Thematic (10) 2024 – SC & TECH
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Review
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
With reference to the “Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) ” consider the following Statements :
(1) It aims to control the proliferation of nuclear weapons by curbing the export of nuclear weapons development materials and related technology.
(2) India has been a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group since 2007.
(3) It is a voluntary, non-legally binding association of major countries that trade in nuclear material.
(4) It is a formal organization, and its guidelines are binding.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Nuclear Suppliers Group is a transnational body composed of nuclear supplier countries that aim to control the proliferation of nuclear weapons by curbing the export of nuclear weapons development materials and related technology. It seeks to improve the existing safeguards on existing nuclear materials.The group had its first meeting in November 1975. A series of meetings held in London produced agreements on export guidelines. Although initially there were only 7 countries as members. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group. The NSG guidelines require that importing states provide assurances to NSG members that proposed deals will not contribute to the creation of nuclear weapons. Certain eligibility needs to be fulfilled for a country to become a member of the NSG.The use of nuclear fuel available for peaceful nuclear activities that are subject to International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards, as well as for other industrial activities where they would not contribute to nuclear proliferation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The NSG is a voluntary group of 48 countries that includes the major nuclear supplier states. India is not a member of this group. – The NSG operates on the basis of consensus among its members and has no legal authority to enforce its guidelines. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Though the NSG is a formal organization, its guidelines are not legally binding. They are voluntary measures that member countries have agreed to follow. – The guidelines lay down the criteria for nuclear exports and are aimed at ensuring that peaceful nuclear cooperation does not contribute to the proliferation of nuclear weapons. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Unattempted
Nuclear Suppliers Group is a transnational body composed of nuclear supplier countries that aim to control the proliferation of nuclear weapons by curbing the export of nuclear weapons development materials and related technology. It seeks to improve the existing safeguards on existing nuclear materials.The group had its first meeting in November 1975. A series of meetings held in London produced agreements on export guidelines. Although initially there were only 7 countries as members. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group. The NSG guidelines require that importing states provide assurances to NSG members that proposed deals will not contribute to the creation of nuclear weapons. Certain eligibility needs to be fulfilled for a country to become a member of the NSG.The use of nuclear fuel available for peaceful nuclear activities that are subject to International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards, as well as for other industrial activities where they would not contribute to nuclear proliferation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The NSG is a voluntary group of 48 countries that includes the major nuclear supplier states. India is not a member of this group. – The NSG operates on the basis of consensus among its members and has no legal authority to enforce its guidelines. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Though the NSG is a formal organization, its guidelines are not legally binding. They are voluntary measures that member countries have agreed to follow. – The guidelines lay down the criteria for nuclear exports and are aimed at ensuring that peaceful nuclear cooperation does not contribute to the proliferation of nuclear weapons. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
Which of the following best describes Yellow biotechnology?
(A) it refers to the use of biotechnology in food production.
(B) it is dedicated to environmental applications and maintenance of biodiversity.
(C) it is the color associated with bioterrorism or biological weapons.
(D) it is related to law, ethical and philosophical issues around biotechnology.
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Correct
Incorrect
Yellow biotechnology refers to the use of biotechnology in food production (food industry), for example in making wine (winemaking), cheese (cheesemaking), and beer (brewing) by fermentation. It has also been used to refer to biotechnology applied to insects. This includes biotechnology-based approaches for the control of harmful insects, the characterisation and utilisation of active ingredients or genes of insects for research, or application in agriculture and medicine and various other approaches.
Gray biotechnology is dedicated to environmental applications, and focused on the maintenance of biodiversity and the remotion of pollutants. Violet biotechnology is related to law, ethical and philosophical issues around biotechnology.
Dark biotechnology is the color associated with bioterrorism or biological weapons and biowarfare which uses microorganisms, and toxins to cause diseases and death in humans, livestock and crops.
Unattempted
Yellow biotechnology refers to the use of biotechnology in food production (food industry), for example in making wine (winemaking), cheese (cheesemaking), and beer (brewing) by fermentation. It has also been used to refer to biotechnology applied to insects. This includes biotechnology-based approaches for the control of harmful insects, the characterisation and utilisation of active ingredients or genes of insects for research, or application in agriculture and medicine and various other approaches.
Gray biotechnology is dedicated to environmental applications, and focused on the maintenance of biodiversity and the remotion of pollutants. Violet biotechnology is related to law, ethical and philosophical issues around biotechnology.
Dark biotechnology is the color associated with bioterrorism or biological weapons and biowarfare which uses microorganisms, and toxins to cause diseases and death in humans, livestock and crops.
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
For which of the following reasons should India join NSG and it will be beneficial for India?
(1) Provide the country with access to foreign- sourced nuclear material and equipment.
(2) Increasing the business of these nuclear materials will enable India to make better versions of nuclear breeders and export them to smaller countries.
(3) May get an opportunity to initiate talks about the plutonium trade for its thorium program and gain massive domestic profits.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
The NSG controls the global exports of nuclear technology and material to ensure that atomic energy is used only for peaceful purposes.
Given below are the reasons how joining NSG will be beneficial for India:
It will provide the country with access to foreign-sourced nuclear material and equipment, reducing the risk faced by foreign nuclear industries in doing business with India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Increasing the business of these nuclear materials will enable India to make better versions of nuclear breeders and export them to smaller countries, thereby increasing the economic growth of the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Make In India program will also see a boost if India becomes a member of NSG because nuclear power production would increase.
It will also give India an opportunity to initiate talks about the plutonium trade for its thorium program and gain massive domestic profits. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
India aims to minimize the use of fossil fuels by 40 percent and use more natural and renewable resources of energy. This is possible if India gets access to nuclear raw materials and increases nuclear power generation.
Unattempted
The NSG controls the global exports of nuclear technology and material to ensure that atomic energy is used only for peaceful purposes.
Given below are the reasons how joining NSG will be beneficial for India:
It will provide the country with access to foreign-sourced nuclear material and equipment, reducing the risk faced by foreign nuclear industries in doing business with India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Increasing the business of these nuclear materials will enable India to make better versions of nuclear breeders and export them to smaller countries, thereby increasing the economic growth of the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Make In India program will also see a boost if India becomes a member of NSG because nuclear power production would increase.
It will also give India an opportunity to initiate talks about the plutonium trade for its thorium program and gain massive domestic profits. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
India aims to minimize the use of fossil fuels by 40 percent and use more natural and renewable resources of energy. This is possible if India gets access to nuclear raw materials and increases nuclear power generation.
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
Match List I to List II :
List-I (Name of acids/bases) — List-II (found in)
A. Formic acid — 1.Ant’s Sting
B. Calcium hydroxide — 2.Lime water
C. Tartaric acid — 3.Soap
D. Sodium hydroxide — 4.Tamarind and grape fruit
How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
These substances taste sour because they contain acids, whereas the substances which are bitter in taste and feel soapy on touch are known as bases.
(1) Acetic acid — Vinegar
(2) Formic acid — Ant’s sting. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
(3) Citric acid — Citrus fruits such as oranges, lemons, etc.
(4) Lactic acid — Curd
(5) Oxalic acid — Spinach
(6) Ascorbic acid — Amla, Citrus fruits (Vitamin C)
(7) Tartaric acid — Tamarind, grapes, unripe mangoes, etc.
Limewater is a saturated aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide. Calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2, is sparsely soluble at room temperature in water (1.5 g/L at 25 °C). Hence, pair 2 is correct.
Tartaric acid is not typically found in soap as a common ingredient. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is not naturally found in tamarind or grapefruit. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.
Unattempted
These substances taste sour because they contain acids, whereas the substances which are bitter in taste and feel soapy on touch are known as bases.
(1) Acetic acid — Vinegar
(2) Formic acid — Ant’s sting. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
(3) Citric acid — Citrus fruits such as oranges, lemons, etc.
(4) Lactic acid — Curd
(5) Oxalic acid — Spinach
(6) Ascorbic acid — Amla, Citrus fruits (Vitamin C)
(7) Tartaric acid — Tamarind, grapes, unripe mangoes, etc.
Limewater is a saturated aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide. Calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2, is sparsely soluble at room temperature in water (1.5 g/L at 25 °C). Hence, pair 2 is correct.
Tartaric acid is not typically found in soap as a common ingredient. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is not naturally found in tamarind or grapefruit. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
With reference to the Cruise and Ballistic Missile, consider the following statements :
(1) The ballistic missile is targeted as a projectile from a single launch force with not much-added guidance but Cruise missiles generally consist of a guidance system.
(2) Ballistic missiles are much harder to intercept than cruise missiles, due to the much shorter time available.
(3) Ballistic missiles that fly above the atmosphere have a much longer range than would be possible for cruise missiles of the same size.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Cruise missiles generally consist of a guidance system, payload, and aircraft propulsion system, housed in an airframe with small wings and empennage for flight control. Cruise missiles are characterized by having different forms of guidance whether inertial or beyond visual range satellite GPS guidance. The ballistic missile is targeted as a projectile from a single launch force with not much-added guidance. It is launched directly into the high layers of the earth’s atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: Ballistic Missiles depend on gravity to reach its target. With terminal speeds of over 5,000 m/s, ballistic missiles are much harder to intercept than cruise missiles, due to the much shorter time available. Ballistic missiles are some of the most feared weapons available, despite the fact that cruise missiles are cheaper, more mobile, and more versatile. Cruise missiles can be categorized by size, speed (subsonic or supersonic), and range, and whether launched from land, air, surface ship, or submarine.
Statement 3 is correct: Ballistic missiles that fly above the atmosphere have a much longer range than would be possible for cruise missiles of the same size. Ballistic missiles can travel extremely quickly along their flight path. Cruise Missiles are known specifically for the low-level flight which is staying relatively close to the surface of the earth to avoid detection from anti- missile systems and are designed to carry large payloads with high precision. The key is that the missile is guided entirely to the target under its own power.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Cruise missiles generally consist of a guidance system, payload, and aircraft propulsion system, housed in an airframe with small wings and empennage for flight control. Cruise missiles are characterized by having different forms of guidance whether inertial or beyond visual range satellite GPS guidance. The ballistic missile is targeted as a projectile from a single launch force with not much-added guidance. It is launched directly into the high layers of the earth’s atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: Ballistic Missiles depend on gravity to reach its target. With terminal speeds of over 5,000 m/s, ballistic missiles are much harder to intercept than cruise missiles, due to the much shorter time available. Ballistic missiles are some of the most feared weapons available, despite the fact that cruise missiles are cheaper, more mobile, and more versatile. Cruise missiles can be categorized by size, speed (subsonic or supersonic), and range, and whether launched from land, air, surface ship, or submarine.
Statement 3 is correct: Ballistic missiles that fly above the atmosphere have a much longer range than would be possible for cruise missiles of the same size. Ballistic missiles can travel extremely quickly along their flight path. Cruise Missiles are known specifically for the low-level flight which is staying relatively close to the surface of the earth to avoid detection from anti- missile systems and are designed to carry large payloads with high precision. The key is that the missile is guided entirely to the target under its own power.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Agni-V missile:
(1) The Agni-VI is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with a range of less than 5,000 km.
(2) Agni-VI is being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
(3) It will be capable of being launched only from submarines.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Agni-VI is an intercontinental ballistic missile reported to be in the early stages of development by India and is being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation. It will have a strike range of 11000 km – 12000 km with MIRVed warheads. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct..
It will be capable of being launched from submarines as well as from land. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Unattempted
Agni-VI is an intercontinental ballistic missile reported to be in the early stages of development by India and is being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation. It will have a strike range of 11000 km – 12000 km with MIRVed warheads. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct..
It will be capable of being launched from submarines as well as from land. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
Consider the following statements with regard to the Neutrinos :
(1) A Neutrino is a subatomic particle with no electrical charge and a very small mass, which might even be zero.
(2) A neutrino’s spin always points in the same direction of its motion.
(3) The neutrino is a tiny elementary particle which is not part of the atom.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
A Neutrino is a subatomic particle that is very similar to an electron, but has no electrical charge and a very small mass, which might even be zero. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Detected for the first time in 1959, neutrinos are the second most abundant particles in the universe, after photons, or the light particle.
They have very little interaction with matter, however, they are incredibly difficult to detect.
Neutrinos are mysterious particles, produced copiously in nuclear reactions in the Sun, stars, and elsewhere.
Nuclear forces treat electrons and neutrinos identically; neither participate in the strong nuclear force, but both participate equally in the weak nuclear force.
Particles with this property are termed leptons. In addition to the electron (and its antiparticle, the positron), the charged leptons include the muon (with a mass 200 times greater than that of the electron), the tau (with mass 3,500 times greater than that of the electron) and their anti-particles.
They also “oscillate”– meaning that different types of neutrinos change into one another. Probing of oscillations of neutrinos and their relations with mass are crucial in studying the origin of the universe.
Neutrinos are created by various radioactive decays; during a supernova, by cosmic rays striking atoms etc.
Features of neutrinos :
Neutrinos interact very weakly with everything else – trillions of them pass through every human being every second without anyone noticing. A neutrino’s spin always points in the opposite direction of its motion. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It is now generally believed that the phenomenonof neutrino oscillations requires neutrinos to have tiny masses.
The neutrino is also a tiny elementary particle, but it is not part of the atom. Such particles are also found to exist in nature. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
A Neutrino is a subatomic particle that is very similar to an electron, but has no electrical charge and a very small mass, which might even be zero. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Detected for the first time in 1959, neutrinos are the second most abundant particles in the universe, after photons, or the light particle.
They have very little interaction with matter, however, they are incredibly difficult to detect.
Neutrinos are mysterious particles, produced copiously in nuclear reactions in the Sun, stars, and elsewhere.
Nuclear forces treat electrons and neutrinos identically; neither participate in the strong nuclear force, but both participate equally in the weak nuclear force.
Particles with this property are termed leptons. In addition to the electron (and its antiparticle, the positron), the charged leptons include the muon (with a mass 200 times greater than that of the electron), the tau (with mass 3,500 times greater than that of the electron) and their anti-particles.
They also “oscillate”– meaning that different types of neutrinos change into one another. Probing of oscillations of neutrinos and their relations with mass are crucial in studying the origin of the universe.
Neutrinos are created by various radioactive decays; during a supernova, by cosmic rays striking atoms etc.
Features of neutrinos :
Neutrinos interact very weakly with everything else – trillions of them pass through every human being every second without anyone noticing. A neutrino’s spin always points in the opposite direction of its motion. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It is now generally believed that the phenomenonof neutrino oscillations requires neutrinos to have tiny masses.
The neutrino is also a tiny elementary particle, but it is not part of the atom. Such particles are also found to exist in nature. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
With reference to Stars, consider the following statements:
(1) Gyrochronology can be used to determine age of star.
(2) As the star ages, its rotation slows down due to loss of angular momentum.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: One of the methods used for estimating the age of more distant stars similar in mass and age to the Sun is called gyrochronology as using radioactive dating of very old meteorites that have fallen on the Earth are not possible. By showing that the rotation period of a star is a steadily changing and tight function of its age and color, gyrochronology allows the age to be determined by measuring the two other properties – the rotation period and the color.
Statement 2 is correct: There is a relationship between rotation rate and age, that is the rotation rate of a star slows down with age. When stellar wind escapes from star, it carries away a part of angular momentum of the star-results in its slowing down.
The stellar wind has two drivers: one is high temperature of outer atmosphere of stars – the corona – which results in an outward expansion and hence plasma winds that emanate out. The other is magnetic field- heats the corona and so when magnetic activity is strong the winds are strong and since wind carries away the internal (rotational) angular momentum of the star, it slows down its rotation”. This is called magnetic braking. As the star ages, due to this mechanism, its rotation slows down and this relationship is used in gyrochronology to estimate the age of the star.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: One of the methods used for estimating the age of more distant stars similar in mass and age to the Sun is called gyrochronology as using radioactive dating of very old meteorites that have fallen on the Earth are not possible. By showing that the rotation period of a star is a steadily changing and tight function of its age and color, gyrochronology allows the age to be determined by measuring the two other properties – the rotation period and the color.
Statement 2 is correct: There is a relationship between rotation rate and age, that is the rotation rate of a star slows down with age. When stellar wind escapes from star, it carries away a part of angular momentum of the star-results in its slowing down.
The stellar wind has two drivers: one is high temperature of outer atmosphere of stars – the corona – which results in an outward expansion and hence plasma winds that emanate out. The other is magnetic field- heats the corona and so when magnetic activity is strong the winds are strong and since wind carries away the internal (rotational) angular momentum of the star, it slows down its rotation”. This is called magnetic braking. As the star ages, due to this mechanism, its rotation slows down and this relationship is used in gyrochronology to estimate the age of the star.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
The terms red dwarfs, red giants, supergiants, white, and brown dwarf are associated with
(A) Stars
(B) Planets
(C) Satellites of Saturn
(D) Type of light waves
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Correct
Incorrect
There are lots of different types of stars, from brown dwarfs to white supergiants that can be categorized according to their mass and temperature on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram.
Red dwarfs are small stars with temperatures cooler than that of the sun. They are the most common stars in our galaxy and are less than half of the mass of the sun. They burn slowly and so live for a long time relative to other star types.
Red giants are cooler than the sun, so they have a red-orange tinge to the visible light they emit. Living up to their names, the largest red giants may be over 100 times the size of the sun. Red giants are stars near the end of their life.
Supergiants are high mass stars near the end of their life. When a supergiant dies, it explodes as a supernova then shrinks to become a black hole.
There is a group of very faint but hot stars in the bottom left of the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram. These are called white dwarfs and are so faint that none is visible to the naked eye. They are very small and dense, formed when a main sequence star reaches the end of its life. White dwarf stars gradually cool over time until they no longer emit light.
The smallest, dimmest, and coolest stars are brown dwarfs. They are also known as failed stars and are very difficult to detect, as they do not have sufficient mass for nuclear fusion to occur.
The main variables in star formation are mass and temperature, it is these which produce the wide variety of stars .
Unattempted
There are lots of different types of stars, from brown dwarfs to white supergiants that can be categorized according to their mass and temperature on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram.
Red dwarfs are small stars with temperatures cooler than that of the sun. They are the most common stars in our galaxy and are less than half of the mass of the sun. They burn slowly and so live for a long time relative to other star types.
Red giants are cooler than the sun, so they have a red-orange tinge to the visible light they emit. Living up to their names, the largest red giants may be over 100 times the size of the sun. Red giants are stars near the end of their life.
Supergiants are high mass stars near the end of their life. When a supergiant dies, it explodes as a supernova then shrinks to become a black hole.
There is a group of very faint but hot stars in the bottom left of the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram. These are called white dwarfs and are so faint that none is visible to the naked eye. They are very small and dense, formed when a main sequence star reaches the end of its life. White dwarf stars gradually cool over time until they no longer emit light.
The smallest, dimmest, and coolest stars are brown dwarfs. They are also known as failed stars and are very difficult to detect, as they do not have sufficient mass for nuclear fusion to occur.
The main variables in star formation are mass and temperature, it is these which produce the wide variety of stars .
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
Which of the following is/are uses of Teflon?
(1) Nonstick coating on pans and other cooking wares
(2) Lubricant in machines
(3) Graft material in surgical interventions
How many of the above answer(s) is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Nonstick Coating on Pans and Other Cooking Wares: This is one of the most well-known and common uses of Teflon. It is used as a nonstick coating on cookware, including pans and pots, to prevent food from sticking during cooking and make cleaning easier. So, option 1 is correct.
Lubricant in Machines: Teflon is used as a lubricant and as a component in lubricating oils and greases. It provides a low-friction surface and is often used in machinery and industrial applications where reducing friction and wear are essential. So, option 2 is correct.
Graft Material in Surgical Interventions (Corrected): Teflon has been used as a graft material in some surgical interventions, particularly in vascular and cardiovascular procedures. It can be used as an artificial graft for blood vessels to bypass or repair damaged arteries. So, option 3 is correct.
Unattempted
Nonstick Coating on Pans and Other Cooking Wares: This is one of the most well-known and common uses of Teflon. It is used as a nonstick coating on cookware, including pans and pots, to prevent food from sticking during cooking and make cleaning easier. So, option 1 is correct.
Lubricant in Machines: Teflon is used as a lubricant and as a component in lubricating oils and greases. It provides a low-friction surface and is often used in machinery and industrial applications where reducing friction and wear are essential. So, option 2 is correct.
Graft Material in Surgical Interventions (Corrected): Teflon has been used as a graft material in some surgical interventions, particularly in vascular and cardiovascular procedures. It can be used as an artificial graft for blood vessels to bypass or repair damaged arteries. So, option 3 is correct.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the ADITYA-1 Mission:
(1) The Aditya L1 mission is the second Indian space solar project led by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
(2) The major scientific objectives of Aditya-1 mission are to achieve a fundamental understanding of the physical processes that heat the solar corona; accelerate the solar wind; and produce coronal mass ejections (CMEs).
(3) Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) is the largest payload to be carried on the Aditya-L1.
(4) Out of seven payloads, its four payloads will directly view the Sun.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : It is the first Indian mission dedicated to observing the Sun. Nigar Shaji is the project's director. Aditya-L1 was launched aboard the PSLV C57 at 11:50 IST on 2 September 2023, ten days after the successful landing of ISRO's Moon mission, Chandrayaan-3. It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Statement 2 is correct: The major scientific objectives of Aditya-1 mission are to achieve a fundamental understanding of the physical processes that heat the solar corona; accelerate the solar wind; and produce coronal mass ejections (CMEs). The study of sun is important because the solar weather and environment, which is deter mined by the processes taking place inside and around the sun, affects the weather of the entire system.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct : VELC is the largest payload to be carried on board the Aditya-L1. Out of seven payloads, its four payloads will directly view the Sun and the remaining three payloads will carry out in-situ studies of particles and fields at L1.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect : It is the first Indian mission dedicated to observing the Sun. Nigar Shaji is the project's director. Aditya-L1 was launched aboard the PSLV C57 at 11:50 IST on 2 September 2023, ten days after the successful landing of ISRO's Moon mission, Chandrayaan-3. It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Statement 2 is correct: The major scientific objectives of Aditya-1 mission are to achieve a fundamental understanding of the physical processes that heat the solar corona; accelerate the solar wind; and produce coronal mass ejections (CMEs). The study of sun is important because the solar weather and environment, which is deter mined by the processes taking place inside and around the sun, affects the weather of the entire system.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct : VELC is the largest payload to be carried on board the Aditya-L1. Out of seven payloads, its four payloads will directly view the Sun and the remaining three payloads will carry out in-situ studies of particles and fields at L1.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
With reference to the DARKNET consider the following statements :
(1) It is the part of the internet which is neither accessible through traditional search engines nor browsers.
(2) It generally uses non-standard communication protocol.
(3) It can be easily accessible by government authorities.
(4) The content on dark net is encrypted and requires a specific browser to suggest “the onion ring”.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: The area of the internet that we can access through traditional search engines is called Surface Web. Dark-Net which is also known as Dark-Web is the part of the internet that cannot be accessed through traditional search engines like Google nor is it accessible by normal browsers like Chrome or Safari.
Statement 2 is correct and 3 is incorrect: Dark- Net or Dark-Web generally uses Non-Standard Communication protocols which makes it inaccessible by internet service providers or government authorities also.
Statement 4 is correct: The content on darknet is encrypted and requires specific browsers such as TOR “The Onion Ring” to access those encrypted pages.
TOR “The Onion Ring”: The browser was developed in the mid 1990’s by US Naval research laboratory employees to protect US intelligence communications online. It is termed so as the traffic from the browser creates several layers like those of an onion before reaching the destination site. Unlike normal Surfing the computer does not connect directly to the server where the website is located. Instead a whole series of servers are involved in the connection in order to create the greatest possible anonymity.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: The area of the internet that we can access through traditional search engines is called Surface Web. Dark-Net which is also known as Dark-Web is the part of the internet that cannot be accessed through traditional search engines like Google nor is it accessible by normal browsers like Chrome or Safari.
Statement 2 is correct and 3 is incorrect: Dark- Net or Dark-Web generally uses Non-Standard Communication protocols which makes it inaccessible by internet service providers or government authorities also.
Statement 4 is correct: The content on darknet is encrypted and requires specific browsers such as TOR “The Onion Ring” to access those encrypted pages.
TOR “The Onion Ring”: The browser was developed in the mid 1990’s by US Naval research laboratory employees to protect US intelligence communications online. It is termed so as the traffic from the browser creates several layers like those of an onion before reaching the destination site. Unlike normal Surfing the computer does not connect directly to the server where the website is located. Instead a whole series of servers are involved in the connection in order to create the greatest possible anonymity.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
In the context of “Graphene “, Consider the following Statements :
(1) It is a three-dimensional form of carbon that consists of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in an octagonal lattice.
(2) The graphene-based product can be used to make a water filter that can make highly-polluted sea water drinkable after just one pass.
(3) Graphene has been described as the “wondrous stuff “ of being the strongest material ever tested, almost 300 times stronger than steel.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : Graphane is a two-dimensional form (allotrope) of carbon that consists of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. Graphene has unique properties with tremendous potential applications, such as chemical sensors, nanoelectronic devices, hydrogen storage systems, or polymer nanocomposites.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct : Graphene has been described as “wondrous stuff “— of being the strongest material ever tested, almost 300 times stronger than steel. It is also the best heat- and electricity-conducting material. The electrical conductivity for doped graphene is potentially quite high. Graphene is practically transparent. It is thin, mechanically very strong, transparent and flexible conductor.
Graphene has the potential to revolutionize entire industries – in the fields of electricity, conductivity, energy generation, batteries, sensors and more.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect : Graphane is a two-dimensional form (allotrope) of carbon that consists of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. Graphene has unique properties with tremendous potential applications, such as chemical sensors, nanoelectronic devices, hydrogen storage systems, or polymer nanocomposites.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct : Graphene has been described as “wondrous stuff “— of being the strongest material ever tested, almost 300 times stronger than steel. It is also the best heat- and electricity-conducting material. The electrical conductivity for doped graphene is potentially quite high. Graphene is practically transparent. It is thin, mechanically very strong, transparent and flexible conductor.
Graphene has the potential to revolutionize entire industries – in the fields of electricity, conductivity, energy generation, batteries, sensors and more.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
Consider the following statements :
(1) Shale gas is a conventional hydrocarbon present in the permeable rock.
(2) Guar gum plays a significant role in the extraction of shale gas.
(3) India is the largest producer of Guar gum in the world.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Conventional hydrocarbons can be extracted easily from permeable rocks, but Shale gas is an unconventional hydrocarbon because the rock it is extracted from acts as the source, reservoir, and cap rock and is trapped under low-permeable rocks. The gas is produced, stored, and sealed within impermeable shale and can be released only after the shale is drilled and artificially fractured during an extraction process. It requires pressurized water or chemicals to break the low-permeable rocks and extract them. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Guar gum is actually in powder form, is made by grinding guar seeds, and has unique thickening, emulsifying and binding properties.
The shale gas industry uses the gum in fracking—a process where a mixture of water (95 percent), Sand (4.5 percent), and guar gum (0.5 percent) is injected under high pressure into an oil-or gas-bearing rock to fracture it. The gum's viscous property decreases fluid loss and friction, reducing energy consumption and increasing gas or oil recovery. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The consumption pattern of guar seeds is largely influenced by the demands of the petroleum industry. India accounts for 80 percent of the world’s guar produce, of which 72 percent comes from Rajasthan. About 90 percent of guar gum processed in India is exported. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
Conventional hydrocarbons can be extracted easily from permeable rocks, but Shale gas is an unconventional hydrocarbon because the rock it is extracted from acts as the source, reservoir, and cap rock and is trapped under low-permeable rocks. The gas is produced, stored, and sealed within impermeable shale and can be released only after the shale is drilled and artificially fractured during an extraction process. It requires pressurized water or chemicals to break the low-permeable rocks and extract them. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Guar gum is actually in powder form, is made by grinding guar seeds, and has unique thickening, emulsifying and binding properties.
The shale gas industry uses the gum in fracking—a process where a mixture of water (95 percent), Sand (4.5 percent), and guar gum (0.5 percent) is injected under high pressure into an oil-or gas-bearing rock to fracture it. The gum's viscous property decreases fluid loss and friction, reducing energy consumption and increasing gas or oil recovery. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The consumption pattern of guar seeds is largely influenced by the demands of the petroleum industry. India accounts for 80 percent of the world’s guar produce, of which 72 percent comes from Rajasthan. About 90 percent of guar gum processed in India is exported. So, Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
Consider the following statements :
(1) In Capillary action liquid flow against the force of gravity or magnetic field induction.
(2) Completely soluble substances will increase surface tension of a liquid.
(3) Phototropism, geotropism is caused due to unequal distribution of auxin.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
The phenomenon of rising or depression of liquids in capillary thin tubes or porous materials such as paper or nonporous material such as liquefied carbon fiber is known as capillary action or capillarity and this effect can cause liquids to flow against the force of gravity or magnetic field induction. For example, in the blotting of ink, the spread of water dropped on a cotton cloth and the rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Surface tension is a force per unit length acting in the plane of the interface between the plane of the liquid and any other substance. It arises due to the excess potential energy of the molecules on the surface in comparison to their potential energy in the interior.
Adding a solute into a solvent may lead to an increase in surface tension, for example, salt in water and water in alcohol, due to solute depletion at the interface. The repulsion of the solute from the interface may originate from electrostatic forces or solute-solvent attraction. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Auxins, gibberellins, and cytokinins are plant growth promoters. Light-induced growth response in plants is called phototropism. Light controls the distribution of auxins in the shoot tip. A greater quantity of auxin accumulation occurs in the shaded portion, leading to rapid cell division and faster growth and the bending or curvature of the stem towards the light. Just like phototropism, geotropism is also caused by an unequal distribution of auxin.
Geotropism (also called gravitropism) is a response to the stimulus of gravity. For example, if a root is placed horizontally, the bottom side contains more auxin and grows less – causing the root to grow in the direction of the force of gravity. The opposite happens in a stem. When a stem is placed horizontally, the bottom side contains more auxin and grows more – causing the stem to grow upwards against the force of gravity.
Therefore, both phototropism and geotropism are caused by unequal auxin distribution. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
The phenomenon of rising or depression of liquids in capillary thin tubes or porous materials such as paper or nonporous material such as liquefied carbon fiber is known as capillary action or capillarity and this effect can cause liquids to flow against the force of gravity or magnetic field induction. For example, in the blotting of ink, the spread of water dropped on a cotton cloth and the rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Surface tension is a force per unit length acting in the plane of the interface between the plane of the liquid and any other substance. It arises due to the excess potential energy of the molecules on the surface in comparison to their potential energy in the interior.
Adding a solute into a solvent may lead to an increase in surface tension, for example, salt in water and water in alcohol, due to solute depletion at the interface. The repulsion of the solute from the interface may originate from electrostatic forces or solute-solvent attraction. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Auxins, gibberellins, and cytokinins are plant growth promoters. Light-induced growth response in plants is called phototropism. Light controls the distribution of auxins in the shoot tip. A greater quantity of auxin accumulation occurs in the shaded portion, leading to rapid cell division and faster growth and the bending or curvature of the stem towards the light. Just like phototropism, geotropism is also caused by an unequal distribution of auxin.
Geotropism (also called gravitropism) is a response to the stimulus of gravity. For example, if a root is placed horizontally, the bottom side contains more auxin and grows less – causing the root to grow in the direction of the force of gravity. The opposite happens in a stem. When a stem is placed horizontally, the bottom side contains more auxin and grows more – causing the stem to grow upwards against the force of gravity.
Therefore, both phototropism and geotropism are caused by unequal auxin distribution. So, Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
With reference to Bisphenol A (BPA), consider the following statements :
(1) It is a colourless crystalline solid insoluble in organic solvents.
(2) It is used to manufacture polycarbonate plastics and resins.
(3) It may increase blood pressure, type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical compound primarily used to manufacture various plastics. It is a colorless solid soluble in most common organic solvents but has very poor solubility in water. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
It is primarily used in large quantities in the production of polycarbonate plastics. It is found in various products, including shatterproof windows, eyewear, water bottles, and epoxy resins that coat metal food cans, bottle tops, and water supply pipes. So, Statement 2 is correct.
It may lead to possible health effects on the brain and prostate gland of fetuses, infants, and children. It may increase blood pressure, type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical compound primarily used to manufacture various plastics. It is a colorless solid soluble in most common organic solvents but has very poor solubility in water. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
It is primarily used in large quantities in the production of polycarbonate plastics. It is found in various products, including shatterproof windows, eyewear, water bottles, and epoxy resins that coat metal food cans, bottle tops, and water supply pipes. So, Statement 2 is correct.
It may lead to possible health effects on the brain and prostate gland of fetuses, infants, and children. It may increase blood pressure, type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease. So, Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
Regarding amoeba, consider the following assertions:
(1) It is a microscopic single-celled organism found in pond water.
(2) Amoeba constantly changes its shape and position.
(3) Amoeba has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
It is the microscopic unicellular organism found in pond water which keeps changing its shape and position constantly. It has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm. The amoeba is a tiny, one-celled organism. You need a microscope to see most amoebas – the largest are only about 1 mm across. Amoebas live in fresh water (like puddle and ponds), in salt water, in wet soil, and in animals (including people). There are many different types of amoebas. The name amoeba comes from the Greek word amoibe, which means change. (Amoeba is sometimes spelled ameba.)
(1) Cell membrane – the thin layer of protein and fat that surrounds the amoeba; it allows some substances to pass into the cell, and blocks other substances.
(2) Contractile vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba that excretes excess water and waste; the waste is brought to the cell membrane and is then eliminated from the amoeba.
(3) Cytoplasm (ectoplasm and endoplasm) – a jelly-like material that fills most of the cell; the organelles (like the nucleus) are surrounded by cytoplasm.
(4) Food vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba in which food is digested (broken down in order to be absorbed by the amoeba).
(5) Nucleus – the major organelle of the amoeba, located centrally; it controls reproduction (it contains the chromosomes) and many other important functions (including eating and growth).
(6) Pseudopods – temporary “feet” that the amoeba uses to move around and to engulf food.
An amoeba consists of a single blobby cell surrounded by a porous cell membrane. The amoeba “breathes” using this membrane – oxygen gas from the water passes in to the amoeba through the cell membrane and carbon dioxide gas leaves through it. A complex, jelly-like series of folded membranes called cytoplasm fills most of the cell. A large, disk-shaped nucleus within the amoeba controls the growth and reproduction of the amoeba.
Unattempted
It is the microscopic unicellular organism found in pond water which keeps changing its shape and position constantly. It has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm. The amoeba is a tiny, one-celled organism. You need a microscope to see most amoebas – the largest are only about 1 mm across. Amoebas live in fresh water (like puddle and ponds), in salt water, in wet soil, and in animals (including people). There are many different types of amoebas. The name amoeba comes from the Greek word amoibe, which means change. (Amoeba is sometimes spelled ameba.)
(1) Cell membrane – the thin layer of protein and fat that surrounds the amoeba; it allows some substances to pass into the cell, and blocks other substances.
(2) Contractile vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba that excretes excess water and waste; the waste is brought to the cell membrane and is then eliminated from the amoeba.
(3) Cytoplasm (ectoplasm and endoplasm) – a jelly-like material that fills most of the cell; the organelles (like the nucleus) are surrounded by cytoplasm.
(4) Food vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba in which food is digested (broken down in order to be absorbed by the amoeba).
(5) Nucleus – the major organelle of the amoeba, located centrally; it controls reproduction (it contains the chromosomes) and many other important functions (including eating and growth).
(6) Pseudopods – temporary “feet” that the amoeba uses to move around and to engulf food.
An amoeba consists of a single blobby cell surrounded by a porous cell membrane. The amoeba “breathes” using this membrane – oxygen gas from the water passes in to the amoeba through the cell membrane and carbon dioxide gas leaves through it. A complex, jelly-like series of folded membranes called cytoplasm fills most of the cell. A large, disk-shaped nucleus within the amoeba controls the growth and reproduction of the amoeba.
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
Which of the following are uses of baking soda?
(1) Treat heartburn
(2) Mouthwash
(3) Soothe canker sores
(4) Eliminating sweat smell
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Heartburn is also known as acid reflux. It’s a painful, burning sensation that arises in the upper region of your stomach and can spread up into your throat. Baking soda can help treat heartburn by neutralizing stomach acid.
Mouthwash is a great addition to a good oral hygiene routine. It reaches cornersof mouth and crevices of teeth, gums, and tongue, which may be missed during brushing.
Many people use baking soda as a replacement for mouthwash. Some studies have shown it can help freshen breath and even provide antibacterial and antimicrobial properties.
Canker sores are small, painful ulcers that can form inside mouth. Unlike cold sores, canker sores do not form on the lips and aren’t contagious.Baking soda mouthwash is great for soothing pain caused by canker sores.
Sweat only gains an odor after it’s broken down by bacteria in armpits. These bacteria convert sweat into acidic waste products that give sweat its odour.Baking soda may eliminate the smell of sweat by making the odours less acidic.
Unattempted
Heartburn is also known as acid reflux. It’s a painful, burning sensation that arises in the upper region of your stomach and can spread up into your throat. Baking soda can help treat heartburn by neutralizing stomach acid.
Mouthwash is a great addition to a good oral hygiene routine. It reaches cornersof mouth and crevices of teeth, gums, and tongue, which may be missed during brushing.
Many people use baking soda as a replacement for mouthwash. Some studies have shown it can help freshen breath and even provide antibacterial and antimicrobial properties.
Canker sores are small, painful ulcers that can form inside mouth. Unlike cold sores, canker sores do not form on the lips and aren’t contagious.Baking soda mouthwash is great for soothing pain caused by canker sores.
Sweat only gains an odor after it’s broken down by bacteria in armpits. These bacteria convert sweat into acidic waste products that give sweat its odour.Baking soda may eliminate the smell of sweat by making the odours less acidic.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
Which of the following are natural preservatives of food?
(1) Pink Sea Salt
(2) Spicy Ingredients
(3) Lemon
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Salt has long been touted as one of the best natural preservatives and if it is Himalayan salt, it is even better. Using just a pinch of unprocessed Himalayan salt can help preserve food in a healthier way.
Spicy ingredients like Cayenne, mustard and hot sauce are some of the best natural food preservatives. Mustard and hot sauce have some percentage of vinegar in it. Spicy foods are known to fight bacteria from attacking food and keep it fresh for longer.
Lemons are a natural source of citric acid and make an exceptionally good preservative.
Their peels and flesh are the best fix to prevent your food from spoiling.
Unattempted
Salt has long been touted as one of the best natural preservatives and if it is Himalayan salt, it is even better. Using just a pinch of unprocessed Himalayan salt can help preserve food in a healthier way.
Spicy ingredients like Cayenne, mustard and hot sauce are some of the best natural food preservatives. Mustard and hot sauce have some percentage of vinegar in it. Spicy foods are known to fight bacteria from attacking food and keep it fresh for longer.
Lemons are a natural source of citric acid and make an exceptionally good preservative.
Their peels and flesh are the best fix to prevent your food from spoiling.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
With reference to antacids, consider the following statements:
(1) A mixture of aluminium and magnesium hydroxide can be used as antacid.
(2) Histamine stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct
Incorrect
Over production of acid in the stomach causes irritation and pain. In severe cases, ulcers are developed in the stomach.
Statement 1 is correct: Until 1970, only treatment for acidity was administration of antacids, such as sodium hydrogencarbonate or a mixture of aluminium and magnesium hydroxide. Metal hydroxides are better alternatives because of being insoluble, these do not increase the pH above neutrality. These treatments control only symptoms, and not the cause. Therefore, with these metal salts, the patients cannot be treated easily.
Statement 2 is correct: A major breakthrough in the treatment of hyperacidity came through the discovery according to which a chemical, histamine, stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
Histamine is a potent vasodilator. It has various functions. It contracts the smooth muscles in the bronchi and gut and relaxes other muscles, such as those in the walls of fine blood vessels.
Histamine is also responsible for the nasal congestion associated with common cold and allergic response to pollen.
Unattempted
Over production of acid in the stomach causes irritation and pain. In severe cases, ulcers are developed in the stomach.
Statement 1 is correct: Until 1970, only treatment for acidity was administration of antacids, such as sodium hydrogencarbonate or a mixture of aluminium and magnesium hydroxide. Metal hydroxides are better alternatives because of being insoluble, these do not increase the pH above neutrality. These treatments control only symptoms, and not the cause. Therefore, with these metal salts, the patients cannot be treated easily.
Statement 2 is correct: A major breakthrough in the treatment of hyperacidity came through the discovery according to which a chemical, histamine, stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
Histamine is a potent vasodilator. It has various functions. It contracts the smooth muscles in the bronchi and gut and relaxes other muscles, such as those in the walls of fine blood vessels.
Histamine is also responsible for the nasal congestion associated with common cold and allergic response to pollen.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
Among the following allotropes of carbon, which one does not belong to the class of other three?
(A) Graphene
(B) Fullerene
(C) Bromine
(D) Diamond
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Correct
Incorrect
Graphene is an allotrope of carbon which occurs as two-dimensional sheets, which can be named the “two-dimensional hexagonal lattice”. Moreover, it is an infinitely large aromatic molecule.
Fullerene is an allotrope of carbon which occurs as spheres of carbon. Therefore, unlike graphene, fullerene is a 3D structure. Furthermore, it occurs as a large spheroidal molecule, and it consists of a cage formed by sixty or more atoms.
Diamond is a face-centred cubic crystal with eight atoms per unit cell. Each carbon atom in a diamond is covalently bonded to four other carbons in a tetrahedron. These tetrahedrons together form a 3-dimensional network of six- membered carbon rings (similar to cyclohexane), in the chair conformation, allowing for zero bond angle strain. This stable network of covalent bonds and hexagonal rings is the reason that diamond is so strong.
Graphite conducts electricity, due to delocalization of the pi bond electrons above and below the planes of the carbon atoms. These electrons are free to move, so are able to conduct electricity. However, the electricity is only conducted along the plane of the layers.
Bromine is a chemical element with the symbol Br and atomic number 35. It is the third-lightest halogen, and is a fuming red-brown liquid at room temperature that evaporates readily to form a similarly coloured vapour. Its properties are intermediate between those of chlorine and iodine.
Unattempted
Graphene is an allotrope of carbon which occurs as two-dimensional sheets, which can be named the “two-dimensional hexagonal lattice”. Moreover, it is an infinitely large aromatic molecule.
Fullerene is an allotrope of carbon which occurs as spheres of carbon. Therefore, unlike graphene, fullerene is a 3D structure. Furthermore, it occurs as a large spheroidal molecule, and it consists of a cage formed by sixty or more atoms.
Diamond is a face-centred cubic crystal with eight atoms per unit cell. Each carbon atom in a diamond is covalently bonded to four other carbons in a tetrahedron. These tetrahedrons together form a 3-dimensional network of six- membered carbon rings (similar to cyclohexane), in the chair conformation, allowing for zero bond angle strain. This stable network of covalent bonds and hexagonal rings is the reason that diamond is so strong.
Graphite conducts electricity, due to delocalization of the pi bond electrons above and below the planes of the carbon atoms. These electrons are free to move, so are able to conduct electricity. However, the electricity is only conducted along the plane of the layers.
Bromine is a chemical element with the symbol Br and atomic number 35. It is the third-lightest halogen, and is a fuming red-brown liquid at room temperature that evaporates readily to form a similarly coloured vapour. Its properties are intermediate between those of chlorine and iodine.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
Consider the following statements about “Gold nanoparticles (GNPs) ” :
(1) These GNPs can be used as a composite therapeutic agent in clinical trials, especially in anti-cancer, anti-viral, anti-diabetic, and cholesterol-lowering drugs.
(2) GNPs have greater solar radiation absorbing ability than the conventional bulk gold, which makes them a better candidate for use in the photovoltaic cell manufacturing industry.
(3) GNPs are melted at much higher temperatures (8000 °C) than bulk gold.
(4) Gold nanoparticles can be used to detect biomarkers in the diagnosis of heart diseases, cancers, and infectious agents.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Gold nanoparticles
The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) and the Goa University (GU) have successfully synthesized gold nanoparticles (GNPs) using psychrotolerant Antarctic bacteria through a non-toxic, low-cost, and eco- friendly way.
These GNPs can be used as a composite therapeutic agent in clinical trials, especially in anti-cancer, anti-viral, anti-diabetic, and cholesterol-lowering drugs. GNPs are melted at much lower temperatures (300 °C) than bulk gold (1064 °C). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
GNPs are found to have greater solar radiation absorbing ability than the conventional bulk gold, which makes them a better candidate for use in the photovoltaic cell manufacturing industry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Gold nanoparticles are designed for use as conductors from printable inks to electronic chip. The surface of a gold nanoparticle can be used for selective oxidation or in certain cases the surface can reduce a reaction (nitrogen oxides).
Gold nanoparticles are being developed for fuel cell applications. These technologies would be useful in the automotive and display industry.
Gold nanoparticles (GNPs) do not have a melting point of 8000 °C. In fact, the melting point of gold nanoparticles is not significantly different from that of bulk gold. The melting point of bulk gold is approximately 1064 °C (or 1947.52 °F). This value remains relatively constant regardless of whether the gold is in bulk form or in the form of nanoparticles. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Gold nanoparticles (GNPs) have been extensively researched for their potential applications in the detection of various biomarkers, including those associated with heart diseases, cancers, and infectious agents. Their unique optical and chemical properties make them valuable tools for developing sensitive and specific diagnostic assays. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Unattempted
Gold nanoparticles
The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) and the Goa University (GU) have successfully synthesized gold nanoparticles (GNPs) using psychrotolerant Antarctic bacteria through a non-toxic, low-cost, and eco- friendly way.
These GNPs can be used as a composite therapeutic agent in clinical trials, especially in anti-cancer, anti-viral, anti-diabetic, and cholesterol-lowering drugs. GNPs are melted at much lower temperatures (300 °C) than bulk gold (1064 °C). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
GNPs are found to have greater solar radiation absorbing ability than the conventional bulk gold, which makes them a better candidate for use in the photovoltaic cell manufacturing industry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Gold nanoparticles are designed for use as conductors from printable inks to electronic chip. The surface of a gold nanoparticle can be used for selective oxidation or in certain cases the surface can reduce a reaction (nitrogen oxides).
Gold nanoparticles are being developed for fuel cell applications. These technologies would be useful in the automotive and display industry.
Gold nanoparticles (GNPs) do not have a melting point of 8000 °C. In fact, the melting point of gold nanoparticles is not significantly different from that of bulk gold. The melting point of bulk gold is approximately 1064 °C (or 1947.52 °F). This value remains relatively constant regardless of whether the gold is in bulk form or in the form of nanoparticles. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Gold nanoparticles (GNPs) have been extensively researched for their potential applications in the detection of various biomarkers, including those associated with heart diseases, cancers, and infectious agents. Their unique optical and chemical properties make them valuable tools for developing sensitive and specific diagnostic assays. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cord blood banking :
(1) Cord blood banking is a process of collecting potentially life-saving stem cells from the umbilical cord and placenta and storing them for future use.
(2) They can treat cancer, blood diseases like anemia, and some immune system disorders.
(3) The Central Drug Standards Controlling Organization (CDSCO) only issues licenses and oversees the operation of umbilical cord blood banks (UCB).
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Context : New parents have become more interested in cord blood banking over the past ten years.
Statement 1 is correct: Cord blood banking is a process of collecting potentially life-saving stem cells from the umbilical cord and placenta and storing them for future use. Stem cells are immature cells that can assume the form of other cells. Blood from the baby’s umbilical cord (which connects the baby to the mother while in the womb) can be stored for the future health of the child.
Statement 2 is correct: The umbilical cord fluid is loaded with stem cells. They can treat cancer, blood diseases like anemia, and some immune system disorders, which disrupt your body’s ability to defend itself. The fluid is easy to collect and has 10 times more stem cells than those collected from bone marrow. Stem cells from cord blood rarely carry any infectious diseases and are half as likely to be rejected as adult stem cells.
Statement 3 is correct: The Central Drug Standards Controlling Organization (CDSCO), a constituent of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) only issues licenses and oversees the operation of umbilical cord blood banks (UCB).
Unattempted
Context : New parents have become more interested in cord blood banking over the past ten years.
Statement 1 is correct: Cord blood banking is a process of collecting potentially life-saving stem cells from the umbilical cord and placenta and storing them for future use. Stem cells are immature cells that can assume the form of other cells. Blood from the baby’s umbilical cord (which connects the baby to the mother while in the womb) can be stored for the future health of the child.
Statement 2 is correct: The umbilical cord fluid is loaded with stem cells. They can treat cancer, blood diseases like anemia, and some immune system disorders, which disrupt your body’s ability to defend itself. The fluid is easy to collect and has 10 times more stem cells than those collected from bone marrow. Stem cells from cord blood rarely carry any infectious diseases and are half as likely to be rejected as adult stem cells.
Statement 3 is correct: The Central Drug Standards Controlling Organization (CDSCO), a constituent of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) only issues licenses and oversees the operation of umbilical cord blood banks (UCB).
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Eukaryotic cell is a free-floating genetic material with the absence of a nucleus.
(2) Prokaryotes can live with or without oxygen while eukaryotes live only with oxygen.
(3) Prokaryotic cells have a well-organized nucleus while Eukaryotic cells do not have a well-organized nucleus.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
The name “Eukaryotic” itself means: eu = true, karyon = nucleus. They contain an organised nucleuswith a nuclear envelope. The DNA is enclosed in a nuclear membrane forming a nucleus. So,Statement 1 is not correct.
Prokaryotes and eukaryotes both may perform both aerobic (oxygen-requiring) and anaerobic (non-oxygen-based) metabolism. So, both of them can live with or without oxygen. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
It's the opposite of the correct distinction between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells regarding their nuclei. Prokaryotic cells lack a well-organized nucleus with a nuclear envelope, while eukaryotic cells have a distinct, membrane-bound nucleus that is highly organized. This is one of the key differences between these two types of cells. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Unattempted
The name “Eukaryotic” itself means: eu = true, karyon = nucleus. They contain an organised nucleuswith a nuclear envelope. The DNA is enclosed in a nuclear membrane forming a nucleus. So,Statement 1 is not correct.
Prokaryotes and eukaryotes both may perform both aerobic (oxygen-requiring) and anaerobic (non-oxygen-based) metabolism. So, both of them can live with or without oxygen. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
It's the opposite of the correct distinction between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells regarding their nuclei. Prokaryotic cells lack a well-organized nucleus with a nuclear envelope, while eukaryotic cells have a distinct, membrane-bound nucleus that is highly organized. This is one of the key differences between these two types of cells. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
With reference to Raman effect, consider the following statements:
(1) The Raman Effect is the very weak effect which deals with scattering of light by molecules of a medium when they are excited to different energy levels.
(2) The Raman spectroscopy is used in identifying the illegal drugs without damaging the packaging materials.
(3) The Raman effect is described as a change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
C.V. Raman had discovered the Inelastic scattering of light by molecules. He found that, the monochromatic light is scattered when it is allowed to pass through a substance. The scattered light contains some additional frequencies other than that of incident frequency. This is known as Raman effect.
The phenomenon of scattering of light by colloidal particles is called the Tyndall effect. So, statement 1 is correct
Raman Spectra is widely used in almost all branches of science. Raman Spectra of different substances enable to classify the maccording to their molecular structure and to analyse the chemical constitution.
Raman spectroscopy identifies the contents of drugs within their packaging without damaging, measures the composition and uniformity of drug pills, identifies street drugs, and determines drug authenticity. So, statement 2 is correct.
Raman effect’ is described as a change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules. For his work, Raman was awarded a Nobel Prize in 1930, making him the first Asian to be thus recognised in science. So, statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
C.V. Raman had discovered the Inelastic scattering of light by molecules. He found that, the monochromatic light is scattered when it is allowed to pass through a substance. The scattered light contains some additional frequencies other than that of incident frequency. This is known as Raman effect.
The phenomenon of scattering of light by colloidal particles is called the Tyndall effect. So, statement 1 is correct
Raman Spectra is widely used in almost all branches of science. Raman Spectra of different substances enable to classify the maccording to their molecular structure and to analyse the chemical constitution.
Raman spectroscopy identifies the contents of drugs within their packaging without damaging, measures the composition and uniformity of drug pills, identifies street drugs, and determines drug authenticity. So, statement 2 is correct.
Raman effect’ is described as a change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules. For his work, Raman was awarded a Nobel Prize in 1930, making him the first Asian to be thus recognised in science. So, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Genome India Project (GIP):
(1) It aims to collect 1,00,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome.
(2) This would aid our understanding of the nature of diseases affecting the Indian population, and then ultimately support the development of predictive diagnostic markers.
(3) It being spearheaded by the Centre for Brain Research at Bengaluru based Indian Institute of Science.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Recently, the secretary of the Department of Biotechnology said that under the Genome India project, close to 7,000 genomes have been sequenced and 3,000 of these are already available for public access.
Genome India Project
Taking inspiration from the Human Genome Project, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) initiated the ambitious “Genome India Project” (GIP) on 3rd January 2020. It is a Central Sector Project.
The GIP aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
This is a mission-mode, multi-institution consortium project, the first of its kind in India supported by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
Goal
The goal of the research is to develop predictive diagnostic indicators for several high-priority diseases and other uncommon and genetic disorders.
In phase 2, the project would collect genetic samples from patients with three broad categories – cardiovascular diseases, mental illness, and cancer.
Through whole-genome sequencing, the plan is to build an exhaustive catalogue of genetic variations for the Indian population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Targeted areas
Some of the priority areas are Precision health, Rare genetic disorders, Mutation spectrum of genetic and complex diseases in the Indian population, Genetic Epidemiology of Multifactorial Lifestyle Diseases, and Translational Research.
What is a genome?
Every organism’s genetic code is contained in its Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid (DNA), the building blocks of life.
A genome, simply put, is all the genetic matter in an organism.
It is defined as “an organism’s complete set of DNA, including all of its genes.
Each genome contains all of the information needed to build and maintain that organism.
In humans, a copy of the entire genome — more than 3 billion DNA base pairs — is contained in all cells that have a nucleus”.
This is a national project funded by Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, and spearheaded by CBR aiming to identify genetic variations through whole genome sequencing of 10,000 representative individuals across India in the first phase of the study. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
Recently, the secretary of the Department of Biotechnology said that under the Genome India project, close to 7,000 genomes have been sequenced and 3,000 of these are already available for public access.
Genome India Project
Taking inspiration from the Human Genome Project, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) initiated the ambitious “Genome India Project” (GIP) on 3rd January 2020. It is a Central Sector Project.
The GIP aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
This is a mission-mode, multi-institution consortium project, the first of its kind in India supported by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
Goal
The goal of the research is to develop predictive diagnostic indicators for several high-priority diseases and other uncommon and genetic disorders.
In phase 2, the project would collect genetic samples from patients with three broad categories – cardiovascular diseases, mental illness, and cancer.
Through whole-genome sequencing, the plan is to build an exhaustive catalogue of genetic variations for the Indian population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Targeted areas
Some of the priority areas are Precision health, Rare genetic disorders, Mutation spectrum of genetic and complex diseases in the Indian population, Genetic Epidemiology of Multifactorial Lifestyle Diseases, and Translational Research.
What is a genome?
Every organism’s genetic code is contained in its Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid (DNA), the building blocks of life.
A genome, simply put, is all the genetic matter in an organism.
It is defined as “an organism’s complete set of DNA, including all of its genes.
Each genome contains all of the information needed to build and maintain that organism.
In humans, a copy of the entire genome — more than 3 billion DNA base pairs — is contained in all cells that have a nucleus”.
This is a national project funded by Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, and spearheaded by CBR aiming to identify genetic variations through whole genome sequencing of 10,000 representative individuals across India in the first phase of the study. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
With reference to the process of Coal Gasification, consider the following statements:
(1) It is the process of converting coal into methane, ethane or butane.
(2) The end products may be used in the production of electricity.
(3) Expedition of the process could help reduce India’s urea imports.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is not correct: Coal gasification is the process of converting coal into synthesis gas (also called syngas), which is a mixture of hydrogen (H2), carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2).
Statement 2 is correct: The syngas can be used in a variety of applications such as in the production of electricity and making chemical products, such as fertilisers. According to the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers, urea is currently produced using pooled natural gas, which comprises of both domestic natural gas and imported LNG. The usage of locally available coal for making fertilisers would help reduce the import of LNG
Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Coal reported that India currently imports 50 to 70 lakh tonnes of urea every year, and that the revival of the Coal gasification units would help increase the availability of domestically produced fertilisers.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is not correct: Coal gasification is the process of converting coal into synthesis gas (also called syngas), which is a mixture of hydrogen (H2), carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2).
Statement 2 is correct: The syngas can be used in a variety of applications such as in the production of electricity and making chemical products, such as fertilisers. According to the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers, urea is currently produced using pooled natural gas, which comprises of both domestic natural gas and imported LNG. The usage of locally available coal for making fertilisers would help reduce the import of LNG
Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Coal reported that India currently imports 50 to 70 lakh tonnes of urea every year, and that the revival of the Coal gasification units would help increase the availability of domestically produced fertilisers.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
With reference to the chemical Ethylene Glycol, consider the following statements:
(1) It is used as a freezing agent to reduce ice melting at higher temperatures.
(2) It can be found in ballpoint pens, solvents, paints and films.
(3) It is unsafe for human consumption as it affects the central nervous system.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is not correct: It Is used to make antifreeze and de-icing solutions for cars, airplanes, and boats.
Statement 2 is correct: It is found in consumer products including automotive antifreeze, hydraulic brake fluids, some stamp pad inks, ballpoint pens, solvents, paints, plastics, films, and cosmetics and is also used as a pharmaceutical vehicle.
Statement 3 is correct: Once ingested, ethylene glycol is chemically broken down into toxic compounds. These byproducts then affect the central nervous system (CNS), the heart and then the kidneys.
Ethylene glycol can be disseminated through indoor air, water, food, outdoor air and agricultural products
Unattempted
Statement 1 is not correct: It Is used to make antifreeze and de-icing solutions for cars, airplanes, and boats.
Statement 2 is correct: It is found in consumer products including automotive antifreeze, hydraulic brake fluids, some stamp pad inks, ballpoint pens, solvents, paints, plastics, films, and cosmetics and is also used as a pharmaceutical vehicle.
Statement 3 is correct: Once ingested, ethylene glycol is chemically broken down into toxic compounds. These byproducts then affect the central nervous system (CNS), the heart and then the kidneys.
Ethylene glycol can be disseminated through indoor air, water, food, outdoor air and agricultural products
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
With reference to Helium, consider the following statements:
(1) Helium has the lowest boiling point among known substance.
(2) It is heavy and settles in the lower atmosphere only.
(3) It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out various experiments at high temperatures.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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-
Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Helium has the lowest Boiling point and melting point of any element.
Statement 2 is not correct: Helium is the second most abundant element in the universe, but preciously rare on Earth because it is light enough to simply escape from the top of our atmosphere.
Statement 3 is not correct: Liquid helium (b.p.4.2 K) finds use as cryogenic agent for carrying out various experiments at low temperatures.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Helium has the lowest Boiling point and melting point of any element.
Statement 2 is not correct: Helium is the second most abundant element in the universe, but preciously rare on Earth because it is light enough to simply escape from the top of our atmosphere.
Statement 3 is not correct: Liquid helium (b.p.4.2 K) finds use as cryogenic agent for carrying out various experiments at low temperatures.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
With reference to antiseptics, consider the following statements:
(1) Antiseptics are applied to the living tissues.
(2) Commonly used antiseptic, dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol, terpineol and isopropyl alcohol.
(3) 1 per cent solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its 0.2 percent solution is disinfectant.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Antiseptics are applied to the living tissues such as wounds, cuts,ulcers and diseased skin surfaces. Examples are furacine, soframicine, etc.
Statement 2 is correct: Commonly used antiseptic, dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol, terpineol and isopropyl alcohol.
Statement 3 is not correct: 0.2 per cent solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its one percent solution is disinfectant.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Antiseptics are applied to the living tissues such as wounds, cuts,ulcers and diseased skin surfaces. Examples are furacine, soframicine, etc.
Statement 2 is correct: Commonly used antiseptic, dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol, terpineol and isopropyl alcohol.
Statement 3 is not correct: 0.2 per cent solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its one percent solution is disinfectant.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Speed of the sound in air increases with increase in temperature.
(2) When a sound waves travels from one medium to another medium, the frequency remains constant.
(3) Sound travels faster in hydrogen medium compared to air medium.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Sound is the form of energy which gives the sensation of hearing. The speed of sound depends upon medium and temperature. Temperature is also a form of energy. When the temperature increases the sound waves get extra energy and vibrate more. Thus the speed of the sound will increase with temperature increase. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The number of vibrations made by a particle in one second is called the frequency of a sound wave.It depends upon the source of the sound. Thus the frequency will not change when a sound wave travel from one medium to another. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The speed of the sound will decrease with the increasing density. The density of Hydrogen is lesser than the density of air. Thus the sound travels faster in Hydrogen medium compared to air medium. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
Sound is the form of energy which gives the sensation of hearing. The speed of sound depends upon medium and temperature. Temperature is also a form of energy. When the temperature increases the sound waves get extra energy and vibrate more. Thus the speed of the sound will increase with temperature increase. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The number of vibrations made by a particle in one second is called the frequency of a sound wave.It depends upon the source of the sound. Thus the frequency will not change when a sound wave travel from one medium to another. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The speed of the sound will decrease with the increasing density. The density of Hydrogen is lesser than the density of air. Thus the sound travels faster in Hydrogen medium compared to air medium. So, Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
Which of the following are examples of a symbiotic relationship?
(1) Algae and fungus
(2) Algae and bacteria
(3) Fungus and bacteria
(4) Plants and bacteria
How many of the above is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
There is a symbiotic relationship between algae and fungus. For example, in organisms called lichens, a chlorophyll-containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live together. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga and, in return, the alga prepares and provides food to the fungus.The bacterium called Rhizobium can take atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into a usable form. But Rhizobium cannot make its own food. So, it often lives in the roots of gram, peas, moong, beans and other legumes and provides them with nitrogen. In return, the plants provide food and shelter to the bacteria. They, thus, have a symbiotic relationship. (i.e., between plants and bacteria). So, options 1 and 4 are correct.
Unattempted
There is a symbiotic relationship between algae and fungus. For example, in organisms called lichens, a chlorophyll-containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live together. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga and, in return, the alga prepares and provides food to the fungus.The bacterium called Rhizobium can take atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into a usable form. But Rhizobium cannot make its own food. So, it often lives in the roots of gram, peas, moong, beans and other legumes and provides them with nitrogen. In return, the plants provide food and shelter to the bacteria. They, thus, have a symbiotic relationship. (i.e., between plants and bacteria). So, options 1 and 4 are correct.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
An iron ball at 40°C is dropped in a mug containing water at 40°C. The heat will
A. flow from iron ball to water.
B. not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
C. flow from water to iron ball.
D. increase the temperature of both.
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Correct
Incorrect
Heat flows from a body of higher temperature to a body of lower temperature. Here the temperature of both the objects is same. So, heat will not flow from one object to other or there will not be any change in the temperature of both the two objects.
Unattempted
Heat flows from a body of higher temperature to a body of lower temperature. Here the temperature of both the objects is same. So, heat will not flow from one object to other or there will not be any change in the temperature of both the two objects.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Gravity is always attractive while electromagnetic force is always repulsive.
(2) The gravitational force is the force of mutual attraction between any two objects by virtue of their masses.
(3) Electromagnetic force can act over large distances without any medium and is enormously strong compared to gravity.
(4) Neutrinos experience strong electromagnetic force.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Since the gravitational force is directly proportional to the mass of both bodies, every object is pulled towards and attractive; hence, an answer could be derived from these facts.
The electromagnetic force is the force between charged particles. It is attractive for unlike charges and repulsive for like charges.
It is the force between any two objects in the universe. It is an attractive force by virtue of their masses.
Gravitational force is the weakest force among the fundamental forces of nature but has the greatest large−scale impact on the universe. Unlike the other forces, gravity works universally on all matter and energy, and is universally attractive. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Electromagnetic force is the combination of electrostatic and magnetic forces. It is very strong compared to the gravitational force. The electromagnetic force acts over large distances and does not need any intervening medium. This means that electromagnetic waves can travel not only through air and solid materials but also through the vacuum of space. So hence they do not require a medium to propagate. So, statement 3 is correct.
As Neutrino are electrically neutral, they are not affected by electromagnetic forces. Neutrinos are affected by only a weak subatomic force of much shorter range than electromagnetism, and are therefore able to pass through great distances in matter without being affected by it. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Unattempted
Since the gravitational force is directly proportional to the mass of both bodies, every object is pulled towards and attractive; hence, an answer could be derived from these facts.
The electromagnetic force is the force between charged particles. It is attractive for unlike charges and repulsive for like charges.
It is the force between any two objects in the universe. It is an attractive force by virtue of their masses.
Gravitational force is the weakest force among the fundamental forces of nature but has the greatest large−scale impact on the universe. Unlike the other forces, gravity works universally on all matter and energy, and is universally attractive. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Electromagnetic force is the combination of electrostatic and magnetic forces. It is very strong compared to the gravitational force. The electromagnetic force acts over large distances and does not need any intervening medium. This means that electromagnetic waves can travel not only through air and solid materials but also through the vacuum of space. So hence they do not require a medium to propagate. So, statement 3 is correct.
As Neutrino are electrically neutral, they are not affected by electromagnetic forces. Neutrinos are affected by only a weak subatomic force of much shorter range than electromagnetism, and are therefore able to pass through great distances in matter without being affected by it. So, statement 4 is not correct.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
With reference to Nuclear Reactors in India, consider the following statements :
(1) Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) located at Kalpakkam is the first nuclear power station in India
(2) Boron is used for sustaining controlled chain reaction in nuclear reactors.
(3) Nuclear poison is a substance which has the capacity for absorbing neutrons in the vicinity of the reactor core.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
India's first nuclear reactor was built at Tarapur, Maharastra on 4th August 1956. This reactor was named Apsara. This was a Boiling Water Reactor (BWR) constructed through Indo-US cooperation.
Whereas India’s third nuclear power station called Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS), came up at Kalpakkam, near Chennai. This station was designed and built by India, on its own. All the materials and equipment were produced in the country. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Control rods are used in the nuclear reactor to control the chain reaction of nuclear fission by absorbing the neutrons. Control rods are made out of neutron-absorbing materials such as silver and boron. So, Statement 2 is correct.
A substance (other than fissionable matter) that has a large capacity for absorbing neutrons in the vicinity of the reactor core and is intentionally inserted into some types of reactors to decrease the reactivity of their initial fresh fuel load. This effect may be undesirable in some reactor applications because it may prevent or disrupt the fission chain reaction, affecting normal operation. These neutron-absorbing materials are commonly known as nuclear or neutron poison. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
India's first nuclear reactor was built at Tarapur, Maharastra on 4th August 1956. This reactor was named Apsara. This was a Boiling Water Reactor (BWR) constructed through Indo-US cooperation.
Whereas India’s third nuclear power station called Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS), came up at Kalpakkam, near Chennai. This station was designed and built by India, on its own. All the materials and equipment were produced in the country. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Control rods are used in the nuclear reactor to control the chain reaction of nuclear fission by absorbing the neutrons. Control rods are made out of neutron-absorbing materials such as silver and boron. So, Statement 2 is correct.
A substance (other than fissionable matter) that has a large capacity for absorbing neutrons in the vicinity of the reactor core and is intentionally inserted into some types of reactors to decrease the reactivity of their initial fresh fuel load. This effect may be undesirable in some reactor applications because it may prevent or disrupt the fission chain reaction, affecting normal operation. These neutron-absorbing materials are commonly known as nuclear or neutron poison. So, Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
Consider the following organelle:
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
How many of the above play significant role in protein synthesis ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER): The endoplasmic reticulum is a membrane-bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. It plays a crucial role in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism. There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum: rough ER and smooth ER. The rough ER is studded with ribosomes on its surface and is involved in the synthesis of proteins that are either secreted from the cell or inserted into the cell membrane. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Ribosome: Ribosomes are not organelles but rather small cellular structures composed of RNA and protein. They are involved in protein synthesis. Ribosomes can be found free in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. They read the genetic code from messenger RNA (mRNA) and synthesize proteins accordingly. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Lysosome: Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing enzymes responsible for breaking down cellular waste, debris, and foreign materials. They are often referred to as the cell's “garbage disposal” or “recycling center” because they break down and recycle cellular components, as well as digest materials that enter the cell through processes like endocytosis. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
These organelles have distinct functions within the cell, with the endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes playing roles in protein synthesis, while lysosomes are involved in cellular waste disposal and recycling.
Unattempted
Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER): The endoplasmic reticulum is a membrane-bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. It plays a crucial role in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism. There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum: rough ER and smooth ER. The rough ER is studded with ribosomes on its surface and is involved in the synthesis of proteins that are either secreted from the cell or inserted into the cell membrane. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Ribosome: Ribosomes are not organelles but rather small cellular structures composed of RNA and protein. They are involved in protein synthesis. Ribosomes can be found free in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. They read the genetic code from messenger RNA (mRNA) and synthesize proteins accordingly. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Lysosome: Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing enzymes responsible for breaking down cellular waste, debris, and foreign materials. They are often referred to as the cell's “garbage disposal” or “recycling center” because they break down and recycle cellular components, as well as digest materials that enter the cell through processes like endocytosis. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
These organelles have distinct functions within the cell, with the endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes playing roles in protein synthesis, while lysosomes are involved in cellular waste disposal and recycling.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
Consider the following edible items:
(1) Potato
(2) Turnip
(3) Ginger
How many of the above are modified stems ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Stems get modified into underground structures for storage of food as seen in potato (tuber), ginger (rhizome) garlic (bulb). Presence of an eye (node) in potato, distinct nodes with internodes and scaly leaves in ginger all indicate that these underground plant parts are modified stem. Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.
Roots are modified in some plants for storing reserve food materials. These modified roots usually are swollen and assume different forms and shapes like top shaped e.g Turnip. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
Unattempted
Stems get modified into underground structures for storage of food as seen in potato (tuber), ginger (rhizome) garlic (bulb). Presence of an eye (node) in potato, distinct nodes with internodes and scaly leaves in ginger all indicate that these underground plant parts are modified stem. Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.
Roots are modified in some plants for storing reserve food materials. These modified roots usually are swollen and assume different forms and shapes like top shaped e.g Turnip. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the Biofuels :
(1) Biofuels are transportation fuels such as ethanol and biomass-based diesel fuel that are made from biomass materials.
(2) Using ethanol or biodiesel reduces the consumption of gasoline and diesel fuel, which can reduce the amount of crude oil imported from other countries.
(3) India has brought forward its target of blending petroleum with 40% ethanol by five years.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
About Biofuels :
Biofuels are transportation fuels such as ethanol and biomass-based diesel fuel. These fuels are usually blended with petroleum fuels (gasoline and distillate/diesel fuel and heating oil), but they can also be used on their own. Crops used to make biofuels are generally either high in sugar (such as sugarcane, sugarbeet, and sweet sorghum), starch (such as maize and tapioca) or oils (such as soybean, rapeseed, coconut, sunflower). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Biofuels are generally classified into three categories. They are :
(1) First generation biofuels – First-generation biofuels are made from sugar, starch, vegetable oil, or animal fats using conventional technology. Common first- generation biofuels include Bioalcohols, Biodiesel, Vegetable oil, Bioethers, Biogas.
(2) Second generation biofuels – These are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and waste biomass (stalks of wheat and corn, and wood).
Examples include advanced biofuels like biohydrogen, biomethanol.
(3) Third generation biofuels – These are produced from microorganisms like algae.
Using ethanol or biodiesel reduces the consumption of gasoline and diesel fuel made from crude oil, which can reduce the amount of crude oil imported from other countries. Ethanol and biodiesel are also cleaner-burning fuels than pure gasoline and diesel fuel. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The ‘National Policy on Biofuels’ notified by the Government in 2018 envisaged an indicative target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol by year 2030. However, considering the encouraging performance, due to various interventions made by the Government since 2014, the target of 20% ethanol blending was advanced from 2030 to 2025-26. India has brought forward its target of blending petroleum with 20% ethanol by five years in its efforts to accelerate towards renewables and make its overall energy basket cleaner. The country would now aim to achieve the target of 20% blending by 2025, instead of 2030. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Unattempted
About Biofuels :
Biofuels are transportation fuels such as ethanol and biomass-based diesel fuel. These fuels are usually blended with petroleum fuels (gasoline and distillate/diesel fuel and heating oil), but they can also be used on their own. Crops used to make biofuels are generally either high in sugar (such as sugarcane, sugarbeet, and sweet sorghum), starch (such as maize and tapioca) or oils (such as soybean, rapeseed, coconut, sunflower). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Biofuels are generally classified into three categories. They are :
(1) First generation biofuels – First-generation biofuels are made from sugar, starch, vegetable oil, or animal fats using conventional technology. Common first- generation biofuels include Bioalcohols, Biodiesel, Vegetable oil, Bioethers, Biogas.
(2) Second generation biofuels – These are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and waste biomass (stalks of wheat and corn, and wood).
Examples include advanced biofuels like biohydrogen, biomethanol.
(3) Third generation biofuels – These are produced from microorganisms like algae.
Using ethanol or biodiesel reduces the consumption of gasoline and diesel fuel made from crude oil, which can reduce the amount of crude oil imported from other countries. Ethanol and biodiesel are also cleaner-burning fuels than pure gasoline and diesel fuel. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The ‘National Policy on Biofuels’ notified by the Government in 2018 envisaged an indicative target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol by year 2030. However, considering the encouraging performance, due to various interventions made by the Government since 2014, the target of 20% ethanol blending was advanced from 2030 to 2025-26. India has brought forward its target of blending petroleum with 20% ethanol by five years in its efforts to accelerate towards renewables and make its overall energy basket cleaner. The country would now aim to achieve the target of 20% blending by 2025, instead of 2030. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
Consider the following benefits of using “biodiesel” :
(1) It is made from renewable sources and can be prepared locally.
(2) Increases engine performance It has excellent lubricity.
(3) Increased safety in storage and transport.
(4) Reduction of greenhouse gases.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Bio-diesel is an eco-friendly, alternative diesel fuel prepared from domestic renewable resources ie. vegetable oils (edible or non- edible oil) and animal fats. These natural oils and fats are primarily made up of triglycerides.
These triglycerides when reacts chemically with lower alcohols in presence of a catalyst result in fatty acid esters. These esters show striking similarity to petroleum derived diesel and are called “Biodiesel”.
As India is deficient in edible oils, non-edible oil may be material of choice for producing biodiesel. Examples are Jatropha curcas, Pongamia, Karanja, etc.
The benefits of using biodiesel are as follows :
It reduces vehicle emission which makes it eco- friendly.
It is made from renewable sources and can be prepared locally. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Increases engine performance because it has higher cetane numbers as compared to petro diesel. It has excellent lubricity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Increased safety in storage and transport because the fuel is nontoxic and biodegradable (Storage, high flash point). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Production of bio diesel in India will reduce dependence on foreign suppliers, thus helpful in price stability.
Reduction of greenhouse gases at least by 3.3 kg CO2 equivalent per kg of biodiesel. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Unattempted
Bio-diesel is an eco-friendly, alternative diesel fuel prepared from domestic renewable resources ie. vegetable oils (edible or non- edible oil) and animal fats. These natural oils and fats are primarily made up of triglycerides.
These triglycerides when reacts chemically with lower alcohols in presence of a catalyst result in fatty acid esters. These esters show striking similarity to petroleum derived diesel and are called “Biodiesel”.
As India is deficient in edible oils, non-edible oil may be material of choice for producing biodiesel. Examples are Jatropha curcas, Pongamia, Karanja, etc.
The benefits of using biodiesel are as follows :
It reduces vehicle emission which makes it eco- friendly.
It is made from renewable sources and can be prepared locally. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Increases engine performance because it has higher cetane numbers as compared to petro diesel. It has excellent lubricity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Increased safety in storage and transport because the fuel is nontoxic and biodegradable (Storage, high flash point). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Production of bio diesel in India will reduce dependence on foreign suppliers, thus helpful in price stability.
Reduction of greenhouse gases at least by 3.3 kg CO2 equivalent per kg of biodiesel. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the New Space India Limited:
(1) New Space India Limited is a Central Public Sector Enterprise of the Government under the administrative control of the Department of Space.
(2) New Space India Limited handles ISRO’s commercial deals for satellites and launch vehicles with foreign customers.
(3) NSIL is the 1st commercial initiative of ISRO.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
NSIL is a Central Public Sector Enterprise of the Government of India.It was established in 2019 under the administrative control of the Department of Space. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It’s Headquarter at Bengaluru. NSIL is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) with the primary responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the space industry.
NSIL differs from ISRO’s existing commercial arm Antrix Corporation. Antrix handles ISRO’s commercial deals for satellites and launch vehicles with foreign customers. NSIL deals with capacity building of local industry for space manufacturing. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
NSIL is the 2nd commercial initiative of ISRO after Antrix. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Unattempted
NSIL is a Central Public Sector Enterprise of the Government of India.It was established in 2019 under the administrative control of the Department of Space. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It’s Headquarter at Bengaluru. NSIL is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) with the primary responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the space industry.
NSIL differs from ISRO’s existing commercial arm Antrix Corporation. Antrix handles ISRO’s commercial deals for satellites and launch vehicles with foreign customers. NSIL deals with capacity building of local industry for space manufacturing. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
NSIL is the 2nd commercial initiative of ISRO after Antrix. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Solar eclipses :
(1) Solar eclipses happen when the Earth moves directly between the sun and Moon.
(2) The ring of fire eclipse occurs When earth is away from the moon, resulting in a narrow band of light around the dark colour of the Earth.
(3) During the Partial solar eclipse the shadow of the moon appears on a small part of the sun.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: Solar eclipses happen when the moon moves directly between the sun and Earth, casting a shadow on our planet and blocking out at least some of the sun’s light.
There are three types of solar eclipses:
Statement 3 is correct: Partial solar eclipse: This happens when the sun, moon and Earth are not exactly lined up. The shadow of the moon appears on a small part of the sun.
Total solar eclipse: When the sun, moon and earth must be in a direct line.
Annular solar eclipse: It is a particular type of total solar eclipse. It occurs when the sun, moon and earth are not only in a straight line but also in the same plane.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The moon also must be farther away from the earth, which will allow it to not cover the disc of the sun completely, resulting in a narrow band of light around the dark colour of the moon causing the ring of fire to be visible. Therefore, It is also called the ring of fire eclipse.
The distance between the earth and the moon at the moment of the eclipse can dictate the type of eclipse that will take place. The distance between the earth and the moon is always changing due to the egg-shaped elliptical orbit of the moon.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect: Solar eclipses happen when the moon moves directly between the sun and Earth, casting a shadow on our planet and blocking out at least some of the sun’s light.
There are three types of solar eclipses:
Statement 3 is correct: Partial solar eclipse: This happens when the sun, moon and Earth are not exactly lined up. The shadow of the moon appears on a small part of the sun.
Total solar eclipse: When the sun, moon and earth must be in a direct line.
Annular solar eclipse: It is a particular type of total solar eclipse. It occurs when the sun, moon and earth are not only in a straight line but also in the same plane.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The moon also must be farther away from the earth, which will allow it to not cover the disc of the sun completely, resulting in a narrow band of light around the dark colour of the moon causing the ring of fire to be visible. Therefore, It is also called the ring of fire eclipse.
The distance between the earth and the moon at the moment of the eclipse can dictate the type of eclipse that will take place. The distance between the earth and the moon is always changing due to the egg-shaped elliptical orbit of the moon.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Black hole :
(1) A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light cannot get out as gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space.
(2) Polarised light waves oscillate in only one direction While, unpolarised light waves oscillate in many different directions resulting in the presence of strong magnetic fields around the black hole.
(3) They form at the end of some stars’ lives.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light cannot get out as gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space.They are invisible and observed through space telescopes with special tools.Black holes can be big or small, the smallest black holes are as small as just one atom.
Statement 2 is correct: Now, a new image from Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) shows polarised light, waves oscillating in only one direction produced by matter at the edge of the black hole.While, unpolarised light is made up of light waves oscillating in many different directions. Light becomes polarized when it goes through certain filters like, for instance, the lenses of polarized sunglasses, or when it is emitted in hot regions of space that are magnetized, hence it suggests the presence of strong magnetic fields around the black hole.
Statement 3 is correct: They form at the end of some stars’ lives. When stars, which are around twenty times bigger than the sun exhaust all the energy, they can collapse in on themselves forming a black hole.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light cannot get out as gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space.They are invisible and observed through space telescopes with special tools.Black holes can be big or small, the smallest black holes are as small as just one atom.
Statement 2 is correct: Now, a new image from Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) shows polarised light, waves oscillating in only one direction produced by matter at the edge of the black hole.While, unpolarised light is made up of light waves oscillating in many different directions. Light becomes polarized when it goes through certain filters like, for instance, the lenses of polarized sunglasses, or when it is emitted in hot regions of space that are magnetized, hence it suggests the presence of strong magnetic fields around the black hole.
Statement 3 is correct: They form at the end of some stars’ lives. When stars, which are around twenty times bigger than the sun exhaust all the energy, they can collapse in on themselves forming a black hole.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Commonly used products – Poisonous chemicals found in them
(1) Noodles – Lead
(2) Air freshener – Formaldehyde
(3) Cosmetics – Phenoxyethanol
(4) Whey Proteins – Bisphenol-A
How many of the above pairs is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Exposure to high levels of lead may cause anemia, weakness, and kidney and brain damage. Recently the controversy around the permissible limits of lead in noodles has arisen. So, Pair (1) is correct.
Air fresheners consist of formaldehyde, petrochemicals, p-dichlorobenzene and aerosol pollutants. Formaldehyde is a toxic compound that may cause cancer and irritation of the throat and nose. It is a volatile organic compound (VOC). So, Pair (2) is correct.
Phenoxyethanol is a preservative in many cosmetics and personal care products like face wash, shampoo, etc. The incidents of bad skin reactions and nervous system interaction in infants are the major concerns of using these cosmetics. So, Pair (3) is correct.
Bisphenol-A is a synthetic compound that is an important addition to many single-use plastics. The whey proteins are packed in the Bisphenol-A-made containers. When these containers are stored at room temperature, Bisphenol-A leaches into the protein powder and has health implications. So, Pair (4) is correct.
Unattempted
Exposure to high levels of lead may cause anemia, weakness, and kidney and brain damage. Recently the controversy around the permissible limits of lead in noodles has arisen. So, Pair (1) is correct.
Air fresheners consist of formaldehyde, petrochemicals, p-dichlorobenzene and aerosol pollutants. Formaldehyde is a toxic compound that may cause cancer and irritation of the throat and nose. It is a volatile organic compound (VOC). So, Pair (2) is correct.
Phenoxyethanol is a preservative in many cosmetics and personal care products like face wash, shampoo, etc. The incidents of bad skin reactions and nervous system interaction in infants are the major concerns of using these cosmetics. So, Pair (3) is correct.
Bisphenol-A is a synthetic compound that is an important addition to many single-use plastics. The whey proteins are packed in the Bisphenol-A-made containers. When these containers are stored at room temperature, Bisphenol-A leaches into the protein powder and has health implications. So, Pair (4) is correct.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
With reference to Green Chemistry, consider the following statements :
(1) Pseudomonas putida is used in bioremediation of oil spills.
(2) H202 is used as antiseptic, disinfectant and in rocketry as a propellant.
(3) Adoption of green chemistry in agriculture results in reduced chemical residues in soil, water, and food products.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Green chemistry is the processes and design of chemical products that reduce or eliminate the use or generation of hazardous substances. It reduces pollution at its source by minimizing or eliminating the hazards of reagents, solvents, and products.
Bioremediation is a branch of biotechnology that uses living organisms, like microbes and bacteria, to decontaminate affected areas. It removes contaminants, pollutants, and toxins from soil, water, and other environments.
Bioremediation of oil spills by using Pseudomonas putida is a curative measure. Pseudomonas putida is capable of converting styrene oil into biodegradable plastic PHA. Pseudomonas putida is a rod-shaped, flagellated, gram-negative bacterium that is found in most soil and water habitats where there is oxygen. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Hydrogen peroxide is a chemical compound with the formula H2O2. It breaks down quickly and easily when it comes into contact with air or water, so it’s safer than chlorine chemicals.
Hydrogen peroxide is active against many microorganisms, including bacteria, yeasts, fungi, and viruses. So, it is used as an antiseptic and disinfectant.
Hydrogen peroxide exothermically decomposes to water and oxygen, making it an ideal oxidizer for more environment-friendly propulsion systems. Thus using H2O2 as an antiseptic, disinfectant, and in rocketry, as a propellant. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Adoption of green chemistry in agriculture results in reduced chemical residues in soil, water, and food products. This contributes to healthier ecosystems, improved soil fertility, and safer food consumption for the population. It can help in solving the issue of green revolution areas becoming Cancer Capital in future. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
Green chemistry is the processes and design of chemical products that reduce or eliminate the use or generation of hazardous substances. It reduces pollution at its source by minimizing or eliminating the hazards of reagents, solvents, and products.
Bioremediation is a branch of biotechnology that uses living organisms, like microbes and bacteria, to decontaminate affected areas. It removes contaminants, pollutants, and toxins from soil, water, and other environments.
Bioremediation of oil spills by using Pseudomonas putida is a curative measure. Pseudomonas putida is capable of converting styrene oil into biodegradable plastic PHA. Pseudomonas putida is a rod-shaped, flagellated, gram-negative bacterium that is found in most soil and water habitats where there is oxygen. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Hydrogen peroxide is a chemical compound with the formula H2O2. It breaks down quickly and easily when it comes into contact with air or water, so it’s safer than chlorine chemicals.
Hydrogen peroxide is active against many microorganisms, including bacteria, yeasts, fungi, and viruses. So, it is used as an antiseptic and disinfectant.
Hydrogen peroxide exothermically decomposes to water and oxygen, making it an ideal oxidizer for more environment-friendly propulsion systems. Thus using H2O2 as an antiseptic, disinfectant, and in rocketry, as a propellant. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Adoption of green chemistry in agriculture results in reduced chemical residues in soil, water, and food products. This contributes to healthier ecosystems, improved soil fertility, and safer food consumption for the population. It can help in solving the issue of green revolution areas becoming Cancer Capital in future. So, Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
Consider the following sources:
(1) Stained glass
(2) Paints
(3) Cosmetics and traditional medicines.
How many of the above sources contain lead in them?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Lead is a naturally occurring toxic metal found in the Earth’s crust. Its widespread use has resulted in extensive environmental contamination, human exposure and significant public health problems in many parts of the world. Lead is also used in many other products, for example pigments, paints, solder, stained glass, lead crystal glassware, ammunition, ceramic glazes, jewellery, toys and some cosmetics and traditional medicines.
Unattempted
Lead is a naturally occurring toxic metal found in the Earth’s crust. Its widespread use has resulted in extensive environmental contamination, human exposure and significant public health problems in many parts of the world. Lead is also used in many other products, for example pigments, paints, solder, stained glass, lead crystal glassware, ammunition, ceramic glazes, jewellery, toys and some cosmetics and traditional medicines.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
If someone in the family is suffering from a problem of acidity after overeating, which of the following would you suggest as a remedy?
(A) Lemon juice
(B) Vinegar
(C) Baking soda solution
(D) Both (A) and (B)
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Correct
Incorrect
Acid and bases neutralize each other. So, if someone is suffering from acidity, he or she needs to be treated with a basic solution. Lemon and vinegar are acidic in nature whereas baking soda is basic in nature.
Lemon contains citric acid and vinegar contains acetic acid, both of which are acidic in nature whereas baking soda is basic in nature.
Unattempted
Acid and bases neutralize each other. So, if someone is suffering from acidity, he or she needs to be treated with a basic solution. Lemon and vinegar are acidic in nature whereas baking soda is basic in nature.
Lemon contains citric acid and vinegar contains acetic acid, both of which are acidic in nature whereas baking soda is basic in nature.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
How many of the following are the Purines nitrogen bases?
(1) Adenine
(2) Guanine
(3) Cytosine
(4) Uracil
(5) Thymine
Select the correct answer :
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) Only three
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Correct
Incorrect
There are two types of nitrogenous bases –
Options 1 and 2 are correct : Purines (Adenine and Guanine), and
Pyrimidine (Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine).
Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA and Thymine is present in DNA. Uracil is present in RNA at the place of Thymine.
Unattempted
There are two types of nitrogenous bases –
Options 1 and 2 are correct : Purines (Adenine and Guanine), and
Pyrimidine (Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine).
Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA and Thymine is present in DNA. Uracil is present in RNA at the place of Thymine.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
In the context of gravitational force and electromagnetic force, consider the following statements:
(1) While gravitational force is always attractive, electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive.
(2) While gravitational force is only dependent on mass, the electromagnetic force is dependent on both mass and charge.
(3) While gravitational force is dependent upon the distance between the two bodies, the electromagnetic force is independent of it.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
The gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of masses of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them.
• The electromagnetic force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of charges of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Gravitational force is always attractive while Electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive.
The same charges repel each other while opposite charges attract. Hence statement 1 is correct
• The electromagnetic force is not dependent upon mass. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Unattempted
The gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of masses of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them.
• The electromagnetic force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of charges of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Gravitational force is always attractive while Electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive.
The same charges repel each other while opposite charges attract. Hence statement 1 is correct
• The electromagnetic force is not dependent upon mass. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
Which of the following technologies will be enabled by the 5G mobile communication networks?
(1) Internet of Things
(2) Edge Computing
(3) Network Slicing
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
5G is the communications backbone that will enable revolutionary applications in other markets, including industrial, automotive, medical and even defense. For a world that is becoming increasingly connected with the Internet of Things (IoT), 5G’s significant improvements in speed (at least 10 times faster than 4G, up to 10 Gbps), latency (10 times lower than 4G, down to 1 ms) and density (supporting 1 million IoT devices per square kilometer) will make many innovative applications possible – especially those in which security, reliability, quality of service, efficiency and cost are equally important.
• The Internet of Things is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.
• Edge Computing: Edge computing means taking real-time decisions close to the source of data. By locating computational intelligence close to the individual and different sources of the data, edge computing reduces latency in the implementation of a requested service. Instead of sending data through the entire core network to the cloud for processing, edge computing uses a distributed network architecture to ensure near-real-time processing with reduced delays, which would otherwise simply not be acceptable for the specific service.
• Network Slicing: Network slicing allows operators to separate the packet traffic layer from the control layer, supporting multiple applications and services running in parallel for a range of users who require different levels of quality, latency, and bandwidth. This means that 5G systems will have many logical network slices, or “fast-track lanes,” to support specific applications and customers.
Unattempted
5G is the communications backbone that will enable revolutionary applications in other markets, including industrial, automotive, medical and even defense. For a world that is becoming increasingly connected with the Internet of Things (IoT), 5G’s significant improvements in speed (at least 10 times faster than 4G, up to 10 Gbps), latency (10 times lower than 4G, down to 1 ms) and density (supporting 1 million IoT devices per square kilometer) will make many innovative applications possible – especially those in which security, reliability, quality of service, efficiency and cost are equally important.
• The Internet of Things is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.
• Edge Computing: Edge computing means taking real-time decisions close to the source of data. By locating computational intelligence close to the individual and different sources of the data, edge computing reduces latency in the implementation of a requested service. Instead of sending data through the entire core network to the cloud for processing, edge computing uses a distributed network architecture to ensure near-real-time processing with reduced delays, which would otherwise simply not be acceptable for the specific service.
• Network Slicing: Network slicing allows operators to separate the packet traffic layer from the control layer, supporting multiple applications and services running in parallel for a range of users who require different levels of quality, latency, and bandwidth. This means that 5G systems will have many logical network slices, or “fast-track lanes,” to support specific applications and customers.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
Which of the following is/are Plant hormones?
(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinins
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Plant growth regulators are variously described as plant growth substances, plant hormones or phytohormones in literature. The PGRs can be broadly divided into two groups based on their functions in a living plant body. One group of PGRs are involved in growth promoting activities, such as cell division, cell enlargement, pattern formation, tropic growth, flowering, fruiting and seed formation. These are also called plant growth promoters, e.g., auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins.
• The PGRs of the other group play an important role in plant responses to wounds and stresses of biotic and abiotic origin. They are also involved in various growth inhibiting activities such as dormancy and abscission. The PGR abscisic acid belongs to this group. The gaseous PGR, ethylene, could fit either of the groups, but it is largely an inhibitor of growth activities.
Unattempted
Plant growth regulators are variously described as plant growth substances, plant hormones or phytohormones in literature. The PGRs can be broadly divided into two groups based on their functions in a living plant body. One group of PGRs are involved in growth promoting activities, such as cell division, cell enlargement, pattern formation, tropic growth, flowering, fruiting and seed formation. These are also called plant growth promoters, e.g., auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins.
• The PGRs of the other group play an important role in plant responses to wounds and stresses of biotic and abiotic origin. They are also involved in various growth inhibiting activities such as dormancy and abscission. The PGR abscisic acid belongs to this group. The gaseous PGR, ethylene, could fit either of the groups, but it is largely an inhibitor of growth activities.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
Which of the following are used as performance enhancing drugs and are also synthesised naturally in the body?
(1) Erythropoietin (EPO)
(2) Human growth hormone (hGH)
(3) Testosterone
(4) Insulin
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
All the given are used as Performance-enhancing drug:
• Erythropoietin (EPO): Taking erythropoietin, or EPO, increases red blood cell production without the need for transfusions. The kidneys make the hormone naturally, although people with severe kidney disease don't have enough.
• Human growth hormone (hGH): It mimics the muscle-building effects of anabolic steroids. It occurs naturally in the body. In fact, the pituitary gland, the pea-sized organ located at the base of the brain, produces hGH to stimulate growth in children and adolescents and to increase muscle mass in adults.
• Testosterone: Occurring naturally in the body, testosterone has two distinct modes of action, androgenic (masculinizing) and anabolic (tissue building).
• Insulin: Insulin is a popular performance-enhancing drug for bodybuilders, who use it to boost their stamina.
Unattempted
All the given are used as Performance-enhancing drug:
• Erythropoietin (EPO): Taking erythropoietin, or EPO, increases red blood cell production without the need for transfusions. The kidneys make the hormone naturally, although people with severe kidney disease don't have enough.
• Human growth hormone (hGH): It mimics the muscle-building effects of anabolic steroids. It occurs naturally in the body. In fact, the pituitary gland, the pea-sized organ located at the base of the brain, produces hGH to stimulate growth in children and adolescents and to increase muscle mass in adults.
• Testosterone: Occurring naturally in the body, testosterone has two distinct modes of action, androgenic (masculinizing) and anabolic (tissue building).
• Insulin: Insulin is a popular performance-enhancing drug for bodybuilders, who use it to boost their stamina.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
With reference to Digestive Enzymes, consider the following statements:
(1) The chemical process of digestion of carbohydrates is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase.
(2) Pepsin helps in digestion of protein.
(3) Renin helps in break-down of fats.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth. The salivary enzyme amylase begins the breakdown of food starches into maltose, a disaccharide. As the bolus of food travels through the esophagus to the stomach, no significant digestion of carbohydrates takes place.
Statement 2 is correct: Pepsin is an enzyme of the stomach which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).
Statement 3 is not correct: Fats are broken down by lipases with the help of bile into di-and Monoglycerides while Renin helps in regulation of blood pressure.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth. The salivary enzyme amylase begins the breakdown of food starches into maltose, a disaccharide. As the bolus of food travels through the esophagus to the stomach, no significant digestion of carbohydrates takes place.
Statement 2 is correct: Pepsin is an enzyme of the stomach which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).
Statement 3 is not correct: Fats are broken down by lipases with the help of bile into di-and Monoglycerides while Renin helps in regulation of blood pressure.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Dark Matter :
(1) Dark matter, a component of the universe whose presence is discerned from its gravitational attraction rather than its luminosity.
(2) Dark matter interacts with the electromagnetic force to absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot.
(3) Dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Dark matter, a component of the universe whose presence is discerned from its gravitational attraction rather than its luminosity. By fitting a theoretical model of the composition of the universe to the combined set of cosmological observations, scientists have come up with the composition that we described above, ~68% dark energy, ~27% dark matter, ~5% normal matter.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike normal matter, dark matter does not interact with the electromagnetic force. This means it does not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot. In fact, researchers have been able to infer the existence of dark matter only from the gravitational effect it seems to have on visible matter.
Statement 3 is correct: Dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together while dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe. Both components are invisible.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Dark matter, a component of the universe whose presence is discerned from its gravitational attraction rather than its luminosity. By fitting a theoretical model of the composition of the universe to the combined set of cosmological observations, scientists have come up with the composition that we described above, ~68% dark energy, ~27% dark matter, ~5% normal matter.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike normal matter, dark matter does not interact with the electromagnetic force. This means it does not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot. In fact, researchers have been able to infer the existence of dark matter only from the gravitational effect it seems to have on visible matter.
Statement 3 is correct: Dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together while dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe. Both components are invisible.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
What is the purpose of the Large Hadron Collider (LHC)? (A) To study the effect of climate change (B) To study the dark matter (C) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system (D) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems
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Correct
Incorrect
The LHC (Large Hadron Collider) has recently undergone upgrades to make it more accurate and sensitive and started collecting data in May 2023.
The LHC has undergone upgrades to increase its sensitivity and accuracy, allowing scientists to study particles with even higher energy.
To discover direct evidence for the particle responsible for the dark matter in the Universe is the purpose of the Large Hadron Collider.
Unattempted
The LHC (Large Hadron Collider) has recently undergone upgrades to make it more accurate and sensitive and started collecting data in May 2023.
The LHC has undergone upgrades to increase its sensitivity and accuracy, allowing scientists to study particles with even higher energy.
To discover direct evidence for the particle responsible for the dark matter in the Universe is the purpose of the Large Hadron Collider.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
Consider the following best describe the significance of cell division/mitosis?
(1) Healing of injuries
(2) Growth of the body
(3) Determination of sex of unborn foetus
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
The significance of mitosis in the living world is:
Growth of the body: Growth of the body of a living being takes place by mitotic division. A unicellular zygote is transformed to a human body. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Maintaining equality of chromosome number: By this division the number and properties of a chromosome in each cell of a multicellular body remains constant.
Keeping the size and shape constant: By this division the definite shape and size of the cell remains constant.
Healing of injuries: By producing new cells this process repairs the various types of damage of multicellular organisms. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Formation of sex organs: By this process sex organs are formed. As a result, continuity of reproductive sequence is maintained.
Every living being has a definite number of chromosomes. In human beings there are 23 pairs of chromosome. Among them 22 pairs are similar in both male and female, these are Autosomes, AA. Members of the remaining pair of chromosome are different in male and female. This pair of chromosome determines the sex of human beings. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Unattempted
The significance of mitosis in the living world is:
Growth of the body: Growth of the body of a living being takes place by mitotic division. A unicellular zygote is transformed to a human body. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Maintaining equality of chromosome number: By this division the number and properties of a chromosome in each cell of a multicellular body remains constant.
Keeping the size and shape constant: By this division the definite shape and size of the cell remains constant.
Healing of injuries: By producing new cells this process repairs the various types of damage of multicellular organisms. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Formation of sex organs: By this process sex organs are formed. As a result, continuity of reproductive sequence is maintained.
Every living being has a definite number of chromosomes. In human beings there are 23 pairs of chromosome. Among them 22 pairs are similar in both male and female, these are Autosomes, AA. Members of the remaining pair of chromosome are different in male and female. This pair of chromosome determines the sex of human beings. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
Which among the following are the uses of heavy water?
(1) Preservation of Oral Polio Vaccines
(2) Coolant in nuclear reactors
(3) Bleaching agent
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
A pressurized heavy-water reactor (PHWR) is a nuclear reactor, commonly using unenriched natural uranium as its fuel, that uses heavy water (deuterium oxide D2O) as its coolant and neutron moderator.
• Non-Nuclear Applications of heavy water include: Preservation of Oral Polio Vaccines, Deuterated drugs for enhancement of biological efficacy, Deuterated optical fibers to enhance transmission efficiency etc.
• Heavy water is not used as a bleaching agent. Hydrogen peroxide is the simplest peroxide and is used as an oxidizer, bleaching agent and antiseptic.
Unattempted
A pressurized heavy-water reactor (PHWR) is a nuclear reactor, commonly using unenriched natural uranium as its fuel, that uses heavy water (deuterium oxide D2O) as its coolant and neutron moderator.
• Non-Nuclear Applications of heavy water include: Preservation of Oral Polio Vaccines, Deuterated drugs for enhancement of biological efficacy, Deuterated optical fibers to enhance transmission efficiency etc.
• Heavy water is not used as a bleaching agent. Hydrogen peroxide is the simplest peroxide and is used as an oxidizer, bleaching agent and antiseptic.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to PSLV and GSLV:
(1) PSLV has the capability to put a heavier payload in orbit than the GSLV.
(2) PSLV is designed mainly to deliver earth observation or remote sensing satellites, whereas GSLV has been designed for launching communication satellites.
(3) PSLV has four stages whereas GSLV has three stages.
(4) PSLV uses Vikas engines whereas GSLV uses cryogenic elements.
(5) PSLV utilizes a combination of both solid and liquid fuels or propellants whereas GSLV utilizes Liquid Propellants.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
PSLV has a lower payload capacity compared to the GSLV. It can carry up to 1,750 kg to LEO and 1,200 kg to SSO. It has a higher payload capacity compared to the PSLV. It can carry up to 2,500 kg to LEO and 5,000 kg to GTO. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
PSLV is designed mainly to deliver earth observation or remote sensing satellites, whereas, GSLV has been designed for launching communication satellites. PSLV can carry satellites up to a total weight of 2000 kg into space and reach up to an altitude of 600-900 km. GSLV can carry weight up to 5,000 kg and reach up to 36,000 km. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
PSLV has four stages whereas GSLV has three stages. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
PSLV uses Vikas engines whereas GSLV uses cryogenic elements. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
PSLV utilizes Solid and Liquid Propellants whereas GSLV utilizes Liquid Propellants. Hence, statement 5 is correct.
Unattempted
PSLV has a lower payload capacity compared to the GSLV. It can carry up to 1,750 kg to LEO and 1,200 kg to SSO. It has a higher payload capacity compared to the PSLV. It can carry up to 2,500 kg to LEO and 5,000 kg to GTO. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
PSLV is designed mainly to deliver earth observation or remote sensing satellites, whereas, GSLV has been designed for launching communication satellites. PSLV can carry satellites up to a total weight of 2000 kg into space and reach up to an altitude of 600-900 km. GSLV can carry weight up to 5,000 kg and reach up to 36,000 km. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
PSLV has four stages whereas GSLV has three stages. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
PSLV uses Vikas engines whereas GSLV uses cryogenic elements. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
PSLV utilizes Solid and Liquid Propellants whereas GSLV utilizes Liquid Propellants. Hence, statement 5 is correct.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sun synchronous orbit (SSO) and Geosynchronous orbit:
(1) Sun synchronous orbit is located at the altitude of 35000 Km and Geosynchronous orbit is located at altitudes of 700 to 800 Km.
(2) Sun synchronous orbit satellites help in monitoring activities near the poles unlike geosynchronous orbit satellites.
(3) Satellites in SSO have an orbital period of around 90 to 100 minutes whereas satellites in GEO have an orbital period that matches the Earth's rotation period which is approximately 24 hours.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: An earth satellite orbit in which the orbital plane is near polar and the altitude is such that the satellite passes over all places on earth having the same latitude twice in each orbit at the same local suntime. Orbital period of a sun synchronous satellite is about 100 minutes. These satellites are synchronous with respect to the Earth. This means looking from a fixed point from earth, these satellites appear to be stationary. Geosynchronous orbit period is one sidereal day which is about 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds.Sun synchronous orbit is located at the altitude of 700 to 800 Km. Geosynchronous orbit is located at an altitude of 35786 Km.
Statement 2 is correct: Sun synchronous orbit satellites help in monitoring activities near the poles unlike geosynchronous orbit satellites. Geosynchronous satellite can view a particular spot on the Earth’s surface continuously unlike sun synchronous satellite. A Sun-synchronous orbit is useful for imaging, reconnaissance satellite, and weather satellites,because every time that the satellite is overhead, the surface illumination angle on the planet underneath it will be nearly the same. Communications satellites are often given geostationary or close to geostationary orbits so that the satellite antennas that communicate with them do not have to move, but can be pointed permanently at the fixed location in the sky where the satellite appears.
Statement 3 is correct: Satellites in SSO have an orbital period of around 90 to 100 minutes, depending on the exact altitude and inclination. This means they complete approximately 14 to 16 orbits per day whereas satellites in GEO have an orbital period that matches the Earth's rotation period, which is approximately 24 hours. This means they remain fixed relative to a specific point on the Earth's surface.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect: An earth satellite orbit in which the orbital plane is near polar and the altitude is such that the satellite passes over all places on earth having the same latitude twice in each orbit at the same local suntime. Orbital period of a sun synchronous satellite is about 100 minutes. These satellites are synchronous with respect to the Earth. This means looking from a fixed point from earth, these satellites appear to be stationary. Geosynchronous orbit period is one sidereal day which is about 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds.Sun synchronous orbit is located at the altitude of 700 to 800 Km. Geosynchronous orbit is located at an altitude of 35786 Km.
Statement 2 is correct: Sun synchronous orbit satellites help in monitoring activities near the poles unlike geosynchronous orbit satellites. Geosynchronous satellite can view a particular spot on the Earth’s surface continuously unlike sun synchronous satellite. A Sun-synchronous orbit is useful for imaging, reconnaissance satellite, and weather satellites,because every time that the satellite is overhead, the surface illumination angle on the planet underneath it will be nearly the same. Communications satellites are often given geostationary or close to geostationary orbits so that the satellite antennas that communicate with them do not have to move, but can be pointed permanently at the fixed location in the sky where the satellite appears.
Statement 3 is correct: Satellites in SSO have an orbital period of around 90 to 100 minutes, depending on the exact altitude and inclination. This means they complete approximately 14 to 16 orbits per day whereas satellites in GEO have an orbital period that matches the Earth's rotation period, which is approximately 24 hours. This means they remain fixed relative to a specific point on the Earth's surface.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
Which of the following can induce mutations?
(1) X rays
(2) Gamma rays
(3) Mustard gas
(4) UV rays
(5) Nitrous acid
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
A gene mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene, such that the sequence differs from what is found in most people. Mutations range in size; they can affect anywhere from a single DNA building block (base pair) to a large segment of a chromosome that includes multiple genes.
• Gene mutations can be classified in two major ways:
o Hereditary mutations are inherited from a parent and are present throughout a person’s life in virtually every cell in the body. These mutations are also called germline mutations because they are present in the parent’s egg or sperm cells, which are also called germ cells. When an egg and a sperm cell unite, the resulting fertilized egg cell receives DNA from both parents. If this DNA has a mutation, the child that grows from the fertilized egg will have the mutation in each of his or her cells.
o Acquired (or somatic) mutations occur at some time during a person’s life and are present only in certain cells, not in every cell in the body. These changes can be caused by environmental factors such as ultraviolet radiation from the sun or can occur if an error is made as DNA copies itself during cell division. Acquired mutations in somatic cells (cells other than sperm and egg cells) cannot be passed to the next generation
• Mutation is caused by Xrays; gamma rays; mustard gas, UV rays, nitrous acid etc.
Unattempted
A gene mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene, such that the sequence differs from what is found in most people. Mutations range in size; they can affect anywhere from a single DNA building block (base pair) to a large segment of a chromosome that includes multiple genes.
• Gene mutations can be classified in two major ways:
o Hereditary mutations are inherited from a parent and are present throughout a person’s life in virtually every cell in the body. These mutations are also called germline mutations because they are present in the parent’s egg or sperm cells, which are also called germ cells. When an egg and a sperm cell unite, the resulting fertilized egg cell receives DNA from both parents. If this DNA has a mutation, the child that grows from the fertilized egg will have the mutation in each of his or her cells.
o Acquired (or somatic) mutations occur at some time during a person’s life and are present only in certain cells, not in every cell in the body. These changes can be caused by environmental factors such as ultraviolet radiation from the sun or can occur if an error is made as DNA copies itself during cell division. Acquired mutations in somatic cells (cells other than sperm and egg cells) cannot be passed to the next generation
• Mutation is caused by Xrays; gamma rays; mustard gas, UV rays, nitrous acid etc.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
Consider the following constituents of a cell nucleus :
(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Protein
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
The cell nucleus is a double membrane‐bound organelle that contains the genetic information of the cell packaged in the form of chromatin. The nucleus is a characteristic feature of most eukaryotic cells. The nucleus is considered to be one of the most important structures of eukaryotic cells as it serves the function of information storage, retrieval and duplication of genetic information.
• The nucleus contains RNA, DNA, proteins of two kinds, histone and nonhistone; some lipids; various organic phosphorus compounds; and various inorganic compounds, mostly salts.
Unattempted
The cell nucleus is a double membrane‐bound organelle that contains the genetic information of the cell packaged in the form of chromatin. The nucleus is a characteristic feature of most eukaryotic cells. The nucleus is considered to be one of the most important structures of eukaryotic cells as it serves the function of information storage, retrieval and duplication of genetic information.
• The nucleus contains RNA, DNA, proteins of two kinds, histone and nonhistone; some lipids; various organic phosphorus compounds; and various inorganic compounds, mostly salts.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
Which of the following are the potential applications of lasers?
(1) It is used to measure the distance between two celestial bodies.
(2) It provides information on continental drifting.
(3) It detects and measures the pollutants in vehicular exhaust gases.
(4) It is used in the barcode scanners.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Surveying and Rangingo Helium-neon and semiconductor lasers have become standard parts of the field surveyor's equipment.
A fast laser pulse is sent to a corner reflector at the point to be measured and the time of reflection is measured to get the distance.
o The Apollo 11 and Apollo 14 astronauts put corner reflectors on the surface of the Moon for determination of the Earth-Moon distance.
o Positions of ground stations in relation to a mirror-bearing satellite can be measured with extreme accuracy by timing the reflected returns of laser pulses transmitted from those stations, which helps in verifying the continental drift.
• Barcode Scanners
o Supermarket scanners typically use helium-neon lasers to scan the universal barcodes to identify products. The laser beam bounces off a rotating mirror and scans the code, sending a modulated beam to a light detector and then to a computer that has the product information stored. Semiconductor lasers can also be used for this purpose.
• Tunable Diode Laser Absorption Spectroscopy
o (TDLAS) has proven to be a promising technology that can be used in challenging measurements in atmospheric research and monitoring pollution. Using the Beer-Lambert extinction law, at a wavelength slightly different from the absorption lines, there will be no absorption, and thus by scanning the wavelength across the absorption lines of the target gas, one can deduce the concentration of the gas molecules present in the atmosphere. The measurements are expressed in terms of parts per million, times meter, (ppm.m) or (ppmv.m). The most prominent gases released into the atmosphere are CO2, CO, O3, which destroy the chlorofluorocarbons, (CFC’s), CH4, NO, NO2, etc.
• Hence all the four statements are correct.
Unattempted
Surveying and Rangingo Helium-neon and semiconductor lasers have become standard parts of the field surveyor's equipment.
A fast laser pulse is sent to a corner reflector at the point to be measured and the time of reflection is measured to get the distance.
o The Apollo 11 and Apollo 14 astronauts put corner reflectors on the surface of the Moon for determination of the Earth-Moon distance.
o Positions of ground stations in relation to a mirror-bearing satellite can be measured with extreme accuracy by timing the reflected returns of laser pulses transmitted from those stations, which helps in verifying the continental drift.
• Barcode Scanners
o Supermarket scanners typically use helium-neon lasers to scan the universal barcodes to identify products. The laser beam bounces off a rotating mirror and scans the code, sending a modulated beam to a light detector and then to a computer that has the product information stored. Semiconductor lasers can also be used for this purpose.
• Tunable Diode Laser Absorption Spectroscopy
o (TDLAS) has proven to be a promising technology that can be used in challenging measurements in atmospheric research and monitoring pollution. Using the Beer-Lambert extinction law, at a wavelength slightly different from the absorption lines, there will be no absorption, and thus by scanning the wavelength across the absorption lines of the target gas, one can deduce the concentration of the gas molecules present in the atmosphere. The measurements are expressed in terms of parts per million, times meter, (ppm.m) or (ppmv.m). The most prominent gases released into the atmosphere are CO2, CO, O3, which destroy the chlorofluorocarbons, (CFC’s), CH4, NO, NO2, etc.
• Hence all the four statements are correct.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
What is the purpose of LIGO Observatory ?
(A) To detect neutrinos
(B) To detect gravitational waves
(C) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
(D) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems
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Correct
Incorrect
Recently, the government approved the construction of the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) project after seven years of in-principle approval.
It will be built by the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and Technology with the U.S. National Science Foundation and several national and international research institutions.
The project aims to detect gravitational waves from the universe.
The Indian LIGO would have two perpendicularly placed 4-km long vacuum chambers, that constitute the most sensitive interferometers in the world.
It is expected to begin scientific runs from 2030.
Location:
It will be located in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra, about 450 km east of Mumbai.
Purpose and Significance:
It will be the fifth node of the planned network and will bring India into a prestigious international scientific experiment.
It will make India a unique platform that brings together the frontiers of science and technology of the quantum and the cosmos.
Unattempted
Recently, the government approved the construction of the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) project after seven years of in-principle approval.
It will be built by the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and Technology with the U.S. National Science Foundation and several national and international research institutions.
The project aims to detect gravitational waves from the universe.
The Indian LIGO would have two perpendicularly placed 4-km long vacuum chambers, that constitute the most sensitive interferometers in the world.
It is expected to begin scientific runs from 2030.
Location:
It will be located in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra, about 450 km east of Mumbai.
Purpose and Significance:
It will be the fifth node of the planned network and will bring India into a prestigious international scientific experiment.
It will make India a unique platform that brings together the frontiers of science and technology of the quantum and the cosmos.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the titanium alloy:
(1) The titanium alloys are unique due to their ductility, higher strength, fracture toughness and fatigue.
(2) It is used in aircraft, armor plating, naval ships, spacecraft, and missiles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both1and2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: A high strength titanium alloy has been developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). This alloy has been developed for applications in aerospace structural forgings. The titanium alloys are unique due to their ductility, higher strength, fracture toughness and fatigue which make them beneficial for various aircraft structures. These alloys are already being used by many developed nations in recent times as a beneficial substitute for the relatively heavier traditional Ni-Cr-Mo structural steels to achieve weight savings.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to their high tensile strength to density ratio, high corrosion resistance, and ability to withstand moderately high temperatures without creeping, titanium alloys are used in aircraft, armor plating, naval ships, spacecraft, and missiles. For these applications titanium alloyed with aluminium, vanadium, and other elements is used for a variety of components including critical structural parts, fire walls, landing gear, exhaust ducts (helicopters), and hydraulic systems. In fact, about two thirds of all titanium metal produced is used in aircraft engines and frames.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: A high strength titanium alloy has been developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). This alloy has been developed for applications in aerospace structural forgings. The titanium alloys are unique due to their ductility, higher strength, fracture toughness and fatigue which make them beneficial for various aircraft structures. These alloys are already being used by many developed nations in recent times as a beneficial substitute for the relatively heavier traditional Ni-Cr-Mo structural steels to achieve weight savings.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to their high tensile strength to density ratio, high corrosion resistance, and ability to withstand moderately high temperatures without creeping, titanium alloys are used in aircraft, armor plating, naval ships, spacecraft, and missiles. For these applications titanium alloyed with aluminium, vanadium, and other elements is used for a variety of components including critical structural parts, fire walls, landing gear, exhaust ducts (helicopters), and hydraulic systems. In fact, about two thirds of all titanium metal produced is used in aircraft engines and frames.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
Beyond electricity generation, there are many applications that can use nuclear power.
Which of the following is /are possible applications of nuclear power?
(1) seawater desalination
(2) hydrogen production
(3) heating for industry such as glass and cement manufacturing, metal production
(4) refining and synthesis gas production
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Nuclear energy
Nuclear energy generates about 10 percent of the world’s electricity, and after hydropower, it is the world’s second largest source of low-carbon power, according to the International Energy Agency (IEA). Nuclear energy can also be utilized to decarbonize non-electric applications. The heat produced by nuclear power plants is used to create steam, which drives electricity- generating turbines. Existing nuclear fleets today reach operating temperatures in the range of 300°C, while district heating and seawater desalination processes require about 150°C.
Further, Heat produced by nuclear power plants can be utilized for heating or cooling, or as an energy source towards the production of fresh water, hydrogen or other products, such as oil or synthetic fuel.
There are several methods to use nuclear energy, as a source of electricity and heat, to produce hydrogen efficiently and with little to no CO2 emissions. In nuclear district heating, steam produced by a nuclear power plant serves to heat regional heating networks.
The Heating Project is an example of how nuclear energy can play a role in decarbonizing residential heating, as well as the added value of operating a nuclear power plant in cogeneration mode.
Unattempted
Nuclear energy
Nuclear energy generates about 10 percent of the world’s electricity, and after hydropower, it is the world’s second largest source of low-carbon power, according to the International Energy Agency (IEA). Nuclear energy can also be utilized to decarbonize non-electric applications. The heat produced by nuclear power plants is used to create steam, which drives electricity- generating turbines. Existing nuclear fleets today reach operating temperatures in the range of 300°C, while district heating and seawater desalination processes require about 150°C.
Further, Heat produced by nuclear power plants can be utilized for heating or cooling, or as an energy source towards the production of fresh water, hydrogen or other products, such as oil or synthetic fuel.
There are several methods to use nuclear energy, as a source of electricity and heat, to produce hydrogen efficiently and with little to no CO2 emissions. In nuclear district heating, steam produced by a nuclear power plant serves to heat regional heating networks.
The Heating Project is an example of how nuclear energy can play a role in decarbonizing residential heating, as well as the added value of operating a nuclear power plant in cogeneration mode.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
Consider the following organisms:
(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungus
(3) Protozoa
How many of the above can be used as bio pesticide?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Biopesticides defines compounds that are used to manage agricultural pests by means of specific biological effects rather than as broader chemical pesticides. They contain a bacterium, fungus, virus or protozoan as the active ingredient. They can control many different kinds of pests, although each separate active ingredient is relatively specific for its target pest[s]. For example, there are fungi that control certain weeds and other fungi that kill specific insects.
Unattempted
Biopesticides defines compounds that are used to manage agricultural pests by means of specific biological effects rather than as broader chemical pesticides. They contain a bacterium, fungus, virus or protozoan as the active ingredient. They can control many different kinds of pests, although each separate active ingredient is relatively specific for its target pest[s]. For example, there are fungi that control certain weeds and other fungi that kill specific insects.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Deficiency of vitamin A causes xerophthalmia.
(2) Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes inflammation of the gums and weakened connective tissue.
(3) Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Megaloblastic anemia.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Deficiency of vitamin A causes xerophthalmia and night blindness.
Xerophthalmia is a disease that causes dry eyes due to vitamin A deficiency. If it goes untreated, it can progress into night blindness or spots on your eyes. It can even damage the cornea of your eye and cause blindness.
Night blindness, or nyctalopia, is where the eye is unable to adapt to low-light conditions, such as at night time. Night blindness itself is not a condition but the result of an existing eye disorder.
Statement 2 is not correct: Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes Microcytic anemia, scaling of the lips and cracks in the corners of the mouth, swollen tongue, depression, and confusion. Microcytic anemia is a condition in which the body’s tissues and organs do not get enough oxygen. This lack of oxygen can happen because the body does not have enough red blood cells, or because the red blood cells do not contain enough hemoglobin, which is a protein that transports oxygen in the blood.
When there is a lack of hemoglobin in a red blood cell, the cell is smaller in size and can carry less oxygen. Vitamin C deficiency causes inflammation of the gums and weakened connective tissue.
Statement 3 is correct: Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Megaloblastic anemia. Anemia is a blood disorder in which the number of red blood cells (RBCs) is lower than usual. RBCs transport oxygen through the body. When your body doesn’t have enough RBCs, your tissues and organs don’t get enough oxygen.
There are many types of anemia with different causes and characteristics. Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by RBCs that are larger than normal. There also aren’t enough of them. When RBCs aren’t produced properly, it results in megaloblastic anemia. Because the blood cells are too large, they may not be able to exit the bone marrow to enter the bloodstream and deliver oxygen.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Deficiency of vitamin A causes xerophthalmia and night blindness.
Xerophthalmia is a disease that causes dry eyes due to vitamin A deficiency. If it goes untreated, it can progress into night blindness or spots on your eyes. It can even damage the cornea of your eye and cause blindness.
Night blindness, or nyctalopia, is where the eye is unable to adapt to low-light conditions, such as at night time. Night blindness itself is not a condition but the result of an existing eye disorder.
Statement 2 is not correct: Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes Microcytic anemia, scaling of the lips and cracks in the corners of the mouth, swollen tongue, depression, and confusion. Microcytic anemia is a condition in which the body’s tissues and organs do not get enough oxygen. This lack of oxygen can happen because the body does not have enough red blood cells, or because the red blood cells do not contain enough hemoglobin, which is a protein that transports oxygen in the blood.
When there is a lack of hemoglobin in a red blood cell, the cell is smaller in size and can carry less oxygen. Vitamin C deficiency causes inflammation of the gums and weakened connective tissue.
Statement 3 is correct: Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Megaloblastic anemia. Anemia is a blood disorder in which the number of red blood cells (RBCs) is lower than usual. RBCs transport oxygen through the body. When your body doesn’t have enough RBCs, your tissues and organs don’t get enough oxygen.
There are many types of anemia with different causes and characteristics. Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by RBCs that are larger than normal. There also aren’t enough of them. When RBCs aren’t produced properly, it results in megaloblastic anemia. Because the blood cells are too large, they may not be able to exit the bone marrow to enter the bloodstream and deliver oxygen.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
With reference to Human Kidney consider the following statements:
(1) The functional unit of kidney is bowman capsule.
(2) The filtration of blood in kidney is carried out by the glomerulus.
(3) Kidney stones can be caused by calcium, oxalate, uric acid etc.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is not correct: The functional unit of kidney is called Nephron. Each Kidney has nearly one million of these complex tubular structures.
Statement 2 is correct: The first step in urine formation is the filtration of blood which is carried out by the glomerulus and is called glomerular filtration.
Statement 3 is correct: Most kidney stones are calcium stones, usually in the form of calcium oxalate. Oxalate is a substance made daily by your liver or absorbed from your diet. Uric acid stones can form in people who lose too much fluid because of chronic diarrhea or malabsorption, those who eat a high-protein diet, and those with diabetes or metabolic syndrome.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is not correct: The functional unit of kidney is called Nephron. Each Kidney has nearly one million of these complex tubular structures.
Statement 2 is correct: The first step in urine formation is the filtration of blood which is carried out by the glomerulus and is called glomerular filtration.
Statement 3 is correct: Most kidney stones are calcium stones, usually in the form of calcium oxalate. Oxalate is a substance made daily by your liver or absorbed from your diet. Uric acid stones can form in people who lose too much fluid because of chronic diarrhea or malabsorption, those who eat a high-protein diet, and those with diabetes or metabolic syndrome.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
With reference to Hydroponics, consider the following statements:
(1) It is suitable for growing greens and herbs only.
(2) It uses comparatively less water i.e. only about 20% of the water that is used in the conventional methods.
(3) It requires more labour for monitoring and yields are comparitively lesser than the traditional method of farming due to limited space
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is not correct: Hydroponics is a method of growing plants without soil in which plants get their nutrients from a mineral solution. The method is suitable for growing fresh vegetables and fruits in nutrient-rich water instead of soil requiring less space andresources. Tomatoes and strawberries are grown using this method. Based on modernised techniques soil-less farming results in higher productivity in a controlled climate and with no risk of the attack of the pests and insects.
Statement 2 is correct: A physical outer structure is required to grow the plants. This can be trays or tubes, which are typically made of food-grade plastic. If water of an area has dissolved minerals or is hard, purification devices will be needed to make it usable, thus adding to the costs. However, this method uses comparatively less water i.e. only about 20% of the water that is used in the conventional methods.
Statement 3 is not correct: The most efficient aspect of hydroponics is that it can be even applied in a limited space. There are cases where 6,000 plants have been grown in 80 sq ft space. This has been done by stacking plants vertically, as the method is not limited by the ground area. The method requires less labour, and yields are much higher as plants grow faster (due to direct access to required nutrients) compared with regular farms.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is not correct: Hydroponics is a method of growing plants without soil in which plants get their nutrients from a mineral solution. The method is suitable for growing fresh vegetables and fruits in nutrient-rich water instead of soil requiring less space andresources. Tomatoes and strawberries are grown using this method. Based on modernised techniques soil-less farming results in higher productivity in a controlled climate and with no risk of the attack of the pests and insects.
Statement 2 is correct: A physical outer structure is required to grow the plants. This can be trays or tubes, which are typically made of food-grade plastic. If water of an area has dissolved minerals or is hard, purification devices will be needed to make it usable, thus adding to the costs. However, this method uses comparatively less water i.e. only about 20% of the water that is used in the conventional methods.
Statement 3 is not correct: The most efficient aspect of hydroponics is that it can be even applied in a limited space. There are cases where 6,000 plants have been grown in 80 sq ft space. This has been done by stacking plants vertically, as the method is not limited by the ground area. The method requires less labour, and yields are much higher as plants grow faster (due to direct access to required nutrients) compared with regular farms.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Information about properties of the sun
(2) In astronomy to discover the composition of the universe.
(3) Medical Imaging
(4) A way to monitor nuclear proliferation
(5) Faster global communication.
Which of the above can be possible future applications of “neutrino science” ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
All options are correct.
The visible light that reaches us from the sun is emitted from the surface of the sun. The neutrinos which also take close to this time to reach us from the sun, known as “solar neutrinos,” were produced in the core of the sun.They give us information about the interior of the sun. Studying these neutrinos can help us understand what goes on in the interior of the sun. Light coming from distant stars can be studied by astronomers, for example, to detect new planets. Light is the visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum, other parts are used in, for example, radio astronomy. Likewise, if the properties of neutrinos are understood better, they can be used in astronomy to discover what the universe is made up of.
The extragalactic neutrinos we observe may be coming from the distant past. These inviolate messengers can give us a clue about the origin of the universe and the early stages of the infant universe, soon after the Big Bang.
They can be used in technological applications of the detectors that will be used to study X-ray machines, PET scans, MRI scans, etc., all of which came out of research into particle detectors.
Unattempted
All options are correct.
The visible light that reaches us from the sun is emitted from the surface of the sun. The neutrinos which also take close to this time to reach us from the sun, known as “solar neutrinos,” were produced in the core of the sun.They give us information about the interior of the sun. Studying these neutrinos can help us understand what goes on in the interior of the sun. Light coming from distant stars can be studied by astronomers, for example, to detect new planets. Light is the visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum, other parts are used in, for example, radio astronomy. Likewise, if the properties of neutrinos are understood better, they can be used in astronomy to discover what the universe is made up of.
The extragalactic neutrinos we observe may be coming from the distant past. These inviolate messengers can give us a clue about the origin of the universe and the early stages of the infant universe, soon after the Big Bang.
They can be used in technological applications of the detectors that will be used to study X-ray machines, PET scans, MRI scans, etc., all of which came out of research into particle detectors.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
Consider the following pairs :
Disease : Cause
(1)Albinism : absence of melanin
(2) Cri-du-chat Syndrome : heavy metal poisoning
(3) Cystic Fibrosis : mutation of gene
How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Albinism: Albinism is an autosomal recessive mutation. An albino cannot synthesize melanin which provides black coloration to skin and hair. Albinism is due to tyrosinase deficiency. The enzyme tyrosinase normally converts the amino acid tyrosine to melanin through an intermediate product DOPA (dihydro phenylalanine). Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Cri-du-chat (cat's cry) syndrome: also known as 5p- (5p minus) syndrome, is a chromosomal condition that results when a piece of chromosome 5 is missing. Infants with this condition often have a high-pitched cry that sounds like that of a cat. The disorder is characterized by intellectual disability and delayed development, small head size (microcephaly), low birth weight, and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Cystic fibrosis: The most common lethal genetic disease due to a recessive mutation on chromosome-7.
The body produces abnormal glycoprotein which interferes with salt metabolism. The mucus secreted by the body becomes abnormally viscid and blocks passages in the lungs, liver, and pancreas. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
Unattempted
Albinism: Albinism is an autosomal recessive mutation. An albino cannot synthesize melanin which provides black coloration to skin and hair. Albinism is due to tyrosinase deficiency. The enzyme tyrosinase normally converts the amino acid tyrosine to melanin through an intermediate product DOPA (dihydro phenylalanine). Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Cri-du-chat (cat's cry) syndrome: also known as 5p- (5p minus) syndrome, is a chromosomal condition that results when a piece of chromosome 5 is missing. Infants with this condition often have a high-pitched cry that sounds like that of a cat. The disorder is characterized by intellectual disability and delayed development, small head size (microcephaly), low birth weight, and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Cystic fibrosis: The most common lethal genetic disease due to a recessive mutation on chromosome-7.
The body produces abnormal glycoprotein which interferes with salt metabolism. The mucus secreted by the body becomes abnormally viscid and blocks passages in the lungs, liver, and pancreas. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
Colouring agents are used in crackers to give multiple colors to crackers when it bursts. In this context, consider the following pairs:
Elements/Salts : Colour
(1) Strontium salts : Red
(2) Copper salts : Orange
(3) Sodium salts : Yellow
(4) Calcium salts : White
How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Composition of Regular Crackers – A traditional firecracker comprises of six key elements:
• Fuel: Mainly Charcoal or Thermite are present in them all
• Oxidising Agents: Nitrates and Chlorates which produce oxygen inside the cracker
• Reducing Agents: Something like sulphur, which can burn the oxygen present in the firecracker
• Regulators: To ensure the speed and intensity with which a cracker bursts
• Coloring Agents: Multiple colours appear when a cracker bursts, this role is played by the colouring agents. Given below are the elements which provide different colours:
• Strontium salts – Red Colour, hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Burning of metals – White Colour
• Sodium salts – Yellow Colour, hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Barium salts – Green Colour
• Calcium Salts – Orange Colour, hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.
• Copper Salts – Blue Colour, hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Binders: All the components of the firecracker require a medium which can bind them.
Unattempted
Composition of Regular Crackers – A traditional firecracker comprises of six key elements:
• Fuel: Mainly Charcoal or Thermite are present in them all
• Oxidising Agents: Nitrates and Chlorates which produce oxygen inside the cracker
• Reducing Agents: Something like sulphur, which can burn the oxygen present in the firecracker
• Regulators: To ensure the speed and intensity with which a cracker bursts
• Coloring Agents: Multiple colours appear when a cracker bursts, this role is played by the colouring agents. Given below are the elements which provide different colours:
• Strontium salts – Red Colour, hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Burning of metals – White Colour
• Sodium salts – Yellow Colour, hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Barium salts – Green Colour
• Calcium Salts – Orange Colour, hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.
• Copper Salts – Blue Colour, hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Binders: All the components of the firecracker require a medium which can bind them.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
In the context of ” India’s nuclear doctrine”, Consider the following statements :
(1) The Nuclear Command Authority comprises a Political Council and an executive Council.
(2) The Political Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor.
(3) The Political Council is the sole body which can authorise the use of nuclear weapons.
(4) The Executive Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
The Nuclear Command Authority comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council. The Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister. It is the sole body which can authorise the use of nuclear weapons.The Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor. It Provides inputs for decision making by the Nuclear Command Authority and executes the directives given to it by the Political Council. Hence Statement 1 and 3 are correct.
India adopted its nuclear doctrine in 2003.
The salient features of this doctrine are as follows:
Building and maintaining a credible minimum deterrence.
A posture of “No First Use” – nuclear weapons will only be used in retaliation against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or on Indian forces anywhere. Etc.
Unattempted
The Nuclear Command Authority comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council. The Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister. It is the sole body which can authorise the use of nuclear weapons.The Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor. It Provides inputs for decision making by the Nuclear Command Authority and executes the directives given to it by the Political Council. Hence Statement 1 and 3 are correct.
India adopted its nuclear doctrine in 2003.
The salient features of this doctrine are as follows:
Building and maintaining a credible minimum deterrence.
A posture of “No First Use” – nuclear weapons will only be used in retaliation against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or on Indian forces anywhere. Etc.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
Consider the following events:
(1) Establishment of The Atomic Energy Commission of India
(2) Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur (IIT Kharagpur) established.
(3) Formation of The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
(4) National Physical Laboratory of India established.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events from the earliest?
(A) 3-2-1-4
(B) 1-3-4-2
(C) 4-1-2-3
(D) 2-1-3-4
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Correct
Incorrect
The National Physical Laboratory of India, situated in New Delhi, is the measurement standards laboratory of India. It maintains standards of SI units in India and calibrates the national standards of weights and measures.It was established on 4 January 1947 , India’s first national laboratory.
The Atomic Energy Commission of India is the governing body of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India. It was formed on 3 August 1948. The DAE is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. A resolution passed by the Government of India later replaced the commission by “Atomic Energy Commission of India” on 1 March 1958 under the Department of Atomic Energy with more financial and executive powers. Its headquarters is in Mumbai, maharashtra.
Functions of the Atomic Energy Commission are as follows :
To organize research in atomic science in the country.
To train atomic scientists in the country
oTo promote nuclear research in the commission’s own laboratories in India
To undertake prospecting of atomic minerals in India and to extract such minerals for use on an industrial scale.
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur (IIT Kharagpur) is a public technical and research university established by the government of India in Kharagpur, West Bengal, India. Established in 1951, the institute is the first of the IITs to be established and is recognised as an Institute of National Importance. In 2019 it was awarded the status of Institute of Eminence by the government of India.The institute was initially established to train scientists and engineers after India attained independence in 1947.
DRDO- The Defence Research and Development Organisation.It is the premier agency under the Department of Defence Research and Development in the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India, charged with the military’s research and development, headquartered in Delhi, India. It was formed in 1958 by the merger of the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production of the Indian Ordnance Factories with the Defence Science Organisation. DRDO is India’s largest and most diverse research organisation.
Unattempted
The National Physical Laboratory of India, situated in New Delhi, is the measurement standards laboratory of India. It maintains standards of SI units in India and calibrates the national standards of weights and measures.It was established on 4 January 1947 , India’s first national laboratory.
The Atomic Energy Commission of India is the governing body of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India. It was formed on 3 August 1948. The DAE is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. A resolution passed by the Government of India later replaced the commission by “Atomic Energy Commission of India” on 1 March 1958 under the Department of Atomic Energy with more financial and executive powers. Its headquarters is in Mumbai, maharashtra.
Functions of the Atomic Energy Commission are as follows :
To organize research in atomic science in the country.
To train atomic scientists in the country
oTo promote nuclear research in the commission’s own laboratories in India
To undertake prospecting of atomic minerals in India and to extract such minerals for use on an industrial scale.
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur (IIT Kharagpur) is a public technical and research university established by the government of India in Kharagpur, West Bengal, India. Established in 1951, the institute is the first of the IITs to be established and is recognised as an Institute of National Importance. In 2019 it was awarded the status of Institute of Eminence by the government of India.The institute was initially established to train scientists and engineers after India attained independence in 1947.
DRDO- The Defence Research and Development Organisation.It is the premier agency under the Department of Defence Research and Development in the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India, charged with the military’s research and development, headquartered in Delhi, India. It was formed in 1958 by the merger of the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production of the Indian Ordnance Factories with the Defence Science Organisation. DRDO is India’s largest and most diverse research organisation.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) The sky on Earth looks blue due to the Total Internal Reflection (TIR) phenomenon of light.
(2) In distance, Neptune is closer to the Sun than Uranus.
(3) An aerosol is a suspension of fine droplets or particles in a gas.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Neptune and Uranus have much in common. Their appearance is in different shades of blue.
Statement 1 is not correct: The red colours of the sunlight scattered from the haze and air molecules are more absorbed by methane molecules in the atmosphere of the planets. This process — referred to as Rayleigh scattering — is what makes skies blue here on Earth (though in Earth’s atmosphere sunlight is mostly scattered by nitrogen molecules rather than hydrogen molecules). Rayleigh scattering occurs predominantly at shorter, bluer wavelengths.
Statement 2 is not correct: In our solar system, Neptune is actually farther from the Sun than Uranus. The order of the planets in our solar system, starting from the Sun and moving outward, is as follows:
Mercury -> Venus -> Earth -> Mars -> Jupiter -> Saturn -> Uranus -> Neptune
Neptune is the eighth and farthest known planet from the Sun, while Uranus is the seventh planet. Therefore, Uranus is closer to the Sun than Neptune.
Statement 3 is correct: An aerosol is a suspension of fine droplets or particles in a gas. Common examples on Earth include mist, soot, smoke, and fog. On Neptune and Uranus, particles produced by sunlight interacting with elements in the atmosphere (photochemical reactions) are responsible for aerosol hazes in these planets’ atmospheres.
Unattempted
Neptune and Uranus have much in common. Their appearance is in different shades of blue.
Statement 1 is not correct: The red colours of the sunlight scattered from the haze and air molecules are more absorbed by methane molecules in the atmosphere of the planets. This process — referred to as Rayleigh scattering — is what makes skies blue here on Earth (though in Earth’s atmosphere sunlight is mostly scattered by nitrogen molecules rather than hydrogen molecules). Rayleigh scattering occurs predominantly at shorter, bluer wavelengths.
Statement 2 is not correct: In our solar system, Neptune is actually farther from the Sun than Uranus. The order of the planets in our solar system, starting from the Sun and moving outward, is as follows:
Mercury -> Venus -> Earth -> Mars -> Jupiter -> Saturn -> Uranus -> Neptune
Neptune is the eighth and farthest known planet from the Sun, while Uranus is the seventh planet. Therefore, Uranus is closer to the Sun than Neptune.
Statement 3 is correct: An aerosol is a suspension of fine droplets or particles in a gas. Common examples on Earth include mist, soot, smoke, and fog. On Neptune and Uranus, particles produced by sunlight interacting with elements in the atmosphere (photochemical reactions) are responsible for aerosol hazes in these planets’ atmospheres.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
Oxidation is a process in which a chemical substance changes because of the addition of oxygen. Which of the following everyday process is/are result of oxidation?
(1) Corrosion of iron
(2) Rancidification of food
(3) Combustion of hydrocarbons
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
• Corrosion is a process through which metals in manufactured states return to their natural oxidation states. This process is a reduction-oxidation reaction in which the metal is being oxidized by its surroundings, often the oxygen in the air. This reaction is both spontaneous and electrochemically favoured. Corrosion is essentially the creation of voltaic, or galvanic, cells where the metal in question acts as an anode and generally deteriorates or loses functional stability.
• Rancidity, it is the natural process of decomposition (degradation) of fats or oils by either hydrolysis or oxidation, or both. It is the complete or incomplete oxidation or hydrolysis of fats and oils when exposed to air, light, or moisture or by bacterial action, resulting in unpleasant taste and odour.
• Combustion is an oxidation reaction. During combustion, burning of fuel takes place in the presence of oxygen. If oxygen is not present burning will not take place.
Unattempted
• Corrosion is a process through which metals in manufactured states return to their natural oxidation states. This process is a reduction-oxidation reaction in which the metal is being oxidized by its surroundings, often the oxygen in the air. This reaction is both spontaneous and electrochemically favoured. Corrosion is essentially the creation of voltaic, or galvanic, cells where the metal in question acts as an anode and generally deteriorates or loses functional stability.
• Rancidity, it is the natural process of decomposition (degradation) of fats or oils by either hydrolysis or oxidation, or both. It is the complete or incomplete oxidation or hydrolysis of fats and oils when exposed to air, light, or moisture or by bacterial action, resulting in unpleasant taste and odour.
• Combustion is an oxidation reaction. During combustion, burning of fuel takes place in the presence of oxygen. If oxygen is not present burning will not take place.
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?
(A) Cat fish – Tortoise – Otter – Kiwi
(B) Cat fish – Kiwi – Tortoise – Otter
(C) Tortoise – Cat fish – Otter – Kiwi
(D) Cat fish – Tortoise – Kiwi – Otter
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Correct
Incorrect
While it is estimated that the Earth is 4.5 billion years old, life began to appear approximately 3.5 billion years ago. Evolution of vertebrates (those having a backbone) occurred in the following order: Fish, Amphibia, Reptiles, Birds and Mammals.
• Hence, the correct sequence is Cat fish-Tortoise-Kiwi-Otter.
Unattempted
While it is estimated that the Earth is 4.5 billion years old, life began to appear approximately 3.5 billion years ago. Evolution of vertebrates (those having a backbone) occurred in the following order: Fish, Amphibia, Reptiles, Birds and Mammals.
• Hence, the correct sequence is Cat fish-Tortoise-Kiwi-Otter.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
Which of the following is/are positive implications of the use of solar energy Technologies?
(1) Electricity generation.
(2) Production of thermal energy.
(3) Reduction of emission of greenhouse gas.
(4) Increased regional/national energy independence.
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) Only three
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Correct
Incorrect
All of the options (1), (2), (3), and (4) are positive implications of the use of solar energy technologies:
Electricity generation: Solar energy technologies, such as photovoltaic (PV) panels, generate electricity from sunlight. This is one of the primary and most well-known applications of solar energy, and it contributes to a cleaner and more sustainable energy mix.
Production of thermal energy: Solar thermal technologies capture sunlight to produce thermal energy, which can be used for various purposes, including space heating, water heating, and industrial processes. This utilization of solar thermal energy is another positive implication as it reduces the reliance on fossil fuels for heating.
Reduction of emission of greenhouse gases: Solar energy technologies produce electricity and thermal energy without emitting greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) or other harmful air pollutants. By using solar energy, we can significantly reduce the emissions associated with conventional energy sources, contributing to efforts to combat climate change and improve air quality.
Increased regional/national energy independence: As mentioned earlier, solar energy technologies contribute to increased energy independence by diversifying energy sources, reducing reliance on fossil fuels, and promoting local energy production. This can enhance a region's or nation's energy security and reduce vulnerability to supply disruptions.
Unattempted
All of the options (1), (2), (3), and (4) are positive implications of the use of solar energy technologies:
Electricity generation: Solar energy technologies, such as photovoltaic (PV) panels, generate electricity from sunlight. This is one of the primary and most well-known applications of solar energy, and it contributes to a cleaner and more sustainable energy mix.
Production of thermal energy: Solar thermal technologies capture sunlight to produce thermal energy, which can be used for various purposes, including space heating, water heating, and industrial processes. This utilization of solar thermal energy is another positive implication as it reduces the reliance on fossil fuels for heating.
Reduction of emission of greenhouse gases: Solar energy technologies produce electricity and thermal energy without emitting greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) or other harmful air pollutants. By using solar energy, we can significantly reduce the emissions associated with conventional energy sources, contributing to efforts to combat climate change and improve air quality.
Increased regional/national energy independence: As mentioned earlier, solar energy technologies contribute to increased energy independence by diversifying energy sources, reducing reliance on fossil fuels, and promoting local energy production. This can enhance a region's or nation's energy security and reduce vulnerability to supply disruptions.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
With reference to Dry Ice, consider the following statements:
(1) It is the solid form of carbon dioxide.
(2) It is used primarily as a cooling agent.
(3) It has a lower temperature than that of water ice and does not leave any residue.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Dry ice, sometimes referred to as “Cardice” or as “card ice” is the solid form of carbon dioxide.
• It is used primarily as a cooling agent.
• Its advantages include lower temperature than that of water ice and not leaving any residue (other than incidental frost from moisture in the atmosphere).
• It is useful for preserving frozen foods, ice cream, etc., where mechanical cooling is unavailable.
Unattempted
Dry ice, sometimes referred to as “Cardice” or as “card ice” is the solid form of carbon dioxide.
• It is used primarily as a cooling agent.
• Its advantages include lower temperature than that of water ice and not leaving any residue (other than incidental frost from moisture in the atmosphere).
• It is useful for preserving frozen foods, ice cream, etc., where mechanical cooling is unavailable.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
A person stands on loose sand and then lies down on it. He goes deeper into the sand while standing than while lying down. Which one of the following is the reason?
(A) The weight of the body is lesser while standing up.
(B) The density of the human body is lesser than sand
(C) The pressure on the sand is higher while standing up
(D) There is more friction between the body and the sand while lying down
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The effects of forces of the same magnitude on different areas are different. When the person stands on loose sand, the force, that is, the weight of his body is acting on an area equal to the area of his feet. When he lies down, the same force acts on an area equal to the contact area of his whole body, which is larger than the area of his feet. In both cases, the force exerted on the sand is the weight of his body and the force is acting perpendicular to the surface of the sand. The force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface is called thrust. The effect of thrust on sand is larger while standing than while lying. The thrust on the unit area is called pressure.
• Pressure = Thrust/Area
• Thus, higher pressure is exerted by the body on the sand while standing and the person goes down deeper into it as compared to when he is lying down.
Unattempted
The effects of forces of the same magnitude on different areas are different. When the person stands on loose sand, the force, that is, the weight of his body is acting on an area equal to the area of his feet. When he lies down, the same force acts on an area equal to the contact area of his whole body, which is larger than the area of his feet. In both cases, the force exerted on the sand is the weight of his body and the force is acting perpendicular to the surface of the sand. The force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface is called thrust. The effect of thrust on sand is larger while standing than while lying. The thrust on the unit area is called pressure.
• Pressure = Thrust/Area
• Thus, higher pressure is exerted by the body on the sand while standing and the person goes down deeper into it as compared to when he is lying down.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
Consider the following statements regarding solar energy Technologies:
(1) Photovoltaic solar systems directly convert the solar energy to electricity through photo-electric effect.
(2) Concentrating solar power, which converts the solar radiation into heat.
(3) Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Photovoltaic (PV) solar systems directly convert solar energy into electricity through the photoelectric effect. This process involves the absorption of photons (particles of light) by semiconductor materials in the PV cells, which then generates an electric current. The photoelectric effect is the fundamental principle underlying the operation of photovoltaic panels, and it allows for the direct conversion of sunlight into electricity without the need for mechanical or thermal intermediaries. This makes PV solar systems an efficient and clean way to generate electricity from solar energy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) is a technology that harnesses solar energy by converting solar radiation into heat rather than directly into electricity, as photovoltaic (PV) solar panels do. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Photovoltaic (PV) systems typically generate Direct Current (DC), not Alternating Current (AC). Solar thermal systems, on the other hand, do not generate electricity; they produce heat, which can then be used for various purposes, such as heating water or generating steam to drive a turbine for electricity generation. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Unattempted
Photovoltaic (PV) solar systems directly convert solar energy into electricity through the photoelectric effect. This process involves the absorption of photons (particles of light) by semiconductor materials in the PV cells, which then generates an electric current. The photoelectric effect is the fundamental principle underlying the operation of photovoltaic panels, and it allows for the direct conversion of sunlight into electricity without the need for mechanical or thermal intermediaries. This makes PV solar systems an efficient and clean way to generate electricity from solar energy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) is a technology that harnesses solar energy by converting solar radiation into heat rather than directly into electricity, as photovoltaic (PV) solar panels do. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Photovoltaic (PV) systems typically generate Direct Current (DC), not Alternating Current (AC). Solar thermal systems, on the other hand, do not generate electricity; they produce heat, which can then be used for various purposes, such as heating water or generating steam to drive a turbine for electricity generation. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
Which of the following are the main reasons for the use of silicon in solar panels?
(1) High quality semiconductor.
(2) Most abundant element in the earth's crust.
(3) Low weight volume ratio.
(4) Extended life cycle.
(5) Robustness and Strength.
(6) Easy to produce at high cost.
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only four
(D) Only five
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Silicon semiconductors
Conversion of solar energy into electric energy is accomplished by the principle of photovoltaic (PV) effect.
One of the most popular semiconductor materials used in PV cells is silicon which has properties conducive to produce electric power from solar energy. Silicon semiconductors are popular because:
Low weight volume ratio.
Extended life cycle.
Robustness and strength.
Silicon semiconductors are easy to produce at low cost.
High quality semiconductor which has properties conducive to produce electric power from solar energy.
Silicon makes up 27.7 percent of Earth’s crust; it is the second most abundant element in the crust, being surpassed only by oxygen.
Hence, options 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
Unattempted
Silicon semiconductors
Conversion of solar energy into electric energy is accomplished by the principle of photovoltaic (PV) effect.
One of the most popular semiconductor materials used in PV cells is silicon which has properties conducive to produce electric power from solar energy. Silicon semiconductors are popular because:
Low weight volume ratio.
Extended life cycle.
Robustness and strength.
Silicon semiconductors are easy to produce at low cost.
High quality semiconductor which has properties conducive to produce electric power from solar energy.
Silicon makes up 27.7 percent of Earth’s crust; it is the second most abundant element in the crust, being surpassed only by oxygen.
Hence, options 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
Consider the following technological solutions to fight climate change :
(1) Stratospheric aerosol injection.
(2) Marine cloud brightening.
(3) Ground-based albedo modification.
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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All three of the options mentioned are technological solutions that have been proposed as potential methods to mitigate the effects of climate change:
Stratospheric aerosol injection: This involves injecting reflective aerosol particles into the stratosphere to reflect sunlight away from the Earth's surface, thus cooling the planet. It is a controversial and unproven geoengineering technique.
Marine cloud brightening: This technique aims to enhance the reflectivity of marine clouds by spraying fine sea salt particles into the atmosphere. The increased cloud reflectivity could potentially cool the Earth's surface by reflecting more sunlight back into space.
Ground-based albedo modification: This approach involves changing the reflectivity (albedo) of the Earth's surface, for example, by painting roofs and roads with reflective materials or planting reflective crops. This can help reduce the absorption of solar energy by the Earth's surface.
Unattempted
All three of the options mentioned are technological solutions that have been proposed as potential methods to mitigate the effects of climate change:
Stratospheric aerosol injection: This involves injecting reflective aerosol particles into the stratosphere to reflect sunlight away from the Earth's surface, thus cooling the planet. It is a controversial and unproven geoengineering technique.
Marine cloud brightening: This technique aims to enhance the reflectivity of marine clouds by spraying fine sea salt particles into the atmosphere. The increased cloud reflectivity could potentially cool the Earth's surface by reflecting more sunlight back into space.
Ground-based albedo modification: This approach involves changing the reflectivity (albedo) of the Earth's surface, for example, by painting roofs and roads with reflective materials or planting reflective crops. This can help reduce the absorption of solar energy by the Earth's surface.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Computer:
(1) Quantum computers have the ability to process so much more information and so much faster compared to classical computers.
(2) In a Quantum computer information is expressed through qubit, which is described as a 0 and 1 at the same time giving us more processing power.
(3) Superposition and Entanglement are what give quantum computers the ability to process so much more information.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Statement 1 is correct: Quantum computers store and process information using quantum two level systems (quantum bits or qubits) which unlike classical bits, can be prepared in superposition states. This key ability makes quantum computers extremely powerful compared to conventional computers when solving certain kinds of problems like finding prime factors of large numbers and searching large databases.
Statement 2 is correct: A Quantum computer uses Qubits which is described as a 0 and 1 at the same time giving us more processing power compared to a classical computer. In a classical computer information is expressed through a single number either 0 or 1.
Statement 3 is correct: A Quantum computer uses the laws of quantum mechanics in which superposition and entanglement are what give quantum computers the ability to process so much more information.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Quantum computers store and process information using quantum two level systems (quantum bits or qubits) which unlike classical bits, can be prepared in superposition states. This key ability makes quantum computers extremely powerful compared to conventional computers when solving certain kinds of problems like finding prime factors of large numbers and searching large databases.
Statement 2 is correct: A Quantum computer uses Qubits which is described as a 0 and 1 at the same time giving us more processing power compared to a classical computer. In a classical computer information is expressed through a single number either 0 or 1.
Statement 3 is correct: A Quantum computer uses the laws of quantum mechanics in which superposition and entanglement are what give quantum computers the ability to process so much more information.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
Consider the following applications of Supercomputers :
(1) Climate Modelling and Weather Prediction
(2) Aerospace Engineering
(3) Computational Biology
(4) Atomic Energy Simulations
(5) National Security
(6) Seismic Analysis
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) All
(D) Only four
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According to National supercomputing mission following are application areas of Supercomputers:
Climate Modelling
Weather Prediction
Aerospace Engineering including CFD, CSM, CEM
Computational Biology
Molecular Dynamics
Atomic Energy Simulations
National Security/ Defence Applications
Seismic Analysis
Disaster Simulations and Management
Computational Chemistry
Computational Material Science and Nanomaterials
Discoveries beyond Earth (Astrophysics)
Large Complex Systems Simulations and Cyber Physical Systems
Big Data Analytics
Finance
Information repositories/ Government Information Systems
Unattempted
According to National supercomputing mission following are application areas of Supercomputers:
Climate Modelling
Weather Prediction
Aerospace Engineering including CFD, CSM, CEM
Computational Biology
Molecular Dynamics
Atomic Energy Simulations
National Security/ Defence Applications
Seismic Analysis
Disaster Simulations and Management
Computational Chemistry
Computational Material Science and Nanomaterials
Discoveries beyond Earth (Astrophysics)
Large Complex Systems Simulations and Cyber Physical Systems
Big Data Analytics
Finance
Information repositories/ Government Information Systems
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
Consider the following application of “Ghraphen ” :
(1) The thermal and electrical conductivity is very high and it can be used as a flexible conductor.
(2) It can be used in touch screens, light panels and solar cells, where it can replace the rather fragile and expensive Indium-Tin-Oxide (ITO).
(3) Graphene can possibly contribute to more accurate resistance standards in metrology.
(4) New types of composite materials based on graphene with great strength and low weight can be used in satellites and aircraft.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Graphene is considered to be the world’s thinnest, strongest and most conductive material – of both electricity and heat. The thermal and electrical conductivity is very high and it can be used as a flexible conductor. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Graphene is also a transparent conductor, so it can replace fragile and expensive Indium-Tin-Oxide (ITO) in touch screens, light panels, and solar cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Graphene has the potential to contribute to more accurate resistance standards in metrology. Metrology is the science of measurement, and it plays a crucial role in various industries where precise measurements are essential, such as electronics, telecommunications, and manufacturing. Resistance standards are important for calibrating instruments and ensuring accurate measurements in electrical and electronic applications. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Graphene-based composite materials have the potential to revolutionize the aerospace industry, including their use in satellites and aircraft. Graphene is a two-dimensional material composed of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. It possesses remarkable mechanical, electrical, and thermal properties, which make it highly attractive for aerospace applications. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Unattempted
Graphene is considered to be the world’s thinnest, strongest and most conductive material – of both electricity and heat. The thermal and electrical conductivity is very high and it can be used as a flexible conductor. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Graphene is also a transparent conductor, so it can replace fragile and expensive Indium-Tin-Oxide (ITO) in touch screens, light panels, and solar cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Graphene has the potential to contribute to more accurate resistance standards in metrology. Metrology is the science of measurement, and it plays a crucial role in various industries where precise measurements are essential, such as electronics, telecommunications, and manufacturing. Resistance standards are important for calibrating instruments and ensuring accurate measurements in electrical and electronic applications. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Graphene-based composite materials have the potential to revolutionize the aerospace industry, including their use in satellites and aircraft. Graphene is a two-dimensional material composed of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. It possesses remarkable mechanical, electrical, and thermal properties, which make it highly attractive for aerospace applications. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
“Enormous use of nanoparticles (NPs) considered may pose risks to the environment and biological systems ” in this context , Consider the following statements about potential hazards of Nanoparticles :
(1) Nanopollution is the reason for lung inflammation and heart problems.
(2) Nanoparticles used to carry drugs may be toxic to the brain.
(3) Persistent insoluble nanoparticles may cause problems in the environment.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Exposure to inhaled nanoparticles can potentially have adverse health effects, including lung inflammation and heart problems. Nanoparticles are tiny particles with sizes in the nanometer range, and they can be inhaled when present in the air. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The use of nanoparticles to deliver drugs has shown great promise in the field of medicine because it can improve the targeted delivery of therapeutic agents, reduce side effects, and enhance the overall efficacy of treatments. However, it is true that certain nanoparticles can potentially have toxic effects on the brain, and this is an area of concern and active research. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The pulmonary injury and inflammation resulting from the inhalation of nanosize urban particulate matter appears to be due to the oxidative stress that these particles cause in the cells. Persistent insoluble nanoparticles may cause problems in the environment that are much greater than those revealed by human health assessments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
Exposure to inhaled nanoparticles can potentially have adverse health effects, including lung inflammation and heart problems. Nanoparticles are tiny particles with sizes in the nanometer range, and they can be inhaled when present in the air. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The use of nanoparticles to deliver drugs has shown great promise in the field of medicine because it can improve the targeted delivery of therapeutic agents, reduce side effects, and enhance the overall efficacy of treatments. However, it is true that certain nanoparticles can potentially have toxic effects on the brain, and this is an area of concern and active research. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The pulmonary injury and inflammation resulting from the inhalation of nanosize urban particulate matter appears to be due to the oxidative stress that these particles cause in the cells. Persistent insoluble nanoparticles may cause problems in the environment that are much greater than those revealed by human health assessments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
Consider the following Statements:
(1) Superconducting magnets can be used for accelerating the particles in the Large Hadron Collider.
(2) SQUIDs (superconducting quantum interference devices ) can be used in the production of highly sensitive magnetometers.
(3) Superconductors Can be used for the development of high-intensity Electromagnetic Impulse (EMP).
How many of the above can be possible applications of “Superconductivity” ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Applications of Superconductivity :
Superconducting magnets are used for accelerating the particles in the Large Hadron Collides.
SQUIDs (superconducting quantum interference devices) are being used in the production of highly sensitive magnetometers. They are generally used for the detection of landmines.
Superconducting magnets are also used in Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) machines.
As we know due to the electrical resistance, there is a power loss while power transmission. So nowadays, superconducting cables are used in place of ordinary cable lines to avoid power loss. Superconductors are also being used for the development of high-intensity Electromagnetic Impulse (EMP).
Hence, all statements are correct.
Unattempted
Applications of Superconductivity :
Superconducting magnets are used for accelerating the particles in the Large Hadron Collides.
SQUIDs (superconducting quantum interference devices) are being used in the production of highly sensitive magnetometers. They are generally used for the detection of landmines.
Superconducting magnets are also used in Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) machines.
As we know due to the electrical resistance, there is a power loss while power transmission. So nowadays, superconducting cables are used in place of ordinary cable lines to avoid power loss. Superconductors are also being used for the development of high-intensity Electromagnetic Impulse (EMP).
Hence, all statements are correct.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
Which of the following techniques is/are related to ‘Carbon Dioxide Removal’ ?
(1) Carbon capture and storage (CCS)
(2) Ocean fertilisation
(3) Soil carbon sequestration
(4) Deforestation
How many of the above options is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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The techniques related to “Carbon Dioxide Removal” (CDR) from the atmosphere are:
Carbon capture and storage (CCS): CCS involves capturing carbon dioxide emissions produced by industrial processes or power plants and storing them underground to prevent them from entering the atmosphere.
Ocean fertilization: Ocean fertilization is a technique that involves adding nutrients to the ocean to promote the growth of phytoplankton. These phytoplankton can absorb carbon dioxide during photosynthesis, potentially leading to carbon dioxide removal from the atmosphere. However, this method has generated environmental concerns and is not widely used.
Soil carbon sequestration: Soil carbon sequestration refers to practices that enhance the capture and storage of carbon in soils. This can be achieved through agricultural practices like no-till farming, reforestation, afforestation, and sustainable land management.
Deforestation: Deforestation, on the other hand, is not a technique for carbon dioxide removal but rather a contributor to carbon dioxide emissions. When trees are cut down or forests are cleared, the carbon stored in the trees and vegetation is released into the atmosphere, contributing to increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
So, among the options provided (1) Carbon capture and storage (CCS), (2) Ocean fertilization, (3) Soil carbon sequestration are related to “Carbon Dioxide Removal,” while:
(4) Deforestation is not related to CDR but is associated with carbon emissions.
Unattempted
The techniques related to “Carbon Dioxide Removal” (CDR) from the atmosphere are:
Carbon capture and storage (CCS): CCS involves capturing carbon dioxide emissions produced by industrial processes or power plants and storing them underground to prevent them from entering the atmosphere.
Ocean fertilization: Ocean fertilization is a technique that involves adding nutrients to the ocean to promote the growth of phytoplankton. These phytoplankton can absorb carbon dioxide during photosynthesis, potentially leading to carbon dioxide removal from the atmosphere. However, this method has generated environmental concerns and is not widely used.
Soil carbon sequestration: Soil carbon sequestration refers to practices that enhance the capture and storage of carbon in soils. This can be achieved through agricultural practices like no-till farming, reforestation, afforestation, and sustainable land management.
Deforestation: Deforestation, on the other hand, is not a technique for carbon dioxide removal but rather a contributor to carbon dioxide emissions. When trees are cut down or forests are cleared, the carbon stored in the trees and vegetation is released into the atmosphere, contributing to increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
So, among the options provided (1) Carbon capture and storage (CCS), (2) Ocean fertilization, (3) Soil carbon sequestration are related to “Carbon Dioxide Removal,” while:
(4) Deforestation is not related to CDR but is associated with carbon emissions.
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
Nitrogen gas is used in the tyres of an airplane because
(A) Nitrogen gas is inert unlike air
(B) It is heavier than air
(C) It forms liquid only below a very low temperature
(D) Both (A) and (C)
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Aircraft tires are filled with nitrogen because nitrogen gas is mostly inert, meaning that it requires more energy to react with other substances. This is important because, at elevated temperatures, oxygen can react with rubber. Oxidized rubber is weaker than non-oxidized rubber, and weaker tires are not preferred.
• Air has certain moisture content and it is generally very hard to remove this moisture. If an airplane tires were filled with air, at the flight altitude ice would form inside the tires since the temperature up there is about -30 degrees F. Landing with a chunk of ice in the tire would make it out of balance and change the tire pressure. Tires would probably burst.
• On the other hand, nitrogen doesn't form a liquid till -173C and pure nitrogen has almost no moisture.
• Nitrogen being lighter than air does not play a part in it being used in the airplane tyres. Hence option (D) is the correct answer.
Unattempted
Aircraft tires are filled with nitrogen because nitrogen gas is mostly inert, meaning that it requires more energy to react with other substances. This is important because, at elevated temperatures, oxygen can react with rubber. Oxidized rubber is weaker than non-oxidized rubber, and weaker tires are not preferred.
• Air has certain moisture content and it is generally very hard to remove this moisture. If an airplane tires were filled with air, at the flight altitude ice would form inside the tires since the temperature up there is about -30 degrees F. Landing with a chunk of ice in the tire would make it out of balance and change the tire pressure. Tires would probably burst.
• On the other hand, nitrogen doesn't form a liquid till -173C and pure nitrogen has almost no moisture.
• Nitrogen being lighter than air does not play a part in it being used in the airplane tyres. Hence option (D) is the correct answer.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis?
(A) Lysosome and Centrosome
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum and Ribosome
(C) Golgi apparatus and Mitochondria
(D) Lysosome and Mitochondria
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Ribosomes are the factories of protein synthesis. They are 70S type in prokaryotes and 80S type in Eukaryotes. When Ribosomes are attached to Endoplasmic reticulum (ER), it is called Rough ER which helps in protein synthesis. Hence option (B) is the correct answer.
Unattempted
Ribosomes are the factories of protein synthesis. They are 70S type in prokaryotes and 80S type in Eukaryotes. When Ribosomes are attached to Endoplasmic reticulum (ER), it is called Rough ER which helps in protein synthesis. Hence option (B) is the correct answer.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
Consider the following statements regarding “Carbon Nanotube” :
(1) It is an alloy of Carbon and Chromium.
(2) It exhibits extraordinary strength and is an efficient conductor of heat.
(3) They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
(4) They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body.
(5) They can be used in biochemical sensors.
(6) Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) Only four
(D) None
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Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are an allotrope of carbon. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
They take the form of cylindrical carbon molecules and have novel properties that make them potentially useful in a wide variety of applications in nanotechnology, electronics, optics and other fields of materials science. They exhibit extraordinary strength and unique electrical properties and are efficient conductors of heat. New studies on the strength of these submicroscopic cylinders of carbon indicate that on an ounce-for-ounce basis they are at least 117 times stronger than steel and 30 times stronger than Kevlar, the material used in bulletproof vests and other products. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) have been studied for their potential use as carriers for drugs and antigens in the human body. Carbon nanotubes are tubular structures made of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice, and they have unique properties that make them attractive for various biomedical applications, including drug delivery and vaccine delivery. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Carbon nanotubes can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body as they are promising drug delivery platforms that can be functionalized with a variety of biomolecules, such as antibodies, proteins, or DNA. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
NASA has demonstrated the use of carbon nanotube arrays as biosensors. Hence option 5 is correct.
Multiple types of microbes, including bacteria and fungi, have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs). Hence, statement 6 is correct.
Unattempted
Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are an allotrope of carbon. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
They take the form of cylindrical carbon molecules and have novel properties that make them potentially useful in a wide variety of applications in nanotechnology, electronics, optics and other fields of materials science. They exhibit extraordinary strength and unique electrical properties and are efficient conductors of heat. New studies on the strength of these submicroscopic cylinders of carbon indicate that on an ounce-for-ounce basis they are at least 117 times stronger than steel and 30 times stronger than Kevlar, the material used in bulletproof vests and other products. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) have been studied for their potential use as carriers for drugs and antigens in the human body. Carbon nanotubes are tubular structures made of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice, and they have unique properties that make them attractive for various biomedical applications, including drug delivery and vaccine delivery. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Carbon nanotubes can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body as they are promising drug delivery platforms that can be functionalized with a variety of biomolecules, such as antibodies, proteins, or DNA. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
NASA has demonstrated the use of carbon nanotube arrays as biosensors. Hence option 5 is correct.
Multiple types of microbes, including bacteria and fungi, have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs). Hence, statement 6 is correct.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Bleaching powder.
(1) It is used for disinfecting water.
(2) It is also known as sodium bicarbonate.
(3) It acts as a reducing agent in many chemical industries.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Bleaching powder is used as a disinfectant and germicide. It liberates Chlorine on exposure to the atmosphere which destroys the germs.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bleaching powder is chemically calcium oxychloride (CaOCl2). Bleaching powder is manufactured using Backmann”s plant. Slaked lime and Chlorine are used in this process to produce bleaching Powder. Hence, it is also known as chlorinated lime. Baking soda is the common name of sodium bicarbonate. The chemical formula of baking soda is NaHCO3.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Bleaching powder is little acidic and also produces oxygen when it is added. Thus, it acts as an oxidizing (not reducing) and a bleaching agent in many chemical industries.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct. Bleaching powder is used as a disinfectant and germicide. It liberates Chlorine on exposure to the atmosphere which destroys the germs.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bleaching powder is chemically calcium oxychloride (CaOCl2). Bleaching powder is manufactured using Backmann”s plant. Slaked lime and Chlorine are used in this process to produce bleaching Powder. Hence, it is also known as chlorinated lime. Baking soda is the common name of sodium bicarbonate. The chemical formula of baking soda is NaHCO3.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Bleaching powder is little acidic and also produces oxygen when it is added. Thus, it acts as an oxidizing (not reducing) and a bleaching agent in many chemical industries.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
With reference to aquaponics, consider the following statements:
(1) In aquaponics, fish and plants are grown together.
(2) It involves use of scarce land unlike conventional farming.
(3) In this technique the fish waste provides fertilizer for growing plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
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In aquaponics, fish and plants are grown together with the single input of fish feed. Fish are reared in tanks and the water is circulated to vegetable roots. All other nutrients required for plant growth are provided by the fish excreta. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The greatest advantage of aquaponics is vertical farming — utilising scarce land in cities to get a greater higher yield per square feet. Although the cost of setting up a vertical farm is high, the selling of vegetables in retail makes the venture attractive. Urban farms also have a smaller carbon footprint as produce is grown locally, avoiding transportation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In this technique the fish waste provides fertilizer for growing plants. The plants absorb nutrients and filter the water. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Unattempted
In aquaponics, fish and plants are grown together with the single input of fish feed. Fish are reared in tanks and the water is circulated to vegetable roots. All other nutrients required for plant growth are provided by the fish excreta. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The greatest advantage of aquaponics is vertical farming — utilising scarce land in cities to get a greater higher yield per square feet. Although the cost of setting up a vertical farm is high, the selling of vegetables in retail makes the venture attractive. Urban farms also have a smaller carbon footprint as produce is grown locally, avoiding transportation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In this technique the fish waste provides fertilizer for growing plants. The plants absorb nutrients and filter the water. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
With the present state of development, “Blockchain Technology” can effectively do which of the following?
(1) Cryptocurrency Exchange
(2) Supply Chain Monitoring
(3) IoT Operating system
(4) Anti-Money laundering tracking system
(5) Original content creation
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Blockchain technology is a structure that stores transactional records (known as the block) of the public in several databases (known as the chain) in a network connected through peer-to-peer nodes.
This storage is referred to as a digital ledger. The three key principles of blockchain technology are transparency, decentralization and accountability.
Blockchain applications go far beyond cryptocurrency and bitcoin. With its ability to create more transparency and fairness while also saving businesses time and money, the technology is impacting a variety of sectors such as,
Secure sharing of medical data.
Music royalties tracking
Cross-border payments
Real-time IoT operating systems, for instance Filament.
Personal identity security
Anti-money laundering tracking system, for instance Civic.
Supply chain and logistics monitoring
Voting mechanism
Original content creation, for example MEDIACHAIN
Therefore, all options are correct.
Unattempted
Blockchain technology is a structure that stores transactional records (known as the block) of the public in several databases (known as the chain) in a network connected through peer-to-peer nodes.
This storage is referred to as a digital ledger. The three key principles of blockchain technology are transparency, decentralization and accountability.
Blockchain applications go far beyond cryptocurrency and bitcoin. With its ability to create more transparency and fairness while also saving businesses time and money, the technology is impacting a variety of sectors such as,
Secure sharing of medical data.
Music royalties tracking
Cross-border payments
Real-time IoT operating systems, for instance Filament.
Personal identity security
Anti-money laundering tracking system, for instance Civic.
Supply chain and logistics monitoring
Voting mechanism
Original content creation, for example MEDIACHAIN
Therefore, all options are correct.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty :
(1) It bans nuclear explosions for military purposes, but not for civilian purposes.
(2) It provides for a global verification regime under the supervision of the International Atomic Energy Agency.
(3) It prohibits attacks against nuclear installations in the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone.
(4) None of the nuclear weapon states have signed or ratified the treaty.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, for both civilian and military purposes, in all environments. It has not entered into force yet.
Statement 2 is incorrect : The treaty envisages a global verification regime to make sure that no nuclear explosion goes undetected. For this purpose, International Monitoring System (IMS)will consist of 337 facilities worldwide to monitor the planet for signs of nuclear explosions. Around 90 percent of the facilities are already up and running. International Atomic Energy Agencyis not associated with the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty. It is a United Nations body created in 1957 in response to the deep fears generated by the discoveries and diverse uses of nuclear technology.
Statement 3 is incorrect : It does not deal with prohibiting attacks against nuclear installations in the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone. Pelindaba treaty prohibits the research, development, manufacture, stockpiling, acquisition, testing, possession, control or stationing of nuclear explosive devices in the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone. It also prohibits any attack against nuclear installations in the zone by Treaty parties.
Statement 4 is incorrect : Nuclear weapon states like Russia Federation, United Kingdom, France have ratified the treaty but countries like US, China, North Korea, Israel, Pakistan, India have not ratified the treaty. India has not even signed the treaty.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, for both civilian and military purposes, in all environments. It has not entered into force yet.
Statement 2 is incorrect : The treaty envisages a global verification regime to make sure that no nuclear explosion goes undetected. For this purpose, International Monitoring System (IMS)will consist of 337 facilities worldwide to monitor the planet for signs of nuclear explosions. Around 90 percent of the facilities are already up and running. International Atomic Energy Agencyis not associated with the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty. It is a United Nations body created in 1957 in response to the deep fears generated by the discoveries and diverse uses of nuclear technology.
Statement 3 is incorrect : It does not deal with prohibiting attacks against nuclear installations in the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone. Pelindaba treaty prohibits the research, development, manufacture, stockpiling, acquisition, testing, possession, control or stationing of nuclear explosive devices in the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone. It also prohibits any attack against nuclear installations in the zone by Treaty parties.
Statement 4 is incorrect : Nuclear weapon states like Russia Federation, United Kingdom, France have ratified the treaty but countries like US, China, North Korea, Israel, Pakistan, India have not ratified the treaty. India has not even signed the treaty.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
How many of the following bones are matched correctly with their respective body part?
Bone : Body Part
(1) Femur : Thigh
(2) Sternum : Skull
(3) Patella : Shoulder
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct
Incorrect
Femur is the thigh bone. It is the longest and strongest bone in the human body.
• The sternum or breastbone is a long flat bone located in the central part of the chest. It connects to the ribs via cartilage and forms the front of the rib cage, thus helping to protect the heart, lungs, and major blood vessels from injury.
• The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a thick, circular-triangular bone which articulates with the femur (thigh bone) and covers and protects the anterior articular surface of the knee joint.
Unattempted
Femur is the thigh bone. It is the longest and strongest bone in the human body.
• The sternum or breastbone is a long flat bone located in the central part of the chest. It connects to the ribs via cartilage and forms the front of the rib cage, thus helping to protect the heart, lungs, and major blood vessels from injury.
• The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a thick, circular-triangular bone which articulates with the femur (thigh bone) and covers and protects the anterior articular surface of the knee joint.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
Which of the following is/are the applications of recombinant DNA technology?
(1) Synthesis of human insulin
(2) Insect-resistant crops
(3) Diagnostic tests for hepatitis and HIV
(4) Environmental cleaning
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Recombinant DNA (rDNA) molecules are DNA molecules formed by laboratory methods of genetic recombination i.e. molecules of DNA from two different species that are inserted into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations that are of value to science, medicine, agriculture, and industry.
• Applications of Recombinant DNA:
Through recombinant DNA techniques, bacteria have been created that are capable of synthesizing human insulin, human growth hormone, alpha interferon, hepatitis B vaccine, and other medically useful substances. Hence option 1 is correct.
Recombinant DNA technology also can be used for gene therapy, in which a normal gene is introduced into an individual’s genome in order to repair a mutation that causes a genetic disease.
The ability to obtain specific DNA clones using recombinant DNA technology has also made it possible to add the DNA of one organism to the genome of another. The added gene is called a transgene, which can be passed to progeny as a new component of the genome. The resulting organism carrying the transgene is called a transgenic organism or a genetically modified organism (GMO). In this way, a “designer organism” is made that contains some specific change required for an experiment in basic genetics or for improvement of some commercial strain.
Genetically transformed plants which contain foreign genes are called transgenic plants. Resistance to diseases, insects and pests, herbicides, drought; metal toxicity tolerance; induction of male sterility for plant breeding purpose; and improvement of quality can be achieved through this recombinant DNA technology. BT-cotton, resistant to bollworms is a glaring example. Hence option 2 is correct.
Recombinant DNA technology has provided a broad range of tools to help physicians in the diagnosis of diseases. Most of these involve the construction of probes: short Segments of single-stranded DNA attached to a radioactive or fluorescent marker. Such probes are now used for the identification of infectious agents, for instance, food poisoning Salmonella, hepatitis virus, HIV, etc. Hence option 3 is correct.
In industries, recombinant DNA technology will help in the production of chemical compounds of commercial importance, improvement of existing fermentation processes, and production of proteins from wastes. This can be achieved by developing more efficient strains of microorganisms. Specially developed microorganisms may be used even to clean up the pollutants. Hence option 4 is correct.
Unattempted
Recombinant DNA (rDNA) molecules are DNA molecules formed by laboratory methods of genetic recombination i.e. molecules of DNA from two different species that are inserted into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations that are of value to science, medicine, agriculture, and industry.
• Applications of Recombinant DNA:
Through recombinant DNA techniques, bacteria have been created that are capable of synthesizing human insulin, human growth hormone, alpha interferon, hepatitis B vaccine, and other medically useful substances. Hence option 1 is correct.
Recombinant DNA technology also can be used for gene therapy, in which a normal gene is introduced into an individual’s genome in order to repair a mutation that causes a genetic disease.
The ability to obtain specific DNA clones using recombinant DNA technology has also made it possible to add the DNA of one organism to the genome of another. The added gene is called a transgene, which can be passed to progeny as a new component of the genome. The resulting organism carrying the transgene is called a transgenic organism or a genetically modified organism (GMO). In this way, a “designer organism” is made that contains some specific change required for an experiment in basic genetics or for improvement of some commercial strain.
Genetically transformed plants which contain foreign genes are called transgenic plants. Resistance to diseases, insects and pests, herbicides, drought; metal toxicity tolerance; induction of male sterility for plant breeding purpose; and improvement of quality can be achieved through this recombinant DNA technology. BT-cotton, resistant to bollworms is a glaring example. Hence option 2 is correct.
Recombinant DNA technology has provided a broad range of tools to help physicians in the diagnosis of diseases. Most of these involve the construction of probes: short Segments of single-stranded DNA attached to a radioactive or fluorescent marker. Such probes are now used for the identification of infectious agents, for instance, food poisoning Salmonella, hepatitis virus, HIV, etc. Hence option 3 is correct.
In industries, recombinant DNA technology will help in the production of chemical compounds of commercial importance, improvement of existing fermentation processes, and production of proteins from wastes. This can be achieved by developing more efficient strains of microorganisms. Specially developed microorganisms may be used even to clean up the pollutants. Hence option 4 is correct.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
(1) In Augmented Reality (AR), images generated from a computer are projected onto reallife objects or surroundings.
(2) In Virtual Reality (VR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
(3) AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
(4) VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersionexperience.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Augmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information. So, statements (1) and (3) are correct.
Virtual Reality (VR) is the use of computer technology to create a simulated environment. Unlike traditional user interfaces, VR places the user inside an experience. Instead of viewing a screen in front of them, users are immersed and able to interact with 3D worlds. So, statements (2) and (4) are correct.
Unattempted
Augmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information. So, statements (1) and (3) are correct.
Virtual Reality (VR) is the use of computer technology to create a simulated environment. Unlike traditional user interfaces, VR places the user inside an experience. Instead of viewing a screen in front of them, users are immersed and able to interact with 3D worlds. So, statements (2) and (4) are correct.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
With reference to chemical compounds, consider the following statements:
(1) A compound is formed by the reaction of at least two atoms of different elements.
(2) The constituents of a compound cannot be separated into simpler substances by physical methods.
(3) Properties of a compound are always the same as those of its constituent elements.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None
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Correct
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Whether something is a compound or not depends on how many different kinds of elements make it up. Compounds contain two or more different elements. When two or more atoms of different elements combine together in a definite ratio, the molecule of a compound is obtained.
Water is a molecule because it contains molecular bonds. Water is also a compound because it is made from more than one kind of element (oxygen and hydrogen).
Oxygen is a molecule but not a compound because it is made from atoms of only one element i.e. oxygen.
Statement 2 is correct: The constituents of a compound cannot be separated into simpler substances by physical methods. They can be separated by chemical methods. Distillation, recrystallization and chromatography are different chemical methods of separation.
The constituents of a mixture can be separated into simpler substances by physical methods.
Mixtures are two or more substances that are not chemically combined with each other. Handpicking, winnowing, sieving, sedimentation, decantation and filtration are some of the methods of separating substances.
Statement 3 is not correct: Properties of a compound are different (not always same) from those of its constituent elements. For example, hydrogen and oxygen are gases, whereas, the compound formed by their combination i.e., water is a liquid.
Unattempted
Statement 1 is correct: Whether something is a compound or not depends on how many different kinds of elements make it up. Compounds contain two or more different elements. When two or more atoms of different elements combine together in a definite ratio, the molecule of a compound is obtained.
Water is a molecule because it contains molecular bonds. Water is also a compound because it is made from more than one kind of element (oxygen and hydrogen).
Oxygen is a molecule but not a compound because it is made from atoms of only one element i.e. oxygen.
Statement 2 is correct: The constituents of a compound cannot be separated into simpler substances by physical methods. They can be separated by chemical methods. Distillation, recrystallization and chromatography are different chemical methods of separation.
The constituents of a mixture can be separated into simpler substances by physical methods.
Mixtures are two or more substances that are not chemically combined with each other. Handpicking, winnowing, sieving, sedimentation, decantation and filtration are some of the methods of separating substances.
Statement 3 is not correct: Properties of a compound are different (not always same) from those of its constituent elements. For example, hydrogen and oxygen are gases, whereas, the compound formed by their combination i.e., water is a liquid.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
Coal gasification is the process of producing syngas which consists of
(A) Methane, Hydrogen and Water vapour only
(B) Hydrogen and carbon dioxide only
(C) Methane, Hydrogen, Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and water vapour
(D) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide only
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Correct
Incorrect
Gasification is done using a mixture of coal, water, air and/or oxygen.
Coal gas or Syngas is a mixture consisting primarily of methane (CH4), carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapor (H2O)–from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
In current practice, large-scale instances of coal gasification are primarily for electricity generation.
The hydrogen obtained from coal gasification can be used for various purposes such as making ammonia, powering a hydrogen economy, or upgrading fossil fuels.
Unattempted
Gasification is done using a mixture of coal, water, air and/or oxygen.
Coal gas or Syngas is a mixture consisting primarily of methane (CH4), carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapor (H2O)–from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
In current practice, large-scale instances of coal gasification are primarily for electricity generation.
The hydrogen obtained from coal gasification can be used for various purposes such as making ammonia, powering a hydrogen economy, or upgrading fossil fuels.
Thematic (10) 2024 – SC & TECH
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- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 100
1. Question
With reference to the “Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) ” consider the following Statements :
(1) It aims to control the proliferation of nuclear weapons by curbing the export of nuclear weapons development materials and related technology.
(2) India has been a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group since 2007.
(3) It is a voluntary, non-legally binding association of major countries that trade in nuclear material.
(4) It is a formal organization, and its guidelines are binding.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectNuclear Suppliers Group is a transnational body composed of nuclear supplier countries that aim to control the proliferation of nuclear weapons by curbing the export of nuclear weapons development materials and related technology. It seeks to improve the existing safeguards on existing nuclear materials.The group had its first meeting in November 1975. A series of meetings held in London produced agreements on export guidelines. Although initially there were only 7 countries as members. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group. The NSG guidelines require that importing states provide assurances to NSG members that proposed deals will not contribute to the creation of nuclear weapons. Certain eligibility needs to be fulfilled for a country to become a member of the NSG.The use of nuclear fuel available for peaceful nuclear activities that are subject to International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards, as well as for other industrial activities where they would not contribute to nuclear proliferation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The NSG is a voluntary group of 48 countries that includes the major nuclear supplier states. India is not a member of this group. – The NSG operates on the basis of consensus among its members and has no legal authority to enforce its guidelines. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Though the NSG is a formal organization, its guidelines are not legally binding. They are voluntary measures that member countries have agreed to follow. – The guidelines lay down the criteria for nuclear exports and are aimed at ensuring that peaceful nuclear cooperation does not contribute to the proliferation of nuclear weapons. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.UnattemptedNuclear Suppliers Group is a transnational body composed of nuclear supplier countries that aim to control the proliferation of nuclear weapons by curbing the export of nuclear weapons development materials and related technology. It seeks to improve the existing safeguards on existing nuclear materials.The group had its first meeting in November 1975. A series of meetings held in London produced agreements on export guidelines. Although initially there were only 7 countries as members. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group. The NSG guidelines require that importing states provide assurances to NSG members that proposed deals will not contribute to the creation of nuclear weapons. Certain eligibility needs to be fulfilled for a country to become a member of the NSG.The use of nuclear fuel available for peaceful nuclear activities that are subject to International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards, as well as for other industrial activities where they would not contribute to nuclear proliferation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The NSG is a voluntary group of 48 countries that includes the major nuclear supplier states. India is not a member of this group. – The NSG operates on the basis of consensus among its members and has no legal authority to enforce its guidelines. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Though the NSG is a formal organization, its guidelines are not legally binding. They are voluntary measures that member countries have agreed to follow. – The guidelines lay down the criteria for nuclear exports and are aimed at ensuring that peaceful nuclear cooperation does not contribute to the proliferation of nuclear weapons. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. - Question 2 of 100
2. Question
Which of the following best describes Yellow biotechnology?
(A) it refers to the use of biotechnology in food production.
(B) it is dedicated to environmental applications and maintenance of biodiversity.
(C) it is the color associated with bioterrorism or biological weapons.
(D) it is related to law, ethical and philosophical issues around biotechnology.CorrectIncorrectYellow biotechnology refers to the use of biotechnology in food production (food industry), for example in making wine (winemaking), cheese (cheesemaking), and beer (brewing) by fermentation. It has also been used to refer to biotechnology applied to insects. This includes biotechnology-based approaches for the control of harmful insects, the characterisation and utilisation of active ingredients or genes of insects for research, or application in agriculture and medicine and various other approaches.
Gray biotechnology is dedicated to environmental applications, and focused on the maintenance of biodiversity and the remotion of pollutants. Violet biotechnology is related to law, ethical and philosophical issues around biotechnology.
Dark biotechnology is the color associated with bioterrorism or biological weapons and biowarfare which uses microorganisms, and toxins to cause diseases and death in humans, livestock and crops.UnattemptedYellow biotechnology refers to the use of biotechnology in food production (food industry), for example in making wine (winemaking), cheese (cheesemaking), and beer (brewing) by fermentation. It has also been used to refer to biotechnology applied to insects. This includes biotechnology-based approaches for the control of harmful insects, the characterisation and utilisation of active ingredients or genes of insects for research, or application in agriculture and medicine and various other approaches.
Gray biotechnology is dedicated to environmental applications, and focused on the maintenance of biodiversity and the remotion of pollutants. Violet biotechnology is related to law, ethical and philosophical issues around biotechnology.
Dark biotechnology is the color associated with bioterrorism or biological weapons and biowarfare which uses microorganisms, and toxins to cause diseases and death in humans, livestock and crops. - Question 3 of 100
3. Question
For which of the following reasons should India join NSG and it will be beneficial for India?
(1) Provide the country with access to foreign- sourced nuclear material and equipment.
(2) Increasing the business of these nuclear materials will enable India to make better versions of nuclear breeders and export them to smaller countries.
(3) May get an opportunity to initiate talks about the plutonium trade for its thorium program and gain massive domestic profits.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectThe NSG controls the global exports of nuclear technology and material to ensure that atomic energy is used only for peaceful purposes.
Given below are the reasons how joining NSG will be beneficial for India:
It will provide the country with access to foreign-sourced nuclear material and equipment, reducing the risk faced by foreign nuclear industries in doing business with India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Increasing the business of these nuclear materials will enable India to make better versions of nuclear breeders and export them to smaller countries, thereby increasing the economic growth of the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Make In India program will also see a boost if India becomes a member of NSG because nuclear power production would increase.
It will also give India an opportunity to initiate talks about the plutonium trade for its thorium program and gain massive domestic profits. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
India aims to minimize the use of fossil fuels by 40 percent and use more natural and renewable resources of energy. This is possible if India gets access to nuclear raw materials and increases nuclear power generation.UnattemptedThe NSG controls the global exports of nuclear technology and material to ensure that atomic energy is used only for peaceful purposes.
Given below are the reasons how joining NSG will be beneficial for India:
It will provide the country with access to foreign-sourced nuclear material and equipment, reducing the risk faced by foreign nuclear industries in doing business with India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Increasing the business of these nuclear materials will enable India to make better versions of nuclear breeders and export them to smaller countries, thereby increasing the economic growth of the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Make In India program will also see a boost if India becomes a member of NSG because nuclear power production would increase.
It will also give India an opportunity to initiate talks about the plutonium trade for its thorium program and gain massive domestic profits. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
India aims to minimize the use of fossil fuels by 40 percent and use more natural and renewable resources of energy. This is possible if India gets access to nuclear raw materials and increases nuclear power generation. - Question 4 of 100
4. Question
Match List I to List II :
List-I (Name of acids/bases) — List-II (found in)
A. Formic acid — 1.Ant’s Sting
B. Calcium hydroxide — 2.Lime water
C. Tartaric acid — 3.Soap
D. Sodium hydroxide — 4.Tamarind and grape fruit
How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectThese substances taste sour because they contain acids, whereas the substances which are bitter in taste and feel soapy on touch are known as bases.
(1) Acetic acid — Vinegar
(2) Formic acid — Ant’s sting. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
(3) Citric acid — Citrus fruits such as oranges, lemons, etc.
(4) Lactic acid — Curd
(5) Oxalic acid — Spinach
(6) Ascorbic acid — Amla, Citrus fruits (Vitamin C)
(7) Tartaric acid — Tamarind, grapes, unripe mangoes, etc.
Limewater is a saturated aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide. Calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2, is sparsely soluble at room temperature in water (1.5 g/L at 25 °C). Hence, pair 2 is correct.
Tartaric acid is not typically found in soap as a common ingredient. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is not naturally found in tamarind or grapefruit. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.UnattemptedThese substances taste sour because they contain acids, whereas the substances which are bitter in taste and feel soapy on touch are known as bases.
(1) Acetic acid — Vinegar
(2) Formic acid — Ant’s sting. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
(3) Citric acid — Citrus fruits such as oranges, lemons, etc.
(4) Lactic acid — Curd
(5) Oxalic acid — Spinach
(6) Ascorbic acid — Amla, Citrus fruits (Vitamin C)
(7) Tartaric acid — Tamarind, grapes, unripe mangoes, etc.
Limewater is a saturated aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide. Calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2, is sparsely soluble at room temperature in water (1.5 g/L at 25 °C). Hence, pair 2 is correct.
Tartaric acid is not typically found in soap as a common ingredient. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is not naturally found in tamarind or grapefruit. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect. - Question 5 of 100
5. Question
With reference to the Cruise and Ballistic Missile, consider the following statements :
(1) The ballistic missile is targeted as a projectile from a single launch force with not much-added guidance but Cruise missiles generally consist of a guidance system.
(2) Ballistic missiles are much harder to intercept than cruise missiles, due to the much shorter time available.
(3) Ballistic missiles that fly above the atmosphere have a much longer range than would be possible for cruise missiles of the same size.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: Cruise missiles generally consist of a guidance system, payload, and aircraft propulsion system, housed in an airframe with small wings and empennage for flight control. Cruise missiles are characterized by having different forms of guidance whether inertial or beyond visual range satellite GPS guidance. The ballistic missile is targeted as a projectile from a single launch force with not much-added guidance. It is launched directly into the high layers of the earth’s atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: Ballistic Missiles depend on gravity to reach its target. With terminal speeds of over 5,000 m/s, ballistic missiles are much harder to intercept than cruise missiles, due to the much shorter time available. Ballistic missiles are some of the most feared weapons available, despite the fact that cruise missiles are cheaper, more mobile, and more versatile. Cruise missiles can be categorized by size, speed (subsonic or supersonic), and range, and whether launched from land, air, surface ship, or submarine.
Statement 3 is correct: Ballistic missiles that fly above the atmosphere have a much longer range than would be possible for cruise missiles of the same size. Ballistic missiles can travel extremely quickly along their flight path. Cruise Missiles are known specifically for the low-level flight which is staying relatively close to the surface of the earth to avoid detection from anti- missile systems and are designed to carry large payloads with high precision. The key is that the missile is guided entirely to the target under its own power.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: Cruise missiles generally consist of a guidance system, payload, and aircraft propulsion system, housed in an airframe with small wings and empennage for flight control. Cruise missiles are characterized by having different forms of guidance whether inertial or beyond visual range satellite GPS guidance. The ballistic missile is targeted as a projectile from a single launch force with not much-added guidance. It is launched directly into the high layers of the earth’s atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: Ballistic Missiles depend on gravity to reach its target. With terminal speeds of over 5,000 m/s, ballistic missiles are much harder to intercept than cruise missiles, due to the much shorter time available. Ballistic missiles are some of the most feared weapons available, despite the fact that cruise missiles are cheaper, more mobile, and more versatile. Cruise missiles can be categorized by size, speed (subsonic or supersonic), and range, and whether launched from land, air, surface ship, or submarine.
Statement 3 is correct: Ballistic missiles that fly above the atmosphere have a much longer range than would be possible for cruise missiles of the same size. Ballistic missiles can travel extremely quickly along their flight path. Cruise Missiles are known specifically for the low-level flight which is staying relatively close to the surface of the earth to avoid detection from anti- missile systems and are designed to carry large payloads with high precision. The key is that the missile is guided entirely to the target under its own power. - Question 6 of 100
6. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Agni-V missile:
(1) The Agni-VI is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with a range of less than 5,000 km.
(2) Agni-VI is being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
(3) It will be capable of being launched only from submarines.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectAgni-VI is an intercontinental ballistic missile reported to be in the early stages of development by India and is being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation. It will have a strike range of 11000 km – 12000 km with MIRVed warheads. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct..
It will be capable of being launched from submarines as well as from land. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.UnattemptedAgni-VI is an intercontinental ballistic missile reported to be in the early stages of development by India and is being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation. It will have a strike range of 11000 km – 12000 km with MIRVed warheads. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct..
It will be capable of being launched from submarines as well as from land. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. - Question 7 of 100
7. Question
Consider the following statements with regard to the Neutrinos :
(1) A Neutrino is a subatomic particle with no electrical charge and a very small mass, which might even be zero.
(2) A neutrino’s spin always points in the same direction of its motion.
(3) The neutrino is a tiny elementary particle which is not part of the atom.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectA Neutrino is a subatomic particle that is very similar to an electron, but has no electrical charge and a very small mass, which might even be zero. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Detected for the first time in 1959, neutrinos are the second most abundant particles in the universe, after photons, or the light particle.
They have very little interaction with matter, however, they are incredibly difficult to detect.
Neutrinos are mysterious particles, produced copiously in nuclear reactions in the Sun, stars, and elsewhere.
Nuclear forces treat electrons and neutrinos identically; neither participate in the strong nuclear force, but both participate equally in the weak nuclear force.
Particles with this property are termed leptons. In addition to the electron (and its antiparticle, the positron), the charged leptons include the muon (with a mass 200 times greater than that of the electron), the tau (with mass 3,500 times greater than that of the electron) and their anti-particles.
They also “oscillate”– meaning that different types of neutrinos change into one another. Probing of oscillations of neutrinos and their relations with mass are crucial in studying the origin of the universe.
Neutrinos are created by various radioactive decays; during a supernova, by cosmic rays striking atoms etc.
Features of neutrinos :
Neutrinos interact very weakly with everything else – trillions of them pass through every human being every second without anyone noticing. A neutrino’s spin always points in the opposite direction of its motion. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It is now generally believed that the phenomenonof neutrino oscillations requires neutrinos to have tiny masses.
The neutrino is also a tiny elementary particle, but it is not part of the atom. Such particles are also found to exist in nature. Hence, statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedA Neutrino is a subatomic particle that is very similar to an electron, but has no electrical charge and a very small mass, which might even be zero. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Detected for the first time in 1959, neutrinos are the second most abundant particles in the universe, after photons, or the light particle.
They have very little interaction with matter, however, they are incredibly difficult to detect.
Neutrinos are mysterious particles, produced copiously in nuclear reactions in the Sun, stars, and elsewhere.
Nuclear forces treat electrons and neutrinos identically; neither participate in the strong nuclear force, but both participate equally in the weak nuclear force.
Particles with this property are termed leptons. In addition to the electron (and its antiparticle, the positron), the charged leptons include the muon (with a mass 200 times greater than that of the electron), the tau (with mass 3,500 times greater than that of the electron) and their anti-particles.
They also “oscillate”– meaning that different types of neutrinos change into one another. Probing of oscillations of neutrinos and their relations with mass are crucial in studying the origin of the universe.
Neutrinos are created by various radioactive decays; during a supernova, by cosmic rays striking atoms etc.
Features of neutrinos :
Neutrinos interact very weakly with everything else – trillions of them pass through every human being every second without anyone noticing. A neutrino’s spin always points in the opposite direction of its motion. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It is now generally believed that the phenomenonof neutrino oscillations requires neutrinos to have tiny masses.
The neutrino is also a tiny elementary particle, but it is not part of the atom. Such particles are also found to exist in nature. Hence, statement 3 is correct. - Question 8 of 100
8. Question
With reference to Stars, consider the following statements:
(1) Gyrochronology can be used to determine age of star.
(2) As the star ages, its rotation slows down due to loss of angular momentum.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2CorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: One of the methods used for estimating the age of more distant stars similar in mass and age to the Sun is called gyrochronology as using radioactive dating of very old meteorites that have fallen on the Earth are not possible. By showing that the rotation period of a star is a steadily changing and tight function of its age and color, gyrochronology allows the age to be determined by measuring the two other properties – the rotation period and the color.
Statement 2 is correct: There is a relationship between rotation rate and age, that is the rotation rate of a star slows down with age. When stellar wind escapes from star, it carries away a part of angular momentum of the star-results in its slowing down.
The stellar wind has two drivers: one is high temperature of outer atmosphere of stars – the corona – which results in an outward expansion and hence plasma winds that emanate out. The other is magnetic field- heats the corona and so when magnetic activity is strong the winds are strong and since wind carries away the internal (rotational) angular momentum of the star, it slows down its rotation”. This is called magnetic braking. As the star ages, due to this mechanism, its rotation slows down and this relationship is used in gyrochronology to estimate the age of the star.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: One of the methods used for estimating the age of more distant stars similar in mass and age to the Sun is called gyrochronology as using radioactive dating of very old meteorites that have fallen on the Earth are not possible. By showing that the rotation period of a star is a steadily changing and tight function of its age and color, gyrochronology allows the age to be determined by measuring the two other properties – the rotation period and the color.
Statement 2 is correct: There is a relationship between rotation rate and age, that is the rotation rate of a star slows down with age. When stellar wind escapes from star, it carries away a part of angular momentum of the star-results in its slowing down.
The stellar wind has two drivers: one is high temperature of outer atmosphere of stars – the corona – which results in an outward expansion and hence plasma winds that emanate out. The other is magnetic field- heats the corona and so when magnetic activity is strong the winds are strong and since wind carries away the internal (rotational) angular momentum of the star, it slows down its rotation”. This is called magnetic braking. As the star ages, due to this mechanism, its rotation slows down and this relationship is used in gyrochronology to estimate the age of the star. - Question 9 of 100
9. Question
The terms red dwarfs, red giants, supergiants, white, and brown dwarf are associated with
(A) Stars
(B) Planets
(C) Satellites of Saturn
(D) Type of light wavesCorrectIncorrectThere are lots of different types of stars, from brown dwarfs to white supergiants that can be categorized according to their mass and temperature on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram.
Red dwarfs are small stars with temperatures cooler than that of the sun. They are the most common stars in our galaxy and are less than half of the mass of the sun. They burn slowly and so live for a long time relative to other star types.
Red giants are cooler than the sun, so they have a red-orange tinge to the visible light they emit. Living up to their names, the largest red giants may be over 100 times the size of the sun. Red giants are stars near the end of their life.
Supergiants are high mass stars near the end of their life. When a supergiant dies, it explodes as a supernova then shrinks to become a black hole.
There is a group of very faint but hot stars in the bottom left of the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram. These are called white dwarfs and are so faint that none is visible to the naked eye. They are very small and dense, formed when a main sequence star reaches the end of its life. White dwarf stars gradually cool over time until they no longer emit light.
The smallest, dimmest, and coolest stars are brown dwarfs. They are also known as failed stars and are very difficult to detect, as they do not have sufficient mass for nuclear fusion to occur.
The main variables in star formation are mass and temperature, it is these which produce the wide variety of stars .UnattemptedThere are lots of different types of stars, from brown dwarfs to white supergiants that can be categorized according to their mass and temperature on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram.
Red dwarfs are small stars with temperatures cooler than that of the sun. They are the most common stars in our galaxy and are less than half of the mass of the sun. They burn slowly and so live for a long time relative to other star types.
Red giants are cooler than the sun, so they have a red-orange tinge to the visible light they emit. Living up to their names, the largest red giants may be over 100 times the size of the sun. Red giants are stars near the end of their life.
Supergiants are high mass stars near the end of their life. When a supergiant dies, it explodes as a supernova then shrinks to become a black hole.
There is a group of very faint but hot stars in the bottom left of the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram. These are called white dwarfs and are so faint that none is visible to the naked eye. They are very small and dense, formed when a main sequence star reaches the end of its life. White dwarf stars gradually cool over time until they no longer emit light.
The smallest, dimmest, and coolest stars are brown dwarfs. They are also known as failed stars and are very difficult to detect, as they do not have sufficient mass for nuclear fusion to occur.
The main variables in star formation are mass and temperature, it is these which produce the wide variety of stars . - Question 10 of 100
10. Question
Which of the following is/are uses of Teflon?
(1) Nonstick coating on pans and other cooking wares
(2) Lubricant in machines
(3) Graft material in surgical interventions
How many of the above answer(s) is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectNonstick Coating on Pans and Other Cooking Wares: This is one of the most well-known and common uses of Teflon. It is used as a nonstick coating on cookware, including pans and pots, to prevent food from sticking during cooking and make cleaning easier. So, option 1 is correct.
Lubricant in Machines: Teflon is used as a lubricant and as a component in lubricating oils and greases. It provides a low-friction surface and is often used in machinery and industrial applications where reducing friction and wear are essential. So, option 2 is correct.
Graft Material in Surgical Interventions (Corrected): Teflon has been used as a graft material in some surgical interventions, particularly in vascular and cardiovascular procedures. It can be used as an artificial graft for blood vessels to bypass or repair damaged arteries. So, option 3 is correct.UnattemptedNonstick Coating on Pans and Other Cooking Wares: This is one of the most well-known and common uses of Teflon. It is used as a nonstick coating on cookware, including pans and pots, to prevent food from sticking during cooking and make cleaning easier. So, option 1 is correct.
Lubricant in Machines: Teflon is used as a lubricant and as a component in lubricating oils and greases. It provides a low-friction surface and is often used in machinery and industrial applications where reducing friction and wear are essential. So, option 2 is correct.
Graft Material in Surgical Interventions (Corrected): Teflon has been used as a graft material in some surgical interventions, particularly in vascular and cardiovascular procedures. It can be used as an artificial graft for blood vessels to bypass or repair damaged arteries. So, option 3 is correct. - Question 11 of 100
11. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the ADITYA-1 Mission:
(1) The Aditya L1 mission is the second Indian space solar project led by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
(2) The major scientific objectives of Aditya-1 mission are to achieve a fundamental understanding of the physical processes that heat the solar corona; accelerate the solar wind; and produce coronal mass ejections (CMEs).
(3) Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) is the largest payload to be carried on the Aditya-L1.
(4) Out of seven payloads, its four payloads will directly view the Sun.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is incorrect : It is the first Indian mission dedicated to observing the Sun. Nigar Shaji is the project's director. Aditya-L1 was launched aboard the PSLV C57 at 11:50 IST on 2 September 2023, ten days after the successful landing of ISRO's Moon mission, Chandrayaan-3. It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Statement 2 is correct: The major scientific objectives of Aditya-1 mission are to achieve a fundamental understanding of the physical processes that heat the solar corona; accelerate the solar wind; and produce coronal mass ejections (CMEs). The study of sun is important because the solar weather and environment, which is deter mined by the processes taking place inside and around the sun, affects the weather of the entire system.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct : VELC is the largest payload to be carried on board the Aditya-L1. Out of seven payloads, its four payloads will directly view the Sun and the remaining three payloads will carry out in-situ studies of particles and fields at L1.UnattemptedStatement 1 is incorrect : It is the first Indian mission dedicated to observing the Sun. Nigar Shaji is the project's director. Aditya-L1 was launched aboard the PSLV C57 at 11:50 IST on 2 September 2023, ten days after the successful landing of ISRO's Moon mission, Chandrayaan-3. It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Statement 2 is correct: The major scientific objectives of Aditya-1 mission are to achieve a fundamental understanding of the physical processes that heat the solar corona; accelerate the solar wind; and produce coronal mass ejections (CMEs). The study of sun is important because the solar weather and environment, which is deter mined by the processes taking place inside and around the sun, affects the weather of the entire system.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct : VELC is the largest payload to be carried on board the Aditya-L1. Out of seven payloads, its four payloads will directly view the Sun and the remaining three payloads will carry out in-situ studies of particles and fields at L1. - Question 12 of 100
12. Question
With reference to the DARKNET consider the following statements :
(1) It is the part of the internet which is neither accessible through traditional search engines nor browsers.
(2) It generally uses non-standard communication protocol.
(3) It can be easily accessible by government authorities.
(4) The content on dark net is encrypted and requires a specific browser to suggest “the onion ring”.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: The area of the internet that we can access through traditional search engines is called Surface Web. Dark-Net which is also known as Dark-Web is the part of the internet that cannot be accessed through traditional search engines like Google nor is it accessible by normal browsers like Chrome or Safari.
Statement 2 is correct and 3 is incorrect: Dark- Net or Dark-Web generally uses Non-Standard Communication protocols which makes it inaccessible by internet service providers or government authorities also.
Statement 4 is correct: The content on darknet is encrypted and requires specific browsers such as TOR “The Onion Ring” to access those encrypted pages.
TOR “The Onion Ring”: The browser was developed in the mid 1990’s by US Naval research laboratory employees to protect US intelligence communications online. It is termed so as the traffic from the browser creates several layers like those of an onion before reaching the destination site. Unlike normal Surfing the computer does not connect directly to the server where the website is located. Instead a whole series of servers are involved in the connection in order to create the greatest possible anonymity.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: The area of the internet that we can access through traditional search engines is called Surface Web. Dark-Net which is also known as Dark-Web is the part of the internet that cannot be accessed through traditional search engines like Google nor is it accessible by normal browsers like Chrome or Safari.
Statement 2 is correct and 3 is incorrect: Dark- Net or Dark-Web generally uses Non-Standard Communication protocols which makes it inaccessible by internet service providers or government authorities also.
Statement 4 is correct: The content on darknet is encrypted and requires specific browsers such as TOR “The Onion Ring” to access those encrypted pages.
TOR “The Onion Ring”: The browser was developed in the mid 1990’s by US Naval research laboratory employees to protect US intelligence communications online. It is termed so as the traffic from the browser creates several layers like those of an onion before reaching the destination site. Unlike normal Surfing the computer does not connect directly to the server where the website is located. Instead a whole series of servers are involved in the connection in order to create the greatest possible anonymity. - Question 13 of 100
13. Question
In the context of “Graphene “, Consider the following Statements :
(1) It is a three-dimensional form of carbon that consists of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in an octagonal lattice.
(2) The graphene-based product can be used to make a water filter that can make highly-polluted sea water drinkable after just one pass.
(3) Graphene has been described as the “wondrous stuff “ of being the strongest material ever tested, almost 300 times stronger than steel.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is incorrect : Graphane is a two-dimensional form (allotrope) of carbon that consists of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. Graphene has unique properties with tremendous potential applications, such as chemical sensors, nanoelectronic devices, hydrogen storage systems, or polymer nanocomposites.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct : Graphene has been described as “wondrous stuff “— of being the strongest material ever tested, almost 300 times stronger than steel. It is also the best heat- and electricity-conducting material. The electrical conductivity for doped graphene is potentially quite high. Graphene is practically transparent. It is thin, mechanically very strong, transparent and flexible conductor.
Graphene has the potential to revolutionize entire industries – in the fields of electricity, conductivity, energy generation, batteries, sensors and more.UnattemptedStatement 1 is incorrect : Graphane is a two-dimensional form (allotrope) of carbon that consists of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. Graphene has unique properties with tremendous potential applications, such as chemical sensors, nanoelectronic devices, hydrogen storage systems, or polymer nanocomposites.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct : Graphene has been described as “wondrous stuff “— of being the strongest material ever tested, almost 300 times stronger than steel. It is also the best heat- and electricity-conducting material. The electrical conductivity for doped graphene is potentially quite high. Graphene is practically transparent. It is thin, mechanically very strong, transparent and flexible conductor.
Graphene has the potential to revolutionize entire industries – in the fields of electricity, conductivity, energy generation, batteries, sensors and more. - Question 14 of 100
14. Question
Consider the following statements :
(1) Shale gas is a conventional hydrocarbon present in the permeable rock.
(2) Guar gum plays a significant role in the extraction of shale gas.
(3) India is the largest producer of Guar gum in the world.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectConventional hydrocarbons can be extracted easily from permeable rocks, but Shale gas is an unconventional hydrocarbon because the rock it is extracted from acts as the source, reservoir, and cap rock and is trapped under low-permeable rocks. The gas is produced, stored, and sealed within impermeable shale and can be released only after the shale is drilled and artificially fractured during an extraction process. It requires pressurized water or chemicals to break the low-permeable rocks and extract them. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Guar gum is actually in powder form, is made by grinding guar seeds, and has unique thickening, emulsifying and binding properties.
The shale gas industry uses the gum in fracking—a process where a mixture of water (95 percent), Sand (4.5 percent), and guar gum (0.5 percent) is injected under high pressure into an oil-or gas-bearing rock to fracture it. The gum's viscous property decreases fluid loss and friction, reducing energy consumption and increasing gas or oil recovery. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The consumption pattern of guar seeds is largely influenced by the demands of the petroleum industry. India accounts for 80 percent of the world’s guar produce, of which 72 percent comes from Rajasthan. About 90 percent of guar gum processed in India is exported. So, Statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedConventional hydrocarbons can be extracted easily from permeable rocks, but Shale gas is an unconventional hydrocarbon because the rock it is extracted from acts as the source, reservoir, and cap rock and is trapped under low-permeable rocks. The gas is produced, stored, and sealed within impermeable shale and can be released only after the shale is drilled and artificially fractured during an extraction process. It requires pressurized water or chemicals to break the low-permeable rocks and extract them. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Guar gum is actually in powder form, is made by grinding guar seeds, and has unique thickening, emulsifying and binding properties.
The shale gas industry uses the gum in fracking—a process where a mixture of water (95 percent), Sand (4.5 percent), and guar gum (0.5 percent) is injected under high pressure into an oil-or gas-bearing rock to fracture it. The gum's viscous property decreases fluid loss and friction, reducing energy consumption and increasing gas or oil recovery. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The consumption pattern of guar seeds is largely influenced by the demands of the petroleum industry. India accounts for 80 percent of the world’s guar produce, of which 72 percent comes from Rajasthan. About 90 percent of guar gum processed in India is exported. So, Statement 3 is correct. - Question 15 of 100
15. Question
Consider the following statements :
(1) In Capillary action liquid flow against the force of gravity or magnetic field induction.
(2) Completely soluble substances will increase surface tension of a liquid.
(3) Phototropism, geotropism is caused due to unequal distribution of auxin.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectThe phenomenon of rising or depression of liquids in capillary thin tubes or porous materials such as paper or nonporous material such as liquefied carbon fiber is known as capillary action or capillarity and this effect can cause liquids to flow against the force of gravity or magnetic field induction. For example, in the blotting of ink, the spread of water dropped on a cotton cloth and the rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Surface tension is a force per unit length acting in the plane of the interface between the plane of the liquid and any other substance. It arises due to the excess potential energy of the molecules on the surface in comparison to their potential energy in the interior.
Adding a solute into a solvent may lead to an increase in surface tension, for example, salt in water and water in alcohol, due to solute depletion at the interface. The repulsion of the solute from the interface may originate from electrostatic forces or solute-solvent attraction. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Auxins, gibberellins, and cytokinins are plant growth promoters. Light-induced growth response in plants is called phototropism. Light controls the distribution of auxins in the shoot tip. A greater quantity of auxin accumulation occurs in the shaded portion, leading to rapid cell division and faster growth and the bending or curvature of the stem towards the light. Just like phototropism, geotropism is also caused by an unequal distribution of auxin.
Geotropism (also called gravitropism) is a response to the stimulus of gravity. For example, if a root is placed horizontally, the bottom side contains more auxin and grows less – causing the root to grow in the direction of the force of gravity. The opposite happens in a stem. When a stem is placed horizontally, the bottom side contains more auxin and grows more – causing the stem to grow upwards against the force of gravity.
Therefore, both phototropism and geotropism are caused by unequal auxin distribution. So, Statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedThe phenomenon of rising or depression of liquids in capillary thin tubes or porous materials such as paper or nonporous material such as liquefied carbon fiber is known as capillary action or capillarity and this effect can cause liquids to flow against the force of gravity or magnetic field induction. For example, in the blotting of ink, the spread of water dropped on a cotton cloth and the rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Surface tension is a force per unit length acting in the plane of the interface between the plane of the liquid and any other substance. It arises due to the excess potential energy of the molecules on the surface in comparison to their potential energy in the interior.
Adding a solute into a solvent may lead to an increase in surface tension, for example, salt in water and water in alcohol, due to solute depletion at the interface. The repulsion of the solute from the interface may originate from electrostatic forces or solute-solvent attraction. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Auxins, gibberellins, and cytokinins are plant growth promoters. Light-induced growth response in plants is called phototropism. Light controls the distribution of auxins in the shoot tip. A greater quantity of auxin accumulation occurs in the shaded portion, leading to rapid cell division and faster growth and the bending or curvature of the stem towards the light. Just like phototropism, geotropism is also caused by an unequal distribution of auxin.
Geotropism (also called gravitropism) is a response to the stimulus of gravity. For example, if a root is placed horizontally, the bottom side contains more auxin and grows less – causing the root to grow in the direction of the force of gravity. The opposite happens in a stem. When a stem is placed horizontally, the bottom side contains more auxin and grows more – causing the stem to grow upwards against the force of gravity.
Therefore, both phototropism and geotropism are caused by unequal auxin distribution. So, Statement 3 is correct. - Question 16 of 100
16. Question
With reference to Bisphenol A (BPA), consider the following statements :
(1) It is a colourless crystalline solid insoluble in organic solvents.
(2) It is used to manufacture polycarbonate plastics and resins.
(3) It may increase blood pressure, type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectBisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical compound primarily used to manufacture various plastics. It is a colorless solid soluble in most common organic solvents but has very poor solubility in water. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
It is primarily used in large quantities in the production of polycarbonate plastics. It is found in various products, including shatterproof windows, eyewear, water bottles, and epoxy resins that coat metal food cans, bottle tops, and water supply pipes. So, Statement 2 is correct.
It may lead to possible health effects on the brain and prostate gland of fetuses, infants, and children. It may increase blood pressure, type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease. So, Statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedBisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical compound primarily used to manufacture various plastics. It is a colorless solid soluble in most common organic solvents but has very poor solubility in water. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
It is primarily used in large quantities in the production of polycarbonate plastics. It is found in various products, including shatterproof windows, eyewear, water bottles, and epoxy resins that coat metal food cans, bottle tops, and water supply pipes. So, Statement 2 is correct.
It may lead to possible health effects on the brain and prostate gland of fetuses, infants, and children. It may increase blood pressure, type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease. So, Statement 3 is correct. - Question 17 of 100
17. Question
Regarding amoeba, consider the following assertions:
(1) It is a microscopic single-celled organism found in pond water.
(2) Amoeba constantly changes its shape and position.
(3) Amoeba has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectIt is the microscopic unicellular organism found in pond water which keeps changing its shape and position constantly. It has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm. The amoeba is a tiny, one-celled organism. You need a microscope to see most amoebas – the largest are only about 1 mm across. Amoebas live in fresh water (like puddle and ponds), in salt water, in wet soil, and in animals (including people). There are many different types of amoebas. The name amoeba comes from the Greek word amoibe, which means change. (Amoeba is sometimes spelled ameba.)
(1) Cell membrane – the thin layer of protein and fat that surrounds the amoeba; it allows some substances to pass into the cell, and blocks other substances.
(2) Contractile vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba that excretes excess water and waste; the waste is brought to the cell membrane and is then eliminated from the amoeba.
(3) Cytoplasm (ectoplasm and endoplasm) – a jelly-like material that fills most of the cell; the organelles (like the nucleus) are surrounded by cytoplasm.
(4) Food vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba in which food is digested (broken down in order to be absorbed by the amoeba).
(5) Nucleus – the major organelle of the amoeba, located centrally; it controls reproduction (it contains the chromosomes) and many other important functions (including eating and growth).
(6) Pseudopods – temporary “feet” that the amoeba uses to move around and to engulf food.
An amoeba consists of a single blobby cell surrounded by a porous cell membrane. The amoeba “breathes” using this membrane – oxygen gas from the water passes in to the amoeba through the cell membrane and carbon dioxide gas leaves through it. A complex, jelly-like series of folded membranes called cytoplasm fills most of the cell. A large, disk-shaped nucleus within the amoeba controls the growth and reproduction of the amoeba.UnattemptedIt is the microscopic unicellular organism found in pond water which keeps changing its shape and position constantly. It has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm. The amoeba is a tiny, one-celled organism. You need a microscope to see most amoebas – the largest are only about 1 mm across. Amoebas live in fresh water (like puddle and ponds), in salt water, in wet soil, and in animals (including people). There are many different types of amoebas. The name amoeba comes from the Greek word amoibe, which means change. (Amoeba is sometimes spelled ameba.)
(1) Cell membrane – the thin layer of protein and fat that surrounds the amoeba; it allows some substances to pass into the cell, and blocks other substances.
(2) Contractile vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba that excretes excess water and waste; the waste is brought to the cell membrane and is then eliminated from the amoeba.
(3) Cytoplasm (ectoplasm and endoplasm) – a jelly-like material that fills most of the cell; the organelles (like the nucleus) are surrounded by cytoplasm.
(4) Food vacuole – a cavity within the amoeba in which food is digested (broken down in order to be absorbed by the amoeba).
(5) Nucleus – the major organelle of the amoeba, located centrally; it controls reproduction (it contains the chromosomes) and many other important functions (including eating and growth).
(6) Pseudopods – temporary “feet” that the amoeba uses to move around and to engulf food.
An amoeba consists of a single blobby cell surrounded by a porous cell membrane. The amoeba “breathes” using this membrane – oxygen gas from the water passes in to the amoeba through the cell membrane and carbon dioxide gas leaves through it. A complex, jelly-like series of folded membranes called cytoplasm fills most of the cell. A large, disk-shaped nucleus within the amoeba controls the growth and reproduction of the amoeba. - Question 18 of 100
18. Question
Which of the following are uses of baking soda?
(1) Treat heartburn
(2) Mouthwash
(3) Soothe canker sores
(4) Eliminating sweat smell
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectHeartburn is also known as acid reflux. It’s a painful, burning sensation that arises in the upper region of your stomach and can spread up into your throat. Baking soda can help treat heartburn by neutralizing stomach acid.
Mouthwash is a great addition to a good oral hygiene routine. It reaches cornersof mouth and crevices of teeth, gums, and tongue, which may be missed during brushing.
Many people use baking soda as a replacement for mouthwash. Some studies have shown it can help freshen breath and even provide antibacterial and antimicrobial properties.
Canker sores are small, painful ulcers that can form inside mouth. Unlike cold sores, canker sores do not form on the lips and aren’t contagious.Baking soda mouthwash is great for soothing pain caused by canker sores.
Sweat only gains an odor after it’s broken down by bacteria in armpits. These bacteria convert sweat into acidic waste products that give sweat its odour.Baking soda may eliminate the smell of sweat by making the odours less acidic.UnattemptedHeartburn is also known as acid reflux. It’s a painful, burning sensation that arises in the upper region of your stomach and can spread up into your throat. Baking soda can help treat heartburn by neutralizing stomach acid.
Mouthwash is a great addition to a good oral hygiene routine. It reaches cornersof mouth and crevices of teeth, gums, and tongue, which may be missed during brushing.
Many people use baking soda as a replacement for mouthwash. Some studies have shown it can help freshen breath and even provide antibacterial and antimicrobial properties.
Canker sores are small, painful ulcers that can form inside mouth. Unlike cold sores, canker sores do not form on the lips and aren’t contagious.Baking soda mouthwash is great for soothing pain caused by canker sores.
Sweat only gains an odor after it’s broken down by bacteria in armpits. These bacteria convert sweat into acidic waste products that give sweat its odour.Baking soda may eliminate the smell of sweat by making the odours less acidic. - Question 19 of 100
19. Question
Which of the following are natural preservatives of food?
(1) Pink Sea Salt
(2) Spicy Ingredients
(3) Lemon
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectSalt has long been touted as one of the best natural preservatives and if it is Himalayan salt, it is even better. Using just a pinch of unprocessed Himalayan salt can help preserve food in a healthier way.
Spicy ingredients like Cayenne, mustard and hot sauce are some of the best natural food preservatives. Mustard and hot sauce have some percentage of vinegar in it. Spicy foods are known to fight bacteria from attacking food and keep it fresh for longer.
Lemons are a natural source of citric acid and make an exceptionally good preservative.
Their peels and flesh are the best fix to prevent your food from spoiling.UnattemptedSalt has long been touted as one of the best natural preservatives and if it is Himalayan salt, it is even better. Using just a pinch of unprocessed Himalayan salt can help preserve food in a healthier way.
Spicy ingredients like Cayenne, mustard and hot sauce are some of the best natural food preservatives. Mustard and hot sauce have some percentage of vinegar in it. Spicy foods are known to fight bacteria from attacking food and keep it fresh for longer.
Lemons are a natural source of citric acid and make an exceptionally good preservative.
Their peels and flesh are the best fix to prevent your food from spoiling. - Question 20 of 100
20. Question
With reference to antacids, consider the following statements:
(1) A mixture of aluminium and magnesium hydroxide can be used as antacid.
(2) Histamine stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2CorrectIncorrectOver production of acid in the stomach causes irritation and pain. In severe cases, ulcers are developed in the stomach.
Statement 1 is correct: Until 1970, only treatment for acidity was administration of antacids, such as sodium hydrogencarbonate or a mixture of aluminium and magnesium hydroxide. Metal hydroxides are better alternatives because of being insoluble, these do not increase the pH above neutrality. These treatments control only symptoms, and not the cause. Therefore, with these metal salts, the patients cannot be treated easily.
Statement 2 is correct: A major breakthrough in the treatment of hyperacidity came through the discovery according to which a chemical, histamine, stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
Histamine is a potent vasodilator. It has various functions. It contracts the smooth muscles in the bronchi and gut and relaxes other muscles, such as those in the walls of fine blood vessels.
Histamine is also responsible for the nasal congestion associated with common cold and allergic response to pollen.UnattemptedOver production of acid in the stomach causes irritation and pain. In severe cases, ulcers are developed in the stomach.
Statement 1 is correct: Until 1970, only treatment for acidity was administration of antacids, such as sodium hydrogencarbonate or a mixture of aluminium and magnesium hydroxide. Metal hydroxides are better alternatives because of being insoluble, these do not increase the pH above neutrality. These treatments control only symptoms, and not the cause. Therefore, with these metal salts, the patients cannot be treated easily.
Statement 2 is correct: A major breakthrough in the treatment of hyperacidity came through the discovery according to which a chemical, histamine, stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
Histamine is a potent vasodilator. It has various functions. It contracts the smooth muscles in the bronchi and gut and relaxes other muscles, such as those in the walls of fine blood vessels.
Histamine is also responsible for the nasal congestion associated with common cold and allergic response to pollen. - Question 21 of 100
21. Question
Among the following allotropes of carbon, which one does not belong to the class of other three?
(A) Graphene
(B) Fullerene
(C) Bromine
(D) DiamondCorrectIncorrectGraphene is an allotrope of carbon which occurs as two-dimensional sheets, which can be named the “two-dimensional hexagonal lattice”. Moreover, it is an infinitely large aromatic molecule.
Fullerene is an allotrope of carbon which occurs as spheres of carbon. Therefore, unlike graphene, fullerene is a 3D structure. Furthermore, it occurs as a large spheroidal molecule, and it consists of a cage formed by sixty or more atoms.
Diamond is a face-centred cubic crystal with eight atoms per unit cell. Each carbon atom in a diamond is covalently bonded to four other carbons in a tetrahedron. These tetrahedrons together form a 3-dimensional network of six- membered carbon rings (similar to cyclohexane), in the chair conformation, allowing for zero bond angle strain. This stable network of covalent bonds and hexagonal rings is the reason that diamond is so strong.
Graphite conducts electricity, due to delocalization of the pi bond electrons above and below the planes of the carbon atoms. These electrons are free to move, so are able to conduct electricity. However, the electricity is only conducted along the plane of the layers.
Bromine is a chemical element with the symbol Br and atomic number 35. It is the third-lightest halogen, and is a fuming red-brown liquid at room temperature that evaporates readily to form a similarly coloured vapour. Its properties are intermediate between those of chlorine and iodine.UnattemptedGraphene is an allotrope of carbon which occurs as two-dimensional sheets, which can be named the “two-dimensional hexagonal lattice”. Moreover, it is an infinitely large aromatic molecule.
Fullerene is an allotrope of carbon which occurs as spheres of carbon. Therefore, unlike graphene, fullerene is a 3D structure. Furthermore, it occurs as a large spheroidal molecule, and it consists of a cage formed by sixty or more atoms.
Diamond is a face-centred cubic crystal with eight atoms per unit cell. Each carbon atom in a diamond is covalently bonded to four other carbons in a tetrahedron. These tetrahedrons together form a 3-dimensional network of six- membered carbon rings (similar to cyclohexane), in the chair conformation, allowing for zero bond angle strain. This stable network of covalent bonds and hexagonal rings is the reason that diamond is so strong.
Graphite conducts electricity, due to delocalization of the pi bond electrons above and below the planes of the carbon atoms. These electrons are free to move, so are able to conduct electricity. However, the electricity is only conducted along the plane of the layers.
Bromine is a chemical element with the symbol Br and atomic number 35. It is the third-lightest halogen, and is a fuming red-brown liquid at room temperature that evaporates readily to form a similarly coloured vapour. Its properties are intermediate between those of chlorine and iodine. - Question 22 of 100
22. Question
Consider the following statements about “Gold nanoparticles (GNPs) ” :
(1) These GNPs can be used as a composite therapeutic agent in clinical trials, especially in anti-cancer, anti-viral, anti-diabetic, and cholesterol-lowering drugs.
(2) GNPs have greater solar radiation absorbing ability than the conventional bulk gold, which makes them a better candidate for use in the photovoltaic cell manufacturing industry.
(3) GNPs are melted at much higher temperatures (8000 °C) than bulk gold.
(4) Gold nanoparticles can be used to detect biomarkers in the diagnosis of heart diseases, cancers, and infectious agents.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectGold nanoparticles
The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) and the Goa University (GU) have successfully synthesized gold nanoparticles (GNPs) using psychrotolerant Antarctic bacteria through a non-toxic, low-cost, and eco- friendly way.
These GNPs can be used as a composite therapeutic agent in clinical trials, especially in anti-cancer, anti-viral, anti-diabetic, and cholesterol-lowering drugs. GNPs are melted at much lower temperatures (300 °C) than bulk gold (1064 °C). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
GNPs are found to have greater solar radiation absorbing ability than the conventional bulk gold, which makes them a better candidate for use in the photovoltaic cell manufacturing industry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Gold nanoparticles are designed for use as conductors from printable inks to electronic chip. The surface of a gold nanoparticle can be used for selective oxidation or in certain cases the surface can reduce a reaction (nitrogen oxides).
Gold nanoparticles are being developed for fuel cell applications. These technologies would be useful in the automotive and display industry.
Gold nanoparticles (GNPs) do not have a melting point of 8000 °C. In fact, the melting point of gold nanoparticles is not significantly different from that of bulk gold. The melting point of bulk gold is approximately 1064 °C (or 1947.52 °F). This value remains relatively constant regardless of whether the gold is in bulk form or in the form of nanoparticles. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Gold nanoparticles (GNPs) have been extensively researched for their potential applications in the detection of various biomarkers, including those associated with heart diseases, cancers, and infectious agents. Their unique optical and chemical properties make them valuable tools for developing sensitive and specific diagnostic assays. Hence, statement 4 is correct.UnattemptedGold nanoparticles
The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) and the Goa University (GU) have successfully synthesized gold nanoparticles (GNPs) using psychrotolerant Antarctic bacteria through a non-toxic, low-cost, and eco- friendly way.
These GNPs can be used as a composite therapeutic agent in clinical trials, especially in anti-cancer, anti-viral, anti-diabetic, and cholesterol-lowering drugs. GNPs are melted at much lower temperatures (300 °C) than bulk gold (1064 °C). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
GNPs are found to have greater solar radiation absorbing ability than the conventional bulk gold, which makes them a better candidate for use in the photovoltaic cell manufacturing industry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Gold nanoparticles are designed for use as conductors from printable inks to electronic chip. The surface of a gold nanoparticle can be used for selective oxidation or in certain cases the surface can reduce a reaction (nitrogen oxides).
Gold nanoparticles are being developed for fuel cell applications. These technologies would be useful in the automotive and display industry.
Gold nanoparticles (GNPs) do not have a melting point of 8000 °C. In fact, the melting point of gold nanoparticles is not significantly different from that of bulk gold. The melting point of bulk gold is approximately 1064 °C (or 1947.52 °F). This value remains relatively constant regardless of whether the gold is in bulk form or in the form of nanoparticles. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Gold nanoparticles (GNPs) have been extensively researched for their potential applications in the detection of various biomarkers, including those associated with heart diseases, cancers, and infectious agents. Their unique optical and chemical properties make them valuable tools for developing sensitive and specific diagnostic assays. Hence, statement 4 is correct. - Question 23 of 100
23. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cord blood banking :
(1) Cord blood banking is a process of collecting potentially life-saving stem cells from the umbilical cord and placenta and storing them for future use.
(2) They can treat cancer, blood diseases like anemia, and some immune system disorders.
(3) The Central Drug Standards Controlling Organization (CDSCO) only issues licenses and oversees the operation of umbilical cord blood banks (UCB).
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectContext : New parents have become more interested in cord blood banking over the past ten years.
Statement 1 is correct: Cord blood banking is a process of collecting potentially life-saving stem cells from the umbilical cord and placenta and storing them for future use. Stem cells are immature cells that can assume the form of other cells. Blood from the baby’s umbilical cord (which connects the baby to the mother while in the womb) can be stored for the future health of the child.
Statement 2 is correct: The umbilical cord fluid is loaded with stem cells. They can treat cancer, blood diseases like anemia, and some immune system disorders, which disrupt your body’s ability to defend itself. The fluid is easy to collect and has 10 times more stem cells than those collected from bone marrow. Stem cells from cord blood rarely carry any infectious diseases and are half as likely to be rejected as adult stem cells.
Statement 3 is correct: The Central Drug Standards Controlling Organization (CDSCO), a constituent of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) only issues licenses and oversees the operation of umbilical cord blood banks (UCB).UnattemptedContext : New parents have become more interested in cord blood banking over the past ten years.
Statement 1 is correct: Cord blood banking is a process of collecting potentially life-saving stem cells from the umbilical cord and placenta and storing them for future use. Stem cells are immature cells that can assume the form of other cells. Blood from the baby’s umbilical cord (which connects the baby to the mother while in the womb) can be stored for the future health of the child.
Statement 2 is correct: The umbilical cord fluid is loaded with stem cells. They can treat cancer, blood diseases like anemia, and some immune system disorders, which disrupt your body’s ability to defend itself. The fluid is easy to collect and has 10 times more stem cells than those collected from bone marrow. Stem cells from cord blood rarely carry any infectious diseases and are half as likely to be rejected as adult stem cells.
Statement 3 is correct: The Central Drug Standards Controlling Organization (CDSCO), a constituent of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) only issues licenses and oversees the operation of umbilical cord blood banks (UCB). - Question 24 of 100
24. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Eukaryotic cell is a free-floating genetic material with the absence of a nucleus.
(2) Prokaryotes can live with or without oxygen while eukaryotes live only with oxygen.
(3) Prokaryotic cells have a well-organized nucleus while Eukaryotic cells do not have a well-organized nucleus.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectThe name “Eukaryotic” itself means: eu = true, karyon = nucleus. They contain an organised nucleuswith a nuclear envelope. The DNA is enclosed in a nuclear membrane forming a nucleus. So,Statement 1 is not correct.
Prokaryotes and eukaryotes both may perform both aerobic (oxygen-requiring) and anaerobic (non-oxygen-based) metabolism. So, both of them can live with or without oxygen. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
It's the opposite of the correct distinction between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells regarding their nuclei. Prokaryotic cells lack a well-organized nucleus with a nuclear envelope, while eukaryotic cells have a distinct, membrane-bound nucleus that is highly organized. This is one of the key differences between these two types of cells. So, Statement 3 is not correct.UnattemptedThe name “Eukaryotic” itself means: eu = true, karyon = nucleus. They contain an organised nucleuswith a nuclear envelope. The DNA is enclosed in a nuclear membrane forming a nucleus. So,Statement 1 is not correct.
Prokaryotes and eukaryotes both may perform both aerobic (oxygen-requiring) and anaerobic (non-oxygen-based) metabolism. So, both of them can live with or without oxygen. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
It's the opposite of the correct distinction between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells regarding their nuclei. Prokaryotic cells lack a well-organized nucleus with a nuclear envelope, while eukaryotic cells have a distinct, membrane-bound nucleus that is highly organized. This is one of the key differences between these two types of cells. So, Statement 3 is not correct. - Question 25 of 100
25. Question
With reference to Raman effect, consider the following statements:
(1) The Raman Effect is the very weak effect which deals with scattering of light by molecules of a medium when they are excited to different energy levels.
(2) The Raman spectroscopy is used in identifying the illegal drugs without damaging the packaging materials.
(3) The Raman effect is described as a change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectC.V. Raman had discovered the Inelastic scattering of light by molecules. He found that, the monochromatic light is scattered when it is allowed to pass through a substance. The scattered light contains some additional frequencies other than that of incident frequency. This is known as Raman effect.
The phenomenon of scattering of light by colloidal particles is called the Tyndall effect. So, statement 1 is correct
Raman Spectra is widely used in almost all branches of science. Raman Spectra of different substances enable to classify the maccording to their molecular structure and to analyse the chemical constitution.
Raman spectroscopy identifies the contents of drugs within their packaging without damaging, measures the composition and uniformity of drug pills, identifies street drugs, and determines drug authenticity. So, statement 2 is correct.
Raman effect’ is described as a change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules. For his work, Raman was awarded a Nobel Prize in 1930, making him the first Asian to be thus recognised in science. So, statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedC.V. Raman had discovered the Inelastic scattering of light by molecules. He found that, the monochromatic light is scattered when it is allowed to pass through a substance. The scattered light contains some additional frequencies other than that of incident frequency. This is known as Raman effect.
The phenomenon of scattering of light by colloidal particles is called the Tyndall effect. So, statement 1 is correct
Raman Spectra is widely used in almost all branches of science. Raman Spectra of different substances enable to classify the maccording to their molecular structure and to analyse the chemical constitution.
Raman spectroscopy identifies the contents of drugs within their packaging without damaging, measures the composition and uniformity of drug pills, identifies street drugs, and determines drug authenticity. So, statement 2 is correct.
Raman effect’ is described as a change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules. For his work, Raman was awarded a Nobel Prize in 1930, making him the first Asian to be thus recognised in science. So, statement 3 is correct. - Question 26 of 100
26. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Genome India Project (GIP):
(1) It aims to collect 1,00,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome.
(2) This would aid our understanding of the nature of diseases affecting the Indian population, and then ultimately support the development of predictive diagnostic markers.
(3) It being spearheaded by the Centre for Brain Research at Bengaluru based Indian Institute of Science.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectRecently, the secretary of the Department of Biotechnology said that under the Genome India project, close to 7,000 genomes have been sequenced and 3,000 of these are already available for public access.
Genome India Project
Taking inspiration from the Human Genome Project, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) initiated the ambitious “Genome India Project” (GIP) on 3rd January 2020. It is a Central Sector Project.
The GIP aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
This is a mission-mode, multi-institution consortium project, the first of its kind in India supported by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
Goal
The goal of the research is to develop predictive diagnostic indicators for several high-priority diseases and other uncommon and genetic disorders.
In phase 2, the project would collect genetic samples from patients with three broad categories – cardiovascular diseases, mental illness, and cancer.
Through whole-genome sequencing, the plan is to build an exhaustive catalogue of genetic variations for the Indian population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Targeted areas
Some of the priority areas are Precision health, Rare genetic disorders, Mutation spectrum of genetic and complex diseases in the Indian population, Genetic Epidemiology of Multifactorial Lifestyle Diseases, and Translational Research.
What is a genome?
Every organism’s genetic code is contained in its Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid (DNA), the building blocks of life.
A genome, simply put, is all the genetic matter in an organism.
It is defined as “an organism’s complete set of DNA, including all of its genes.
Each genome contains all of the information needed to build and maintain that organism.
In humans, a copy of the entire genome — more than 3 billion DNA base pairs — is contained in all cells that have a nucleus”.
This is a national project funded by Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, and spearheaded by CBR aiming to identify genetic variations through whole genome sequencing of 10,000 representative individuals across India in the first phase of the study. Hence, statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedRecently, the secretary of the Department of Biotechnology said that under the Genome India project, close to 7,000 genomes have been sequenced and 3,000 of these are already available for public access.
Genome India Project
Taking inspiration from the Human Genome Project, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) initiated the ambitious “Genome India Project” (GIP) on 3rd January 2020. It is a Central Sector Project.
The GIP aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
This is a mission-mode, multi-institution consortium project, the first of its kind in India supported by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
Goal
The goal of the research is to develop predictive diagnostic indicators for several high-priority diseases and other uncommon and genetic disorders.
In phase 2, the project would collect genetic samples from patients with three broad categories – cardiovascular diseases, mental illness, and cancer.
Through whole-genome sequencing, the plan is to build an exhaustive catalogue of genetic variations for the Indian population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Targeted areas
Some of the priority areas are Precision health, Rare genetic disorders, Mutation spectrum of genetic and complex diseases in the Indian population, Genetic Epidemiology of Multifactorial Lifestyle Diseases, and Translational Research.
What is a genome?
Every organism’s genetic code is contained in its Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid (DNA), the building blocks of life.
A genome, simply put, is all the genetic matter in an organism.
It is defined as “an organism’s complete set of DNA, including all of its genes.
Each genome contains all of the information needed to build and maintain that organism.
In humans, a copy of the entire genome — more than 3 billion DNA base pairs — is contained in all cells that have a nucleus”.
This is a national project funded by Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, and spearheaded by CBR aiming to identify genetic variations through whole genome sequencing of 10,000 representative individuals across India in the first phase of the study. Hence, statement 3 is correct. - Question 27 of 100
27. Question
With reference to the process of Coal Gasification, consider the following statements:
(1) It is the process of converting coal into methane, ethane or butane.
(2) The end products may be used in the production of electricity.
(3) Expedition of the process could help reduce India’s urea imports.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is not correct: Coal gasification is the process of converting coal into synthesis gas (also called syngas), which is a mixture of hydrogen (H2), carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2).
Statement 2 is correct: The syngas can be used in a variety of applications such as in the production of electricity and making chemical products, such as fertilisers. According to the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers, urea is currently produced using pooled natural gas, which comprises of both domestic natural gas and imported LNG. The usage of locally available coal for making fertilisers would help reduce the import of LNG
Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Coal reported that India currently imports 50 to 70 lakh tonnes of urea every year, and that the revival of the Coal gasification units would help increase the availability of domestically produced fertilisers.UnattemptedStatement 1 is not correct: Coal gasification is the process of converting coal into synthesis gas (also called syngas), which is a mixture of hydrogen (H2), carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2).
Statement 2 is correct: The syngas can be used in a variety of applications such as in the production of electricity and making chemical products, such as fertilisers. According to the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers, urea is currently produced using pooled natural gas, which comprises of both domestic natural gas and imported LNG. The usage of locally available coal for making fertilisers would help reduce the import of LNG
Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Coal reported that India currently imports 50 to 70 lakh tonnes of urea every year, and that the revival of the Coal gasification units would help increase the availability of domestically produced fertilisers. - Question 28 of 100
28. Question
With reference to the chemical Ethylene Glycol, consider the following statements:
(1) It is used as a freezing agent to reduce ice melting at higher temperatures.
(2) It can be found in ballpoint pens, solvents, paints and films.
(3) It is unsafe for human consumption as it affects the central nervous system.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is not correct: It Is used to make antifreeze and de-icing solutions for cars, airplanes, and boats.
Statement 2 is correct: It is found in consumer products including automotive antifreeze, hydraulic brake fluids, some stamp pad inks, ballpoint pens, solvents, paints, plastics, films, and cosmetics and is also used as a pharmaceutical vehicle.
Statement 3 is correct: Once ingested, ethylene glycol is chemically broken down into toxic compounds. These byproducts then affect the central nervous system (CNS), the heart and then the kidneys.
Ethylene glycol can be disseminated through indoor air, water, food, outdoor air and agricultural productsUnattemptedStatement 1 is not correct: It Is used to make antifreeze and de-icing solutions for cars, airplanes, and boats.
Statement 2 is correct: It is found in consumer products including automotive antifreeze, hydraulic brake fluids, some stamp pad inks, ballpoint pens, solvents, paints, plastics, films, and cosmetics and is also used as a pharmaceutical vehicle.
Statement 3 is correct: Once ingested, ethylene glycol is chemically broken down into toxic compounds. These byproducts then affect the central nervous system (CNS), the heart and then the kidneys.
Ethylene glycol can be disseminated through indoor air, water, food, outdoor air and agricultural products - Question 29 of 100
29. Question
With reference to Helium, consider the following statements:
(1) Helium has the lowest boiling point among known substance.
(2) It is heavy and settles in the lower atmosphere only.
(3) It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out various experiments at high temperatures.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: Helium has the lowest Boiling point and melting point of any element.
Statement 2 is not correct: Helium is the second most abundant element in the universe, but preciously rare on Earth because it is light enough to simply escape from the top of our atmosphere.
Statement 3 is not correct: Liquid helium (b.p.4.2 K) finds use as cryogenic agent for carrying out various experiments at low temperatures.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: Helium has the lowest Boiling point and melting point of any element.
Statement 2 is not correct: Helium is the second most abundant element in the universe, but preciously rare on Earth because it is light enough to simply escape from the top of our atmosphere.
Statement 3 is not correct: Liquid helium (b.p.4.2 K) finds use as cryogenic agent for carrying out various experiments at low temperatures. - Question 30 of 100
30. Question
With reference to antiseptics, consider the following statements:
(1) Antiseptics are applied to the living tissues.
(2) Commonly used antiseptic, dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol, terpineol and isopropyl alcohol.
(3) 1 per cent solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its 0.2 percent solution is disinfectant.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: Antiseptics are applied to the living tissues such as wounds, cuts,ulcers and diseased skin surfaces. Examples are furacine, soframicine, etc.
Statement 2 is correct: Commonly used antiseptic, dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol, terpineol and isopropyl alcohol.
Statement 3 is not correct: 0.2 per cent solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its one percent solution is disinfectant.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: Antiseptics are applied to the living tissues such as wounds, cuts,ulcers and diseased skin surfaces. Examples are furacine, soframicine, etc.
Statement 2 is correct: Commonly used antiseptic, dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol, terpineol and isopropyl alcohol.
Statement 3 is not correct: 0.2 per cent solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its one percent solution is disinfectant. - Question 31 of 100
31. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Speed of the sound in air increases with increase in temperature.
(2) When a sound waves travels from one medium to another medium, the frequency remains constant.
(3) Sound travels faster in hydrogen medium compared to air medium.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectSound is the form of energy which gives the sensation of hearing. The speed of sound depends upon medium and temperature. Temperature is also a form of energy. When the temperature increases the sound waves get extra energy and vibrate more. Thus the speed of the sound will increase with temperature increase. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The number of vibrations made by a particle in one second is called the frequency of a sound wave.It depends upon the source of the sound. Thus the frequency will not change when a sound wave travel from one medium to another. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The speed of the sound will decrease with the increasing density. The density of Hydrogen is lesser than the density of air. Thus the sound travels faster in Hydrogen medium compared to air medium. So, Statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedSound is the form of energy which gives the sensation of hearing. The speed of sound depends upon medium and temperature. Temperature is also a form of energy. When the temperature increases the sound waves get extra energy and vibrate more. Thus the speed of the sound will increase with temperature increase. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The number of vibrations made by a particle in one second is called the frequency of a sound wave.It depends upon the source of the sound. Thus the frequency will not change when a sound wave travel from one medium to another. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The speed of the sound will decrease with the increasing density. The density of Hydrogen is lesser than the density of air. Thus the sound travels faster in Hydrogen medium compared to air medium. So, Statement 3 is correct. - Question 32 of 100
32. Question
Which of the following are examples of a symbiotic relationship?
(1) Algae and fungus
(2) Algae and bacteria
(3) Fungus and bacteria
(4) Plants and bacteria
How many of the above is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectThere is a symbiotic relationship between algae and fungus. For example, in organisms called lichens, a chlorophyll-containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live together. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga and, in return, the alga prepares and provides food to the fungus.The bacterium called Rhizobium can take atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into a usable form. But Rhizobium cannot make its own food. So, it often lives in the roots of gram, peas, moong, beans and other legumes and provides them with nitrogen. In return, the plants provide food and shelter to the bacteria. They, thus, have a symbiotic relationship. (i.e., between plants and bacteria). So, options 1 and 4 are correct.
UnattemptedThere is a symbiotic relationship between algae and fungus. For example, in organisms called lichens, a chlorophyll-containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live together. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga and, in return, the alga prepares and provides food to the fungus.The bacterium called Rhizobium can take atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into a usable form. But Rhizobium cannot make its own food. So, it often lives in the roots of gram, peas, moong, beans and other legumes and provides them with nitrogen. In return, the plants provide food and shelter to the bacteria. They, thus, have a symbiotic relationship. (i.e., between plants and bacteria). So, options 1 and 4 are correct.
- Question 33 of 100
33. Question
An iron ball at 40°C is dropped in a mug containing water at 40°C. The heat will
A. flow from iron ball to water.
B. not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
C. flow from water to iron ball.
D. increase the temperature of both.CorrectIncorrectHeat flows from a body of higher temperature to a body of lower temperature. Here the temperature of both the objects is same. So, heat will not flow from one object to other or there will not be any change in the temperature of both the two objects.
UnattemptedHeat flows from a body of higher temperature to a body of lower temperature. Here the temperature of both the objects is same. So, heat will not flow from one object to other or there will not be any change in the temperature of both the two objects.
- Question 34 of 100
34. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Gravity is always attractive while electromagnetic force is always repulsive.
(2) The gravitational force is the force of mutual attraction between any two objects by virtue of their masses.
(3) Electromagnetic force can act over large distances without any medium and is enormously strong compared to gravity.
(4) Neutrinos experience strong electromagnetic force.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectSince the gravitational force is directly proportional to the mass of both bodies, every object is pulled towards and attractive; hence, an answer could be derived from these facts.
The electromagnetic force is the force between charged particles. It is attractive for unlike charges and repulsive for like charges.
It is the force between any two objects in the universe. It is an attractive force by virtue of their masses.
Gravitational force is the weakest force among the fundamental forces of nature but has the greatest large−scale impact on the universe. Unlike the other forces, gravity works universally on all matter and energy, and is universally attractive. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Electromagnetic force is the combination of electrostatic and magnetic forces. It is very strong compared to the gravitational force. The electromagnetic force acts over large distances and does not need any intervening medium. This means that electromagnetic waves can travel not only through air and solid materials but also through the vacuum of space. So hence they do not require a medium to propagate. So, statement 3 is correct.
As Neutrino are electrically neutral, they are not affected by electromagnetic forces. Neutrinos are affected by only a weak subatomic force of much shorter range than electromagnetism, and are therefore able to pass through great distances in matter without being affected by it. So, statement 4 is not correct.UnattemptedSince the gravitational force is directly proportional to the mass of both bodies, every object is pulled towards and attractive; hence, an answer could be derived from these facts.
The electromagnetic force is the force between charged particles. It is attractive for unlike charges and repulsive for like charges.
It is the force between any two objects in the universe. It is an attractive force by virtue of their masses.
Gravitational force is the weakest force among the fundamental forces of nature but has the greatest large−scale impact on the universe. Unlike the other forces, gravity works universally on all matter and energy, and is universally attractive. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Electromagnetic force is the combination of electrostatic and magnetic forces. It is very strong compared to the gravitational force. The electromagnetic force acts over large distances and does not need any intervening medium. This means that electromagnetic waves can travel not only through air and solid materials but also through the vacuum of space. So hence they do not require a medium to propagate. So, statement 3 is correct.
As Neutrino are electrically neutral, they are not affected by electromagnetic forces. Neutrinos are affected by only a weak subatomic force of much shorter range than electromagnetism, and are therefore able to pass through great distances in matter without being affected by it. So, statement 4 is not correct. - Question 35 of 100
35. Question
With reference to Nuclear Reactors in India, consider the following statements :
(1) Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) located at Kalpakkam is the first nuclear power station in India
(2) Boron is used for sustaining controlled chain reaction in nuclear reactors.
(3) Nuclear poison is a substance which has the capacity for absorbing neutrons in the vicinity of the reactor core.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectIndia's first nuclear reactor was built at Tarapur, Maharastra on 4th August 1956. This reactor was named Apsara. This was a Boiling Water Reactor (BWR) constructed through Indo-US cooperation.
Whereas India’s third nuclear power station called Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS), came up at Kalpakkam, near Chennai. This station was designed and built by India, on its own. All the materials and equipment were produced in the country. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Control rods are used in the nuclear reactor to control the chain reaction of nuclear fission by absorbing the neutrons. Control rods are made out of neutron-absorbing materials such as silver and boron. So, Statement 2 is correct.
A substance (other than fissionable matter) that has a large capacity for absorbing neutrons in the vicinity of the reactor core and is intentionally inserted into some types of reactors to decrease the reactivity of their initial fresh fuel load. This effect may be undesirable in some reactor applications because it may prevent or disrupt the fission chain reaction, affecting normal operation. These neutron-absorbing materials are commonly known as nuclear or neutron poison. So, Statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedIndia's first nuclear reactor was built at Tarapur, Maharastra on 4th August 1956. This reactor was named Apsara. This was a Boiling Water Reactor (BWR) constructed through Indo-US cooperation.
Whereas India’s third nuclear power station called Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS), came up at Kalpakkam, near Chennai. This station was designed and built by India, on its own. All the materials and equipment were produced in the country. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Control rods are used in the nuclear reactor to control the chain reaction of nuclear fission by absorbing the neutrons. Control rods are made out of neutron-absorbing materials such as silver and boron. So, Statement 2 is correct.
A substance (other than fissionable matter) that has a large capacity for absorbing neutrons in the vicinity of the reactor core and is intentionally inserted into some types of reactors to decrease the reactivity of their initial fresh fuel load. This effect may be undesirable in some reactor applications because it may prevent or disrupt the fission chain reaction, affecting normal operation. These neutron-absorbing materials are commonly known as nuclear or neutron poison. So, Statement 3 is correct. - Question 36 of 100
36. Question
Consider the following organelle:
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
How many of the above play significant role in protein synthesis ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectEndoplasmic Reticulum (ER): The endoplasmic reticulum is a membrane-bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. It plays a crucial role in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism. There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum: rough ER and smooth ER. The rough ER is studded with ribosomes on its surface and is involved in the synthesis of proteins that are either secreted from the cell or inserted into the cell membrane. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Ribosome: Ribosomes are not organelles but rather small cellular structures composed of RNA and protein. They are involved in protein synthesis. Ribosomes can be found free in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. They read the genetic code from messenger RNA (mRNA) and synthesize proteins accordingly. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Lysosome: Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing enzymes responsible for breaking down cellular waste, debris, and foreign materials. They are often referred to as the cell's “garbage disposal” or “recycling center” because they break down and recycle cellular components, as well as digest materials that enter the cell through processes like endocytosis. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
These organelles have distinct functions within the cell, with the endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes playing roles in protein synthesis, while lysosomes are involved in cellular waste disposal and recycling.UnattemptedEndoplasmic Reticulum (ER): The endoplasmic reticulum is a membrane-bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. It plays a crucial role in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism. There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum: rough ER and smooth ER. The rough ER is studded with ribosomes on its surface and is involved in the synthesis of proteins that are either secreted from the cell or inserted into the cell membrane. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Ribosome: Ribosomes are not organelles but rather small cellular structures composed of RNA and protein. They are involved in protein synthesis. Ribosomes can be found free in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. They read the genetic code from messenger RNA (mRNA) and synthesize proteins accordingly. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Lysosome: Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing enzymes responsible for breaking down cellular waste, debris, and foreign materials. They are often referred to as the cell's “garbage disposal” or “recycling center” because they break down and recycle cellular components, as well as digest materials that enter the cell through processes like endocytosis. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
These organelles have distinct functions within the cell, with the endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes playing roles in protein synthesis, while lysosomes are involved in cellular waste disposal and recycling. - Question 37 of 100
37. Question
Consider the following edible items:
(1) Potato
(2) Turnip
(3) Ginger
How many of the above are modified stems ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStems get modified into underground structures for storage of food as seen in potato (tuber), ginger (rhizome) garlic (bulb). Presence of an eye (node) in potato, distinct nodes with internodes and scaly leaves in ginger all indicate that these underground plant parts are modified stem. Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.
Roots are modified in some plants for storing reserve food materials. These modified roots usually are swollen and assume different forms and shapes like top shaped e.g Turnip. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.UnattemptedStems get modified into underground structures for storage of food as seen in potato (tuber), ginger (rhizome) garlic (bulb). Presence of an eye (node) in potato, distinct nodes with internodes and scaly leaves in ginger all indicate that these underground plant parts are modified stem. Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.
Roots are modified in some plants for storing reserve food materials. These modified roots usually are swollen and assume different forms and shapes like top shaped e.g Turnip. Hence, option 2 is incorrect. - Question 38 of 100
38. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the Biofuels :
(1) Biofuels are transportation fuels such as ethanol and biomass-based diesel fuel that are made from biomass materials.
(2) Using ethanol or biodiesel reduces the consumption of gasoline and diesel fuel, which can reduce the amount of crude oil imported from other countries.
(3) India has brought forward its target of blending petroleum with 40% ethanol by five years.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectAbout Biofuels :
Biofuels are transportation fuels such as ethanol and biomass-based diesel fuel. These fuels are usually blended with petroleum fuels (gasoline and distillate/diesel fuel and heating oil), but they can also be used on their own. Crops used to make biofuels are generally either high in sugar (such as sugarcane, sugarbeet, and sweet sorghum), starch (such as maize and tapioca) or oils (such as soybean, rapeseed, coconut, sunflower). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Biofuels are generally classified into three categories. They are :
(1) First generation biofuels – First-generation biofuels are made from sugar, starch, vegetable oil, or animal fats using conventional technology. Common first- generation biofuels include Bioalcohols, Biodiesel, Vegetable oil, Bioethers, Biogas.
(2) Second generation biofuels – These are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and waste biomass (stalks of wheat and corn, and wood).
Examples include advanced biofuels like biohydrogen, biomethanol.
(3) Third generation biofuels – These are produced from microorganisms like algae.
Using ethanol or biodiesel reduces the consumption of gasoline and diesel fuel made from crude oil, which can reduce the amount of crude oil imported from other countries. Ethanol and biodiesel are also cleaner-burning fuels than pure gasoline and diesel fuel. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The ‘National Policy on Biofuels’ notified by the Government in 2018 envisaged an indicative target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol by year 2030. However, considering the encouraging performance, due to various interventions made by the Government since 2014, the target of 20% ethanol blending was advanced from 2030 to 2025-26. India has brought forward its target of blending petroleum with 20% ethanol by five years in its efforts to accelerate towards renewables and make its overall energy basket cleaner. The country would now aim to achieve the target of 20% blending by 2025, instead of 2030. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.UnattemptedAbout Biofuels :
Biofuels are transportation fuels such as ethanol and biomass-based diesel fuel. These fuels are usually blended with petroleum fuels (gasoline and distillate/diesel fuel and heating oil), but they can also be used on their own. Crops used to make biofuels are generally either high in sugar (such as sugarcane, sugarbeet, and sweet sorghum), starch (such as maize and tapioca) or oils (such as soybean, rapeseed, coconut, sunflower). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Biofuels are generally classified into three categories. They are :
(1) First generation biofuels – First-generation biofuels are made from sugar, starch, vegetable oil, or animal fats using conventional technology. Common first- generation biofuels include Bioalcohols, Biodiesel, Vegetable oil, Bioethers, Biogas.
(2) Second generation biofuels – These are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and waste biomass (stalks of wheat and corn, and wood).
Examples include advanced biofuels like biohydrogen, biomethanol.
(3) Third generation biofuels – These are produced from microorganisms like algae.
Using ethanol or biodiesel reduces the consumption of gasoline and diesel fuel made from crude oil, which can reduce the amount of crude oil imported from other countries. Ethanol and biodiesel are also cleaner-burning fuels than pure gasoline and diesel fuel. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The ‘National Policy on Biofuels’ notified by the Government in 2018 envisaged an indicative target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol by year 2030. However, considering the encouraging performance, due to various interventions made by the Government since 2014, the target of 20% ethanol blending was advanced from 2030 to 2025-26. India has brought forward its target of blending petroleum with 20% ethanol by five years in its efforts to accelerate towards renewables and make its overall energy basket cleaner. The country would now aim to achieve the target of 20% blending by 2025, instead of 2030. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. - Question 39 of 100
39. Question
Consider the following benefits of using “biodiesel” :
(1) It is made from renewable sources and can be prepared locally.
(2) Increases engine performance It has excellent lubricity.
(3) Increased safety in storage and transport.
(4) Reduction of greenhouse gases.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectBio-diesel is an eco-friendly, alternative diesel fuel prepared from domestic renewable resources ie. vegetable oils (edible or non- edible oil) and animal fats. These natural oils and fats are primarily made up of triglycerides.
These triglycerides when reacts chemically with lower alcohols in presence of a catalyst result in fatty acid esters. These esters show striking similarity to petroleum derived diesel and are called “Biodiesel”.
As India is deficient in edible oils, non-edible oil may be material of choice for producing biodiesel. Examples are Jatropha curcas, Pongamia, Karanja, etc.
The benefits of using biodiesel are as follows :
It reduces vehicle emission which makes it eco- friendly.
It is made from renewable sources and can be prepared locally. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Increases engine performance because it has higher cetane numbers as compared to petro diesel. It has excellent lubricity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Increased safety in storage and transport because the fuel is nontoxic and biodegradable (Storage, high flash point). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Production of bio diesel in India will reduce dependence on foreign suppliers, thus helpful in price stability.
Reduction of greenhouse gases at least by 3.3 kg CO2 equivalent per kg of biodiesel. Hence, statement 4 is correct.UnattemptedBio-diesel is an eco-friendly, alternative diesel fuel prepared from domestic renewable resources ie. vegetable oils (edible or non- edible oil) and animal fats. These natural oils and fats are primarily made up of triglycerides.
These triglycerides when reacts chemically with lower alcohols in presence of a catalyst result in fatty acid esters. These esters show striking similarity to petroleum derived diesel and are called “Biodiesel”.
As India is deficient in edible oils, non-edible oil may be material of choice for producing biodiesel. Examples are Jatropha curcas, Pongamia, Karanja, etc.
The benefits of using biodiesel are as follows :
It reduces vehicle emission which makes it eco- friendly.
It is made from renewable sources and can be prepared locally. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Increases engine performance because it has higher cetane numbers as compared to petro diesel. It has excellent lubricity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Increased safety in storage and transport because the fuel is nontoxic and biodegradable (Storage, high flash point). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Production of bio diesel in India will reduce dependence on foreign suppliers, thus helpful in price stability.
Reduction of greenhouse gases at least by 3.3 kg CO2 equivalent per kg of biodiesel. Hence, statement 4 is correct. - Question 40 of 100
40. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the New Space India Limited:
(1) New Space India Limited is a Central Public Sector Enterprise of the Government under the administrative control of the Department of Space.
(2) New Space India Limited handles ISRO’s commercial deals for satellites and launch vehicles with foreign customers.
(3) NSIL is the 1st commercial initiative of ISRO.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectNSIL is a Central Public Sector Enterprise of the Government of India.It was established in 2019 under the administrative control of the Department of Space. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It’s Headquarter at Bengaluru. NSIL is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) with the primary responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the space industry.
NSIL differs from ISRO’s existing commercial arm Antrix Corporation. Antrix handles ISRO’s commercial deals for satellites and launch vehicles with foreign customers. NSIL deals with capacity building of local industry for space manufacturing. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
NSIL is the 2nd commercial initiative of ISRO after Antrix. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.UnattemptedNSIL is a Central Public Sector Enterprise of the Government of India.It was established in 2019 under the administrative control of the Department of Space. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It’s Headquarter at Bengaluru. NSIL is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) with the primary responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the space industry.
NSIL differs from ISRO’s existing commercial arm Antrix Corporation. Antrix handles ISRO’s commercial deals for satellites and launch vehicles with foreign customers. NSIL deals with capacity building of local industry for space manufacturing. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
NSIL is the 2nd commercial initiative of ISRO after Antrix. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. - Question 41 of 100
41. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Solar eclipses :
(1) Solar eclipses happen when the Earth moves directly between the sun and Moon.
(2) The ring of fire eclipse occurs When earth is away from the moon, resulting in a narrow band of light around the dark colour of the Earth.
(3) During the Partial solar eclipse the shadow of the moon appears on a small part of the sun.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is incorrect: Solar eclipses happen when the moon moves directly between the sun and Earth, casting a shadow on our planet and blocking out at least some of the sun’s light.
There are three types of solar eclipses:
Statement 3 is correct: Partial solar eclipse: This happens when the sun, moon and Earth are not exactly lined up. The shadow of the moon appears on a small part of the sun.
Total solar eclipse: When the sun, moon and earth must be in a direct line.
Annular solar eclipse: It is a particular type of total solar eclipse. It occurs when the sun, moon and earth are not only in a straight line but also in the same plane.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The moon also must be farther away from the earth, which will allow it to not cover the disc of the sun completely, resulting in a narrow band of light around the dark colour of the moon causing the ring of fire to be visible. Therefore, It is also called the ring of fire eclipse.
The distance between the earth and the moon at the moment of the eclipse can dictate the type of eclipse that will take place. The distance between the earth and the moon is always changing due to the egg-shaped elliptical orbit of the moon.UnattemptedStatement 1 is incorrect: Solar eclipses happen when the moon moves directly between the sun and Earth, casting a shadow on our planet and blocking out at least some of the sun’s light.
There are three types of solar eclipses:
Statement 3 is correct: Partial solar eclipse: This happens when the sun, moon and Earth are not exactly lined up. The shadow of the moon appears on a small part of the sun.
Total solar eclipse: When the sun, moon and earth must be in a direct line.
Annular solar eclipse: It is a particular type of total solar eclipse. It occurs when the sun, moon and earth are not only in a straight line but also in the same plane.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The moon also must be farther away from the earth, which will allow it to not cover the disc of the sun completely, resulting in a narrow band of light around the dark colour of the moon causing the ring of fire to be visible. Therefore, It is also called the ring of fire eclipse.
The distance between the earth and the moon at the moment of the eclipse can dictate the type of eclipse that will take place. The distance between the earth and the moon is always changing due to the egg-shaped elliptical orbit of the moon. - Question 42 of 100
42. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Black hole :
(1) A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light cannot get out as gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space.
(2) Polarised light waves oscillate in only one direction While, unpolarised light waves oscillate in many different directions resulting in the presence of strong magnetic fields around the black hole.
(3) They form at the end of some stars’ lives.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light cannot get out as gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space.They are invisible and observed through space telescopes with special tools.Black holes can be big or small, the smallest black holes are as small as just one atom.
Statement 2 is correct: Now, a new image from Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) shows polarised light, waves oscillating in only one direction produced by matter at the edge of the black hole.While, unpolarised light is made up of light waves oscillating in many different directions. Light becomes polarized when it goes through certain filters like, for instance, the lenses of polarized sunglasses, or when it is emitted in hot regions of space that are magnetized, hence it suggests the presence of strong magnetic fields around the black hole.
Statement 3 is correct: They form at the end of some stars’ lives. When stars, which are around twenty times bigger than the sun exhaust all the energy, they can collapse in on themselves forming a black hole.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light cannot get out as gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space.They are invisible and observed through space telescopes with special tools.Black holes can be big or small, the smallest black holes are as small as just one atom.
Statement 2 is correct: Now, a new image from Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) shows polarised light, waves oscillating in only one direction produced by matter at the edge of the black hole.While, unpolarised light is made up of light waves oscillating in many different directions. Light becomes polarized when it goes through certain filters like, for instance, the lenses of polarized sunglasses, or when it is emitted in hot regions of space that are magnetized, hence it suggests the presence of strong magnetic fields around the black hole.
Statement 3 is correct: They form at the end of some stars’ lives. When stars, which are around twenty times bigger than the sun exhaust all the energy, they can collapse in on themselves forming a black hole. - Question 43 of 100
43. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Commonly used products – Poisonous chemicals found in them
(1) Noodles – Lead
(2) Air freshener – Formaldehyde
(3) Cosmetics – Phenoxyethanol
(4) Whey Proteins – Bisphenol-A
How many of the above pairs is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectExposure to high levels of lead may cause anemia, weakness, and kidney and brain damage. Recently the controversy around the permissible limits of lead in noodles has arisen. So, Pair (1) is correct.
Air fresheners consist of formaldehyde, petrochemicals, p-dichlorobenzene and aerosol pollutants. Formaldehyde is a toxic compound that may cause cancer and irritation of the throat and nose. It is a volatile organic compound (VOC). So, Pair (2) is correct.
Phenoxyethanol is a preservative in many cosmetics and personal care products like face wash, shampoo, etc. The incidents of bad skin reactions and nervous system interaction in infants are the major concerns of using these cosmetics. So, Pair (3) is correct.
Bisphenol-A is a synthetic compound that is an important addition to many single-use plastics. The whey proteins are packed in the Bisphenol-A-made containers. When these containers are stored at room temperature, Bisphenol-A leaches into the protein powder and has health implications. So, Pair (4) is correct.UnattemptedExposure to high levels of lead may cause anemia, weakness, and kidney and brain damage. Recently the controversy around the permissible limits of lead in noodles has arisen. So, Pair (1) is correct.
Air fresheners consist of formaldehyde, petrochemicals, p-dichlorobenzene and aerosol pollutants. Formaldehyde is a toxic compound that may cause cancer and irritation of the throat and nose. It is a volatile organic compound (VOC). So, Pair (2) is correct.
Phenoxyethanol is a preservative in many cosmetics and personal care products like face wash, shampoo, etc. The incidents of bad skin reactions and nervous system interaction in infants are the major concerns of using these cosmetics. So, Pair (3) is correct.
Bisphenol-A is a synthetic compound that is an important addition to many single-use plastics. The whey proteins are packed in the Bisphenol-A-made containers. When these containers are stored at room temperature, Bisphenol-A leaches into the protein powder and has health implications. So, Pair (4) is correct. - Question 44 of 100
44. Question
With reference to Green Chemistry, consider the following statements :
(1) Pseudomonas putida is used in bioremediation of oil spills.
(2) H202 is used as antiseptic, disinfectant and in rocketry as a propellant.
(3) Adoption of green chemistry in agriculture results in reduced chemical residues in soil, water, and food products.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectGreen chemistry is the processes and design of chemical products that reduce or eliminate the use or generation of hazardous substances. It reduces pollution at its source by minimizing or eliminating the hazards of reagents, solvents, and products.
Bioremediation is a branch of biotechnology that uses living organisms, like microbes and bacteria, to decontaminate affected areas. It removes contaminants, pollutants, and toxins from soil, water, and other environments.
Bioremediation of oil spills by using Pseudomonas putida is a curative measure. Pseudomonas putida is capable of converting styrene oil into biodegradable plastic PHA. Pseudomonas putida is a rod-shaped, flagellated, gram-negative bacterium that is found in most soil and water habitats where there is oxygen. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Hydrogen peroxide is a chemical compound with the formula H2O2. It breaks down quickly and easily when it comes into contact with air or water, so it’s safer than chlorine chemicals.
Hydrogen peroxide is active against many microorganisms, including bacteria, yeasts, fungi, and viruses. So, it is used as an antiseptic and disinfectant.
Hydrogen peroxide exothermically decomposes to water and oxygen, making it an ideal oxidizer for more environment-friendly propulsion systems. Thus using H2O2 as an antiseptic, disinfectant, and in rocketry, as a propellant. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Adoption of green chemistry in agriculture results in reduced chemical residues in soil, water, and food products. This contributes to healthier ecosystems, improved soil fertility, and safer food consumption for the population. It can help in solving the issue of green revolution areas becoming Cancer Capital in future. So, Statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedGreen chemistry is the processes and design of chemical products that reduce or eliminate the use or generation of hazardous substances. It reduces pollution at its source by minimizing or eliminating the hazards of reagents, solvents, and products.
Bioremediation is a branch of biotechnology that uses living organisms, like microbes and bacteria, to decontaminate affected areas. It removes contaminants, pollutants, and toxins from soil, water, and other environments.
Bioremediation of oil spills by using Pseudomonas putida is a curative measure. Pseudomonas putida is capable of converting styrene oil into biodegradable plastic PHA. Pseudomonas putida is a rod-shaped, flagellated, gram-negative bacterium that is found in most soil and water habitats where there is oxygen. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Hydrogen peroxide is a chemical compound with the formula H2O2. It breaks down quickly and easily when it comes into contact with air or water, so it’s safer than chlorine chemicals.
Hydrogen peroxide is active against many microorganisms, including bacteria, yeasts, fungi, and viruses. So, it is used as an antiseptic and disinfectant.
Hydrogen peroxide exothermically decomposes to water and oxygen, making it an ideal oxidizer for more environment-friendly propulsion systems. Thus using H2O2 as an antiseptic, disinfectant, and in rocketry, as a propellant. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Adoption of green chemistry in agriculture results in reduced chemical residues in soil, water, and food products. This contributes to healthier ecosystems, improved soil fertility, and safer food consumption for the population. It can help in solving the issue of green revolution areas becoming Cancer Capital in future. So, Statement 3 is correct. - Question 45 of 100
45. Question
Consider the following sources:
(1) Stained glass
(2) Paints
(3) Cosmetics and traditional medicines.
How many of the above sources contain lead in them?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectLead is a naturally occurring toxic metal found in the Earth’s crust. Its widespread use has resulted in extensive environmental contamination, human exposure and significant public health problems in many parts of the world. Lead is also used in many other products, for example pigments, paints, solder, stained glass, lead crystal glassware, ammunition, ceramic glazes, jewellery, toys and some cosmetics and traditional medicines.
UnattemptedLead is a naturally occurring toxic metal found in the Earth’s crust. Its widespread use has resulted in extensive environmental contamination, human exposure and significant public health problems in many parts of the world. Lead is also used in many other products, for example pigments, paints, solder, stained glass, lead crystal glassware, ammunition, ceramic glazes, jewellery, toys and some cosmetics and traditional medicines.
- Question 46 of 100
46. Question
If someone in the family is suffering from a problem of acidity after overeating, which of the following would you suggest as a remedy?
(A) Lemon juice
(B) Vinegar
(C) Baking soda solution
(D) Both (A) and (B)CorrectIncorrectAcid and bases neutralize each other. So, if someone is suffering from acidity, he or she needs to be treated with a basic solution. Lemon and vinegar are acidic in nature whereas baking soda is basic in nature.
Lemon contains citric acid and vinegar contains acetic acid, both of which are acidic in nature whereas baking soda is basic in nature.UnattemptedAcid and bases neutralize each other. So, if someone is suffering from acidity, he or she needs to be treated with a basic solution. Lemon and vinegar are acidic in nature whereas baking soda is basic in nature.
Lemon contains citric acid and vinegar contains acetic acid, both of which are acidic in nature whereas baking soda is basic in nature. - Question 47 of 100
47. Question
How many of the following are the Purines nitrogen bases?
(1) Adenine
(2) Guanine
(3) Cytosine
(4) Uracil
(5) Thymine
Select the correct answer :
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) Only threeCorrectIncorrectThere are two types of nitrogenous bases –
Options 1 and 2 are correct : Purines (Adenine and Guanine), and
Pyrimidine (Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine).
Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA and Thymine is present in DNA. Uracil is present in RNA at the place of Thymine.UnattemptedThere are two types of nitrogenous bases –
Options 1 and 2 are correct : Purines (Adenine and Guanine), and
Pyrimidine (Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine).
Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA and Thymine is present in DNA. Uracil is present in RNA at the place of Thymine. - Question 48 of 100
48. Question
In the context of gravitational force and electromagnetic force, consider the following statements:
(1) While gravitational force is always attractive, electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive.
(2) While gravitational force is only dependent on mass, the electromagnetic force is dependent on both mass and charge.
(3) While gravitational force is dependent upon the distance between the two bodies, the electromagnetic force is independent of it.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectThe gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of masses of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them.
• The electromagnetic force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of charges of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Gravitational force is always attractive while Electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive.
The same charges repel each other while opposite charges attract. Hence statement 1 is correct
• The electromagnetic force is not dependent upon mass. Hence statement 2 is not correct.UnattemptedThe gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of masses of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them.
• The electromagnetic force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of charges of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Gravitational force is always attractive while Electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive.
The same charges repel each other while opposite charges attract. Hence statement 1 is correct
• The electromagnetic force is not dependent upon mass. Hence statement 2 is not correct. - Question 49 of 100
49. Question
Which of the following technologies will be enabled by the 5G mobile communication networks?
(1) Internet of Things
(2) Edge Computing
(3) Network Slicing
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrect5G is the communications backbone that will enable revolutionary applications in other markets, including industrial, automotive, medical and even defense. For a world that is becoming increasingly connected with the Internet of Things (IoT), 5G’s significant improvements in speed (at least 10 times faster than 4G, up to 10 Gbps), latency (10 times lower than 4G, down to 1 ms) and density (supporting 1 million IoT devices per square kilometer) will make many innovative applications possible – especially those in which security, reliability, quality of service, efficiency and cost are equally important.
• The Internet of Things is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.
• Edge Computing: Edge computing means taking real-time decisions close to the source of data. By locating computational intelligence close to the individual and different sources of the data, edge computing reduces latency in the implementation of a requested service. Instead of sending data through the entire core network to the cloud for processing, edge computing uses a distributed network architecture to ensure near-real-time processing with reduced delays, which would otherwise simply not be acceptable for the specific service.
• Network Slicing: Network slicing allows operators to separate the packet traffic layer from the control layer, supporting multiple applications and services running in parallel for a range of users who require different levels of quality, latency, and bandwidth. This means that 5G systems will have many logical network slices, or “fast-track lanes,” to support specific applications and customers.Unattempted5G is the communications backbone that will enable revolutionary applications in other markets, including industrial, automotive, medical and even defense. For a world that is becoming increasingly connected with the Internet of Things (IoT), 5G’s significant improvements in speed (at least 10 times faster than 4G, up to 10 Gbps), latency (10 times lower than 4G, down to 1 ms) and density (supporting 1 million IoT devices per square kilometer) will make many innovative applications possible – especially those in which security, reliability, quality of service, efficiency and cost are equally important.
• The Internet of Things is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.
• Edge Computing: Edge computing means taking real-time decisions close to the source of data. By locating computational intelligence close to the individual and different sources of the data, edge computing reduces latency in the implementation of a requested service. Instead of sending data through the entire core network to the cloud for processing, edge computing uses a distributed network architecture to ensure near-real-time processing with reduced delays, which would otherwise simply not be acceptable for the specific service.
• Network Slicing: Network slicing allows operators to separate the packet traffic layer from the control layer, supporting multiple applications and services running in parallel for a range of users who require different levels of quality, latency, and bandwidth. This means that 5G systems will have many logical network slices, or “fast-track lanes,” to support specific applications and customers. - Question 50 of 100
50. Question
Which of the following is/are Plant hormones?
(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinins
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectPlant growth regulators are variously described as plant growth substances, plant hormones or phytohormones in literature. The PGRs can be broadly divided into two groups based on their functions in a living plant body. One group of PGRs are involved in growth promoting activities, such as cell division, cell enlargement, pattern formation, tropic growth, flowering, fruiting and seed formation. These are also called plant growth promoters, e.g., auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins.
• The PGRs of the other group play an important role in plant responses to wounds and stresses of biotic and abiotic origin. They are also involved in various growth inhibiting activities such as dormancy and abscission. The PGR abscisic acid belongs to this group. The gaseous PGR, ethylene, could fit either of the groups, but it is largely an inhibitor of growth activities.UnattemptedPlant growth regulators are variously described as plant growth substances, plant hormones or phytohormones in literature. The PGRs can be broadly divided into two groups based on their functions in a living plant body. One group of PGRs are involved in growth promoting activities, such as cell division, cell enlargement, pattern formation, tropic growth, flowering, fruiting and seed formation. These are also called plant growth promoters, e.g., auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins.
• The PGRs of the other group play an important role in plant responses to wounds and stresses of biotic and abiotic origin. They are also involved in various growth inhibiting activities such as dormancy and abscission. The PGR abscisic acid belongs to this group. The gaseous PGR, ethylene, could fit either of the groups, but it is largely an inhibitor of growth activities. - Question 51 of 100
51. Question
Which of the following are used as performance enhancing drugs and are also synthesised naturally in the body?
(1) Erythropoietin (EPO)
(2) Human growth hormone (hGH)
(3) Testosterone
(4) Insulin
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectAll the given are used as Performance-enhancing drug:
• Erythropoietin (EPO): Taking erythropoietin, or EPO, increases red blood cell production without the need for transfusions. The kidneys make the hormone naturally, although people with severe kidney disease don't have enough.
• Human growth hormone (hGH): It mimics the muscle-building effects of anabolic steroids. It occurs naturally in the body. In fact, the pituitary gland, the pea-sized organ located at the base of the brain, produces hGH to stimulate growth in children and adolescents and to increase muscle mass in adults.
• Testosterone: Occurring naturally in the body, testosterone has two distinct modes of action, androgenic (masculinizing) and anabolic (tissue building).
• Insulin: Insulin is a popular performance-enhancing drug for bodybuilders, who use it to boost their stamina.UnattemptedAll the given are used as Performance-enhancing drug:
• Erythropoietin (EPO): Taking erythropoietin, or EPO, increases red blood cell production without the need for transfusions. The kidneys make the hormone naturally, although people with severe kidney disease don't have enough.
• Human growth hormone (hGH): It mimics the muscle-building effects of anabolic steroids. It occurs naturally in the body. In fact, the pituitary gland, the pea-sized organ located at the base of the brain, produces hGH to stimulate growth in children and adolescents and to increase muscle mass in adults.
• Testosterone: Occurring naturally in the body, testosterone has two distinct modes of action, androgenic (masculinizing) and anabolic (tissue building).
• Insulin: Insulin is a popular performance-enhancing drug for bodybuilders, who use it to boost their stamina. - Question 52 of 100
52. Question
With reference to Digestive Enzymes, consider the following statements:
(1) The chemical process of digestion of carbohydrates is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase.
(2) Pepsin helps in digestion of protein.
(3) Renin helps in break-down of fats.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth. The salivary enzyme amylase begins the breakdown of food starches into maltose, a disaccharide. As the bolus of food travels through the esophagus to the stomach, no significant digestion of carbohydrates takes place.
Statement 2 is correct: Pepsin is an enzyme of the stomach which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).
Statement 3 is not correct: Fats are broken down by lipases with the help of bile into di-and Monoglycerides while Renin helps in regulation of blood pressure.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth. The salivary enzyme amylase begins the breakdown of food starches into maltose, a disaccharide. As the bolus of food travels through the esophagus to the stomach, no significant digestion of carbohydrates takes place.
Statement 2 is correct: Pepsin is an enzyme of the stomach which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).
Statement 3 is not correct: Fats are broken down by lipases with the help of bile into di-and Monoglycerides while Renin helps in regulation of blood pressure. - Question 53 of 100
53. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Dark Matter :
(1) Dark matter, a component of the universe whose presence is discerned from its gravitational attraction rather than its luminosity.
(2) Dark matter interacts with the electromagnetic force to absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot.
(3) Dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: Dark matter, a component of the universe whose presence is discerned from its gravitational attraction rather than its luminosity. By fitting a theoretical model of the composition of the universe to the combined set of cosmological observations, scientists have come up with the composition that we described above, ~68% dark energy, ~27% dark matter, ~5% normal matter.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike normal matter, dark matter does not interact with the electromagnetic force. This means it does not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot. In fact, researchers have been able to infer the existence of dark matter only from the gravitational effect it seems to have on visible matter.
Statement 3 is correct: Dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together while dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe. Both components are invisible.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: Dark matter, a component of the universe whose presence is discerned from its gravitational attraction rather than its luminosity. By fitting a theoretical model of the composition of the universe to the combined set of cosmological observations, scientists have come up with the composition that we described above, ~68% dark energy, ~27% dark matter, ~5% normal matter.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike normal matter, dark matter does not interact with the electromagnetic force. This means it does not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot. In fact, researchers have been able to infer the existence of dark matter only from the gravitational effect it seems to have on visible matter.
Statement 3 is correct: Dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together while dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe. Both components are invisible. - Question 54 of 100
54. Question
What is the purpose of the Large Hadron Collider (LHC)? (A) To study the effect of climate change (B) To study the dark matter (C) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system (D) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems
CorrectIncorrectThe LHC (Large Hadron Collider) has recently undergone upgrades to make it more accurate and sensitive and started collecting data in May 2023.
The LHC has undergone upgrades to increase its sensitivity and accuracy, allowing scientists to study particles with even higher energy.
To discover direct evidence for the particle responsible for the dark matter in the Universe is the purpose of the Large Hadron Collider.UnattemptedThe LHC (Large Hadron Collider) has recently undergone upgrades to make it more accurate and sensitive and started collecting data in May 2023.
The LHC has undergone upgrades to increase its sensitivity and accuracy, allowing scientists to study particles with even higher energy.
To discover direct evidence for the particle responsible for the dark matter in the Universe is the purpose of the Large Hadron Collider. - Question 55 of 100
55. Question
Consider the following best describe the significance of cell division/mitosis?
(1) Healing of injuries
(2) Growth of the body
(3) Determination of sex of unborn foetus
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectThe significance of mitosis in the living world is:
Growth of the body: Growth of the body of a living being takes place by mitotic division. A unicellular zygote is transformed to a human body. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Maintaining equality of chromosome number: By this division the number and properties of a chromosome in each cell of a multicellular body remains constant.
Keeping the size and shape constant: By this division the definite shape and size of the cell remains constant.
Healing of injuries: By producing new cells this process repairs the various types of damage of multicellular organisms. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Formation of sex organs: By this process sex organs are formed. As a result, continuity of reproductive sequence is maintained.
Every living being has a definite number of chromosomes. In human beings there are 23 pairs of chromosome. Among them 22 pairs are similar in both male and female, these are Autosomes, AA. Members of the remaining pair of chromosome are different in male and female. This pair of chromosome determines the sex of human beings. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.UnattemptedThe significance of mitosis in the living world is:
Growth of the body: Growth of the body of a living being takes place by mitotic division. A unicellular zygote is transformed to a human body. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Maintaining equality of chromosome number: By this division the number and properties of a chromosome in each cell of a multicellular body remains constant.
Keeping the size and shape constant: By this division the definite shape and size of the cell remains constant.
Healing of injuries: By producing new cells this process repairs the various types of damage of multicellular organisms. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Formation of sex organs: By this process sex organs are formed. As a result, continuity of reproductive sequence is maintained.
Every living being has a definite number of chromosomes. In human beings there are 23 pairs of chromosome. Among them 22 pairs are similar in both male and female, these are Autosomes, AA. Members of the remaining pair of chromosome are different in male and female. This pair of chromosome determines the sex of human beings. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. - Question 56 of 100
56. Question
Which among the following are the uses of heavy water?
(1) Preservation of Oral Polio Vaccines
(2) Coolant in nuclear reactors
(3) Bleaching agent
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectA pressurized heavy-water reactor (PHWR) is a nuclear reactor, commonly using unenriched natural uranium as its fuel, that uses heavy water (deuterium oxide D2O) as its coolant and neutron moderator.
• Non-Nuclear Applications of heavy water include: Preservation of Oral Polio Vaccines, Deuterated drugs for enhancement of biological efficacy, Deuterated optical fibers to enhance transmission efficiency etc.
• Heavy water is not used as a bleaching agent. Hydrogen peroxide is the simplest peroxide and is used as an oxidizer, bleaching agent and antiseptic.UnattemptedA pressurized heavy-water reactor (PHWR) is a nuclear reactor, commonly using unenriched natural uranium as its fuel, that uses heavy water (deuterium oxide D2O) as its coolant and neutron moderator.
• Non-Nuclear Applications of heavy water include: Preservation of Oral Polio Vaccines, Deuterated drugs for enhancement of biological efficacy, Deuterated optical fibers to enhance transmission efficiency etc.
• Heavy water is not used as a bleaching agent. Hydrogen peroxide is the simplest peroxide and is used as an oxidizer, bleaching agent and antiseptic. - Question 57 of 100
57. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to PSLV and GSLV:
(1) PSLV has the capability to put a heavier payload in orbit than the GSLV.
(2) PSLV is designed mainly to deliver earth observation or remote sensing satellites, whereas GSLV has been designed for launching communication satellites.
(3) PSLV has four stages whereas GSLV has three stages.
(4) PSLV uses Vikas engines whereas GSLV uses cryogenic elements.
(5) PSLV utilizes a combination of both solid and liquid fuels or propellants whereas GSLV utilizes Liquid Propellants.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectPSLV has a lower payload capacity compared to the GSLV. It can carry up to 1,750 kg to LEO and 1,200 kg to SSO. It has a higher payload capacity compared to the PSLV. It can carry up to 2,500 kg to LEO and 5,000 kg to GTO. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
PSLV is designed mainly to deliver earth observation or remote sensing satellites, whereas, GSLV has been designed for launching communication satellites. PSLV can carry satellites up to a total weight of 2000 kg into space and reach up to an altitude of 600-900 km. GSLV can carry weight up to 5,000 kg and reach up to 36,000 km. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
PSLV has four stages whereas GSLV has three stages. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
PSLV uses Vikas engines whereas GSLV uses cryogenic elements. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
PSLV utilizes Solid and Liquid Propellants whereas GSLV utilizes Liquid Propellants. Hence, statement 5 is correct.UnattemptedPSLV has a lower payload capacity compared to the GSLV. It can carry up to 1,750 kg to LEO and 1,200 kg to SSO. It has a higher payload capacity compared to the PSLV. It can carry up to 2,500 kg to LEO and 5,000 kg to GTO. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
PSLV is designed mainly to deliver earth observation or remote sensing satellites, whereas, GSLV has been designed for launching communication satellites. PSLV can carry satellites up to a total weight of 2000 kg into space and reach up to an altitude of 600-900 km. GSLV can carry weight up to 5,000 kg and reach up to 36,000 km. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
PSLV has four stages whereas GSLV has three stages. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
PSLV uses Vikas engines whereas GSLV uses cryogenic elements. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
PSLV utilizes Solid and Liquid Propellants whereas GSLV utilizes Liquid Propellants. Hence, statement 5 is correct. - Question 58 of 100
58. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sun synchronous orbit (SSO) and Geosynchronous orbit:
(1) Sun synchronous orbit is located at the altitude of 35000 Km and Geosynchronous orbit is located at altitudes of 700 to 800 Km.
(2) Sun synchronous orbit satellites help in monitoring activities near the poles unlike geosynchronous orbit satellites.
(3) Satellites in SSO have an orbital period of around 90 to 100 minutes whereas satellites in GEO have an orbital period that matches the Earth's rotation period which is approximately 24 hours.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is incorrect: An earth satellite orbit in which the orbital plane is near polar and the altitude is such that the satellite passes over all places on earth having the same latitude twice in each orbit at the same local suntime. Orbital period of a sun synchronous satellite is about 100 minutes. These satellites are synchronous with respect to the Earth. This means looking from a fixed point from earth, these satellites appear to be stationary. Geosynchronous orbit period is one sidereal day which is about 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds.Sun synchronous orbit is located at the altitude of 700 to 800 Km. Geosynchronous orbit is located at an altitude of 35786 Km.
Statement 2 is correct: Sun synchronous orbit satellites help in monitoring activities near the poles unlike geosynchronous orbit satellites. Geosynchronous satellite can view a particular spot on the Earth’s surface continuously unlike sun synchronous satellite. A Sun-synchronous orbit is useful for imaging, reconnaissance satellite, and weather satellites,because every time that the satellite is overhead, the surface illumination angle on the planet underneath it will be nearly the same. Communications satellites are often given geostationary or close to geostationary orbits so that the satellite antennas that communicate with them do not have to move, but can be pointed permanently at the fixed location in the sky where the satellite appears.
Statement 3 is correct: Satellites in SSO have an orbital period of around 90 to 100 minutes, depending on the exact altitude and inclination. This means they complete approximately 14 to 16 orbits per day whereas satellites in GEO have an orbital period that matches the Earth's rotation period, which is approximately 24 hours. This means they remain fixed relative to a specific point on the Earth's surface.UnattemptedStatement 1 is incorrect: An earth satellite orbit in which the orbital plane is near polar and the altitude is such that the satellite passes over all places on earth having the same latitude twice in each orbit at the same local suntime. Orbital period of a sun synchronous satellite is about 100 minutes. These satellites are synchronous with respect to the Earth. This means looking from a fixed point from earth, these satellites appear to be stationary. Geosynchronous orbit period is one sidereal day which is about 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds.Sun synchronous orbit is located at the altitude of 700 to 800 Km. Geosynchronous orbit is located at an altitude of 35786 Km.
Statement 2 is correct: Sun synchronous orbit satellites help in monitoring activities near the poles unlike geosynchronous orbit satellites. Geosynchronous satellite can view a particular spot on the Earth’s surface continuously unlike sun synchronous satellite. A Sun-synchronous orbit is useful for imaging, reconnaissance satellite, and weather satellites,because every time that the satellite is overhead, the surface illumination angle on the planet underneath it will be nearly the same. Communications satellites are often given geostationary or close to geostationary orbits so that the satellite antennas that communicate with them do not have to move, but can be pointed permanently at the fixed location in the sky where the satellite appears.
Statement 3 is correct: Satellites in SSO have an orbital period of around 90 to 100 minutes, depending on the exact altitude and inclination. This means they complete approximately 14 to 16 orbits per day whereas satellites in GEO have an orbital period that matches the Earth's rotation period, which is approximately 24 hours. This means they remain fixed relative to a specific point on the Earth's surface. - Question 59 of 100
59. Question
Which of the following can induce mutations?
(1) X rays
(2) Gamma rays
(3) Mustard gas
(4) UV rays
(5) Nitrous acid
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectA gene mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene, such that the sequence differs from what is found in most people. Mutations range in size; they can affect anywhere from a single DNA building block (base pair) to a large segment of a chromosome that includes multiple genes.
• Gene mutations can be classified in two major ways:
o Hereditary mutations are inherited from a parent and are present throughout a person’s life in virtually every cell in the body. These mutations are also called germline mutations because they are present in the parent’s egg or sperm cells, which are also called germ cells. When an egg and a sperm cell unite, the resulting fertilized egg cell receives DNA from both parents. If this DNA has a mutation, the child that grows from the fertilized egg will have the mutation in each of his or her cells.
o Acquired (or somatic) mutations occur at some time during a person’s life and are present only in certain cells, not in every cell in the body. These changes can be caused by environmental factors such as ultraviolet radiation from the sun or can occur if an error is made as DNA copies itself during cell division. Acquired mutations in somatic cells (cells other than sperm and egg cells) cannot be passed to the next generation
• Mutation is caused by Xrays; gamma rays; mustard gas, UV rays, nitrous acid etc.UnattemptedA gene mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene, such that the sequence differs from what is found in most people. Mutations range in size; they can affect anywhere from a single DNA building block (base pair) to a large segment of a chromosome that includes multiple genes.
• Gene mutations can be classified in two major ways:
o Hereditary mutations are inherited from a parent and are present throughout a person’s life in virtually every cell in the body. These mutations are also called germline mutations because they are present in the parent’s egg or sperm cells, which are also called germ cells. When an egg and a sperm cell unite, the resulting fertilized egg cell receives DNA from both parents. If this DNA has a mutation, the child that grows from the fertilized egg will have the mutation in each of his or her cells.
o Acquired (or somatic) mutations occur at some time during a person’s life and are present only in certain cells, not in every cell in the body. These changes can be caused by environmental factors such as ultraviolet radiation from the sun or can occur if an error is made as DNA copies itself during cell division. Acquired mutations in somatic cells (cells other than sperm and egg cells) cannot be passed to the next generation
• Mutation is caused by Xrays; gamma rays; mustard gas, UV rays, nitrous acid etc. - Question 60 of 100
60. Question
Consider the following constituents of a cell nucleus :
(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Protein
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectThe cell nucleus is a double membrane‐bound organelle that contains the genetic information of the cell packaged in the form of chromatin. The nucleus is a characteristic feature of most eukaryotic cells. The nucleus is considered to be one of the most important structures of eukaryotic cells as it serves the function of information storage, retrieval and duplication of genetic information.
• The nucleus contains RNA, DNA, proteins of two kinds, histone and nonhistone; some lipids; various organic phosphorus compounds; and various inorganic compounds, mostly salts.UnattemptedThe cell nucleus is a double membrane‐bound organelle that contains the genetic information of the cell packaged in the form of chromatin. The nucleus is a characteristic feature of most eukaryotic cells. The nucleus is considered to be one of the most important structures of eukaryotic cells as it serves the function of information storage, retrieval and duplication of genetic information.
• The nucleus contains RNA, DNA, proteins of two kinds, histone and nonhistone; some lipids; various organic phosphorus compounds; and various inorganic compounds, mostly salts. - Question 61 of 100
61. Question
Which of the following are the potential applications of lasers?
(1) It is used to measure the distance between two celestial bodies.
(2) It provides information on continental drifting.
(3) It detects and measures the pollutants in vehicular exhaust gases.
(4) It is used in the barcode scanners.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectSurveying and Rangingo Helium-neon and semiconductor lasers have become standard parts of the field surveyor's equipment.
A fast laser pulse is sent to a corner reflector at the point to be measured and the time of reflection is measured to get the distance.
o The Apollo 11 and Apollo 14 astronauts put corner reflectors on the surface of the Moon for determination of the Earth-Moon distance.
o Positions of ground stations in relation to a mirror-bearing satellite can be measured with extreme accuracy by timing the reflected returns of laser pulses transmitted from those stations, which helps in verifying the continental drift.
• Barcode Scanners
o Supermarket scanners typically use helium-neon lasers to scan the universal barcodes to identify products. The laser beam bounces off a rotating mirror and scans the code, sending a modulated beam to a light detector and then to a computer that has the product information stored. Semiconductor lasers can also be used for this purpose.
• Tunable Diode Laser Absorption Spectroscopy
o (TDLAS) has proven to be a promising technology that can be used in challenging measurements in atmospheric research and monitoring pollution. Using the Beer-Lambert extinction law, at a wavelength slightly different from the absorption lines, there will be no absorption, and thus by scanning the wavelength across the absorption lines of the target gas, one can deduce the concentration of the gas molecules present in the atmosphere. The measurements are expressed in terms of parts per million, times meter, (ppm.m) or (ppmv.m). The most prominent gases released into the atmosphere are CO2, CO, O3, which destroy the chlorofluorocarbons, (CFC’s), CH4, NO, NO2, etc.
• Hence all the four statements are correct.UnattemptedSurveying and Rangingo Helium-neon and semiconductor lasers have become standard parts of the field surveyor's equipment.
A fast laser pulse is sent to a corner reflector at the point to be measured and the time of reflection is measured to get the distance.
o The Apollo 11 and Apollo 14 astronauts put corner reflectors on the surface of the Moon for determination of the Earth-Moon distance.
o Positions of ground stations in relation to a mirror-bearing satellite can be measured with extreme accuracy by timing the reflected returns of laser pulses transmitted from those stations, which helps in verifying the continental drift.
• Barcode Scanners
o Supermarket scanners typically use helium-neon lasers to scan the universal barcodes to identify products. The laser beam bounces off a rotating mirror and scans the code, sending a modulated beam to a light detector and then to a computer that has the product information stored. Semiconductor lasers can also be used for this purpose.
• Tunable Diode Laser Absorption Spectroscopy
o (TDLAS) has proven to be a promising technology that can be used in challenging measurements in atmospheric research and monitoring pollution. Using the Beer-Lambert extinction law, at a wavelength slightly different from the absorption lines, there will be no absorption, and thus by scanning the wavelength across the absorption lines of the target gas, one can deduce the concentration of the gas molecules present in the atmosphere. The measurements are expressed in terms of parts per million, times meter, (ppm.m) or (ppmv.m). The most prominent gases released into the atmosphere are CO2, CO, O3, which destroy the chlorofluorocarbons, (CFC’s), CH4, NO, NO2, etc.
• Hence all the four statements are correct. - Question 62 of 100
62. Question
What is the purpose of LIGO Observatory ?
(A) To detect neutrinos
(B) To detect gravitational waves
(C) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
(D) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systemsCorrectIncorrectRecently, the government approved the construction of the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) project after seven years of in-principle approval.
It will be built by the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and Technology with the U.S. National Science Foundation and several national and international research institutions.
The project aims to detect gravitational waves from the universe.
The Indian LIGO would have two perpendicularly placed 4-km long vacuum chambers, that constitute the most sensitive interferometers in the world.
It is expected to begin scientific runs from 2030.
Location:
It will be located in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra, about 450 km east of Mumbai.
Purpose and Significance:
It will be the fifth node of the planned network and will bring India into a prestigious international scientific experiment.
It will make India a unique platform that brings together the frontiers of science and technology of the quantum and the cosmos.UnattemptedRecently, the government approved the construction of the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) project after seven years of in-principle approval.
It will be built by the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and Technology with the U.S. National Science Foundation and several national and international research institutions.
The project aims to detect gravitational waves from the universe.
The Indian LIGO would have two perpendicularly placed 4-km long vacuum chambers, that constitute the most sensitive interferometers in the world.
It is expected to begin scientific runs from 2030.
Location:
It will be located in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra, about 450 km east of Mumbai.
Purpose and Significance:
It will be the fifth node of the planned network and will bring India into a prestigious international scientific experiment.
It will make India a unique platform that brings together the frontiers of science and technology of the quantum and the cosmos. - Question 63 of 100
63. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the titanium alloy:
(1) The titanium alloys are unique due to their ductility, higher strength, fracture toughness and fatigue.
(2) It is used in aircraft, armor plating, naval ships, spacecraft, and missiles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both1and2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2CorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: A high strength titanium alloy has been developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). This alloy has been developed for applications in aerospace structural forgings. The titanium alloys are unique due to their ductility, higher strength, fracture toughness and fatigue which make them beneficial for various aircraft structures. These alloys are already being used by many developed nations in recent times as a beneficial substitute for the relatively heavier traditional Ni-Cr-Mo structural steels to achieve weight savings.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to their high tensile strength to density ratio, high corrosion resistance, and ability to withstand moderately high temperatures without creeping, titanium alloys are used in aircraft, armor plating, naval ships, spacecraft, and missiles. For these applications titanium alloyed with aluminium, vanadium, and other elements is used for a variety of components including critical structural parts, fire walls, landing gear, exhaust ducts (helicopters), and hydraulic systems. In fact, about two thirds of all titanium metal produced is used in aircraft engines and frames.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: A high strength titanium alloy has been developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). This alloy has been developed for applications in aerospace structural forgings. The titanium alloys are unique due to their ductility, higher strength, fracture toughness and fatigue which make them beneficial for various aircraft structures. These alloys are already being used by many developed nations in recent times as a beneficial substitute for the relatively heavier traditional Ni-Cr-Mo structural steels to achieve weight savings.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to their high tensile strength to density ratio, high corrosion resistance, and ability to withstand moderately high temperatures without creeping, titanium alloys are used in aircraft, armor plating, naval ships, spacecraft, and missiles. For these applications titanium alloyed with aluminium, vanadium, and other elements is used for a variety of components including critical structural parts, fire walls, landing gear, exhaust ducts (helicopters), and hydraulic systems. In fact, about two thirds of all titanium metal produced is used in aircraft engines and frames. - Question 64 of 100
64. Question
Beyond electricity generation, there are many applications that can use nuclear power.
Which of the following is /are possible applications of nuclear power?
(1) seawater desalination
(2) hydrogen production
(3) heating for industry such as glass and cement manufacturing, metal production
(4) refining and synthesis gas production
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectNuclear energy
Nuclear energy generates about 10 percent of the world’s electricity, and after hydropower, it is the world’s second largest source of low-carbon power, according to the International Energy Agency (IEA). Nuclear energy can also be utilized to decarbonize non-electric applications. The heat produced by nuclear power plants is used to create steam, which drives electricity- generating turbines. Existing nuclear fleets today reach operating temperatures in the range of 300°C, while district heating and seawater desalination processes require about 150°C.
Further, Heat produced by nuclear power plants can be utilized for heating or cooling, or as an energy source towards the production of fresh water, hydrogen or other products, such as oil or synthetic fuel.
There are several methods to use nuclear energy, as a source of electricity and heat, to produce hydrogen efficiently and with little to no CO2 emissions. In nuclear district heating, steam produced by a nuclear power plant serves to heat regional heating networks.
The Heating Project is an example of how nuclear energy can play a role in decarbonizing residential heating, as well as the added value of operating a nuclear power plant in cogeneration mode.UnattemptedNuclear energy
Nuclear energy generates about 10 percent of the world’s electricity, and after hydropower, it is the world’s second largest source of low-carbon power, according to the International Energy Agency (IEA). Nuclear energy can also be utilized to decarbonize non-electric applications. The heat produced by nuclear power plants is used to create steam, which drives electricity- generating turbines. Existing nuclear fleets today reach operating temperatures in the range of 300°C, while district heating and seawater desalination processes require about 150°C.
Further, Heat produced by nuclear power plants can be utilized for heating or cooling, or as an energy source towards the production of fresh water, hydrogen or other products, such as oil or synthetic fuel.
There are several methods to use nuclear energy, as a source of electricity and heat, to produce hydrogen efficiently and with little to no CO2 emissions. In nuclear district heating, steam produced by a nuclear power plant serves to heat regional heating networks.
The Heating Project is an example of how nuclear energy can play a role in decarbonizing residential heating, as well as the added value of operating a nuclear power plant in cogeneration mode. - Question 65 of 100
65. Question
Consider the following organisms:
(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungus
(3) Protozoa
How many of the above can be used as bio pesticide?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectBiopesticides defines compounds that are used to manage agricultural pests by means of specific biological effects rather than as broader chemical pesticides. They contain a bacterium, fungus, virus or protozoan as the active ingredient. They can control many different kinds of pests, although each separate active ingredient is relatively specific for its target pest[s]. For example, there are fungi that control certain weeds and other fungi that kill specific insects.
UnattemptedBiopesticides defines compounds that are used to manage agricultural pests by means of specific biological effects rather than as broader chemical pesticides. They contain a bacterium, fungus, virus or protozoan as the active ingredient. They can control many different kinds of pests, although each separate active ingredient is relatively specific for its target pest[s]. For example, there are fungi that control certain weeds and other fungi that kill specific insects.
- Question 66 of 100
66. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Deficiency of vitamin A causes xerophthalmia.
(2) Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes inflammation of the gums and weakened connective tissue.
(3) Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Megaloblastic anemia.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: Deficiency of vitamin A causes xerophthalmia and night blindness.
Xerophthalmia is a disease that causes dry eyes due to vitamin A deficiency. If it goes untreated, it can progress into night blindness or spots on your eyes. It can even damage the cornea of your eye and cause blindness.
Night blindness, or nyctalopia, is where the eye is unable to adapt to low-light conditions, such as at night time. Night blindness itself is not a condition but the result of an existing eye disorder.
Statement 2 is not correct: Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes Microcytic anemia, scaling of the lips and cracks in the corners of the mouth, swollen tongue, depression, and confusion. Microcytic anemia is a condition in which the body’s tissues and organs do not get enough oxygen. This lack of oxygen can happen because the body does not have enough red blood cells, or because the red blood cells do not contain enough hemoglobin, which is a protein that transports oxygen in the blood.
When there is a lack of hemoglobin in a red blood cell, the cell is smaller in size and can carry less oxygen. Vitamin C deficiency causes inflammation of the gums and weakened connective tissue.
Statement 3 is correct: Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Megaloblastic anemia. Anemia is a blood disorder in which the number of red blood cells (RBCs) is lower than usual. RBCs transport oxygen through the body. When your body doesn’t have enough RBCs, your tissues and organs don’t get enough oxygen.
There are many types of anemia with different causes and characteristics. Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by RBCs that are larger than normal. There also aren’t enough of them. When RBCs aren’t produced properly, it results in megaloblastic anemia. Because the blood cells are too large, they may not be able to exit the bone marrow to enter the bloodstream and deliver oxygen.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: Deficiency of vitamin A causes xerophthalmia and night blindness.
Xerophthalmia is a disease that causes dry eyes due to vitamin A deficiency. If it goes untreated, it can progress into night blindness or spots on your eyes. It can even damage the cornea of your eye and cause blindness.
Night blindness, or nyctalopia, is where the eye is unable to adapt to low-light conditions, such as at night time. Night blindness itself is not a condition but the result of an existing eye disorder.
Statement 2 is not correct: Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes Microcytic anemia, scaling of the lips and cracks in the corners of the mouth, swollen tongue, depression, and confusion. Microcytic anemia is a condition in which the body’s tissues and organs do not get enough oxygen. This lack of oxygen can happen because the body does not have enough red blood cells, or because the red blood cells do not contain enough hemoglobin, which is a protein that transports oxygen in the blood.
When there is a lack of hemoglobin in a red blood cell, the cell is smaller in size and can carry less oxygen. Vitamin C deficiency causes inflammation of the gums and weakened connective tissue.
Statement 3 is correct: Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Megaloblastic anemia. Anemia is a blood disorder in which the number of red blood cells (RBCs) is lower than usual. RBCs transport oxygen through the body. When your body doesn’t have enough RBCs, your tissues and organs don’t get enough oxygen.
There are many types of anemia with different causes and characteristics. Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by RBCs that are larger than normal. There also aren’t enough of them. When RBCs aren’t produced properly, it results in megaloblastic anemia. Because the blood cells are too large, they may not be able to exit the bone marrow to enter the bloodstream and deliver oxygen. - Question 67 of 100
67. Question
With reference to Human Kidney consider the following statements:
(1) The functional unit of kidney is bowman capsule.
(2) The filtration of blood in kidney is carried out by the glomerulus.
(3) Kidney stones can be caused by calcium, oxalate, uric acid etc.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is not correct: The functional unit of kidney is called Nephron. Each Kidney has nearly one million of these complex tubular structures.
Statement 2 is correct: The first step in urine formation is the filtration of blood which is carried out by the glomerulus and is called glomerular filtration.
Statement 3 is correct: Most kidney stones are calcium stones, usually in the form of calcium oxalate. Oxalate is a substance made daily by your liver or absorbed from your diet. Uric acid stones can form in people who lose too much fluid because of chronic diarrhea or malabsorption, those who eat a high-protein diet, and those with diabetes or metabolic syndrome.UnattemptedStatement 1 is not correct: The functional unit of kidney is called Nephron. Each Kidney has nearly one million of these complex tubular structures.
Statement 2 is correct: The first step in urine formation is the filtration of blood which is carried out by the glomerulus and is called glomerular filtration.
Statement 3 is correct: Most kidney stones are calcium stones, usually in the form of calcium oxalate. Oxalate is a substance made daily by your liver or absorbed from your diet. Uric acid stones can form in people who lose too much fluid because of chronic diarrhea or malabsorption, those who eat a high-protein diet, and those with diabetes or metabolic syndrome. - Question 68 of 100
68. Question
With reference to Hydroponics, consider the following statements:
(1) It is suitable for growing greens and herbs only.
(2) It uses comparatively less water i.e. only about 20% of the water that is used in the conventional methods.
(3) It requires more labour for monitoring and yields are comparitively lesser than the traditional method of farming due to limited space
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is not correct: Hydroponics is a method of growing plants without soil in which plants get their nutrients from a mineral solution. The method is suitable for growing fresh vegetables and fruits in nutrient-rich water instead of soil requiring less space andresources. Tomatoes and strawberries are grown using this method. Based on modernised techniques soil-less farming results in higher productivity in a controlled climate and with no risk of the attack of the pests and insects.
Statement 2 is correct: A physical outer structure is required to grow the plants. This can be trays or tubes, which are typically made of food-grade plastic. If water of an area has dissolved minerals or is hard, purification devices will be needed to make it usable, thus adding to the costs. However, this method uses comparatively less water i.e. only about 20% of the water that is used in the conventional methods.
Statement 3 is not correct: The most efficient aspect of hydroponics is that it can be even applied in a limited space. There are cases where 6,000 plants have been grown in 80 sq ft space. This has been done by stacking plants vertically, as the method is not limited by the ground area. The method requires less labour, and yields are much higher as plants grow faster (due to direct access to required nutrients) compared with regular farms.UnattemptedStatement 1 is not correct: Hydroponics is a method of growing plants without soil in which plants get their nutrients from a mineral solution. The method is suitable for growing fresh vegetables and fruits in nutrient-rich water instead of soil requiring less space andresources. Tomatoes and strawberries are grown using this method. Based on modernised techniques soil-less farming results in higher productivity in a controlled climate and with no risk of the attack of the pests and insects.
Statement 2 is correct: A physical outer structure is required to grow the plants. This can be trays or tubes, which are typically made of food-grade plastic. If water of an area has dissolved minerals or is hard, purification devices will be needed to make it usable, thus adding to the costs. However, this method uses comparatively less water i.e. only about 20% of the water that is used in the conventional methods.
Statement 3 is not correct: The most efficient aspect of hydroponics is that it can be even applied in a limited space. There are cases where 6,000 plants have been grown in 80 sq ft space. This has been done by stacking plants vertically, as the method is not limited by the ground area. The method requires less labour, and yields are much higher as plants grow faster (due to direct access to required nutrients) compared with regular farms. - Question 69 of 100
69. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) Information about properties of the sun
(2) In astronomy to discover the composition of the universe.
(3) Medical Imaging
(4) A way to monitor nuclear proliferation
(5) Faster global communication.
Which of the above can be possible future applications of “neutrino science” ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectAll options are correct.
The visible light that reaches us from the sun is emitted from the surface of the sun. The neutrinos which also take close to this time to reach us from the sun, known as “solar neutrinos,” were produced in the core of the sun.They give us information about the interior of the sun. Studying these neutrinos can help us understand what goes on in the interior of the sun. Light coming from distant stars can be studied by astronomers, for example, to detect new planets. Light is the visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum, other parts are used in, for example, radio astronomy. Likewise, if the properties of neutrinos are understood better, they can be used in astronomy to discover what the universe is made up of.
The extragalactic neutrinos we observe may be coming from the distant past. These inviolate messengers can give us a clue about the origin of the universe and the early stages of the infant universe, soon after the Big Bang.
They can be used in technological applications of the detectors that will be used to study X-ray machines, PET scans, MRI scans, etc., all of which came out of research into particle detectors.UnattemptedAll options are correct.
The visible light that reaches us from the sun is emitted from the surface of the sun. The neutrinos which also take close to this time to reach us from the sun, known as “solar neutrinos,” were produced in the core of the sun.They give us information about the interior of the sun. Studying these neutrinos can help us understand what goes on in the interior of the sun. Light coming from distant stars can be studied by astronomers, for example, to detect new planets. Light is the visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum, other parts are used in, for example, radio astronomy. Likewise, if the properties of neutrinos are understood better, they can be used in astronomy to discover what the universe is made up of.
The extragalactic neutrinos we observe may be coming from the distant past. These inviolate messengers can give us a clue about the origin of the universe and the early stages of the infant universe, soon after the Big Bang.
They can be used in technological applications of the detectors that will be used to study X-ray machines, PET scans, MRI scans, etc., all of which came out of research into particle detectors. - Question 70 of 100
70. Question
Consider the following pairs :
Disease : Cause
(1)Albinism : absence of melanin
(2) Cri-du-chat Syndrome : heavy metal poisoning
(3) Cystic Fibrosis : mutation of gene
How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectAlbinism: Albinism is an autosomal recessive mutation. An albino cannot synthesize melanin which provides black coloration to skin and hair. Albinism is due to tyrosinase deficiency. The enzyme tyrosinase normally converts the amino acid tyrosine to melanin through an intermediate product DOPA (dihydro phenylalanine). Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Cri-du-chat (cat's cry) syndrome: also known as 5p- (5p minus) syndrome, is a chromosomal condition that results when a piece of chromosome 5 is missing. Infants with this condition often have a high-pitched cry that sounds like that of a cat. The disorder is characterized by intellectual disability and delayed development, small head size (microcephaly), low birth weight, and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Cystic fibrosis: The most common lethal genetic disease due to a recessive mutation on chromosome-7.
The body produces abnormal glycoprotein which interferes with salt metabolism. The mucus secreted by the body becomes abnormally viscid and blocks passages in the lungs, liver, and pancreas. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.UnattemptedAlbinism: Albinism is an autosomal recessive mutation. An albino cannot synthesize melanin which provides black coloration to skin and hair. Albinism is due to tyrosinase deficiency. The enzyme tyrosinase normally converts the amino acid tyrosine to melanin through an intermediate product DOPA (dihydro phenylalanine). Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Cri-du-chat (cat's cry) syndrome: also known as 5p- (5p minus) syndrome, is a chromosomal condition that results when a piece of chromosome 5 is missing. Infants with this condition often have a high-pitched cry that sounds like that of a cat. The disorder is characterized by intellectual disability and delayed development, small head size (microcephaly), low birth weight, and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Cystic fibrosis: The most common lethal genetic disease due to a recessive mutation on chromosome-7.
The body produces abnormal glycoprotein which interferes with salt metabolism. The mucus secreted by the body becomes abnormally viscid and blocks passages in the lungs, liver, and pancreas. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched. - Question 71 of 100
71. Question
Colouring agents are used in crackers to give multiple colors to crackers when it bursts. In this context, consider the following pairs:
Elements/Salts : Colour
(1) Strontium salts : Red
(2) Copper salts : Orange
(3) Sodium salts : Yellow
(4) Calcium salts : White
How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectComposition of Regular Crackers – A traditional firecracker comprises of six key elements:
• Fuel: Mainly Charcoal or Thermite are present in them all
• Oxidising Agents: Nitrates and Chlorates which produce oxygen inside the cracker
• Reducing Agents: Something like sulphur, which can burn the oxygen present in the firecracker
• Regulators: To ensure the speed and intensity with which a cracker bursts
• Coloring Agents: Multiple colours appear when a cracker bursts, this role is played by the colouring agents. Given below are the elements which provide different colours:
• Strontium salts – Red Colour, hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Burning of metals – White Colour
• Sodium salts – Yellow Colour, hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Barium salts – Green Colour
• Calcium Salts – Orange Colour, hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.
• Copper Salts – Blue Colour, hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Binders: All the components of the firecracker require a medium which can bind them.UnattemptedComposition of Regular Crackers – A traditional firecracker comprises of six key elements:
• Fuel: Mainly Charcoal or Thermite are present in them all
• Oxidising Agents: Nitrates and Chlorates which produce oxygen inside the cracker
• Reducing Agents: Something like sulphur, which can burn the oxygen present in the firecracker
• Regulators: To ensure the speed and intensity with which a cracker bursts
• Coloring Agents: Multiple colours appear when a cracker bursts, this role is played by the colouring agents. Given below are the elements which provide different colours:
• Strontium salts – Red Colour, hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Burning of metals – White Colour
• Sodium salts – Yellow Colour, hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Barium salts – Green Colour
• Calcium Salts – Orange Colour, hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.
• Copper Salts – Blue Colour, hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Binders: All the components of the firecracker require a medium which can bind them. - Question 72 of 100
72. Question
In the context of ” India’s nuclear doctrine”, Consider the following statements :
(1) The Nuclear Command Authority comprises a Political Council and an executive Council.
(2) The Political Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor.
(3) The Political Council is the sole body which can authorise the use of nuclear weapons.
(4) The Executive Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectThe Nuclear Command Authority comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council. The Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister. It is the sole body which can authorise the use of nuclear weapons.The Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor. It Provides inputs for decision making by the Nuclear Command Authority and executes the directives given to it by the Political Council. Hence Statement 1 and 3 are correct.
India adopted its nuclear doctrine in 2003.
The salient features of this doctrine are as follows:
Building and maintaining a credible minimum deterrence.
A posture of “No First Use” – nuclear weapons will only be used in retaliation against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or on Indian forces anywhere. Etc.UnattemptedThe Nuclear Command Authority comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council. The Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister. It is the sole body which can authorise the use of nuclear weapons.The Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor. It Provides inputs for decision making by the Nuclear Command Authority and executes the directives given to it by the Political Council. Hence Statement 1 and 3 are correct.
India adopted its nuclear doctrine in 2003.
The salient features of this doctrine are as follows:
Building and maintaining a credible minimum deterrence.
A posture of “No First Use” – nuclear weapons will only be used in retaliation against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or on Indian forces anywhere. Etc. - Question 73 of 100
73. Question
Consider the following events:
(1) Establishment of The Atomic Energy Commission of India
(2) Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur (IIT Kharagpur) established.
(3) Formation of The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
(4) National Physical Laboratory of India established.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events from the earliest?
(A) 3-2-1-4
(B) 1-3-4-2
(C) 4-1-2-3
(D) 2-1-3-4CorrectIncorrectThe National Physical Laboratory of India, situated in New Delhi, is the measurement standards laboratory of India. It maintains standards of SI units in India and calibrates the national standards of weights and measures.It was established on 4 January 1947 , India’s first national laboratory.
The Atomic Energy Commission of India is the governing body of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India. It was formed on 3 August 1948. The DAE is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. A resolution passed by the Government of India later replaced the commission by “Atomic Energy Commission of India” on 1 March 1958 under the Department of Atomic Energy with more financial and executive powers. Its headquarters is in Mumbai, maharashtra.
Functions of the Atomic Energy Commission are as follows :
To organize research in atomic science in the country.
To train atomic scientists in the country
oTo promote nuclear research in the commission’s own laboratories in India
To undertake prospecting of atomic minerals in India and to extract such minerals for use on an industrial scale.
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur (IIT Kharagpur) is a public technical and research university established by the government of India in Kharagpur, West Bengal, India. Established in 1951, the institute is the first of the IITs to be established and is recognised as an Institute of National Importance. In 2019 it was awarded the status of Institute of Eminence by the government of India.The institute was initially established to train scientists and engineers after India attained independence in 1947.
DRDO- The Defence Research and Development Organisation.It is the premier agency under the Department of Defence Research and Development in the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India, charged with the military’s research and development, headquartered in Delhi, India. It was formed in 1958 by the merger of the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production of the Indian Ordnance Factories with the Defence Science Organisation. DRDO is India’s largest and most diverse research organisation.UnattemptedThe National Physical Laboratory of India, situated in New Delhi, is the measurement standards laboratory of India. It maintains standards of SI units in India and calibrates the national standards of weights and measures.It was established on 4 January 1947 , India’s first national laboratory.
The Atomic Energy Commission of India is the governing body of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India. It was formed on 3 August 1948. The DAE is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. A resolution passed by the Government of India later replaced the commission by “Atomic Energy Commission of India” on 1 March 1958 under the Department of Atomic Energy with more financial and executive powers. Its headquarters is in Mumbai, maharashtra.
Functions of the Atomic Energy Commission are as follows :
To organize research in atomic science in the country.
To train atomic scientists in the country
oTo promote nuclear research in the commission’s own laboratories in India
To undertake prospecting of atomic minerals in India and to extract such minerals for use on an industrial scale.
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur (IIT Kharagpur) is a public technical and research university established by the government of India in Kharagpur, West Bengal, India. Established in 1951, the institute is the first of the IITs to be established and is recognised as an Institute of National Importance. In 2019 it was awarded the status of Institute of Eminence by the government of India.The institute was initially established to train scientists and engineers after India attained independence in 1947.
DRDO- The Defence Research and Development Organisation.It is the premier agency under the Department of Defence Research and Development in the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India, charged with the military’s research and development, headquartered in Delhi, India. It was formed in 1958 by the merger of the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production of the Indian Ordnance Factories with the Defence Science Organisation. DRDO is India’s largest and most diverse research organisation. - Question 74 of 100
74. Question
Consider the following statements:
(1) The sky on Earth looks blue due to the Total Internal Reflection (TIR) phenomenon of light.
(2) In distance, Neptune is closer to the Sun than Uranus.
(3) An aerosol is a suspension of fine droplets or particles in a gas.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectNeptune and Uranus have much in common. Their appearance is in different shades of blue.
Statement 1 is not correct: The red colours of the sunlight scattered from the haze and air molecules are more absorbed by methane molecules in the atmosphere of the planets. This process — referred to as Rayleigh scattering — is what makes skies blue here on Earth (though in Earth’s atmosphere sunlight is mostly scattered by nitrogen molecules rather than hydrogen molecules). Rayleigh scattering occurs predominantly at shorter, bluer wavelengths.
Statement 2 is not correct: In our solar system, Neptune is actually farther from the Sun than Uranus. The order of the planets in our solar system, starting from the Sun and moving outward, is as follows:
Mercury -> Venus -> Earth -> Mars -> Jupiter -> Saturn -> Uranus -> Neptune
Neptune is the eighth and farthest known planet from the Sun, while Uranus is the seventh planet. Therefore, Uranus is closer to the Sun than Neptune.
Statement 3 is correct: An aerosol is a suspension of fine droplets or particles in a gas. Common examples on Earth include mist, soot, smoke, and fog. On Neptune and Uranus, particles produced by sunlight interacting with elements in the atmosphere (photochemical reactions) are responsible for aerosol hazes in these planets’ atmospheres.UnattemptedNeptune and Uranus have much in common. Their appearance is in different shades of blue.
Statement 1 is not correct: The red colours of the sunlight scattered from the haze and air molecules are more absorbed by methane molecules in the atmosphere of the planets. This process — referred to as Rayleigh scattering — is what makes skies blue here on Earth (though in Earth’s atmosphere sunlight is mostly scattered by nitrogen molecules rather than hydrogen molecules). Rayleigh scattering occurs predominantly at shorter, bluer wavelengths.
Statement 2 is not correct: In our solar system, Neptune is actually farther from the Sun than Uranus. The order of the planets in our solar system, starting from the Sun and moving outward, is as follows:
Mercury -> Venus -> Earth -> Mars -> Jupiter -> Saturn -> Uranus -> Neptune
Neptune is the eighth and farthest known planet from the Sun, while Uranus is the seventh planet. Therefore, Uranus is closer to the Sun than Neptune.
Statement 3 is correct: An aerosol is a suspension of fine droplets or particles in a gas. Common examples on Earth include mist, soot, smoke, and fog. On Neptune and Uranus, particles produced by sunlight interacting with elements in the atmosphere (photochemical reactions) are responsible for aerosol hazes in these planets’ atmospheres. - Question 75 of 100
75. Question
Oxidation is a process in which a chemical substance changes because of the addition of oxygen. Which of the following everyday process is/are result of oxidation?
(1) Corrosion of iron
(2) Rancidification of food
(3) Combustion of hydrocarbons
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrect• Corrosion is a process through which metals in manufactured states return to their natural oxidation states. This process is a reduction-oxidation reaction in which the metal is being oxidized by its surroundings, often the oxygen in the air. This reaction is both spontaneous and electrochemically favoured. Corrosion is essentially the creation of voltaic, or galvanic, cells where the metal in question acts as an anode and generally deteriorates or loses functional stability.
• Rancidity, it is the natural process of decomposition (degradation) of fats or oils by either hydrolysis or oxidation, or both. It is the complete or incomplete oxidation or hydrolysis of fats and oils when exposed to air, light, or moisture or by bacterial action, resulting in unpleasant taste and odour.
• Combustion is an oxidation reaction. During combustion, burning of fuel takes place in the presence of oxygen. If oxygen is not present burning will not take place.Unattempted• Corrosion is a process through which metals in manufactured states return to their natural oxidation states. This process is a reduction-oxidation reaction in which the metal is being oxidized by its surroundings, often the oxygen in the air. This reaction is both spontaneous and electrochemically favoured. Corrosion is essentially the creation of voltaic, or galvanic, cells where the metal in question acts as an anode and generally deteriorates or loses functional stability.
• Rancidity, it is the natural process of decomposition (degradation) of fats or oils by either hydrolysis or oxidation, or both. It is the complete or incomplete oxidation or hydrolysis of fats and oils when exposed to air, light, or moisture or by bacterial action, resulting in unpleasant taste and odour.
• Combustion is an oxidation reaction. During combustion, burning of fuel takes place in the presence of oxygen. If oxygen is not present burning will not take place. - Question 76 of 100
76. Question
From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?
(A) Cat fish – Tortoise – Otter – Kiwi
(B) Cat fish – Kiwi – Tortoise – Otter
(C) Tortoise – Cat fish – Otter – Kiwi
(D) Cat fish – Tortoise – Kiwi – OtterCorrectIncorrectWhile it is estimated that the Earth is 4.5 billion years old, life began to appear approximately 3.5 billion years ago. Evolution of vertebrates (those having a backbone) occurred in the following order: Fish, Amphibia, Reptiles, Birds and Mammals.
• Hence, the correct sequence is Cat fish-Tortoise-Kiwi-Otter.UnattemptedWhile it is estimated that the Earth is 4.5 billion years old, life began to appear approximately 3.5 billion years ago. Evolution of vertebrates (those having a backbone) occurred in the following order: Fish, Amphibia, Reptiles, Birds and Mammals.
• Hence, the correct sequence is Cat fish-Tortoise-Kiwi-Otter. - Question 77 of 100
77. Question
Which of the following is/are positive implications of the use of solar energy Technologies?
(1) Electricity generation.
(2) Production of thermal energy.
(3) Reduction of emission of greenhouse gas.
(4) Increased regional/national energy independence.
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) Only threeCorrectIncorrectAll of the options (1), (2), (3), and (4) are positive implications of the use of solar energy technologies:
Electricity generation: Solar energy technologies, such as photovoltaic (PV) panels, generate electricity from sunlight. This is one of the primary and most well-known applications of solar energy, and it contributes to a cleaner and more sustainable energy mix.
Production of thermal energy: Solar thermal technologies capture sunlight to produce thermal energy, which can be used for various purposes, including space heating, water heating, and industrial processes. This utilization of solar thermal energy is another positive implication as it reduces the reliance on fossil fuels for heating.
Reduction of emission of greenhouse gases: Solar energy technologies produce electricity and thermal energy without emitting greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) or other harmful air pollutants. By using solar energy, we can significantly reduce the emissions associated with conventional energy sources, contributing to efforts to combat climate change and improve air quality.
Increased regional/national energy independence: As mentioned earlier, solar energy technologies contribute to increased energy independence by diversifying energy sources, reducing reliance on fossil fuels, and promoting local energy production. This can enhance a region's or nation's energy security and reduce vulnerability to supply disruptions.UnattemptedAll of the options (1), (2), (3), and (4) are positive implications of the use of solar energy technologies:
Electricity generation: Solar energy technologies, such as photovoltaic (PV) panels, generate electricity from sunlight. This is one of the primary and most well-known applications of solar energy, and it contributes to a cleaner and more sustainable energy mix.
Production of thermal energy: Solar thermal technologies capture sunlight to produce thermal energy, which can be used for various purposes, including space heating, water heating, and industrial processes. This utilization of solar thermal energy is another positive implication as it reduces the reliance on fossil fuels for heating.
Reduction of emission of greenhouse gases: Solar energy technologies produce electricity and thermal energy without emitting greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) or other harmful air pollutants. By using solar energy, we can significantly reduce the emissions associated with conventional energy sources, contributing to efforts to combat climate change and improve air quality.
Increased regional/national energy independence: As mentioned earlier, solar energy technologies contribute to increased energy independence by diversifying energy sources, reducing reliance on fossil fuels, and promoting local energy production. This can enhance a region's or nation's energy security and reduce vulnerability to supply disruptions. - Question 78 of 100
78. Question
With reference to Dry Ice, consider the following statements:
(1) It is the solid form of carbon dioxide.
(2) It is used primarily as a cooling agent.
(3) It has a lower temperature than that of water ice and does not leave any residue.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectDry ice, sometimes referred to as “Cardice” or as “card ice” is the solid form of carbon dioxide.
• It is used primarily as a cooling agent.
• Its advantages include lower temperature than that of water ice and not leaving any residue (other than incidental frost from moisture in the atmosphere).
• It is useful for preserving frozen foods, ice cream, etc., where mechanical cooling is unavailable.UnattemptedDry ice, sometimes referred to as “Cardice” or as “card ice” is the solid form of carbon dioxide.
• It is used primarily as a cooling agent.
• Its advantages include lower temperature than that of water ice and not leaving any residue (other than incidental frost from moisture in the atmosphere).
• It is useful for preserving frozen foods, ice cream, etc., where mechanical cooling is unavailable. - Question 79 of 100
79. Question
A person stands on loose sand and then lies down on it. He goes deeper into the sand while standing than while lying down. Which one of the following is the reason?
(A) The weight of the body is lesser while standing up.
(B) The density of the human body is lesser than sand
(C) The pressure on the sand is higher while standing up
(D) There is more friction between the body and the sand while lying downCorrectIncorrectThe effects of forces of the same magnitude on different areas are different. When the person stands on loose sand, the force, that is, the weight of his body is acting on an area equal to the area of his feet. When he lies down, the same force acts on an area equal to the contact area of his whole body, which is larger than the area of his feet. In both cases, the force exerted on the sand is the weight of his body and the force is acting perpendicular to the surface of the sand. The force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface is called thrust. The effect of thrust on sand is larger while standing than while lying. The thrust on the unit area is called pressure.
• Pressure = Thrust/Area
• Thus, higher pressure is exerted by the body on the sand while standing and the person goes down deeper into it as compared to when he is lying down.UnattemptedThe effects of forces of the same magnitude on different areas are different. When the person stands on loose sand, the force, that is, the weight of his body is acting on an area equal to the area of his feet. When he lies down, the same force acts on an area equal to the contact area of his whole body, which is larger than the area of his feet. In both cases, the force exerted on the sand is the weight of his body and the force is acting perpendicular to the surface of the sand. The force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface is called thrust. The effect of thrust on sand is larger while standing than while lying. The thrust on the unit area is called pressure.
• Pressure = Thrust/Area
• Thus, higher pressure is exerted by the body on the sand while standing and the person goes down deeper into it as compared to when he is lying down. - Question 80 of 100
80. Question
Consider the following statements regarding solar energy Technologies:
(1) Photovoltaic solar systems directly convert the solar energy to electricity through photo-electric effect.
(2) Concentrating solar power, which converts the solar radiation into heat.
(3) Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectPhotovoltaic (PV) solar systems directly convert solar energy into electricity through the photoelectric effect. This process involves the absorption of photons (particles of light) by semiconductor materials in the PV cells, which then generates an electric current. The photoelectric effect is the fundamental principle underlying the operation of photovoltaic panels, and it allows for the direct conversion of sunlight into electricity without the need for mechanical or thermal intermediaries. This makes PV solar systems an efficient and clean way to generate electricity from solar energy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) is a technology that harnesses solar energy by converting solar radiation into heat rather than directly into electricity, as photovoltaic (PV) solar panels do. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Photovoltaic (PV) systems typically generate Direct Current (DC), not Alternating Current (AC). Solar thermal systems, on the other hand, do not generate electricity; they produce heat, which can then be used for various purposes, such as heating water or generating steam to drive a turbine for electricity generation. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.UnattemptedPhotovoltaic (PV) solar systems directly convert solar energy into electricity through the photoelectric effect. This process involves the absorption of photons (particles of light) by semiconductor materials in the PV cells, which then generates an electric current. The photoelectric effect is the fundamental principle underlying the operation of photovoltaic panels, and it allows for the direct conversion of sunlight into electricity without the need for mechanical or thermal intermediaries. This makes PV solar systems an efficient and clean way to generate electricity from solar energy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) is a technology that harnesses solar energy by converting solar radiation into heat rather than directly into electricity, as photovoltaic (PV) solar panels do. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Photovoltaic (PV) systems typically generate Direct Current (DC), not Alternating Current (AC). Solar thermal systems, on the other hand, do not generate electricity; they produce heat, which can then be used for various purposes, such as heating water or generating steam to drive a turbine for electricity generation. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. - Question 81 of 100
81. Question
Which of the following are the main reasons for the use of silicon in solar panels?
(1) High quality semiconductor.
(2) Most abundant element in the earth's crust.
(3) Low weight volume ratio.
(4) Extended life cycle.
(5) Robustness and Strength.
(6) Easy to produce at high cost.
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only four
(D) Only fiveCorrectIncorrectSilicon semiconductors
Conversion of solar energy into electric energy is accomplished by the principle of photovoltaic (PV) effect.
One of the most popular semiconductor materials used in PV cells is silicon which has properties conducive to produce electric power from solar energy. Silicon semiconductors are popular because:
Low weight volume ratio.
Extended life cycle.
Robustness and strength.
Silicon semiconductors are easy to produce at low cost.
High quality semiconductor which has properties conducive to produce electric power from solar energy.
Silicon makes up 27.7 percent of Earth’s crust; it is the second most abundant element in the crust, being surpassed only by oxygen.
Hence, options 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.UnattemptedSilicon semiconductors
Conversion of solar energy into electric energy is accomplished by the principle of photovoltaic (PV) effect.
One of the most popular semiconductor materials used in PV cells is silicon which has properties conducive to produce electric power from solar energy. Silicon semiconductors are popular because:
Low weight volume ratio.
Extended life cycle.
Robustness and strength.
Silicon semiconductors are easy to produce at low cost.
High quality semiconductor which has properties conducive to produce electric power from solar energy.
Silicon makes up 27.7 percent of Earth’s crust; it is the second most abundant element in the crust, being surpassed only by oxygen.
Hence, options 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct. - Question 82 of 100
82. Question
Consider the following technological solutions to fight climate change :
(1) Stratospheric aerosol injection.
(2) Marine cloud brightening.
(3) Ground-based albedo modification.
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectAll three of the options mentioned are technological solutions that have been proposed as potential methods to mitigate the effects of climate change:
Stratospheric aerosol injection: This involves injecting reflective aerosol particles into the stratosphere to reflect sunlight away from the Earth's surface, thus cooling the planet. It is a controversial and unproven geoengineering technique.
Marine cloud brightening: This technique aims to enhance the reflectivity of marine clouds by spraying fine sea salt particles into the atmosphere. The increased cloud reflectivity could potentially cool the Earth's surface by reflecting more sunlight back into space.
Ground-based albedo modification: This approach involves changing the reflectivity (albedo) of the Earth's surface, for example, by painting roofs and roads with reflective materials or planting reflective crops. This can help reduce the absorption of solar energy by the Earth's surface.UnattemptedAll three of the options mentioned are technological solutions that have been proposed as potential methods to mitigate the effects of climate change:
Stratospheric aerosol injection: This involves injecting reflective aerosol particles into the stratosphere to reflect sunlight away from the Earth's surface, thus cooling the planet. It is a controversial and unproven geoengineering technique.
Marine cloud brightening: This technique aims to enhance the reflectivity of marine clouds by spraying fine sea salt particles into the atmosphere. The increased cloud reflectivity could potentially cool the Earth's surface by reflecting more sunlight back into space.
Ground-based albedo modification: This approach involves changing the reflectivity (albedo) of the Earth's surface, for example, by painting roofs and roads with reflective materials or planting reflective crops. This can help reduce the absorption of solar energy by the Earth's surface. - Question 83 of 100
83. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Computer:
(1) Quantum computers have the ability to process so much more information and so much faster compared to classical computers.
(2) In a Quantum computer information is expressed through qubit, which is described as a 0 and 1 at the same time giving us more processing power.
(3) Superposition and Entanglement are what give quantum computers the ability to process so much more information.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: Quantum computers store and process information using quantum two level systems (quantum bits or qubits) which unlike classical bits, can be prepared in superposition states. This key ability makes quantum computers extremely powerful compared to conventional computers when solving certain kinds of problems like finding prime factors of large numbers and searching large databases.
Statement 2 is correct: A Quantum computer uses Qubits which is described as a 0 and 1 at the same time giving us more processing power compared to a classical computer. In a classical computer information is expressed through a single number either 0 or 1.
Statement 3 is correct: A Quantum computer uses the laws of quantum mechanics in which superposition and entanglement are what give quantum computers the ability to process so much more information.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: Quantum computers store and process information using quantum two level systems (quantum bits or qubits) which unlike classical bits, can be prepared in superposition states. This key ability makes quantum computers extremely powerful compared to conventional computers when solving certain kinds of problems like finding prime factors of large numbers and searching large databases.
Statement 2 is correct: A Quantum computer uses Qubits which is described as a 0 and 1 at the same time giving us more processing power compared to a classical computer. In a classical computer information is expressed through a single number either 0 or 1.
Statement 3 is correct: A Quantum computer uses the laws of quantum mechanics in which superposition and entanglement are what give quantum computers the ability to process so much more information. - Question 84 of 100
84. Question
Consider the following applications of Supercomputers :
(1) Climate Modelling and Weather Prediction
(2) Aerospace Engineering
(3) Computational Biology
(4) Atomic Energy Simulations
(5) National Security
(6) Seismic Analysis
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) All
(D) Only fourCorrectIncorrectAccording to National supercomputing mission following are application areas of Supercomputers:
Climate Modelling
Weather Prediction
Aerospace Engineering including CFD, CSM, CEM
Computational Biology
Molecular Dynamics
Atomic Energy Simulations
National Security/ Defence Applications
Seismic Analysis
Disaster Simulations and Management
Computational Chemistry
Computational Material Science and Nanomaterials
Discoveries beyond Earth (Astrophysics)
Large Complex Systems Simulations and Cyber Physical Systems
Big Data Analytics
Finance
Information repositories/ Government Information SystemsUnattemptedAccording to National supercomputing mission following are application areas of Supercomputers:
Climate Modelling
Weather Prediction
Aerospace Engineering including CFD, CSM, CEM
Computational Biology
Molecular Dynamics
Atomic Energy Simulations
National Security/ Defence Applications
Seismic Analysis
Disaster Simulations and Management
Computational Chemistry
Computational Material Science and Nanomaterials
Discoveries beyond Earth (Astrophysics)
Large Complex Systems Simulations and Cyber Physical Systems
Big Data Analytics
Finance
Information repositories/ Government Information Systems - Question 85 of 100
85. Question
Consider the following application of “Ghraphen ” :
(1) The thermal and electrical conductivity is very high and it can be used as a flexible conductor.
(2) It can be used in touch screens, light panels and solar cells, where it can replace the rather fragile and expensive Indium-Tin-Oxide (ITO).
(3) Graphene can possibly contribute to more accurate resistance standards in metrology.
(4) New types of composite materials based on graphene with great strength and low weight can be used in satellites and aircraft.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectGraphene is considered to be the world’s thinnest, strongest and most conductive material – of both electricity and heat. The thermal and electrical conductivity is very high and it can be used as a flexible conductor. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Graphene is also a transparent conductor, so it can replace fragile and expensive Indium-Tin-Oxide (ITO) in touch screens, light panels, and solar cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Graphene has the potential to contribute to more accurate resistance standards in metrology. Metrology is the science of measurement, and it plays a crucial role in various industries where precise measurements are essential, such as electronics, telecommunications, and manufacturing. Resistance standards are important for calibrating instruments and ensuring accurate measurements in electrical and electronic applications. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Graphene-based composite materials have the potential to revolutionize the aerospace industry, including their use in satellites and aircraft. Graphene is a two-dimensional material composed of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. It possesses remarkable mechanical, electrical, and thermal properties, which make it highly attractive for aerospace applications. Hence, statement 4 is correct.UnattemptedGraphene is considered to be the world’s thinnest, strongest and most conductive material – of both electricity and heat. The thermal and electrical conductivity is very high and it can be used as a flexible conductor. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Graphene is also a transparent conductor, so it can replace fragile and expensive Indium-Tin-Oxide (ITO) in touch screens, light panels, and solar cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Graphene has the potential to contribute to more accurate resistance standards in metrology. Metrology is the science of measurement, and it plays a crucial role in various industries where precise measurements are essential, such as electronics, telecommunications, and manufacturing. Resistance standards are important for calibrating instruments and ensuring accurate measurements in electrical and electronic applications. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Graphene-based composite materials have the potential to revolutionize the aerospace industry, including their use in satellites and aircraft. Graphene is a two-dimensional material composed of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. It possesses remarkable mechanical, electrical, and thermal properties, which make it highly attractive for aerospace applications. Hence, statement 4 is correct. - Question 86 of 100
86. Question
“Enormous use of nanoparticles (NPs) considered may pose risks to the environment and biological systems ” in this context , Consider the following statements about potential hazards of Nanoparticles :
(1) Nanopollution is the reason for lung inflammation and heart problems.
(2) Nanoparticles used to carry drugs may be toxic to the brain.
(3) Persistent insoluble nanoparticles may cause problems in the environment.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectExposure to inhaled nanoparticles can potentially have adverse health effects, including lung inflammation and heart problems. Nanoparticles are tiny particles with sizes in the nanometer range, and they can be inhaled when present in the air. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The use of nanoparticles to deliver drugs has shown great promise in the field of medicine because it can improve the targeted delivery of therapeutic agents, reduce side effects, and enhance the overall efficacy of treatments. However, it is true that certain nanoparticles can potentially have toxic effects on the brain, and this is an area of concern and active research. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The pulmonary injury and inflammation resulting from the inhalation of nanosize urban particulate matter appears to be due to the oxidative stress that these particles cause in the cells. Persistent insoluble nanoparticles may cause problems in the environment that are much greater than those revealed by human health assessments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedExposure to inhaled nanoparticles can potentially have adverse health effects, including lung inflammation and heart problems. Nanoparticles are tiny particles with sizes in the nanometer range, and they can be inhaled when present in the air. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The use of nanoparticles to deliver drugs has shown great promise in the field of medicine because it can improve the targeted delivery of therapeutic agents, reduce side effects, and enhance the overall efficacy of treatments. However, it is true that certain nanoparticles can potentially have toxic effects on the brain, and this is an area of concern and active research. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The pulmonary injury and inflammation resulting from the inhalation of nanosize urban particulate matter appears to be due to the oxidative stress that these particles cause in the cells. Persistent insoluble nanoparticles may cause problems in the environment that are much greater than those revealed by human health assessments. Hence, statement 3 is correct. - Question 87 of 100
87. Question
Consider the following Statements:
(1) Superconducting magnets can be used for accelerating the particles in the Large Hadron Collider.
(2) SQUIDs (superconducting quantum interference devices ) can be used in the production of highly sensitive magnetometers.
(3) Superconductors Can be used for the development of high-intensity Electromagnetic Impulse (EMP).
How many of the above can be possible applications of “Superconductivity” ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectApplications of Superconductivity :
Superconducting magnets are used for accelerating the particles in the Large Hadron Collides.
SQUIDs (superconducting quantum interference devices) are being used in the production of highly sensitive magnetometers. They are generally used for the detection of landmines.
Superconducting magnets are also used in Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) machines.
As we know due to the electrical resistance, there is a power loss while power transmission. So nowadays, superconducting cables are used in place of ordinary cable lines to avoid power loss. Superconductors are also being used for the development of high-intensity Electromagnetic Impulse (EMP).
Hence, all statements are correct.UnattemptedApplications of Superconductivity :
Superconducting magnets are used for accelerating the particles in the Large Hadron Collides.
SQUIDs (superconducting quantum interference devices) are being used in the production of highly sensitive magnetometers. They are generally used for the detection of landmines.
Superconducting magnets are also used in Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) machines.
As we know due to the electrical resistance, there is a power loss while power transmission. So nowadays, superconducting cables are used in place of ordinary cable lines to avoid power loss. Superconductors are also being used for the development of high-intensity Electromagnetic Impulse (EMP).
Hence, all statements are correct. - Question 88 of 100
88. Question
Which of the following techniques is/are related to ‘Carbon Dioxide Removal’ ?
(1) Carbon capture and storage (CCS)
(2) Ocean fertilisation
(3) Soil carbon sequestration
(4) Deforestation
How many of the above options is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectThe techniques related to “Carbon Dioxide Removal” (CDR) from the atmosphere are:
Carbon capture and storage (CCS): CCS involves capturing carbon dioxide emissions produced by industrial processes or power plants and storing them underground to prevent them from entering the atmosphere.
Ocean fertilization: Ocean fertilization is a technique that involves adding nutrients to the ocean to promote the growth of phytoplankton. These phytoplankton can absorb carbon dioxide during photosynthesis, potentially leading to carbon dioxide removal from the atmosphere. However, this method has generated environmental concerns and is not widely used.
Soil carbon sequestration: Soil carbon sequestration refers to practices that enhance the capture and storage of carbon in soils. This can be achieved through agricultural practices like no-till farming, reforestation, afforestation, and sustainable land management.
Deforestation: Deforestation, on the other hand, is not a technique for carbon dioxide removal but rather a contributor to carbon dioxide emissions. When trees are cut down or forests are cleared, the carbon stored in the trees and vegetation is released into the atmosphere, contributing to increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
So, among the options provided (1) Carbon capture and storage (CCS), (2) Ocean fertilization, (3) Soil carbon sequestration are related to “Carbon Dioxide Removal,” while:
(4) Deforestation is not related to CDR but is associated with carbon emissions.UnattemptedThe techniques related to “Carbon Dioxide Removal” (CDR) from the atmosphere are:
Carbon capture and storage (CCS): CCS involves capturing carbon dioxide emissions produced by industrial processes or power plants and storing them underground to prevent them from entering the atmosphere.
Ocean fertilization: Ocean fertilization is a technique that involves adding nutrients to the ocean to promote the growth of phytoplankton. These phytoplankton can absorb carbon dioxide during photosynthesis, potentially leading to carbon dioxide removal from the atmosphere. However, this method has generated environmental concerns and is not widely used.
Soil carbon sequestration: Soil carbon sequestration refers to practices that enhance the capture and storage of carbon in soils. This can be achieved through agricultural practices like no-till farming, reforestation, afforestation, and sustainable land management.
Deforestation: Deforestation, on the other hand, is not a technique for carbon dioxide removal but rather a contributor to carbon dioxide emissions. When trees are cut down or forests are cleared, the carbon stored in the trees and vegetation is released into the atmosphere, contributing to increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
So, among the options provided (1) Carbon capture and storage (CCS), (2) Ocean fertilization, (3) Soil carbon sequestration are related to “Carbon Dioxide Removal,” while:
(4) Deforestation is not related to CDR but is associated with carbon emissions. - Question 89 of 100
89. Question
Nitrogen gas is used in the tyres of an airplane because
(A) Nitrogen gas is inert unlike air
(B) It is heavier than air
(C) It forms liquid only below a very low temperature
(D) Both (A) and (C)CorrectIncorrectAircraft tires are filled with nitrogen because nitrogen gas is mostly inert, meaning that it requires more energy to react with other substances. This is important because, at elevated temperatures, oxygen can react with rubber. Oxidized rubber is weaker than non-oxidized rubber, and weaker tires are not preferred.
• Air has certain moisture content and it is generally very hard to remove this moisture. If an airplane tires were filled with air, at the flight altitude ice would form inside the tires since the temperature up there is about -30 degrees F. Landing with a chunk of ice in the tire would make it out of balance and change the tire pressure. Tires would probably burst.
• On the other hand, nitrogen doesn't form a liquid till -173C and pure nitrogen has almost no moisture.
• Nitrogen being lighter than air does not play a part in it being used in the airplane tyres. Hence option (D) is the correct answer.UnattemptedAircraft tires are filled with nitrogen because nitrogen gas is mostly inert, meaning that it requires more energy to react with other substances. This is important because, at elevated temperatures, oxygen can react with rubber. Oxidized rubber is weaker than non-oxidized rubber, and weaker tires are not preferred.
• Air has certain moisture content and it is generally very hard to remove this moisture. If an airplane tires were filled with air, at the flight altitude ice would form inside the tires since the temperature up there is about -30 degrees F. Landing with a chunk of ice in the tire would make it out of balance and change the tire pressure. Tires would probably burst.
• On the other hand, nitrogen doesn't form a liquid till -173C and pure nitrogen has almost no moisture.
• Nitrogen being lighter than air does not play a part in it being used in the airplane tyres. Hence option (D) is the correct answer. - Question 90 of 100
90. Question
Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis?
(A) Lysosome and Centrosome
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum and Ribosome
(C) Golgi apparatus and Mitochondria
(D) Lysosome and MitochondriaCorrectIncorrectRibosomes are the factories of protein synthesis. They are 70S type in prokaryotes and 80S type in Eukaryotes. When Ribosomes are attached to Endoplasmic reticulum (ER), it is called Rough ER which helps in protein synthesis. Hence option (B) is the correct answer.
UnattemptedRibosomes are the factories of protein synthesis. They are 70S type in prokaryotes and 80S type in Eukaryotes. When Ribosomes are attached to Endoplasmic reticulum (ER), it is called Rough ER which helps in protein synthesis. Hence option (B) is the correct answer.
- Question 91 of 100
91. Question
Consider the following statements regarding “Carbon Nanotube” :
(1) It is an alloy of Carbon and Chromium.
(2) It exhibits extraordinary strength and is an efficient conductor of heat.
(3) They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
(4) They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body.
(5) They can be used in biochemical sensors.
(6) Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) Only four
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectCarbon nanotubes (CNTs) are an allotrope of carbon. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
They take the form of cylindrical carbon molecules and have novel properties that make them potentially useful in a wide variety of applications in nanotechnology, electronics, optics and other fields of materials science. They exhibit extraordinary strength and unique electrical properties and are efficient conductors of heat. New studies on the strength of these submicroscopic cylinders of carbon indicate that on an ounce-for-ounce basis they are at least 117 times stronger than steel and 30 times stronger than Kevlar, the material used in bulletproof vests and other products. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) have been studied for their potential use as carriers for drugs and antigens in the human body. Carbon nanotubes are tubular structures made of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice, and they have unique properties that make them attractive for various biomedical applications, including drug delivery and vaccine delivery. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Carbon nanotubes can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body as they are promising drug delivery platforms that can be functionalized with a variety of biomolecules, such as antibodies, proteins, or DNA. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
NASA has demonstrated the use of carbon nanotube arrays as biosensors. Hence option 5 is correct.
Multiple types of microbes, including bacteria and fungi, have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs). Hence, statement 6 is correct.UnattemptedCarbon nanotubes (CNTs) are an allotrope of carbon. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
They take the form of cylindrical carbon molecules and have novel properties that make them potentially useful in a wide variety of applications in nanotechnology, electronics, optics and other fields of materials science. They exhibit extraordinary strength and unique electrical properties and are efficient conductors of heat. New studies on the strength of these submicroscopic cylinders of carbon indicate that on an ounce-for-ounce basis they are at least 117 times stronger than steel and 30 times stronger than Kevlar, the material used in bulletproof vests and other products. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) have been studied for their potential use as carriers for drugs and antigens in the human body. Carbon nanotubes are tubular structures made of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice, and they have unique properties that make them attractive for various biomedical applications, including drug delivery and vaccine delivery. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Carbon nanotubes can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body as they are promising drug delivery platforms that can be functionalized with a variety of biomolecules, such as antibodies, proteins, or DNA. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
NASA has demonstrated the use of carbon nanotube arrays as biosensors. Hence option 5 is correct.
Multiple types of microbes, including bacteria and fungi, have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs). Hence, statement 6 is correct. - Question 92 of 100
92. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Bleaching powder.
(1) It is used for disinfecting water.
(2) It is also known as sodium bicarbonate.
(3) It acts as a reducing agent in many chemical industries.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct. Bleaching powder is used as a disinfectant and germicide. It liberates Chlorine on exposure to the atmosphere which destroys the germs.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bleaching powder is chemically calcium oxychloride (CaOCl2). Bleaching powder is manufactured using Backmann”s plant. Slaked lime and Chlorine are used in this process to produce bleaching Powder. Hence, it is also known as chlorinated lime. Baking soda is the common name of sodium bicarbonate. The chemical formula of baking soda is NaHCO3.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Bleaching powder is little acidic and also produces oxygen when it is added. Thus, it acts as an oxidizing (not reducing) and a bleaching agent in many chemical industries.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct. Bleaching powder is used as a disinfectant and germicide. It liberates Chlorine on exposure to the atmosphere which destroys the germs.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bleaching powder is chemically calcium oxychloride (CaOCl2). Bleaching powder is manufactured using Backmann”s plant. Slaked lime and Chlorine are used in this process to produce bleaching Powder. Hence, it is also known as chlorinated lime. Baking soda is the common name of sodium bicarbonate. The chemical formula of baking soda is NaHCO3.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Bleaching powder is little acidic and also produces oxygen when it is added. Thus, it acts as an oxidizing (not reducing) and a bleaching agent in many chemical industries. - Question 93 of 100
93. Question
With reference to aquaponics, consider the following statements:
(1) In aquaponics, fish and plants are grown together.
(2) It involves use of scarce land unlike conventional farming.
(3) In this technique the fish waste provides fertilizer for growing plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2CorrectIncorrectIn aquaponics, fish and plants are grown together with the single input of fish feed. Fish are reared in tanks and the water is circulated to vegetable roots. All other nutrients required for plant growth are provided by the fish excreta. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The greatest advantage of aquaponics is vertical farming — utilising scarce land in cities to get a greater higher yield per square feet. Although the cost of setting up a vertical farm is high, the selling of vegetables in retail makes the venture attractive. Urban farms also have a smaller carbon footprint as produce is grown locally, avoiding transportation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In this technique the fish waste provides fertilizer for growing plants. The plants absorb nutrients and filter the water. Hence, statement 3 is correct.UnattemptedIn aquaponics, fish and plants are grown together with the single input of fish feed. Fish are reared in tanks and the water is circulated to vegetable roots. All other nutrients required for plant growth are provided by the fish excreta. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The greatest advantage of aquaponics is vertical farming — utilising scarce land in cities to get a greater higher yield per square feet. Although the cost of setting up a vertical farm is high, the selling of vegetables in retail makes the venture attractive. Urban farms also have a smaller carbon footprint as produce is grown locally, avoiding transportation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In this technique the fish waste provides fertilizer for growing plants. The plants absorb nutrients and filter the water. Hence, statement 3 is correct. - Question 94 of 100
94. Question
With the present state of development, “Blockchain Technology” can effectively do which of the following?
(1) Cryptocurrency Exchange
(2) Supply Chain Monitoring
(3) IoT Operating system
(4) Anti-Money laundering tracking system
(5) Original content creation
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only three
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectBlockchain technology is a structure that stores transactional records (known as the block) of the public in several databases (known as the chain) in a network connected through peer-to-peer nodes.
This storage is referred to as a digital ledger. The three key principles of blockchain technology are transparency, decentralization and accountability.
Blockchain applications go far beyond cryptocurrency and bitcoin. With its ability to create more transparency and fairness while also saving businesses time and money, the technology is impacting a variety of sectors such as,
Secure sharing of medical data.
Music royalties tracking
Cross-border payments
Real-time IoT operating systems, for instance Filament.
Personal identity security
Anti-money laundering tracking system, for instance Civic.
Supply chain and logistics monitoring
Voting mechanism
Original content creation, for example MEDIACHAIN
Therefore, all options are correct.UnattemptedBlockchain technology is a structure that stores transactional records (known as the block) of the public in several databases (known as the chain) in a network connected through peer-to-peer nodes.
This storage is referred to as a digital ledger. The three key principles of blockchain technology are transparency, decentralization and accountability.
Blockchain applications go far beyond cryptocurrency and bitcoin. With its ability to create more transparency and fairness while also saving businesses time and money, the technology is impacting a variety of sectors such as,
Secure sharing of medical data.
Music royalties tracking
Cross-border payments
Real-time IoT operating systems, for instance Filament.
Personal identity security
Anti-money laundering tracking system, for instance Civic.
Supply chain and logistics monitoring
Voting mechanism
Original content creation, for example MEDIACHAIN
Therefore, all options are correct. - Question 95 of 100
95. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty :
(1) It bans nuclear explosions for military purposes, but not for civilian purposes.
(2) It provides for a global verification regime under the supervision of the International Atomic Energy Agency.
(3) It prohibits attacks against nuclear installations in the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone.
(4) None of the nuclear weapon states have signed or ratified the treaty.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is incorrect : The Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, for both civilian and military purposes, in all environments. It has not entered into force yet.
Statement 2 is incorrect : The treaty envisages a global verification regime to make sure that no nuclear explosion goes undetected. For this purpose, International Monitoring System (IMS)will consist of 337 facilities worldwide to monitor the planet for signs of nuclear explosions. Around 90 percent of the facilities are already up and running. International Atomic Energy Agencyis not associated with the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty. It is a United Nations body created in 1957 in response to the deep fears generated by the discoveries and diverse uses of nuclear technology.
Statement 3 is incorrect : It does not deal with prohibiting attacks against nuclear installations in the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone. Pelindaba treaty prohibits the research, development, manufacture, stockpiling, acquisition, testing, possession, control or stationing of nuclear explosive devices in the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone. It also prohibits any attack against nuclear installations in the zone by Treaty parties.
Statement 4 is incorrect : Nuclear weapon states like Russia Federation, United Kingdom, France have ratified the treaty but countries like US, China, North Korea, Israel, Pakistan, India have not ratified the treaty. India has not even signed the treaty.UnattemptedStatement 1 is incorrect : The Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, for both civilian and military purposes, in all environments. It has not entered into force yet.
Statement 2 is incorrect : The treaty envisages a global verification regime to make sure that no nuclear explosion goes undetected. For this purpose, International Monitoring System (IMS)will consist of 337 facilities worldwide to monitor the planet for signs of nuclear explosions. Around 90 percent of the facilities are already up and running. International Atomic Energy Agencyis not associated with the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty. It is a United Nations body created in 1957 in response to the deep fears generated by the discoveries and diverse uses of nuclear technology.
Statement 3 is incorrect : It does not deal with prohibiting attacks against nuclear installations in the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone. Pelindaba treaty prohibits the research, development, manufacture, stockpiling, acquisition, testing, possession, control or stationing of nuclear explosive devices in the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone. It also prohibits any attack against nuclear installations in the zone by Treaty parties.
Statement 4 is incorrect : Nuclear weapon states like Russia Federation, United Kingdom, France have ratified the treaty but countries like US, China, North Korea, Israel, Pakistan, India have not ratified the treaty. India has not even signed the treaty. - Question 96 of 100
96. Question
How many of the following bones are matched correctly with their respective body part?
Bone : Body Part
(1) Femur : Thigh
(2) Sternum : Skull
(3) Patella : Shoulder
Select the correct answer :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3CorrectIncorrectFemur is the thigh bone. It is the longest and strongest bone in the human body.
• The sternum or breastbone is a long flat bone located in the central part of the chest. It connects to the ribs via cartilage and forms the front of the rib cage, thus helping to protect the heart, lungs, and major blood vessels from injury.
• The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a thick, circular-triangular bone which articulates with the femur (thigh bone) and covers and protects the anterior articular surface of the knee joint.UnattemptedFemur is the thigh bone. It is the longest and strongest bone in the human body.
• The sternum or breastbone is a long flat bone located in the central part of the chest. It connects to the ribs via cartilage and forms the front of the rib cage, thus helping to protect the heart, lungs, and major blood vessels from injury.
• The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a thick, circular-triangular bone which articulates with the femur (thigh bone) and covers and protects the anterior articular surface of the knee joint. - Question 97 of 100
97. Question
Which of the following is/are the applications of recombinant DNA technology?
(1) Synthesis of human insulin
(2) Insect-resistant crops
(3) Diagnostic tests for hepatitis and HIV
(4) Environmental cleaning
How many of the above options is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectRecombinant DNA (rDNA) molecules are DNA molecules formed by laboratory methods of genetic recombination i.e. molecules of DNA from two different species that are inserted into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations that are of value to science, medicine, agriculture, and industry.
• Applications of Recombinant DNA:
Through recombinant DNA techniques, bacteria have been created that are capable of synthesizing human insulin, human growth hormone, alpha interferon, hepatitis B vaccine, and other medically useful substances. Hence option 1 is correct.
Recombinant DNA technology also can be used for gene therapy, in which a normal gene is introduced into an individual’s genome in order to repair a mutation that causes a genetic disease.
The ability to obtain specific DNA clones using recombinant DNA technology has also made it possible to add the DNA of one organism to the genome of another. The added gene is called a transgene, which can be passed to progeny as a new component of the genome. The resulting organism carrying the transgene is called a transgenic organism or a genetically modified organism (GMO). In this way, a “designer organism” is made that contains some specific change required for an experiment in basic genetics or for improvement of some commercial strain.
Genetically transformed plants which contain foreign genes are called transgenic plants. Resistance to diseases, insects and pests, herbicides, drought; metal toxicity tolerance; induction of male sterility for plant breeding purpose; and improvement of quality can be achieved through this recombinant DNA technology. BT-cotton, resistant to bollworms is a glaring example. Hence option 2 is correct.
Recombinant DNA technology has provided a broad range of tools to help physicians in the diagnosis of diseases. Most of these involve the construction of probes: short Segments of single-stranded DNA attached to a radioactive or fluorescent marker. Such probes are now used for the identification of infectious agents, for instance, food poisoning Salmonella, hepatitis virus, HIV, etc. Hence option 3 is correct.
In industries, recombinant DNA technology will help in the production of chemical compounds of commercial importance, improvement of existing fermentation processes, and production of proteins from wastes. This can be achieved by developing more efficient strains of microorganisms. Specially developed microorganisms may be used even to clean up the pollutants. Hence option 4 is correct.UnattemptedRecombinant DNA (rDNA) molecules are DNA molecules formed by laboratory methods of genetic recombination i.e. molecules of DNA from two different species that are inserted into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations that are of value to science, medicine, agriculture, and industry.
• Applications of Recombinant DNA:
Through recombinant DNA techniques, bacteria have been created that are capable of synthesizing human insulin, human growth hormone, alpha interferon, hepatitis B vaccine, and other medically useful substances. Hence option 1 is correct.
Recombinant DNA technology also can be used for gene therapy, in which a normal gene is introduced into an individual’s genome in order to repair a mutation that causes a genetic disease.
The ability to obtain specific DNA clones using recombinant DNA technology has also made it possible to add the DNA of one organism to the genome of another. The added gene is called a transgene, which can be passed to progeny as a new component of the genome. The resulting organism carrying the transgene is called a transgenic organism or a genetically modified organism (GMO). In this way, a “designer organism” is made that contains some specific change required for an experiment in basic genetics or for improvement of some commercial strain.
Genetically transformed plants which contain foreign genes are called transgenic plants. Resistance to diseases, insects and pests, herbicides, drought; metal toxicity tolerance; induction of male sterility for plant breeding purpose; and improvement of quality can be achieved through this recombinant DNA technology. BT-cotton, resistant to bollworms is a glaring example. Hence option 2 is correct.
Recombinant DNA technology has provided a broad range of tools to help physicians in the diagnosis of diseases. Most of these involve the construction of probes: short Segments of single-stranded DNA attached to a radioactive or fluorescent marker. Such probes are now used for the identification of infectious agents, for instance, food poisoning Salmonella, hepatitis virus, HIV, etc. Hence option 3 is correct.
In industries, recombinant DNA technology will help in the production of chemical compounds of commercial importance, improvement of existing fermentation processes, and production of proteins from wastes. This can be achieved by developing more efficient strains of microorganisms. Specially developed microorganisms may be used even to clean up the pollutants. Hence option 4 is correct. - Question 98 of 100
98. Question
In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
(1) In Augmented Reality (AR), images generated from a computer are projected onto reallife objects or surroundings.
(2) In Virtual Reality (VR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
(3) AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
(4) VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersionexperience.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectAugmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information. So, statements (1) and (3) are correct.
Virtual Reality (VR) is the use of computer technology to create a simulated environment. Unlike traditional user interfaces, VR places the user inside an experience. Instead of viewing a screen in front of them, users are immersed and able to interact with 3D worlds. So, statements (2) and (4) are correct.UnattemptedAugmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information. So, statements (1) and (3) are correct.
Virtual Reality (VR) is the use of computer technology to create a simulated environment. Unlike traditional user interfaces, VR places the user inside an experience. Instead of viewing a screen in front of them, users are immersed and able to interact with 3D worlds. So, statements (2) and (4) are correct. - Question 99 of 100
99. Question
With reference to chemical compounds, consider the following statements:
(1) A compound is formed by the reaction of at least two atoms of different elements.
(2) The constituents of a compound cannot be separated into simpler substances by physical methods.
(3) Properties of a compound are always the same as those of its constituent elements.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) NoneCorrectIncorrectStatement 1 is correct: Whether something is a compound or not depends on how many different kinds of elements make it up. Compounds contain two or more different elements. When two or more atoms of different elements combine together in a definite ratio, the molecule of a compound is obtained.
Water is a molecule because it contains molecular bonds. Water is also a compound because it is made from more than one kind of element (oxygen and hydrogen).
Oxygen is a molecule but not a compound because it is made from atoms of only one element i.e. oxygen.
Statement 2 is correct: The constituents of a compound cannot be separated into simpler substances by physical methods. They can be separated by chemical methods. Distillation, recrystallization and chromatography are different chemical methods of separation.
The constituents of a mixture can be separated into simpler substances by physical methods.
Mixtures are two or more substances that are not chemically combined with each other. Handpicking, winnowing, sieving, sedimentation, decantation and filtration are some of the methods of separating substances.
Statement 3 is not correct: Properties of a compound are different (not always same) from those of its constituent elements. For example, hydrogen and oxygen are gases, whereas, the compound formed by their combination i.e., water is a liquid.UnattemptedStatement 1 is correct: Whether something is a compound or not depends on how many different kinds of elements make it up. Compounds contain two or more different elements. When two or more atoms of different elements combine together in a definite ratio, the molecule of a compound is obtained.
Water is a molecule because it contains molecular bonds. Water is also a compound because it is made from more than one kind of element (oxygen and hydrogen).
Oxygen is a molecule but not a compound because it is made from atoms of only one element i.e. oxygen.
Statement 2 is correct: The constituents of a compound cannot be separated into simpler substances by physical methods. They can be separated by chemical methods. Distillation, recrystallization and chromatography are different chemical methods of separation.
The constituents of a mixture can be separated into simpler substances by physical methods.
Mixtures are two or more substances that are not chemically combined with each other. Handpicking, winnowing, sieving, sedimentation, decantation and filtration are some of the methods of separating substances.
Statement 3 is not correct: Properties of a compound are different (not always same) from those of its constituent elements. For example, hydrogen and oxygen are gases, whereas, the compound formed by their combination i.e., water is a liquid. - Question 100 of 100
100. Question
Coal gasification is the process of producing syngas which consists of
(A) Methane, Hydrogen and Water vapour only
(B) Hydrogen and carbon dioxide only
(C) Methane, Hydrogen, Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and water vapour
(D) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide onlyCorrectIncorrectGasification is done using a mixture of coal, water, air and/or oxygen.
Coal gas or Syngas is a mixture consisting primarily of methane (CH4), carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapor (H2O)–from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
In current practice, large-scale instances of coal gasification are primarily for electricity generation.
The hydrogen obtained from coal gasification can be used for various purposes such as making ammonia, powering a hydrogen economy, or upgrading fossil fuels.UnattemptedGasification is done using a mixture of coal, water, air and/or oxygen.
Coal gas or Syngas is a mixture consisting primarily of methane (CH4), carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapor (H2O)–from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
In current practice, large-scale instances of coal gasification are primarily for electricity generation.
The hydrogen obtained from coal gasification can be used for various purposes such as making ammonia, powering a hydrogen economy, or upgrading fossil fuels.