. By 2000, India was acquiring surface-to- surface (Barak 1) and UAVs (unmanned aerial vehicles) from Israel.
    II. During the 1999 Kargil war, Israel assisted with laser-guidance kits mated with gravity bombs, carried by the Mirage 2000 aircraft.
    III. Israel sold India the Phalcon airborne early warning system and mounted on the Russian Jl-76, provided AWACS capability.
    (A) Only I
    (B) Only II
    (C) Both I and II
    (D) Both I and III

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Israel sold India the Phalcon airborne early warning system and mounted on the Russian Il-76, provided AWACS capability.
    By 2000, India was acquiring surface-to-air missiles (Barak 1) and UAVs (unmanned aerial vehicles) from Israel.

    Unattempted
    

    Israel sold India the Phalcon airborne early warning system and mounted on the Russian Il-76, provided AWACS capability.
    By 2000, India was acquiring surface-to-air missiles (Barak 1) and UAVs (unmanned aerial vehicles) from Israel.
46. Question 46 of 80

    46. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    Many cities haves distributed standardized recycling containers to all households with directions that read: “We would prefer that you use this new container as your primary recycling container as this will expedite pick-up of recyclables. Additional recycling containers may be purchased from the City.”
    According to the passage, which of the following is true about the new containers?
    (A) The new containers are far better than other containers in every way.
    (B) The new containers will help increase the efficiency of the recycling program.
    (C) The new containers hold more than the old containers did.
    (D) The new containers are less expensive than the old containers.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The passage state use of the new containers will expedite pick-up of recyclables. This indicates that the new containers will make the recycling program more efficient.

    Unattempted
    

    The passage state use of the new containers will expedite pick-up of recyclables. This indicates that the new containers will make the recycling program more efficient.
47. Question 47 of 80

    47. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTION THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    Cuttlefish are full of personality, as behavioral ecologist Alexandra Schnell found out while researching the cephalopod's potential to display self-control. ” Self-control is thought to be the cornerstone of intelligence, as it is an important prerequisite for complex decision-making and planning for the future,” says Schnell .
    [Schnell's] study used a modified version of the ” marshmallow test ” – During the original marshmallow test, psychologist Walter Mischel presented children between age four and six with one marshmallow. He told them that if they waited 15 minutes and didn't eat it, he would give them a second marshmallow. A long-term follow-up study showed that the children who waited for the second marshmallow had more success later in life. The cuttlefish version of the experiment looked a lot different. The researchers worked with six cuttlefish under nine months old and presented them with seafood instead of sweets. (Preliminary experiments showed that cuttlefishes' favorite food is live grass shrimp, while raw prawns are so-so and Asian shore crab is nearly unacceptable.) Since the researchers couldn't explain to the cuttlefish that they would need to wait for their shrimp, they trained them to recognize certain shapes that indicated when a food item would become available. The symbols were pasted on transparent drawers so that the cuttlefish could see the food that was stored inside. One drawer, labeled with a circle to mean “immediate,” held raw king prawn. Another drawer, labeled with a triangle to mean “delayed,” held live grass shrimp. During a control experiment, square labels meant “never.”
    “If their self-control is flexible and I hadn't just trained them to wait in any context, you would expect the cuttlefish to take the immediate reward [in the control], even if it's their second preference,” says Schnell . . . and that's what they did. That showed the researchers that cuttlefish wouldn't reject the prawns if it was the only food available. In the experimental trials, the cuttlefish didn't jump on the prawns if the live grass shrimp were labeled with a triangle – many waited for the shrimp drawer to open up. Each time the cuttlefish showed it could wait, the researchers tacked another ten seconds on to the next round of waiting before releasing the shrimp. The longest that a cuttlefish waited was 130 seconds.
    Schnell [says] that the cuttlefish usually sat at the bottom of the tank and looked at the two food items while they waited, but sometimes, they would turn away from the king prawn “as if to distract themselves from the temptation of the immediate reward.” In past studies, humans, chimpanzees, parrots and dogs also tried to distract themselves while waiting for a reward.
    Not every species can use self-control, but most of the animals that can share another trait in common: long, social lives. Cuttlefish, on the other hand, are solitary creatures that don't form relationships even with mates or young. “We don't know if living in a social group is important for complex cognition unless we also show those abilities are lacking in less social species,” says . . . comparative psychologist Jennifer Vonk.
    All of the following constitute a point of difference between the “original” and “modified” versions of the marshmallow test EXCEPT that:
    (A) the former was performed over a longer time span than the latter.
    (B) the former correlated self-control and future success, while the latter correlated self-control and survival advantages.
    (C) the former had human subjects, while the latter had cuttlefish.
    (D) the former used verbal communication with its subjects, while the latter had to develop a symbolic means of communication.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In this question, we have to pick a choice that is not a difference between the original and modified versions of the marshmallow test. Option A is the difference. The time difference can be seen in the first paragraph. C is an obvious difference which need not be explained. D is also an obvious difference. B is the best choice as nowhere in the passage is it implied that the latter correlated survival advantages

    Unattempted
    

    In this question, we have to pick a choice that is not a difference between the original and modified versions of the marshmallow test. Option A is the difference. The time difference can be seen in the first paragraph. C is an obvious difference which need not be explained. D is also an obvious difference. B is the best choice as nowhere in the passage is it implied that the latter correlated survival advantages
48. Question 48 of 80

    48. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    Ratatouille is a dish that has grown in popularity over the last few years. It features eggplant, zucchini, tomatoes, peppers, and garlic; chopped, mixed, sautéed, and finally, cooked slowly over low heat. As the vegetables cook slowly, they make their own broth, which may be extended with a little tomato paste. The name ratatouille comes from the French word touiller, meaning to stir or mix together.
    Which of the following is the correct order of steps for making ratatouille?
    (A) chop vegetables, add tomato paste, stir or mix together
    (B) mix the vegetables together, sauté them, and add tomato paste
    (C) cook the vegetables slowly, mix them together, add tomato paste
    (D) add tomato paste to extend the broth and cook slowly over low heat

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
49. Question 49 of 80

    49. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTION THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    I have elaborated – a framework for analyzing the contradictory pulls on [Indian] nationalist ideology in its struggle against the dominance of colonialism and the resolution it offered to those contradictions. Briefly, this resolution was built around a separation of the domain of culture into two spheres – the material and the spiritual. It was in the material sphere that the claims of Western civilization were the most powerful. Science, technology, rational forms of economic organization, modern methods of statecraft – these had given the European countries the strength to subjugate the non-European people . To overcome this domination, the colonized people had to learn those superior techniques of organizing material life and incorporate them within their own cultures. But this could not mean the imitation of the West in every aspect of life, for then the very distinction between the West and the East would vanish – the self-identity of national culture would itself be threatened. The discourse of nationalism shows that the material/spiritual distinction was condensed into an analogous, but ideologically far more powerful, dichotomy: that between the outer and the inner. Applying the inner/outer distinction to the matter of concrete day-to-day living separates the social space into ghar and bāhir, the home and the world. The world is the external, the domain of the material; the home represents one's inner spiritual self, one's true identity. The world is a treacherous terrain of the pursuit of material interests, where practical considerations reign supreme. It is also typically the domain of the male. The home in its essence must remain unaffected by the profane activities of the material world – and woman is its representation. And so one gets an identification of social roles by gender to correspond with the separation of the social space into ghar and bāhir.
    The colonial situation, and the ideological response of nationalism to the critique of Indian tradition, introduced an entirely new substance to [these dichotomies] and effected their transformation. The material/spiritual dichotomy, to which the terms world and home corresponded, had acquired . a very special significance in the nationalist mind. The world was where the European power had challenged the non-European peoples and, by virtue of its superior material culture, had subjugated them. But, the nationalists asserted, it had failed to colonize the inner, essential, identity of the East which lay in its distinctive, and superior, spiritual culture. [I]n the entire phase of the national struggle, the crucial need was to protect, preserve and strengthen the inner core of the national culture, its spiritual essence.
    Once we match this new meaning of the home/world dichotomy with the identification of social roles by gender, we get the ideological framework within which nationalism answered the women's question. It would be a grave error to see in this, as liberals are apt to in their despair at the many marks of social conservatism in nationalist practice, a total rejection of the West. Quite the contrary: the nationalist paradigm in fact supplied an ideological principle of selection.
    Which one of the following, if true, would weaken the author's claims in the passage?
    (A) The colonial period saw the hybridisation of Indian culture in all realms as it came in contact with British/European culture.
    (B) Indian nationalists rejected the cause of English education for women during the colonial period.
    (C) The Industrial Revolution played a crucial role in shaping the economic prowess of Britain in the eighteenth century.
    (D) Forces of colonial modernity played an important role in shaping anti-colonial Indian nationalism.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The passage says that Indian nationalist borrowed from the material sphere, not the spiritual sphere. A says that “there was hybridization of Indian culture in all spheres”. This weakens the author's claims in the passage.

    Unattempted
    

    The passage says that Indian nationalist borrowed from the material sphere, not the spiritual sphere. A says that “there was hybridization of Indian culture in all spheres”. This weakens the author's claims in the passage.
50. Question 50 of 80

    50. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTION THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    I have elaborated – a framework for analyzing the contradictory pulls on [Indian] nationalist ideology in its struggle against the dominance of colonialism and the resolution it offered to those contradictions. Briefly, this resolution was built around a separation of the domain of culture into two spheres – the material and the spiritual. It was in the material sphere that the claims of Western civilization were the most powerful. Science, technology, rational forms of economic organization, modern methods of statecraft – these had given the European countries the strength to subjugate the non-European people . To overcome this domination, the colonized people had to learn those superior techniques of organizing material life and incorporate them within their own cultures. But this could not mean the imitation of the West in every aspect of life, for then the very distinction between the West and the East would vanish – the self-identity of national culture would itself be threatened. The discourse of nationalism shows that the material/spiritual distinction was condensed into an analogous, but ideologically far more powerful, dichotomy: that between the outer and the inner. Applying the inner/outer distinction to the matter of concrete day-to-day living separates the social space into ghar and bāhir, the home and the world. The world is the external, the domain of the material; the home represents one's inner spiritual self, one's true identity. The world is a treacherous terrain of the pursuit of material interests, where practical considerations reign supreme. It is also typically the domain of the male. The home in its essence must remain unaffected by the profane activities of the material world – and woman is its representation. And so one gets an identification of social roles by gender to correspond with the separation of the social space into ghar and bāhir.
    The colonial situation, and the ideological response of nationalism to the critique of Indian tradition, introduced an entirely new substance to [these dichotomies] and effected their transformation. The material/spiritual dichotomy, to which the terms world and home corresponded, had acquired . a very special significance in the nationalist mind. The world was where the European power had challenged the non-European peoples and, by virtue of its superior material culture, had subjugated them. But, the nationalists asserted, it had failed to colonize the inner, essential, identity of the East which lay in its distinctive, and superior, spiritual culture. [I]n the entire phase of the national struggle, the crucial need was to protect, preserve and strengthen the inner core of the national culture, its spiritual essence.
    Once we match this new meaning of the home/world dichotomy with the identification of social roles by gender, we get the ideological framework within which nationalism answered the women's question. It would be a grave error to see in this, as liberals are apt to in their despair at the many marks of social conservatism in nationalist practice, a total rejection of the West. Quite the contrary: the nationalist paradigm in fact supplied an ideological principle of selection.
    On the basis of the information in the passage, all of the following are true about the spiritual/material dichotomy of Indian nationalism EXCEPT that it:
    (A) constituted the premise of the ghar/bāhir dichotomy.
    (B) represented a continuation of age-old oppositions in Indian culture.
    (C) helped in safeguarding the identity of Indian nationalism.
    (D) was not as ideologically powerful as the inner/outer dichotomy.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Option D is true, as it can be verified from the first sentence of the second paragraph. Option A is easy to eliminate as it is the very theme of the passage. The second last paragraph provides ample evidence for option C. There is no evidence for choice B. It is the right answer.

    Unattempted
    

    Option D is true, as it can be verified from the first sentence of the second paragraph. Option A is easy to eliminate as it is the very theme of the passage. The second last paragraph provides ample evidence for option C. There is no evidence for choice B. It is the right answer.
51. Question 51 of 80

    51. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    We cannot travel outside our neighbourhood without passports. We must wear the same plainclothes. We must exchange our houses every ten years. We cannot avoid labour. We all go to bed at the same time . We have religious freedom, but we cannot deny that the soul dies with the body, since 'but for the fear of punishment, they would have nothing but contempt for the laws and customs of society'. In More's time, for much of the population, given the plenty and security on offer, such restraints would not have seemed overly unreasonable. For modern readers, however, Utopia appears to rely upon relentless transparency, the repression of variety, and the curtailment of privacy. Utopia provides security: but at what price' In both its external and internal relations, indeed, it seems perilously dystopian.
    Such a conclusion might be fortified by examining selectively the tradition which follows more on these points. This often portrays societies where. . .'it would be almost impossible for man to be depraved, or wicked'. This is achieved both through institutions and mores, which underpin the common life. The passions are regulated and inequalities of wealth and distinction are minimized. Needs, vanity, and emulation are restrained, often by prizing equality and holding riches in contempt. The desire for public power is curbed. Marriage and sexual intercourse are often controlled: in Tommaso Campanella's The City of the Sun (1623), the first great literary utopia after More's, relations are forbidden to men before the age of twenty-one and women before nineteen. Communal child-rearing is normal; for Campanella this commences at age two. Greater simplicity of life, 'living according to nature', is often a result: the desire for simplicity and purity are closely related. People become more alike in appearance, opinion, and outlook than they often have been. Unity, order, and homogeneity thus prevail at the cost of individuality and diversity. This model, as J. C. Davis demonstrates, dominated early modern utopianism. And utopian homogeneity remains a familiar theme well into the twentieth century.
    Given these considerations, it is not unreasonable to take as our starting point here the hypothesis that utopia and dystopia evidently share more in common than is often supposed. Indeed, they might be twins, the progeny of the same parents. Insofar as this proves to be the case, my linkage of both here will be uncomfortably close for some readers. Yet we should not mistake this argument for the assertion that all utopias are, or tend to produce, dystopias. Those who defend this proposition will find that their association here is not nearly close enough. For we have only to acknowledge the existence of thousands of successful intentional communities in which a cooperative ethos predominates and where harmony without coercion is the rule to set aside such an assertion. Here the individual's submersion in the group is consensual (though this concept is not unproblematic). It results not in enslavement but voluntary submission to group norms. Harmony is achieved without harming others.
    All of the following statements can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT that:
    (A) utopian and dystopian societies are twins, the progeny of the same parents.
    (B) utopian societies exist in a long tradition of literature dealing with imaginary people practicing imaginary customs, in imaginary worlds.
    (C) many conceptions of utopian societies emphasise the importance of social uniformity and cultural homogeneity.
    (D) it is possible to see utopias as dystopias, with a change in perspective, because one person's utopia could be seen as another's dystopia.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The answer to this question can be found in the last paragraph. The author starts by saying that “utopia and dystopia evidently share more in common…. indeed, they might be twins…”. He further adds “Yet we should not mistake this argument…” From this we can say that option (A) is definitely incorrect, and cannot be inferred. You might wonder as to the evidence for option (B). But the author mentions “More”, who was the first author of a book on Utopia, and further mentions Tommaso who also wrote a book on Utopia. We have enough evidence in the passage that shows that in literature we have enough material that have dealt with the idea of Utopia. option (C) can be inferred from the last sentence of second paragraph, and option (D) can be inferred from last sentence of first paragraph.

    Unattempted
    

    The answer to this question can be found in the last paragraph. The author starts by saying that “utopia and dystopia evidently share more in common…. indeed, they might be twins…”. He further adds “Yet we should not mistake this argument…” From this we can say that option (A) is definitely incorrect, and cannot be inferred. You might wonder as to the evidence for option (B). But the author mentions “More”, who was the first author of a book on Utopia, and further mentions Tommaso who also wrote a book on Utopia. We have enough evidence in the passage that shows that in literature we have enough material that have dealt with the idea of Utopia. option (C) can be inferred from the last sentence of second paragraph, and option (D) can be inferred from last sentence of first paragraph.
52. Question 52 of 80

    52. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    We cannot travel outside our neighbourhood without passports. We must wear the same plainclothes. We must exchange our houses every ten years. We cannot avoid labour. We all go to bed at the same time . We have religious freedom, but we cannot deny that the soul dies with the body, since 'but for the fear of punishment, they would have nothing but contempt for the laws and customs of society'. In More's time, for much of the population, given the plenty and security on offer, such restraints would not have seemed overly unreasonable. For modern readers, however, Utopia appears to rely upon relentless transparency, the repression of variety, and the curtailment of privacy. Utopia provides security: but at what price' In both its external and internal relations, indeed, it seems perilously dystopian.
    Such a conclusion might be fortified by examining selectively the tradition which follows more on these points. This often portrays societies where. . .'it would be almost impossible for man to be depraved, or wicked'. This is achieved both through institutions and mores, which underpin the common life. The passions are regulated and inequalities of wealth and distinction are minimized. Needs, vanity, and emulation are restrained, often by prizing equality and holding riches in contempt. The desire for public power is curbed. Marriage and sexual intercourse are often controlled: in Tommaso Campanella's The City of the Sun (1623), the first great literary utopia after More's, relations are forbidden to men before the age of twenty-one and women before nineteen. Communal child-rearing is normal; for Campanella this commences at age two. Greater simplicity of life, 'living according to nature', is often a result: the desire for simplicity and purity are closely related. People become more alike in appearance, opinion, and outlook than they often have been. Unity, order, and homogeneity thus prevail at the cost of individuality and diversity. This model, as J. C. Davis demonstrates, dominated early modern utopianism. And utopian homogeneity remains a familiar theme well into the twentieth century.
    Given these considerations, it is not unreasonable to take as our starting point here the hypothesis that utopia and dystopia evidently share more in common than is often supposed. Indeed, they might be twins, the progeny of the same parents. Insofar as this proves to be the case, my linkage of both here will be uncomfortably close for some readers. Yet we should not mistake this argument for the assertion that all utopias are, or tend to produce, dystopias. Those who defend this proposition will find that their association here is not nearly close enough. For we have only to acknowledge the existence of thousands of successful intentional communities in which a cooperative ethos predominates and where harmony without coercion is the rule to set aside such an assertion. Here the individual's submersion in the group is consensual (though this concept is not unproblematic). It results not in enslavement but voluntary submission to group norms. Harmony is achieved without …harming others.
    Following from the passage, which one of the following may be seen as a characteristic of a utopian society?
    (A) The regulation of homogeneity through promoting competitive heterogeneity.
    (B) A society where public power is earned through merit rather than through privilege.
    (C) Institutional surveillance of every individual to ensure his/her security and welfare.
    (D) A society without any laws to restrain one's individuality.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    This is a very simple question. It can be easily answered. There is no mention of “competitive heterogeneity” in the passage. Thus (A) goes out. There is no mention of (B). (C) is true, as there is enough evidence for it in the first paragraph. (D) is the exact opposite of what utopian society wants. It wants homogeneity and uniformity, which would imply restraints on one's individuality.

    Unattempted
    

    This is a very simple question. It can be easily answered. There is no mention of “competitive heterogeneity” in the passage. Thus (A) goes out. There is no mention of (B). (C) is true, as there is enough evidence for it in the first paragraph. (D) is the exact opposite of what utopian society wants. It wants homogeneity and uniformity, which would imply restraints on one's individuality.
53. Question 53 of 80

    53. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    Ratatouille is a dish that has grown in popularity over the last few years. It features eggplant, zucchini, tomatoes, peppers, and garlic; chopped, mixed, sautéed, and finally, cooked slowly over low heat. As the vegetables cook slowly, they make their own broth, which may be extended with a little tomato paste. The name ratatouille comes from the French word touiller, meaning to stir or mix together.
    Ratatouille can best be described as a
    (A) French pastry.
    (B) sauce to put over vegetables.
    (C) pasta dish extended with tomato paste.
    (D) vegetable stew.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The main part of the passage describes how to cook vegetables. Only choice (D) indicates that vegetables are included in the dish. The other choices are not reflected in the passage.

    Unattempted
    

    The main part of the passage describes how to cook vegetables. Only choice (D) indicates that vegetables are included in the dish. The other choices are not reflected in the passage.
54. Question 54 of 80

    54. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    The competitive civil-service system is designed to give candidates fair and equal treatment and to ensure that federal applicants are hired based on objective criteria. Hiring has to be based solely on a candidate’s knowledge, skills, and abilities (which you’ll sometimes see abbreviated as ksa), and not on external factors such as race, religion, sex, and so on. Whereas employers in the private sector can hire employees for subjective reasons, federal employers must be able to justify their decision with objective evidence that the candi- date is qualified.
    The federal government’s practice of hiring on the basis of ksa frequently results in the hiring of employees
    (A) based on race, religion, sex, and so forth.
    (B) who are unqualified for the job.
    (C) who are qualified for the job.
    (D) on the basis of subjective judgment.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
55. Question 55 of 80

    55. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    An ecosystem is a group of animals and plants living in a specific region and interacting with one another and with their physical environment. Ecosystems include physical and chemical com- ponents, such as soils, water, and nutrients that support the organisms living there. These organisms may range from large animals to microscopic bacteria. Ecosystems also can be thought of as the interactions among all organisms in a given habitat; for instance, one species may serve as food for another. People are part of the ecosystems where they live and work. Human activities can harm or destroy local ecosystems unless actions such as land development for housing or businesses are carefully planned to conserve and sustain the ecology of the area. An important part of ecosystem management involves finding ways to protect and enhance economic and social well-being while protecting local ecosystems.
    What is the main idea of the passage?
    (A) An ecosystem is a community that includes animals, plants, and microscopic bacteria.
    (B) Human activities can do great damage to local ecosystems, so human communities should be cautiously planned.
    (C) In managing the ecology of an area, it is important to protect both human interests and the interests of other members of local ecosystems.
    (D) People should remember that they are a part of the ecosystems where they live and work.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Unattempted
    
56. Question 56 of 80

    56. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    An ecosystem is a group of animals and plants living in a specific region and interacting with one another and with their physical environment. Ecosystems include physical and chemical com- ponents, such as soils, water, and nutrients that support the organisms living there. These organisms may range from large animals to microscopic bacteria. Ecosystems also can be thought of as the interactions among all organisms in a given habitat; for instance, one species may serve as food for another. People are part of the ecosystems where they live and work. Human activities can harm or destroy local ecosystems unless actions such as land development for housing or businesses are carefully planned to conserve and sustain the ecology of the area. An important part of ecosystem management involves finding ways to protect and enhance economic and social well-being while protecting local ecosystems.
    Which of the following best sums up activities within an ecosystem?
    (A) predator-prey relationships
    (B) interactions among all members
    (C) human-animal interactions
    (D) human relationship with the environment

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The passage defines an ecosystem as a community within which all members interrelate. Choice (A) is only one example of an interaction. The other two choices are too limited to sum up ecosystem activities.

    Unattempted
    

    The passage defines an ecosystem as a community within which all members interrelate. Choice (A) is only one example of an interaction. The other two choices are too limited to sum up ecosystem activities.
57. Question 57 of 80

    57. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    An ecosystem is a group of animals and plants living in a specific region and interacting with one another and with their physical environment. Ecosystems include physical and chemical com- ponents, such as soils, water, and nutrients that support the organisms living there. These organisms may range from large animals to microscopic bacteria. Ecosystems also can be thought of as the interactions among all organisms in a given habitat; for instance, one species may serve as food for another. People are part of the ecosystems where they live and work. Human activities can harm or destroy local ecosystems unless actions such as land development for housing or businesses are carefully planned to conserve and sustain the ecology of the area. An important part of ecosystem management involves finding ways to protect and enhance economic and social well-being while protecting local ecosystems.
    An ecosystem can most accurately be defined as a :
    (A) geographical area.
    (B) community.
    (C) habitat.
    (D) protected environment.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    This is the only choice that reflects the idea of interaction among all members of the group spoken of in the first sentence. The other choices are only physical settings.

    Unattempted
    

    This is the only choice that reflects the idea of interaction among all members of the group spoken of in the first sentence. The other choices are only physical settings.
58. Question 58 of 80

    58. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    Daffodil bulbs require well-drained soil and a sunny planting location. They should be planted in holes that are 3–6 inches deep and there should be 2–4 inches between bulbs. The bulb should be placed in the hole, pointed side up, root side down. Once the bulb is planted, water the area thoroughly.
    According to the above passage, when planting daffodil bulbs, which of the following conditions is not necessary?
    (A) a sunny location
    (B) well-drained soil
    (C) proper placement of bulbs in soil
    (D) proper fertilization

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The passage mention nothing about fertilization.

    Unattempted
    

    The passage mention nothing about fertilization.
59. Question 59 of 80

    59. Question

    In a row of boys facing West, K is twelfth from the left end and fourth to the right of L. What is the position of L from the left ends of that row?
    (A) 8th
    (B) 9th
    (C) 7th
    (D) 4th

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    From the left ends the position of L is = 12th – 4th = 8th

    Unattempted
    

    From the left ends the position of L is = 12th – 4th = 8th
60. Question 60 of 80

    60. Question

    DIRECTIONS
    READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE ITEM. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS ITEM SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGES ONLY.
    It took us the horror of two world wars to realize and accept that peace and freedom in the true sense can be achieved only if we respect the inherent dignity of every individual and are committed to establishing social, political and economic orders that are fair and just for all. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights may not be legally binding on nations, but as part of the customary international law, it does affect the national conscience and subject moral pressure on countries to work towards securing rights and justice for their people.
    For a country like India whose commitment to this objective is amply visible in its Constitutional provisions, the actual attainment of the end is certainly not easy. To start with, probably no other country in the world has to reckon with as many potentially divisive, diverse forces as ours. There are differences of region, religion, sex, caste and language. There are differences in economic status and educational attainment. Then there are people with physical and age-related disabilities, those rendered homeless due to internal conflicts, natural disasters, industrialization and such other reasons, whose rights need to be protected. Economic development and rapid urbanization have contributed their own sets of vulnerable population groups – the migrants, the slum dwellers, the industrial labourers, and those affected by deterioration of environment. So, when India talks of securing human rights and social justice for all, she is not talking about a small, manageable, largely homogenous population. She is actually talking about securing the rights of more than a billion people, immensely heterogeneous in their diversity and often having interests that appear to be in direct conflict with those of another group.
    India’s report card in this area is typically that of a student who has made significant achievement, but still has a lot more ground to cover. So, while our women today are definitely on a steady path to empowerment, a lot many of our children are still deprived of even basic education, and are forced into employment. Our mechanisms and institutions for providing long term, sustainable care to the elderly and the disabled are still very sketchy. While the government is taking rapid strides in the area of ensuring inclusive growth, caste and region- based differences still exist in the common psyche. But whatever our weaknesses, we can take pride in the fact that our framework for securing human rights and establishing a just social order is a very strong one. The judiciary has proved this time and again. Organizations like the National Human Rights Commission, National Commission for Women, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights, the many NGOs working in these areas and also our central and state governments who have brought in relevant and meaningful legislations and are striving to implement the same, give us reason to be optimistic.
    What is the author’s opinion about economic development and rapid urbanization?
    (A) Economic development and rapid urbanization have brought problems and hence should be stopped.
    (B) Economic development and rapid urbanization have helped in establishing a just social order.
    (C) Economic development and rapid urbanization have brought its own set of problems and these problems must be addressed to establish a just social order.
    (D) Economic development and rapid urbanization is the only way to achieve a just social order.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In the second paragraph, it is clearly given that “Economic development and rapid urbanization have contributed their own sets of vulnerable population groups – the migrants, the slum dwellers, the industrial labourers, and those affected by deterioration of environment.” It clearly highlights that economic development and rapid urbanization have created new set of problems and vulnerable groups. In order to establish a just social order, these vulnerable groups should also be taken care of.

    Unattempted
    

    In the second paragraph, it is clearly given that “Economic development and rapid urbanization have contributed their own sets of vulnerable population groups – the migrants, the slum dwellers, the industrial labourers, and those affected by deterioration of environment.” It clearly highlights that economic development and rapid urbanization have created new set of problems and vulnerable groups. In order to establish a just social order, these vulnerable groups should also be taken care of.
61. Question 61 of 80

    61. Question

    Directions for the following item:
    Read the following Passage and answer the item that follow. Your answers to this item should be based on the passages only.
    These questions are based on the information given below.
    A family of eight persons has three married couples. Amelie is the grandmother of Charles and is the mother-in-law of Floyd. Helen is the daughter of Bob, who is the brother of George. Diana is the only child of George and is the mother of Charles. Emma is the wife of Bob.
    How is Helen related to Diana?
    (A) Sister
    (B) Daughter
    (C) Cousin
    (D) Mother

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to the given data :
    
    Helen is the cousin of Diana

    Unattempted
    

    According to the given data :
    
    Helen is the cousin of Diana
62. Question 62 of 80

    62. Question

    Directions for the following item:
    Read the following Passage and answer the item that follow. Your answers to this item should be based on the passages only.
    These questions are based on the information given below.
    A family of eight persons has three married couples. Amelie is the grandmother of Charles and is the mother-in-law of Floyd. Helen is the daughter of Bob, who is the brother of George. Diana is the only child of George and is the mother of Charles. Emma is the wife of Bob.
    Diana’s mother is
    (A) Emma
    (B) Amelie
    (C) Helen
    (D) Floyd

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to the given data :
    
    Amelie is Diana’s mother.

    Unattempted
    

    According to the given data :
    
    Amelie is Diana’s mother.
63. Question 63 of 80

    63. Question

    Find the missing term(s) in the given figure(s) :
    
    (A) 22
    (B) 20
    (C) 12
    (D) 15

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The given logic is,
    6+4 = 10
    10+4 = 14
    14+4 = 18
    18+4 = 22
    ∴ The missing number is 22

    Unattempted
    

    The given logic is,
    6+4 = 10
    10+4 = 14
    14+4 = 18
    18+4 = 22
    ∴ The missing number is 22
64. Question 64 of 80

    64. Question

    Directions for the following item: Consider the information given below and answer the item that follow.
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 are eight professors teaching in different departments of a university. They are seated around a rectangular table on chairs, such that each longer side of the table has four chairs each.
    Further, the following information is known:
    i. The professor of Mathematics is seated opposite to the professor of Biology.
    ii. 1 is seated opposite to the professor of Chemistry.
    iii. The professor of History is seated second to the left of the professor of Economics on the same side of the table. The professor of Economics sits opposite to 4.
    iv. Exactly one professor is seated between the professors of Biology and Literature on the same side of the table.
    v. The professor of Computer Science is seated third to the right of 8 on the same side of the table. 8 is seated opposite to the professor of Literature.
    vi. One professor belongs to the Department of Physics.
    If 7 is seated second to the right of 3, which of the following departments can 7 belong to?
    (A) Biology
    (B) Economics
    (C) History
    (D) Chemistry

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Using the information given in the question, we can draw the following two figures (representing two  possible scenarios).  
    Case 1:  
    
    Case 2:  
    
    

    Unattempted
    

    Using the information given in the question, we can draw the following two figures (representing two  possible scenarios).  
    Case 1:  
    
    Case 2:  
    
    
65. Question 65 of 80

    65. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTION THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    Although one of the most contested concepts in political philosophy, human nature is something on which most people seem to agree. By and large, according to Rutger Bregman in his new book Humankind, we have a rather pessimistic view – not of ourselves exactly, but of everyone else. We see other people as selfish, untrustworthy and dangerous and therefore we behave towards them with defensiveness and suspicion. This was how the 17th-century philosopher Thomas Hobbes conceived our natural state to be, believing that all that stood between us and violent anarchy was a strong state and firm leadership.
    But in following Hobbes, argues Bregman, we ensure that the negative view we have of human nature is reflected back at us. He instead puts his faith in Jean-Jacques Rousseau, the 18th-century French thinker, who famously declared that man was born free and it was civilisation – with its coercive powers, social classes and restrictive laws – that put him in chains.
    Hobbes and Rousseau are seen as the two poles of the human nature argument and it’s no surprise that Bregman strongly sides with the Frenchman. He takes Rousseau’s intuition and paints a picture of a prelapsarian idyll in which, for the better part of 300,000 years, Homo sapiens lived a fulfilling life in harmony with nature . . . Then we discovered agriculture and for the next 10,000 years it was all property, war, greed and injustice.
    It was abandoning our nomadic lifestyle and then domesticating animals, says Bregman, that brought about infectious diseases such as measles, smallpox, tuberculosis, syphilis, malaria, cholera and plague. This may be true, but what Bregman never really seems to get to grips with is that pathogens were not the only things that grew with agriculture – so did the number of humans. It’s one thing to maintain friendly relations and a property-less mode of living when you’re 30 or 40 hunter-gatherers following the food. But life becomes a great deal more complex and knowledge far more extensive when there are settlements of many thousands.
    “Civilisation has become synonymous with peace and progress and wilderness with war and decline,” writes Bregman. “In reality, for most of human existence, it was the other way around.” Whereas traditional history depicts the collapse of civilisations as “dark ages” in which everything gets worse, modern scholars, he claims, see them more as a reprieve, in which the enslaved gain their freedom and culture flourishes. Like much else in this book, the truth is probably somewhere between the two stated positions.
    In any case, the fear of civilisational collapse, Bregman believes, is unfounded. It’s the result of what the Dutch biologist Frans de Waal calls “veneer theory” – the idea that just below the surface, our bestial nature is waiting to break out. . . . There’s a great deal of reassuring human decency to be taken from this bold and thought-provoking book and a wealth of evidence in support of the contention that the sense of who we are as a species has been deleteriously distorted. But it seems equally misleading to offer the false choice of Rousseau and Hobbes when, clearly, humanity encompasses both.
    According to the passage, the “collapse of civilisations” is viewed by Bregman as:
    (A) a temporary phase which can be rectified by social action.
    (B) a time that enables changes in societies and cultures.
    (C) a sign of regression in society’s trajectory.
    (D) resulting from a breakdown in the veneer of human nature.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    This is a slightly tricky question, but the answer is implied in the second last para of the passage. There the author says “in traditional history, the collapse of civilization is seen as ‘dark ages’, but Bregman says it was the other way round in most of human experience. In other words, Bregman wants to say that “collapse of civilization means time of change”. The author goes on to say that the truth is somewhere in between. We have to answer for Bregman, not for the author. Thus B is the best choice.

    Unattempted
    

    This is a slightly tricky question, but the answer is implied in the second last para of the passage. There the author says “in traditional history, the collapse of civilization is seen as ‘dark ages’, but Bregman says it was the other way round in most of human experience. In other words, Bregman wants to say that “collapse of civilization means time of change”. The author goes on to say that the truth is somewhere in between. We have to answer for Bregman, not for the author. Thus B is the best choice.
66. Question 66 of 80

    66. Question

    Direction : Read the following passage and answer the question that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based on the passage only.
    Wild animals are always on the move. They move from place to place in search of food, mates, shelter, and water. Many animals do not have to move far in order to have all their needs met, but other animals—for example migratory birds, wolves, mountain lions, or butterflies—require much more space. Currently many species with large territories, including gray wolves, are threatened because habitat loss and fragmentation have limited their available space. Roads, fences, and buildings cut off habitat and force wildlife into smaller areas. Conservationists have to take into account the different spatial needs of wildlife when designing plans to protect them. They have to think about the territory size, different habitat types, and migration routes that wildlife need.
    A wildlife corridor is a tract of land that connects different wildlife habitats (such as refuges, parks, or rivers) that might otherwise be separated by human development. Wildlife corridors provide many benefits to wildlife. With corridors, animals have a better opportunity of finding the basic necessities they need—food, water, shelter, and places to raise their young. Animals that require larger territories can access new habitats and maintain a healthy territory size. Wildlife corridors also promote genetic biodiversity. When more individuals of a species are interconnected, the gene pool becomes larger and more viable. Migratory wildlife benefit from corridors because they can move safely over long distances without having to come into contact with human developments or cars. Species are more likely to survive disturbances by having more undisturbed areas.
    Which of the following is a suitable title for aforementioned passage?
    (A) A Comparison of the Migratory Patterns of Mirgratory Birds and Animals.
    (B) The Impact of Human Development on Wildlife Habitat.
    (C) Different Methods of Wildlife Conservation.
    (D) The Role of Migration Corridors in Wildlife Conservation.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The author explains the problems faced by migratory creatures and highlights several advantages of having migration corridors.

    Unattempted
    

    The author explains the problems faced by migratory creatures and highlights several advantages of having migration corridors.
67. Question 67 of 80

    67. Question

    Direction : Read the following passage and answer the question that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based on the passage only.
    Soil is the earth’s fragile skin that anchors all life on Earth. It is comprised of countless species that create a dynamic and complex ecosystem and is among the most precious resources to humans. Increased demand for agriculture commodities generates incentives to convert forests and grasslands to farm fields and pastures. The transition to agriculture from natural vegetation often cannot hold onto the soil and many of these plants, such as coffee, cotton, palm oil, soybean and wheat, can actually increase soil erosion beyond the soil’s ability to maintain itself.
    Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage above?
    I. The soil on Earth cannot withstand excessive exploitation.
    II. Soil erosion is directly proportional to crop diversity.
    (A) Only I
    (B) Only II
    (C) Both I & II
    (D) Neither I nor II

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The author uses the term ‘fragile’ to describe soil and states that ‘many of these plants, such as coffee, cotton, palm oil, soybean and wheat, can actually increase soil erosion beyond the soil’s ability to maintain itself’.

    Unattempted
    

    The author uses the term ‘fragile’ to describe soil and states that ‘many of these plants, such as coffee, cotton, palm oil, soybean and wheat, can actually increase soil erosion beyond the soil’s ability to maintain itself’.
68. Question 68 of 80

    68. Question

    DIRECTION : READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTION THAT FOLLOW. YOUR ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION SHOULD BE BASED ON THE PASSAGE ONLY.
    Although one of the most contested concepts in political philosophy, human nature is something on which most people seem to agree. By and large, according to Rutger Bregman in his new book Humankind, we have a rather pessimistic view – not of ourselves exactly, but of everyone else. We see other people as selfish, untrustworthy and dangerous and therefore we behave towards them with defensiveness and suspicion. This was how the 17th-century philosopher Thomas Hobbes conceived our natural state to be, believing that all that stood between us and violent anarchy was a strong state and firm leadership.
    But in following Hobbes, argues Bregman, we ensure that the negative view we have of human nature is reflected back at us. He instead puts his faith in Jean-Jacques Rousseau, the 18th-century French thinker, who famously declared that man was born free and it was civilisation – with its coercive powers, social classes and restrictive laws – that put him in chains.
    Hobbes and Rousseau are seen as the two poles of the human nature argument and it’s no surprise that Bregman strongly sides with the Frenchman. He takes Rousseau’s intuition and paints a picture of a prelapsarian idyll in which, for the better part of 300,000 years, Homo sapiens lived a fulfilling life in harmony with nature . . . Then we discovered agriculture and for the next 10,000 years it was all property, war, greed and injustice.
    It was abandoning our nomadic lifestyle and then domesticating animals, says Bregman, that brought about infectious diseases such as measles, smallpox, tuberculosis, syphilis, malaria, cholera and plague. This may be true, but what Bregman never really seems to get to grips with is that pathogens were not the only things that grew with agriculture – so did the number of humans. It’s one thing to maintain friendly relations and a property-less mode of living when you’re 30 or 40 hunter-gatherers following the food. But life becomes a great deal more complex and knowledge far more extensive when there are settlements of many thousands.
    “Civilisation has become synonymous with peace and progress and wilderness with war and decline,” writes Bregman. “In reality, for most of human existence, it was the other way around.” Whereas traditional history depicts the collapse of civilisations as “dark ages” in which everything gets worse, modern scholars, he claims, see them more as a reprieve, in which the enslaved gain their freedom and culture flourishes. Like much else in this book, the truth is probably somewhere between the two stated positions.
    In any case, the fear of civilisational collapse, Bregman believes, is unfounded. It’s the result of what the Dutch biologist Frans de Waal calls “veneer theory” – the idea that just below the surface, our bestial nature is waiting to break out. . . . There’s a great deal of reassuring human decency to be taken from this bold and thought-provoking book and a wealth of evidence in support of the contention that the sense of who we are as a species has been deleteriously distorted. But it seems equally misleading to offer the false choice of Rousseau and Hobbes when, clearly, humanity encompasses both.
    None of the following views is expressed in the passage EXCEPT that:
    (A) Hobbes and Rousseau disagreed on the fundamental nature of humans, but both believed in the need for a strong state.
    (B) Bregman agrees with Hobbes that firm leadership is needed to ensure property rights and regulate strife.
    (C) the author of the review believes in the veneer theory of human nature.
    (D) most people agree with Hobbes’ pessimistic view of human nature as being intrinsically untrustworthy and selfish.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    This question asks us to pick the option that finds mention in the passage. We have to simply look for the choices in the passage. Choice A goes out because nowhere is it given that both Hobbes and Rousseau believed in the need for a strong state. Option B goes out because Bregman does not agree with Hobbes; he instead sides with Rousseau. At the end of the passage, the author makes it very clear that the veneer theory is attributed to the Dutch biologist. Towards the end he says that human nature encompasses both Hobbes and Rousseau. Thus C also goes out. We are left with D as the only plausible choice, and we have enough evidence for it in the first paragraph, where the author says “we see other people as selfish…this was how Hobbes conceived our natural state to be…”. By using the pronoun ‘we’, the author suggests that Hobbes views reflect the views of most people.

    Unattempted
    

    This question asks us to pick the option that finds mention in the passage. We have to simply look for the choices in the passage. Choice A goes out because nowhere is it given that both Hobbes and Rousseau believed in the need for a strong state. Option B goes out because Bregman does not agree with Hobbes; he instead sides with Rousseau. At the end of the passage, the author makes it very clear that the veneer theory is attributed to the Dutch biologist. Towards the end he says that human nature encompasses both Hobbes and Rousseau. Thus C also goes out. We are left with D as the only plausible choice, and we have enough evidence for it in the first paragraph, where the author says “we see other people as selfish…this was how Hobbes conceived our natural state to be…”. By using the pronoun ‘we’, the author suggests that Hobbes views reflect the views of most people.
69. Question 69 of 80

    69. Question

    In a row of boys there are 50 boys and all of them are facing North, Sahaj is 19th from the left end and fourth to the right of Mahak, what is the position of Mahak from the right ends of that row?
    (A) 28th
    (B) 36th
    (C) 37th
    (D) 25th

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    From the left ends the position of Mahak is = 19th – 4th = 15th
    Hence, the position of Mahak from the right end is
    = Number of Boys – position of Mahak from the left ends + 1
    = 50 – 15 + 1 = 36th

    Unattempted
    

    From the left ends the position of Mahak is = 19th – 4th = 15th
    Hence, the position of Mahak from the right end is
    = Number of Boys – position of Mahak from the left ends + 1
    = 50 – 15 + 1 = 36th
70. Question 70 of 80

    70. Question

    In how many ways can a committee of 4 people be chosen out of 8 people?
    (A) 32
    (B) 52
    (C) 70
    (D) 79

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Required number of ways
    = 8C4 = (8×7×6×5/4×3×2×1) = 70.

    Unattempted
    

    Required number of ways
    = 8C4 = (8×7×6×5/4×3×2×1) = 70.
71. Question 71 of 80

    71. Question

    In how many ways, a committee of 6 members be selected from 7 men and 5 ladies, consisting of 4 men and 2 ladies?
    (A) 250
    (B) 350
    (C) 450
    (D) 550

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    We have to select (4 men out of 7) and (2 ladies out of 5).
    ∴ Required number of ways = 7C4 × 5C2 = 7C3 × 5C2
    = (7×6×5/3×2×1)×5×4/2×1) = 350.

    Unattempted
    

    We have to select (4 men out of 7) and (2 ladies out of 5).
    ∴ Required number of ways = 7C4 × 5C2 = 7C3 × 5C2
    = (7×6×5/3×2×1)×5×4/2×1) = 350.
72. Question 72 of 80

    72. Question

    A committee of 5 members is to be formed by selecting out 4 men and 5 women. In how many different ways the committee can be formed if it should have 2 men and 3 women?
    (A) 30
    (B) 60
    (C) 70
    (D) 80

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Required number of ways
    = (4C2 × 5C3) = (4C2 × 5C2)
    = (4×3/2×1 × 5×4/2×1) = 60.

    Unattempted
    

    Required number of ways
    = (4C2 × 5C3) = (4C2 × 5C2)
    = (4×3/2×1 × 5×4/2×1) = 60.
73. Question 73 of 80

    73. Question

    My watch gains 5 minutes, in every hour. How many degrees the second hand moves in every minute?
    (A) 375°
    (B) 380°
    (C) 385°
    (D) 390°

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Since minute hand gains 5 minutes in every 60 minutes.
    Second hand gains 5 seconds in every 60 seconds
    In every 60 seconds true time, it moves 65 seconds or 65 x 6° = 390°

    Unattempted
    

    Since minute hand gains 5 minutes in every 60 minutes.
    Second hand gains 5 seconds in every 60 seconds
    In every 60 seconds true time, it moves 65 seconds or 65 x 6° = 390°
74. Question 74 of 80

    74. Question

    The wrong number in the series
    2, 9, 28, 65, 126, 216, 344 is
    (A) 65
    (B) 216
    (C) 9
    (D) None of these

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The pattern is :13 + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2
    23 + 1 = 8 + 1 = 9
    33 + 1 = 27 + 1 = 28
    43 + 1 = 64 + 1 = 65
    53 + 1 = 125 + 1 = 126
    63 + 1 = 216 + 1 = 217 is not equal to 216.

    Unattempted
    

    The pattern is :13 + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2
    23 + 1 = 8 + 1 = 9
    33 + 1 = 27 + 1 = 28
    43 + 1 = 64 + 1 = 65
    53 + 1 = 125 + 1 = 126
    63 + 1 = 216 + 1 = 217 is not equal to 216.
75. Question 75 of 80

    75. Question

    What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the series?
    3, 8, 27, 112, (?), 3396
    (A) 565
    (B) 452
    (C) 560
    (D) 678

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The pattern is :
    3 × 2 + 2 = 6 + 2 = 8
    8 × 3 + 3 = 24 + 3 = 27
    27 × 4 + 4 = 108 + 4 = 112
    112 × 5 + 5 = 560 + 5 = 565

    Unattempted
    

    The pattern is :
    3 × 2 + 2 = 6 + 2 = 8
    8 × 3 + 3 = 24 + 3 = 27
    27 × 4 + 4 = 108 + 4 = 112
    112 × 5 + 5 = 560 + 5 = 565
76. Question 76 of 80

    76. Question

    The next number of the sequence
    3, 5, 9, 17, 33, …. is
    (A) 65
    (B) 60
    (C) 50
    (D) 49

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The pattern is :
    3 + 2 = 5
    5 + 2 × 2 = 5 + 4 = 9
    9 + 2 × 4 = 9 + 8 = 17
    17 + 2 × 8 = 17 + 16 = 33
    33 + 2 × 16 = 33 + 32 = 65

    Unattempted
    

    The pattern is :
    3 + 2 = 5
    5 + 2 × 2 = 5 + 4 = 9
    9 + 2 × 4 = 9 + 8 = 17
    17 + 2 × 8 = 17 + 16 = 33
    33 + 2 × 16 = 33 + 32 = 65
77. Question 77 of 80

    77. Question

    Find the wrong number in the following number series.
    3 7 16 35 70 153
    (A) 70
    (B) 16
    (C) 153
    (D) 35

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The pattern is :
    3 × 2 + 1 = 6 + 1 = 7
    7 × 2 + 2 = 14 + 2 = 16
    16 × 2 + 3 = 32 + 3 = 35
    35 × 2 + 4 = 70 + 4 = 74 is not equal to 70
    74 × 2 + 5 = 148 + 5 = 153

    Unattempted
    

    The pattern is :
    3 × 2 + 1 = 6 + 1 = 7
    7 × 2 + 2 = 14 + 2 = 16
    16 × 2 + 3 = 32 + 3 = 35
    35 × 2 + 4 = 70 + 4 = 74 is not equal to 70
    74 × 2 + 5 = 148 + 5 = 153
78. Question 78 of 80

    78. Question

    A blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D and E, each having a different weight. A weigh twice as much as B. B weighs four and a half times as much as C. C weighs half as much as D. D weighs half as much as E. E weighs less than A but more than C. Which of the followings is the lightest in weight?
    (A) A
    (B) B
    (C) E
    (D) C

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Let the weight of C be x.
    Then,
    B weighs four and a half times as much as C: So, Weight of B = 4.5x
    A weigh twice as much as B: Weight of A = 9x
    C weighs half as much as D: Weight of D = 2x.
    D weighs half as much as E: Weight of E = 4x.
    So, the order of the weights is A > B > E > D > C.

    Unattempted
    

    Let the weight of C be x.
    Then,
    B weighs four and a half times as much as C: So, Weight of B = 4.5x
    A weigh twice as much as B: Weight of A = 9x
    C weighs half as much as D: Weight of D = 2x.
    D weighs half as much as E: Weight of E = 4x.
    So, the order of the weights is A > B > E > D > C.
79. Question 79 of 80

    79. Question

    A potter sold one third of his pots at Rs. 10 each, one fourth of them at Rs. 12 each, one fifth of them at Rs.14 each and rest of them at Rs. 8 each. If he sold a total of 300 pots, then what must be the total amount he received?
    (A) Rs. 3,090
    (B) Rs. 3,160
    (C) Rs. 3,190
    (D) Rs. 3,260

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The fraction of pots sold at Rs. 8 = 1 – (1/3 + 1⁄4 + 1/5) = 1 – 47/60 = 13/60th of the total number of pots sold
    Total amount received = (1/3×300)×10 + (1/4×300)×12 + (1/5×300)×14 + [(13/60)×300]×8
    = 1000+900+840+520 = Rs. 3,260

    Unattempted
    

    The fraction of pots sold at Rs. 8 = 1 – (1/3 + 1⁄4 + 1/5) = 1 – 47/60 = 13/60th of the total number of pots sold
    Total amount received = (1/3×300)×10 + (1/4×300)×12 + (1/5×300)×14 + [(13/60)×300]×8
    = 1000+900+840+520 = Rs. 3,260
80. Question 80 of 80

    80. Question

    The average expenditure of Sharma for the January to June is Rs. 4200 and he spent Rs. 1200 in January and Rs.1500 in July. The average expenditure for the months of February to July is:
    (A) 4450
    (B) 4250
    (C) 4850
    (D) 5650

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Total Expenditure (Jan – June) = 4200 * 6 = 25200
    Total Expenditure (Feb – June) = 25200 – 1200 = 24000
    Total Expenditure (Feb – July) = 24000 + 1500 = 25500/6 = 4250

    Unattempted
    

    Total Expenditure (Jan – June) = 4200 * 6 = 25200
    Total Expenditure (Feb – June) = 25200 – 1200 = 24000
    Total Expenditure (Feb – July) = 24000 + 1500 = 25500/6 = 4250

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