Test 32 – Part 2

1st Plan 2025 : (3) Polity 3

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1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 100

   1. Question

   When Financial emergency is in operation the president may issue directions to observe such canons of financial propriety. Which among the following directions could be issued by the President?
   (1) Reduction of salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of a State
   (2) Reserve any bill for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of a State
   (3) Reduction of salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union
   (4) Reduction of salaries and allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts
   Select the incorrect answer using the codes given below :
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Financial Emergency can be proclaimed under Article 360, which provides that if the President is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any of its part is in danger, he may declare a state of Financial Emergency.
   Both Houses of Parliament must approve Financial Emergency within two months.
   After the proclamation of a Financial Emergency, the following Provisions are issued by the President.
   The Union Government may give directions to any of the States regarding financial matters.
   The President may ask the State government to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons in government service.
   The President may also give directions for reducing salaries and allowances of the Central Government employees, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
   The President may ask the States to reserve all the money bills for the consideration of the Parliament after the State Legislature has passed them.
   So, statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
   EMERGENCY PROVISIONS
   About
   The Provisions have been made in the Constitution for dealing with extraordinary situations that may threaten the peace, security, stability and governance of the country or a part thereof.
   There are three types of extraordinary crises that are envisaged.
   Proclamation of National Emergency is Article 352.
   Emergency due to Failure of Constitutional Machinery in a State is under Article 356.
   The third type of Emergency is Financial Emergency provided under Article 360.
   National Emergency (Article 352)
   The President of India can declare the National Emergency if he is satisfied that the situation is very grave and the security of India or any part thereof is threatened or is likely to be threatened either
   (i) by war or external aggression or
   (ii) by armed rebellion within the country.
   According to the 44th Amendment of the Constitution, the President can declare such an emergency only if the Cabinet recommends in writing to do so.
   The proclamation of national emergency has to be approved by both the Houses of Parliament by an absolute majority of the membership of the Houses and 2/3 majority of members present and voting within one month.
   Otherwise, the proclamation ceases to operate.
   The emergency remains in force for six months from the date of the proclamation. If it is to be extended beyond six months, the Parliament must pass another previous resolution.
   Hence, the national emergency continues indefinitely.
   National Emergency has been declared in our country three times so far.
   Effects of National Emergency
   The declaration of National Emergency has far-reaching effects both on the rights of individuals and the autonomy of the states in the following manner:
   The most significant effect is that the federal form of the Constitution changes into a unitary one.
   The authority of the Centre increases, and the Parliament assumes the power to make laws for the entire country or any part thereof, even in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List.
   The President of India can issue directions to the states regarding how the executive power of the states is to be exercised.
   During this period, the Lok Sabha can extend its tenure by one year at a time.
   But the same cannot be extended beyond six months after the proclamation ceases to operate. The tenure of State Assemblies can also be extended in the same manner.
   During an emergency, the President is empowered to modify the provisions regarding the distribution of revenues between the Union and the States.
   The Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended, and this suspension continues till the end of the emergency.
   But according to the 44th Amendment, Freedoms listed in Article 19 can be suspended only in case of the proclamation on the ground of war or external aggression.
   Emergency due to Failure of Constitutional Machinery in a State
   The Union Government must ensure that the governance of a State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
   Under Article 356, the President may proclaim to impose an emergency in a state if he is satisfied on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, that a situation has arisen under which the Government of the State cannot be carried on smoothly.
   In such a situation, the proclamation of emergency by the President is called a ‘proclamation on account of the failure (or breakdown) of constitutional machinery.’
   Effects of Imposition of President’s Rule in a State
   The declaration of emergency due to the breakdown of Constitutional machinery in a State has the following effects:
   (i) The President can assume to himself all or any of the functions of the State Government, or he may vest all or any of those functions with the Governor or any other executive authority.
   (ii) The President may dissolve the State Legislative Assembly or put it under suspension, and he may authorize the Parliament to make laws on behalf of the State Legislature.
   (iii) The President can make any other incidental or consequential provision.

   Unattempted
   

   The Financial Emergency can be proclaimed under Article 360, which provides that if the President is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any of its part is in danger, he may declare a state of Financial Emergency.
   Both Houses of Parliament must approve Financial Emergency within two months.
   After the proclamation of a Financial Emergency, the following Provisions are issued by the President.
   The Union Government may give directions to any of the States regarding financial matters.
   The President may ask the State government to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons in government service.
   The President may also give directions for reducing salaries and allowances of the Central Government employees, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
   The President may ask the States to reserve all the money bills for the consideration of the Parliament after the State Legislature has passed them.
   So, statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
   EMERGENCY PROVISIONS
   About
   The Provisions have been made in the Constitution for dealing with extraordinary situations that may threaten the peace, security, stability and governance of the country or a part thereof.
   There are three types of extraordinary crises that are envisaged.
   Proclamation of National Emergency is Article 352.
   Emergency due to Failure of Constitutional Machinery in a State is under Article 356.
   The third type of Emergency is Financial Emergency provided under Article 360.
   National Emergency (Article 352)
   The President of India can declare the National Emergency if he is satisfied that the situation is very grave and the security of India or any part thereof is threatened or is likely to be threatened either
   (i) by war or external aggression or
   (ii) by armed rebellion within the country.
   According to the 44th Amendment of the Constitution, the President can declare such an emergency only if the Cabinet recommends in writing to do so.
   The proclamation of national emergency has to be approved by both the Houses of Parliament by an absolute majority of the membership of the Houses and 2/3 majority of members present and voting within one month.
   Otherwise, the proclamation ceases to operate.
   The emergency remains in force for six months from the date of the proclamation. If it is to be extended beyond six months, the Parliament must pass another previous resolution.
   Hence, the national emergency continues indefinitely.
   National Emergency has been declared in our country three times so far.
   Effects of National Emergency
   The declaration of National Emergency has far-reaching effects both on the rights of individuals and the autonomy of the states in the following manner:
   The most significant effect is that the federal form of the Constitution changes into a unitary one.
   The authority of the Centre increases, and the Parliament assumes the power to make laws for the entire country or any part thereof, even in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List.
   The President of India can issue directions to the states regarding how the executive power of the states is to be exercised.
   During this period, the Lok Sabha can extend its tenure by one year at a time.
   But the same cannot be extended beyond six months after the proclamation ceases to operate. The tenure of State Assemblies can also be extended in the same manner.
   During an emergency, the President is empowered to modify the provisions regarding the distribution of revenues between the Union and the States.
   The Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended, and this suspension continues till the end of the emergency.
   But according to the 44th Amendment, Freedoms listed in Article 19 can be suspended only in case of the proclamation on the ground of war or external aggression.
   Emergency due to Failure of Constitutional Machinery in a State
   The Union Government must ensure that the governance of a State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
   Under Article 356, the President may proclaim to impose an emergency in a state if he is satisfied on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, that a situation has arisen under which the Government of the State cannot be carried on smoothly.
   In such a situation, the proclamation of emergency by the President is called a ‘proclamation on account of the failure (or breakdown) of constitutional machinery.’
   Effects of Imposition of President’s Rule in a State
   The declaration of emergency due to the breakdown of Constitutional machinery in a State has the following effects:
   (i) The President can assume to himself all or any of the functions of the State Government, or he may vest all or any of those functions with the Governor or any other executive authority.
   (ii) The President may dissolve the State Legislative Assembly or put it under suspension, and he may authorize the Parliament to make laws on behalf of the State Legislature.
   (iii) The President can make any other incidental or consequential provision.
2. Question 2 of 100

   2. Question

   A member of state legislature wants to deliver an address in the house. He has an option to address in
   (1) Hindi or english
   (2) any one of the official language(s) of the state
   (3) any one of the scheduled languages in the constitution
   (4) his mother tongue
   Select the incorrect answer using the codes given below :
   (A) Only one answer
   (B) Only
   (C) Only four answers
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   According to Article 210(1) of the constitution of India, the State legislature (which includes a member of the state legislature addressing the house) shall be transacted in the official language or languages of the State or Hindi or English.
   The law provided that the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly or the Chairman of the Legislative Council, or the person acting as such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in any of the languages aforesaid to address the house in his mother-tongue.
   OFFICIAL LANGUAGES Provisions
   Articles Mentioned in the Indian Constitution
   Article 120
   The Business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English
   The Speaker of the House of the people or Chairman of the council of states may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in any of the languages aforesaid to address the house in his mother-tongue.
   Article 210
   The Business in the legislature of a state shall be transacted in the official language or languages of the state or in Hindi or in English
   The Speaker of the Legislative assembly or Chairman of the Legislative council may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in any of the languages aforesaid to address the house in his mother-tongue.
   Article 348
   This article talks about the language to be used in the Supreme court and in the High Courts and for acts, bills etc.
   Article 350
   This article talks about the language to be used in representations for redress of grievances.
   Says that every person shall be entitled to submit a representation for the redress of any grievance to any officer or authority of the union or a state in any of the languages used in the Union or in the state.

   Unattempted
   

   According to Article 210(1) of the constitution of India, the State legislature (which includes a member of the state legislature addressing the house) shall be transacted in the official language or languages of the State or Hindi or English.
   The law provided that the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly or the Chairman of the Legislative Council, or the person acting as such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in any of the languages aforesaid to address the house in his mother-tongue.
   OFFICIAL LANGUAGES Provisions
   Articles Mentioned in the Indian Constitution
   Article 120
   The Business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English
   The Speaker of the House of the people or Chairman of the council of states may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in any of the languages aforesaid to address the house in his mother-tongue.
   Article 210
   The Business in the legislature of a state shall be transacted in the official language or languages of the state or in Hindi or in English
   The Speaker of the Legislative assembly or Chairman of the Legislative council may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in any of the languages aforesaid to address the house in his mother-tongue.
   Article 348
   This article talks about the language to be used in the Supreme court and in the High Courts and for acts, bills etc.
   Article 350
   This article talks about the language to be used in representations for redress of grievances.
   Says that every person shall be entitled to submit a representation for the redress of any grievance to any officer or authority of the union or a state in any of the languages used in the Union or in the state.
3. Question 3 of 100

   3. Question

   Which of the following is certainly a consequence of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State ?
   (1) Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
   (2) Dismissal of the Council of Ministers in the State
   Select the correct answer using the code given below :
   (A)1 only
   (B) 2 only
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President.
   This proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the imposition of ‘President’s Rule’ in a state.
   Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly.
   When the state legislature is thus suspended or dissolved:
   The Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the state to the President or any other authority specified by him in this regard.
   The Parliament or, in case of delegation, the President or any other specified authority can make laws conferring powers and imposing duties on the Centre or its officers and authorities.
   When the Lok Sabha is not in session, the President can authorize expenditure from the state consolidated fund pending its sanction by the Parliament.
   The President can promulgate ordinances for the governance of the state when the Parliament is not in session.
   The Parliament passes the State Legislative Bills and the State Budget.
   So, Statement 1 is not correct and Statement 2 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President.
   This proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the imposition of ‘President’s Rule’ in a state.
   Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly.
   When the state legislature is thus suspended or dissolved:
   The Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the state to the President or any other authority specified by him in this regard.
   The Parliament or, in case of delegation, the President or any other specified authority can make laws conferring powers and imposing duties on the Centre or its officers and authorities.
   When the Lok Sabha is not in session, the President can authorize expenditure from the state consolidated fund pending its sanction by the Parliament.
   The President can promulgate ordinances for the governance of the state when the Parliament is not in session.
   The Parliament passes the State Legislative Bills and the State Budget.
   So, Statement 1 is not correct and Statement 2 is correct.
4. Question 4 of 100

   4. Question

   The 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment act having certain provisions in common. Which of the following is/are such provisions ?
   (1) Constitution of the District Planning Committee
   (2) Reservation for SCs/STs based on population
   (3) Non application of the provisions in certain areas
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   (A) 1 and 2 only
   (B) 2 and 3 only
   (C) 1 and 3 only
   (D) 1, 2 and 3

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India, entitled ‘The Panchayats,’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
   The 74th Amendment Act Of 1992 Act has added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled ‘The Municipalities’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
   The term Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of rural local self-government.
   The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional status to the municipalities.
   The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 made it constitutional to establish District Planning Committee (DPC) by the Article 243ZD.
   Constitution of the District Planning Committee:
   Every state shall constitute, at the district level, a district planning committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities and prepare a draft development plan for the district as a whole.
   Therefore, only 74th constitutional amendment acts have Constitution of the District Planning Committee provisions as common. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
   The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in every panchayat in the proportion of their population in the total population in the panchayat area.
   The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for reserving seats for the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes in every municipality in a proportion of their population to the total population in the municipal area. Therefore, Reservation for SCs/STs based on population is the common provision for the 74th and 73rd Constitutional Amendment Acts. So, Statement 2 is correct.
   The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 does not apply to the states of Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram and certain other areas.
   These areas include,
   (A) the scheduled areas and the tribal areas in the states
   (B) the hill areas of Manipur for which district councils exist;
   (C) Darjeeling district of West Bengal for which Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council exists.
   The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 does not apply to the scheduled areas and tribal areas in the states.
   It shall also not affect the functions and powers of the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council of West Bengal.
   Therefore, The 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment acts have the Non-application of the provisions in certain areas as common. So, Statement 3 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India, entitled ‘The Panchayats,’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
   The 74th Amendment Act Of 1992 Act has added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled ‘The Municipalities’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
   The term Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of rural local self-government.
   The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional status to the municipalities.
   The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 made it constitutional to establish District Planning Committee (DPC) by the Article 243ZD.
   Constitution of the District Planning Committee:
   Every state shall constitute, at the district level, a district planning committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities and prepare a draft development plan for the district as a whole.
   Therefore, only 74th constitutional amendment acts have Constitution of the District Planning Committee provisions as common. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
   The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in every panchayat in the proportion of their population in the total population in the panchayat area.
   The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for reserving seats for the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes in every municipality in a proportion of their population to the total population in the municipal area. Therefore, Reservation for SCs/STs based on population is the common provision for the 74th and 73rd Constitutional Amendment Acts. So, Statement 2 is correct.
   The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 does not apply to the states of Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram and certain other areas.
   These areas include,
   (A) the scheduled areas and the tribal areas in the states
   (B) the hill areas of Manipur for which district councils exist;
   (C) Darjeeling district of West Bengal for which Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council exists.
   The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 does not apply to the scheduled areas and tribal areas in the states.
   It shall also not affect the functions and powers of the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council of West Bengal.
   Therefore, The 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment acts have the Non-application of the provisions in certain areas as common. So, Statement 3 is correct.
5. Question 5 of 100

   5. Question

   Consider the following statements:
   (1) The salary allowance of a high court judge is decided by parliament.
   (2) The salary of a high court judge is charged on a consolidated fund of India.
   (3) The Constitution does not contain detailed provisions regarding jurisdiction of the high court.
   Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) None
   (D) All

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Part VI – Article 221 :Statement 1 is correct :
   (1) There shall be paid to the Judges of each High Court such salaries as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such salaries as are specified in the Second Schedule.
   (2) Every Judge shall be entitled to such allowances and to such rights in respect of leave of absence and pension as may from time to time be determined by or under law made by Parliament and, until so determined, to such allowances and rights as are specified in the Second Schedule:
   Provided that neither the allowances of a Judge nor his rights in respect of leave of absence or pension shall be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
   Statement 2 is incorrect : The salaries, pension and allowances of the judges of High Court are charged on the consolidated fund of the state.
   Statement 3 is correct : Nothing substantial regarding jurisdiction of the high court is provided in the Constitution.

   Unattempted
   

   Part VI – Article 221 :Statement 1 is correct :
   (1) There shall be paid to the Judges of each High Court such salaries as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such salaries as are specified in the Second Schedule.
   (2) Every Judge shall be entitled to such allowances and to such rights in respect of leave of absence and pension as may from time to time be determined by or under law made by Parliament and, until so determined, to such allowances and rights as are specified in the Second Schedule:
   Provided that neither the allowances of a Judge nor his rights in respect of leave of absence or pension shall be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
   Statement 2 is incorrect : The salaries, pension and allowances of the judges of High Court are charged on the consolidated fund of the state.
   Statement 3 is correct : Nothing substantial regarding jurisdiction of the high court is provided in the Constitution.
6. Question 6 of 100

   6. Question

   Consider the following statements:
   (1) Supervisory jurisdiction of the high court extends to all courts and tribunals in its territorial jurisdiction except military court or tribunal.
   (2) Supervisory jurisdiction also covers administrative superintendence.
   (3) The High court can issue writs to enforce rights within its territorial jurisdiction only.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Supervisory Jurisdiction is a special power enjoyed by the High Court.
   Statement 1 is correct : It extends to all courts that lie within the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court. It is to be noted that it does not extend to military courts.
   Statement 2 is correct : Supervisory Jurisdiction of the High Court extends to not only judicial but also in administrative matters like paying wages to court employees.
   Statement 3 is incorrect : Article 226 of the Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs for the enforcement of the rights of the citizens and for any other purpose. The high court can issue writs not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.

   Unattempted
   

   Supervisory Jurisdiction is a special power enjoyed by the High Court.
   Statement 1 is correct : It extends to all courts that lie within the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court. It is to be noted that it does not extend to military courts.
   Statement 2 is correct : Supervisory Jurisdiction of the High Court extends to not only judicial but also in administrative matters like paying wages to court employees.
   Statement 3 is incorrect : Article 226 of the Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs for the enforcement of the rights of the citizens and for any other purpose. The high court can issue writs not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.
7. Question 7 of 100

   7. Question

   Consider the following statement regarding NITI Aayog.
   (1) The aim of NITI Aayog is to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism in the country.
   (2) The Prime Minister of India is the ex officio Chairperson of the NITI Aayog.
   (3) Function of NITI Aayog to formulate credible plans at the village level.
   Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) None
   (D) All

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Full-time organizational framework composed of a Vice-Chairperson, 4 full-time members, 2 part-time members (from leading universities, research organizations and other relevant institutions in ex-officio capacity). There are 4 ex-officio members of the Union Council of Ministers, a Chief Executive Officer (with the rank of Secretary to the Government of India) who looks after administration, and a secretariat.
   Function : To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
   All Chief Ministers of States (Delhi and Puducherry), Lieutenant Governor of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and Special Invites are part of Governing Council of NITI Aayog.
   Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairman of the NITI Aayog in India. NITI Aayog is an executive body.
   NITI Aayog has been constituted to actualise the important goal of cooperative federalism and to enable good governance in India.
   All statements are correct.

   Unattempted
   

   Full-time organizational framework composed of a Vice-Chairperson, 4 full-time members, 2 part-time members (from leading universities, research organizations and other relevant institutions in ex-officio capacity). There are 4 ex-officio members of the Union Council of Ministers, a Chief Executive Officer (with the rank of Secretary to the Government of India) who looks after administration, and a secretariat.
   Function : To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
   All Chief Ministers of States (Delhi and Puducherry), Lieutenant Governor of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and Special Invites are part of Governing Council of NITI Aayog.
   Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairman of the NITI Aayog in India. NITI Aayog is an executive body.
   NITI Aayog has been constituted to actualise the important goal of cooperative federalism and to enable good governance in India.
   All statements are correct.
8. Question 8 of 100

   8. Question

   With reference to Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), consider the following statements:
   (1) The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendation of CJI.
   (2) Its establishment was recommended by the Sarkaria Commission.
   (3) CVC is a constitutional Body.
   (4) Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of sixty five years, whichever is earlier.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) Only three
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1 is incorrect : The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (Member).
   Statement 4 is incorrect : The term of office of the Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners is four years from the date on which they enter their office or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
   Statement 2 is incorrect : Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption1 (1962–64).
   Statement 3 is incorrect : Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1 is incorrect : The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (Member).
   Statement 4 is incorrect : The term of office of the Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners is four years from the date on which they enter their office or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
   Statement 2 is incorrect : Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption1 (1962–64).
   Statement 3 is incorrect : Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
9. Question 9 of 100

   9. Question

   With reference to Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), consider following statements:
   (1) Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) was established under Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
   (2) Appeal against any order of the CCPA may be filed before the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (A) Only 1
   (B) Only 2
   (C) Both 1 and 2
   (D) Neither 1 nor 2

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Statement 1 is Incorrect: The CCPA was constituted to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers under the Consumer Protection Act (CPA), 2019. CPA 2019 replaced the CPA 1986, and widen its scope in addressing consumer concerns.
   Statement 2 is Correct: Appeal against any order of the CCPA may be filed before the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission within a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of such order.

   Unattempted
   

   Statement 1 is Incorrect: The CCPA was constituted to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers under the Consumer Protection Act (CPA), 2019. CPA 2019 replaced the CPA 1986, and widen its scope in addressing consumer concerns.
   Statement 2 is Correct: Appeal against any order of the CCPA may be filed before the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission within a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of such order.
10. Question 10 of 100

    10. Question

    With respect to the legislature of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, consider the following statements ?
    (1) All the members of the assembly are directly elected by the people
    (2) The assembly can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List
    (3) The chief minister and other council of ministers is appointed by the President
    (4) The council of ministers headed by the chief minister aid and advise the Lieutenant governor
    (5) The strength of the council of ministers is fixed at fifteen per cent of the total strength of the assembly
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (B) 3, 4 only 5 only
    (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (D) 3 and 4 only

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The union territories are those areas under the central government's direct control and administration.
    Article 239A of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi shall be filled by members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the National Capital Territory.
    The election commission of India conducts the elections. All the members of the assembly are directly elected by the people. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Legislative Assembly shall have the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the NationalCapital Territory with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List or the Concurrent List.
    Article 239AA under the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi shall make laws on of the State List and the Concurrent List except the three matters of the State List: public order, police and land. But, the laws of Parliament prevail over those made by the Assembly.
    Therefore, the National Capital Territory of Delhi legislative assembly cannot make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List.So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    The Chief Minister is appointed by the President (not by the Lieutenant Governor), and the President also appoints the other Council of Ministers on the Chief Minister's advice. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the assembly.
    The council of ministers headed by the chief minister aid and advises the Lieutenant Governor in the exercise of his functions except in so far as he is required to act in his discretion. So, Statements 3 and 4 are correct.
    Article 239A of the Indian Constitution lays down that the strength of the Council of Ministers shall not be more than ten percent of the total number of members in the Assembly, and the Legislative Assembly's strength is fixed at 70 members.
    The strength of the council of ministers is not fixed at fifteen percent of the total strength of the assembly. So, Statement 5 is not correct.
    THE NATIONAL CAPITAL TERRITORY OF DELHI
    Union Territories
    Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories, and all the union territories belong to one category.
    There is no uniformity in the union territory's administrative system.
    Advisory Committees of Union Territories
    Under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961, the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for all matters of Union Territories relating to legislation, finance and budget, services and appointment of Lt. Governors and Administrators.
    All the Six Union Territories without legislature have the forum of the Home Minister's Advisory Committee (HMAC)/Administrator's Advisory Committee (AAC) of Home Minister's Advisory Committee (HMAC) is chaired by the union home minister, Administrator's Advisory Committee (AAC). The Administrator of the concerned UTs chairs it.
    The Member of Parliament and elected members from the local bodies.
    UNION TERRITORIES WITHOUT LEGISLATURE:
    Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    Chandigarh
    Dadra and Nagar Haveli
    Daman and Diu
    Lakshadweep
    Ladakh
    UNION TERRITORIES WITH LEGISLATURE:
    National Capital Territory of Delhi
    Puducherry
    Jammu and Kashmir

    Unattempted
    

    The union territories are those areas under the central government's direct control and administration.
    Article 239A of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi shall be filled by members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the National Capital Territory.
    The election commission of India conducts the elections. All the members of the assembly are directly elected by the people. So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Legislative Assembly shall have the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the NationalCapital Territory with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List or the Concurrent List.
    Article 239AA under the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi shall make laws on of the State List and the Concurrent List except the three matters of the State List: public order, police and land. But, the laws of Parliament prevail over those made by the Assembly.
    Therefore, the National Capital Territory of Delhi legislative assembly cannot make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List.So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    The Chief Minister is appointed by the President (not by the Lieutenant Governor), and the President also appoints the other Council of Ministers on the Chief Minister's advice. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the assembly.
    The council of ministers headed by the chief minister aid and advises the Lieutenant Governor in the exercise of his functions except in so far as he is required to act in his discretion. So, Statements 3 and 4 are correct.
    Article 239A of the Indian Constitution lays down that the strength of the Council of Ministers shall not be more than ten percent of the total number of members in the Assembly, and the Legislative Assembly's strength is fixed at 70 members.
    The strength of the council of ministers is not fixed at fifteen percent of the total strength of the assembly. So, Statement 5 is not correct.
    THE NATIONAL CAPITAL TERRITORY OF DELHI
    Union Territories
    Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories, and all the union territories belong to one category.
    There is no uniformity in the union territory's administrative system.
    Advisory Committees of Union Territories
    Under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961, the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for all matters of Union Territories relating to legislation, finance and budget, services and appointment of Lt. Governors and Administrators.
    All the Six Union Territories without legislature have the forum of the Home Minister's Advisory Committee (HMAC)/Administrator's Advisory Committee (AAC) of Home Minister's Advisory Committee (HMAC) is chaired by the union home minister, Administrator's Advisory Committee (AAC). The Administrator of the concerned UTs chairs it.
    The Member of Parliament and elected members from the local bodies.
    UNION TERRITORIES WITHOUT LEGISLATURE:
    Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    Chandigarh
    Dadra and Nagar Haveli
    Daman and Diu
    Lakshadweep
    Ladakh
    UNION TERRITORIES WITH LEGISLATURE:
    National Capital Territory of Delhi
    Puducherry
    Jammu and Kashmir
11. Question 11 of 100

    11. Question

    With reference to the chief minister, consider the following statements:
    (1) A person who is not a member of the state legislature cannot be appointed as Chief Minister.
    (2) The governor appoints only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor. In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister. But, when no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. In such a situation, the governor usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the assembly as the Chief Minister and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
    Statement 1 is incorrect : A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for six months, within which time, he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be the Chief Minister.
    Statement 2 is correct : The governor appoints only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister. Chief Minister allocates and reshuffles the portfolios among ministers. He can ask a minister to resign or advise the governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion. He presides over the meetings of the council of ministers and influences its decisions. He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the ministers. He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office. Since the Chief Minister is the head of the council of ministers, his resignation or death automatically dissolves the council of ministers.

    Unattempted
    

    The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor. In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister. But, when no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. In such a situation, the governor usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the assembly as the Chief Minister and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
    Statement 1 is incorrect : A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for six months, within which time, he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be the Chief Minister.
    Statement 2 is correct : The governor appoints only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister. Chief Minister allocates and reshuffles the portfolios among ministers. He can ask a minister to resign or advise the governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion. He presides over the meetings of the council of ministers and influences its decisions. He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the ministers. He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office. Since the Chief Minister is the head of the council of ministers, his resignation or death automatically dissolves the council of ministers.
12. Question 12 of 100

    12. Question

    Which of the following was/were the reason(s) for non-inclusion of the provisions of Local Self Government in the original constitution?
    (1) Extreme localism was seen as a threat to the unity and integration of nation.
    (2) Caste- ridden nature of rural society could defeat the sole purpose of local self-government at rural level.
    Select the answer from the codes given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A few reasons for the non-inclusion of the detailed provisions of Local Self Government in the original constitution can be advanced here as:-
    Firstly, the turmoil due to the Partition resulted in a strong unitary inclination in the Constitution. Pt. Nehru himself looked upon extreme localism as a threat to unity and integration of the nation. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
    Secondly, there was a powerful voice in the Constituent Assembly led by Dr B.R. Ambedkar which felt that the faction and caste-ridden nature of rural society would defeat the noble purpose of local government at the rural level.Thus, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A few reasons for the non-inclusion of the detailed provisions of Local Self Government in the original constitution can be advanced here as:-
    Firstly, the turmoil due to the Partition resulted in a strong unitary inclination in the Constitution. Pt. Nehru himself looked upon extreme localism as a threat to unity and integration of the nation. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
    Secondly, there was a powerful voice in the Constituent Assembly led by Dr B.R. Ambedkar which felt that the faction and caste-ridden nature of rural society would defeat the noble purpose of local government at the rural level.Thus, statement 2 is correct.
13. Question 13 of 100

    13. Question

    Which of the following statements are correct?
    (1) Lord Bentinck took the initiative of creating the elected local government bodies.
    (2) Following the Government of India Act, 1919, the Village Panchayats were established in a number of provinces.
    (3) The Community Development Programme, 1952, sought to promote people”s participation in local development in a range of activities.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : In modern times, the elected local government bodies were created after 1882. Lord Ripon, who was the Viceroy of India at that time, took the initiative in creating these bodies. They were called the “Local Boards”. However, due to slow progress in this regard, the Indian National Congress urged the government to take necessary steps to make all local bodies more effective.
    Statement 2 is correct : Following the Government of India Act, 1919, the Village Panchayats were established in a number of provinces. This trend continued after the Government of India Act of 1935.
    Statement 3 is correct : Local governments got a fillip after the 73rd and the 74th Constitution Amendment Acts. But even before that, some efforts in the direction of developing local government bodies had already taken place. First in the line was the Community Development Programme in 1952, which sought to promote people”s participation in local development in a range of activities. In this background, a three-tier Panchayati Raj system of local government was recommended for the rural areas.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : In modern times, the elected local government bodies were created after 1882. Lord Ripon, who was the Viceroy of India at that time, took the initiative in creating these bodies. They were called the “Local Boards”. However, due to slow progress in this regard, the Indian National Congress urged the government to take necessary steps to make all local bodies more effective.
    Statement 2 is correct : Following the Government of India Act, 1919, the Village Panchayats were established in a number of provinces. This trend continued after the Government of India Act of 1935.
    Statement 3 is correct : Local governments got a fillip after the 73rd and the 74th Constitution Amendment Acts. But even before that, some efforts in the direction of developing local government bodies had already taken place. First in the line was the Community Development Programme in 1952, which sought to promote people”s participation in local development in a range of activities. In this background, a three-tier Panchayati Raj system of local government was recommended for the rural areas.
14. Question 14 of 100

    14. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Menstrual Health:
    (1) More than 50% of girls in India are aware of menstruation before menarche.
    (2) As per NFHS 5, Uttar Pradesh is the only state, in which less than 60 percent of women use period products.
    (3) Recently, Scotland has become the first nation in the world to legally protect the right to access free period products.
    Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    As per the UNICEF study, only 13 percent of girls in India are aware of menstruation before menarche. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
    As per NFHS 5, Bihar is the only state, in which less than 60 percent of women use period products. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Recently, Scotland has become the first nation in the world to legally protect the right to access free period products. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    As per the UNICEF study, only 13 percent of girls in India are aware of menstruation before menarche. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
    As per NFHS 5, Bihar is the only state, in which less than 60 percent of women use period products. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Recently, Scotland has become the first nation in the world to legally protect the right to access free period products. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
15. Question 15 of 100

    15. Question

    Consider the following pairs:
    Buddhist sites Locations in the State/ UT of
    (1) Thiksey Monastery Arunachal Pradesh
    (2) Pemayangtse Monastery Ladakh
    (3) Bharatpur Monastery Complex West Bengal
    (4) Dhamekh Stupa Uttar Pradesh
    How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
    (A) Only one pair
    (B) Only two pairs
    (C) Only three pairs
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Thiksey Monastery is a gompa affiliated with the Gelug sect of Tibetan Buddhism. It is located on the top of a hill in Thiksey in the Ladakh Union Territory.
    Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Pemayangtse Monastery is a Buddhist monastery in Sikkim state located 110 km west of Gangtok. Designed and founded by Lama Lhatsun Chempo in 1647. It is one of the oldest and premier monasteries of Sikkim.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched: Buddhist monastery complex has been recently excavated at Bharatpur in West Bengal alongside early village settlements from the chalcolithic age.
    Pair 4 is correctly matched: Dhamek Stupa is a massive stupa located at the archaeological site of Sarnath in the state of UP. It marks the precise location where the Buddha preached his first discourse to his first five disciples, and where all five eventually became fully liberated.

    Unattempted
    

    Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Thiksey Monastery is a gompa affiliated with the Gelug sect of Tibetan Buddhism. It is located on the top of a hill in Thiksey in the Ladakh Union Territory.
    Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Pemayangtse Monastery is a Buddhist monastery in Sikkim state located 110 km west of Gangtok. Designed and founded by Lama Lhatsun Chempo in 1647. It is one of the oldest and premier monasteries of Sikkim.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched: Buddhist monastery complex has been recently excavated at Bharatpur in West Bengal alongside early village settlements from the chalcolithic age.
    Pair 4 is correctly matched: Dhamek Stupa is a massive stupa located at the archaeological site of Sarnath in the state of UP. It marks the precise location where the Buddha preached his first discourse to his first five disciples, and where all five eventually became fully liberated.
16. Question 16 of 100

    16. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) India is the third largest producer of electricity in the world.
    (2) India is the largest consumer of electricity in the world.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    India is the third-largest producer and consumer of electricity worldwide, with an installed power capacity of 408.71 GW as of October 31, 2022. So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    India is the third-largest producer and consumer of electricity worldwide, with an installed power capacity of 408.71 GW as of October 31, 2022. So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
17. Question 17 of 100

    17. Question

    Consider the following statement about Gender Inequality Index (GII).
    (1) The GII is a composite measure, reflecting inequality in achievements between women and men in three dimensions: reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market.
    (2) The GII varies between 1 (when women and men fare equally) and 0 (when men or women fare poorly compared to the other in all dimensions).
    Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The gender inequality index (GII) provides insights into gender disparities in health, empowerment and the labour market. Unlike the human development index (HDI), however, higher values in the GII indicate worse achievements.
    The GII is a composite measure, reflecting inequality in achievements between women and men in three dimensions: reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market. (Hence option 1 is correct).
    The GII varies between 0 (when women and men fare equally) and 1 (when men or women fare poorly compared to the other in all dimensions). It is designed to reveal the extent to which national human development achievements are eroded by gender inequality and to provide empirical foundations for policy analysis and advocacy efforts. (Hence option 2 is incorrect).

    Unattempted
    

    The gender inequality index (GII) provides insights into gender disparities in health, empowerment and the labour market. Unlike the human development index (HDI), however, higher values in the GII indicate worse achievements.
    The GII is a composite measure, reflecting inequality in achievements between women and men in three dimensions: reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market. (Hence option 1 is correct).
    The GII varies between 0 (when women and men fare equally) and 1 (when men or women fare poorly compared to the other in all dimensions). It is designed to reveal the extent to which national human development achievements are eroded by gender inequality and to provide empirical foundations for policy analysis and advocacy efforts. (Hence option 2 is incorrect).
18. Question 18 of 100

    18. Question

    With reference to the Polar vortex, consider the following statements:
    (1) The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.
    (2) Polar vortex always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.
    (3) The polar vortex is held in place by the Earth’s rotation and temperature differences between the Arctic and mid-latitudes.
    Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Chilly weather in Asia is due to the Polar vortex that brought extreme cold to the US last month.
    Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct: The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.
    • The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.
    • It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.
    • The polar vortex is held in place by the Earth’s rotation and temperature differences between the Arctic and mid-latitudes.
    When those variations in temperatures grow, the polar vortex can shift south.
    This happens naturally, but scientists think that as the planet warms, shifts in the polar vortex are likely to become more frequent and pronounced.

    Unattempted
    

    Chilly weather in Asia is due to the Polar vortex that brought extreme cold to the US last month.
    Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct: The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.
    • The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.
    • It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.
    • The polar vortex is held in place by the Earth’s rotation and temperature differences between the Arctic and mid-latitudes.
    When those variations in temperatures grow, the polar vortex can shift south.
    This happens naturally, but scientists think that as the planet warms, shifts in the polar vortex are likely to become more frequent and pronounced.
19. Question 19 of 100

    19. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Narmada river flows through Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat only.
    (2) The Lameta Formation is found in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct because Narmada River traverses through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat and meets the Gulf of Cambay.
    Statement 2 is correct: The Lameta Formation, also known as the Infratrappean Beds, is a sedimentary geological formation found in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra associated with the Deccan Traps

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct because Narmada River traverses through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat and meets the Gulf of Cambay.
    Statement 2 is correct: The Lameta Formation, also known as the Infratrappean Beds, is a sedimentary geological formation found in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra associated with the Deccan Traps
20. Question 20 of 100

    20. Question

    Arrange the following water bodies from North to South direction.
    (1) Pangong Tso
    (2) Hanle
    (3) Tsokar
    (4) Tso Moriri
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    (A) 1-3-4-2
    (B) 3-2-1-4
    (C) 2-4-1-3
    (D) 4-1-2-3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the district administration of Ladakh designated six hamlets within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary as a dark-sky reserve.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the district administration of Ladakh designated six hamlets within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary as a dark-sky reserve.
21. Question 21 of 100

    21. Question

    Which of the statements are correct about the Supreme Court “s power to review legislations on the ground that they-
    (1) Violate Fundamental Rights
    (2) Violate Directive Principles of State Policy
    (3) Violate the Federal Distribution of Powers
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Constitution provides two ways in which the Supreme Court can remedy theviolation of rights. First it can restore fundamental rights by issuing writs of Habeas Corpus; mandamus etc. (article 32). The High Court”s also having the power to issue such writs (article 226). Secondly, the Supreme Court can declare the concerned law as unconstitutional and therefore non-operational (article 13).
    Statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect : The review power of the Supreme Court includes power to review legislations on the ground that they violate fundamental rights or on the ground that they violate the federal distribution of powers. The review power extends to the laws passed by State legislatures also. But it does not include the violation of Directive Principles of State Policy.

    Unattempted
    

    The Constitution provides two ways in which the Supreme Court can remedy theviolation of rights. First it can restore fundamental rights by issuing writs of Habeas Corpus; mandamus etc. (article 32). The High Court”s also having the power to issue such writs (article 226). Secondly, the Supreme Court can declare the concerned law as unconstitutional and therefore non-operational (article 13).
    Statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect : The review power of the Supreme Court includes power to review legislations on the ground that they violate fundamental rights or on the ground that they violate the federal distribution of powers. The review power extends to the laws passed by State legislatures also. But it does not include the violation of Directive Principles of State Policy.
22. Question 22 of 100

    22. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The Chairman of the UPSC can be removed from office by the President only.
    (2) The Constitution has given the power to decide the strength of UPSC to the Parliament.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.
    The chairman or a member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the ground mentioned in the Constitution.
    Therefore, they enjoy security of tenure.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. Usually, the Commission consists of nine to eleven members including the chairman.
    The President may by order remove from office the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission if the Chairman or such other member, as the case may be, –
    (1) is adjudged an insolvent; or
    (2) engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
    (3) is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
    Article-323 – Reports of Public Service Commissions
    It shall be the duty of the Union Public Service Commission to present annually to the President a report as to the work done by the Commission and on receipt of such report the President shall cause a copy thereof together with a memorandum explaining, as respects the cases, if any, where the advice of the Commission was not accepted, the reasons for such non-acceptance to be laid before each House of Parliament.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.
    The chairman or a member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the ground mentioned in the Constitution.
    Therefore, they enjoy security of tenure.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. Usually, the Commission consists of nine to eleven members including the chairman.
    The President may by order remove from office the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission if the Chairman or such other member, as the case may be, –
    (1) is adjudged an insolvent; or
    (2) engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
    (3) is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
    Article-323 – Reports of Public Service Commissions
    It shall be the duty of the Union Public Service Commission to present annually to the President a report as to the work done by the Commission and on receipt of such report the President shall cause a copy thereof together with a memorandum explaining, as respects the cases, if any, where the advice of the Commission was not accepted, the reasons for such non-acceptance to be laid before each House of Parliament.
23. Question 23 of 100

    23. Question

    Select the correct chronological order of the following events:
    (1) Lowering of Voting Age from 21 to 18 years.
    (2) Constitutional recognition to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
    (3) Kihoto Hollohon case.
    (4) Setting up of Sarkaria Commission.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (A) 1-4-2-3
    (B) 4-1-3-2
    (C) 1-4-3-2
    (D) 4-1-2-3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement D is correct:
    • Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983.
    • Lowering of voting age from 21 to 18 years occurred in the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989 for both the Parliament and the State Legislative Assembly elections.
    • 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 accorded the Constitutional status and protection to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
    • Kihoto Hollohon case or the Anti defection case occurred in 1993. Hence, the correct sequence is 4-1-2-3.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement D is correct:
    • Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983.
    • Lowering of voting age from 21 to 18 years occurred in the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989 for both the Parliament and the State Legislative Assembly elections.
    • 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 accorded the Constitutional status and protection to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
    • Kihoto Hollohon case or the Anti defection case occurred in 1993. Hence, the correct sequence is 4-1-2-3.
24. Question 24 of 100

    24. Question

    Consider the following statements with regarding to the Qualifications for Membership of the State Legislature.
    (1) He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the Election Commission.
    (2) To be elected to Legislative Council, he must be an elector for the assembly constituency in that state.
    (3) To be elected to the Legislative Assembly, must be an elector for the assembly constituency in that state.
    Choose the incorrect statements
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    QUALIFICATION ACCORDING TO THE CONSTITUTION:
    a.He must be a Citizen of India.
    b.Make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the Election Commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    c.Age: Not less than 30 years for Legi. Council Not less than 25 years for Legislative Assembly.
    d.Must possess other qualifications prescribed by the Parliament.
    QUALIFICATION ACCORDING TO RPA 1951 (BY PARLIAMENT):
    a.To be elected to Legislative Council, he must be an elector for the assembly constituency in that state & to be nominated by the governor, must be a resident that state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    b.To be elected to the Legislative Assembly, must be an elector for the assembly constituency in that state. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    c.He must be a member of SC/ST if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, SC/ST member can contest a seat not reserved for them.

    Unattempted
    

    QUALIFICATION ACCORDING TO THE CONSTITUTION:
    a.He must be a Citizen of India.
    b.Make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the Election Commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    c.Age: Not less than 30 years for Legi. Council Not less than 25 years for Legislative Assembly.
    d.Must possess other qualifications prescribed by the Parliament.
    QUALIFICATION ACCORDING TO RPA 1951 (BY PARLIAMENT):
    a.To be elected to Legislative Council, he must be an elector for the assembly constituency in that state & to be nominated by the governor, must be a resident that state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    b.To be elected to the Legislative Assembly, must be an elector for the assembly constituency in that state. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    c.He must be a member of SC/ST if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, SC/ST member can contest a seat not reserved for them.
25. Question 25 of 100

    25. Question

    Consider the following pairs :
    Emergency Period of Approval by Parliament
    (1) Article 352 – within 2 months
    (2) Article 356 – within 1 month
    (3) Article 360 – within 2 months
    How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
    (A) Only one pair
    (B) Only two pairs
    (C) All three pairs
    (D) None of the pairs

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The constitution of India provides the President with extraordinary powers to deal with certain abnormal situations to protect the country's security, integrity and stability.
    There are three types of emergencies that the President of India can proclaim on the written advice of the Union Cabinet.
    National Emergency under Article 352.
    The proclamation of national Emergency has to be approved by both the Houses of Parliament by an absolute majority of the Houses
    The Emergency proclamation must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from its issue date with 2/3 majority of members present and voting, or else the proclamation ceases to operate.
    Emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State under Article 356:
    The proclamation of Emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State under Article 356 must also be placed before both the Houses of Parliament for approval.
    And the Period of Approval by Parliament must be within two months; otherwise, the proclamation ceases to operate.
    If the Parliament approves, the emergency proclamation remains valid for six months and can be extended for another six months but not beyond one year. However, an Emergency in a state can be extended beyond one year if
    (A) a National Emergency is already in operation; or if
    (B) the Election Commission certifies that the election to the State Assembly cannot be held.
    Financial Emergency by Article 360.
    The Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months.
    Financial Emergency can operate as long as the situation demands and may be revoked by a subsequent proclamation.

    Unattempted
    

    The constitution of India provides the President with extraordinary powers to deal with certain abnormal situations to protect the country's security, integrity and stability.
    There are three types of emergencies that the President of India can proclaim on the written advice of the Union Cabinet.
    National Emergency under Article 352.
    The proclamation of national Emergency has to be approved by both the Houses of Parliament by an absolute majority of the Houses
    The Emergency proclamation must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from its issue date with 2/3 majority of members present and voting, or else the proclamation ceases to operate.
    Emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State under Article 356:
    The proclamation of Emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State under Article 356 must also be placed before both the Houses of Parliament for approval.
    And the Period of Approval by Parliament must be within two months; otherwise, the proclamation ceases to operate.
    If the Parliament approves, the emergency proclamation remains valid for six months and can be extended for another six months but not beyond one year. However, an Emergency in a state can be extended beyond one year if
    (A) a National Emergency is already in operation; or if
    (B) the Election Commission certifies that the election to the State Assembly cannot be held.
    Financial Emergency by Article 360.
    The Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months.
    Financial Emergency can operate as long as the situation demands and may be revoked by a subsequent proclamation.
26. Question 26 of 100

    26. Question

    Which of the following functions is/are performed by the Election Commission?
    (1) Prepare and periodically revise electoral rolls.
    (2) Advise the President on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament.
    (3) Act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) None
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Some of the powers and functions of the Election Commission are:
    o To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country on the basis of the Delimitation Commission Act of Parliament.
    o To prepare and periodically revise electoral rolls and to register all eligible voters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    o To notify the dates and schedules of elections and to scrutinise nomination papers.
    o To grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them.
    o To act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    o To appoint officers for inquiring into disputes relating to electoral arrangements.
    o To determine the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of elections.
    o To prepare a roster for publicity of the policies of the political parties on radio and TV in times of elections.
    o To advise the President on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    o To advise the Governor on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of state legislature.
    o To cancel polls in the event of rigging, booth capturing, violence and other irregularities.
    o To request the President or the Governor for requisitioning the staff necessary for conducting elections.
    To supervise the machinery of elections throughout the country to ensure free and fair elections.
    To advise the president whether elections can be held in a state under president”s rule in order to extend the period of emergency after one year.
    To register political parties for the purpose of elections and grant them the status of national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance.

    Unattempted
    

    Some of the powers and functions of the Election Commission are:
    o To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country on the basis of the Delimitation Commission Act of Parliament.
    o To prepare and periodically revise electoral rolls and to register all eligible voters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    o To notify the dates and schedules of elections and to scrutinise nomination papers.
    o To grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them.
    o To act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    o To appoint officers for inquiring into disputes relating to electoral arrangements.
    o To determine the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of elections.
    o To prepare a roster for publicity of the policies of the political parties on radio and TV in times of elections.
    o To advise the President on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    o To advise the Governor on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of state legislature.
    o To cancel polls in the event of rigging, booth capturing, violence and other irregularities.
    o To request the President or the Governor for requisitioning the staff necessary for conducting elections.
    To supervise the machinery of elections throughout the country to ensure free and fair elections.
    To advise the president whether elections can be held in a state under president”s rule in order to extend the period of emergency after one year.
    To register political parties for the purpose of elections and grant them the status of national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance.
27. Question 27 of 100

    27. Question

    A Bill passed by the Legislature can be reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President if
    (1) It is against the provision of the Constitution.
    (2) It opposes the Directive Principle of State Policy.
    (3) It is against the larger interest of the country.
    Select the incorrect answer using the codes given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) None
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Governor can reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President if it is of the following nature:
    • Statement 1 is correct : Ultra-vires, that is, against the provision of the Constitution.
    • Statement 2 is correct : Opposed to the Directive Principle of State Policy.
    • Statement 3 is correct : Against the larger interest of the country.
    • Of grave national importance.
    • Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
    In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the Bill passed by the Legislature endangers the position of the state High Court.

    Unattempted
    

    The Governor can reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President if it is of the following nature:
    • Statement 1 is correct : Ultra-vires, that is, against the provision of the Constitution.
    • Statement 2 is correct : Opposed to the Directive Principle of State Policy.
    • Statement 3 is correct : Against the larger interest of the country.
    • Of grave national importance.
    • Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
    In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the Bill passed by the Legislature endangers the position of the state High Court.
28. Question 28 of 100

    28. Question

    Which among the following come within the exclusive jurisdiction of State Governments?
    (1) Police
    (2) Public Order
    (3) Criminal Procedure
    (4) Sales Tax
    Select the incorrect answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In our constitutional scheme, sales tax, police and public order comes within the exclusive jurisdiction of State Governments. The Union Government helps by providing the necessary legal framework and also by providing armed and para-military forces of the Union whenever required. Hence, options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
    Criminal procedure, including all matters included in the Code of Criminal Procedure at the commencement of this Constitution is not the exclusive jurisdiction of State governments. It falls in the concurrent list, thus both Centre and State can legislate on it. Hence, option 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    In our constitutional scheme, sales tax, police and public order comes within the exclusive jurisdiction of State Governments. The Union Government helps by providing the necessary legal framework and also by providing armed and para-military forces of the Union whenever required. Hence, options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
    Criminal procedure, including all matters included in the Code of Criminal Procedure at the commencement of this Constitution is not the exclusive jurisdiction of State governments. It falls in the concurrent list, thus both Centre and State can legislate on it. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
29. Question 29 of 100

    29. Question

    The Indian constitution provides for the establishment of a ‘Tribal advisory Council’ in certain states. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in this regard ?
    (1) A Tribal member of the legislative assembly of the concerned state can be part of the council
    (2) The council provides advice to the Governor on matters relating to welfare and advancement of Scheduled Tribes in the State
    (3) The rules related to the council can be prescribed and regulated by the Governor
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2 and 3

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Fifth schedule of the Indian constitution provides for the establishment of a Tribes Advisory Council in each state having Scheduled Areas, and the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas. The Council shall consist not more than 20 members; three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State.So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Part B of Fifth Schedule of Indian constitution which provides for the establishment of Tribes Advisory Council states that it shall be the duty of the Council to advise on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Governor. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    Governor can make rules related to the council that can be prescribed and regulated for the better management of peace and good governance.
    The Governor may make rules prescribing or regulating:
    The number of members of the Council, the mode of their appointment and the appointment of the Chairman of the Council and of the officers and servants.
    The conduct of its meetings and its procedure in general.
    All other incidental matters. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    TRIBES ADVISORY COUNCIL
    About
    Each state having Scheduled Areas and if the President so directs, any state having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas can establish a Tribes Advisory Council.
    Each Tribes Advisory Council consists not more than 20 members of whom, 3/4th shall be representatives of the Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Legislative Assembly of the state.
    If the number of representatives of the STs in the state is less than the number of seats in the council, the remaining seats shall be filled by other members of those tribes.
    Accordingly, Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) has been constituted in 10(Ten) states having Scheduled Areas therein, namely Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan. Further, the States of West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Uttarakhand, not having any notified Scheduled Area, also have Tribes Advisory Council constituted therein. Accordingly, there is no State (mandated to establish TAC) which have not constituted TAC.

    Unattempted
    

    The Fifth schedule of the Indian constitution provides for the establishment of a Tribes Advisory Council in each state having Scheduled Areas, and the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas. The Council shall consist not more than 20 members; three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State.So, Statement 1 is correct.
    The Part B of Fifth Schedule of Indian constitution which provides for the establishment of Tribes Advisory Council states that it shall be the duty of the Council to advise on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Governor. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    Governor can make rules related to the council that can be prescribed and regulated for the better management of peace and good governance.
    The Governor may make rules prescribing or regulating:
    The number of members of the Council, the mode of their appointment and the appointment of the Chairman of the Council and of the officers and servants.
    The conduct of its meetings and its procedure in general.
    All other incidental matters. So, Statement 3 is correct.
    TRIBES ADVISORY COUNCIL
    About
    Each state having Scheduled Areas and if the President so directs, any state having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas can establish a Tribes Advisory Council.
    Each Tribes Advisory Council consists not more than 20 members of whom, 3/4th shall be representatives of the Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Legislative Assembly of the state.
    If the number of representatives of the STs in the state is less than the number of seats in the council, the remaining seats shall be filled by other members of those tribes.
    Accordingly, Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) has been constituted in 10(Ten) states having Scheduled Areas therein, namely Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan. Further, the States of West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Uttarakhand, not having any notified Scheduled Area, also have Tribes Advisory Council constituted therein. Accordingly, there is no State (mandated to establish TAC) which have not constituted TAC.
30. Question 30 of 100

    30. Question

    With reference to “Constitutional Discretion” accorded to Governor, Consider following statements:
    (1) Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
    (2) Reserving bills for the consideration of the President
    (3) Appointing a Chief Minister if no single party has secured a majority in the state election
    Select the incorrect answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The governor has constitutional discretion in the following cases: Art 163(1) of the Constitution empowers the Governor to act in his discretion on certain matters.
    (1) Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President.
    (2) Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
    (3) While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge).
    (4) Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration.
    (5) Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state.
    Situational Discretion of the Governor
    The Governors of states can act at their situational discretion in the following instances:
    (1) When he has to appoint a Chief Minister after no party has a clear majority in the election or when the incumbent dies in the office.
    (2) When he dismisses the council of ministers on an inability to prove confidence in the state legislative assembly.
    (3) When he dissolves the state legislative assembly on time when it loses its majority.
    Statement 1 & 2 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The governor has constitutional discretion in the following cases: Art 163(1) of the Constitution empowers the Governor to act in his discretion on certain matters.
    (1) Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President.
    (2) Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
    (3) While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge).
    (4) Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration.
    (5) Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state.
    Situational Discretion of the Governor
    The Governors of states can act at their situational discretion in the following instances:
    (1) When he has to appoint a Chief Minister after no party has a clear majority in the election or when the incumbent dies in the office.
    (2) When he dismisses the council of ministers on an inability to prove confidence in the state legislative assembly.
    (3) When he dissolves the state legislative assembly on time when it loses its majority.
    Statement 1 & 2 are correct.
31. Question 31 of 100

    31. Question

    Which of the following are roles performed by the High Court in India?
    (1) Determining the Constitutional validity of any legislation or action of the executive in the country.
    (2) Giving judgments and directives to protect public interest and human rights throughout India.
    Which of the above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Supreme Court and the High Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution of the country. They can declare invalid any law of the legislature or the actions of the executive, whether at the Union level or at the state level, if they find such a law or action is against the Constitution. This is known as the judicial review. So, statement 1 is correct.
    The powers and the independence of the Indian judiciary allow it to act as the guardian of the Fundamental Rights. In recent years the Courts have given several judgments and directives to protect public interest and human rights. Anyone can approach the courts if public interest is hurt by the actions of government. This is called public interest litigation. The courts intervene to prevent the misuse of the government”s power to make decisions. They check malpractices on the part of public officials. So, statement 2 is also correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Supreme Court and the High Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution of the country. They can declare invalid any law of the legislature or the actions of the executive, whether at the Union level or at the state level, if they find such a law or action is against the Constitution. This is known as the judicial review. So, statement 1 is correct.
    The powers and the independence of the Indian judiciary allow it to act as the guardian of the Fundamental Rights. In recent years the Courts have given several judgments and directives to protect public interest and human rights. Anyone can approach the courts if public interest is hurt by the actions of government. This is called public interest litigation. The courts intervene to prevent the misuse of the government”s power to make decisions. They check malpractices on the part of public officials. So, statement 2 is also correct.
32. Question 32 of 100

    32. Question

    Which of the following statement are correct about National Human Rights Commission.
    (1) The Commission is independent of the government.
    (2) It is a constitutional authority.
    (3) Its recommendations are binding on the courts but not government.
    (4) There is no fee to approach the NHRC.
    (A) Only two
    (B) Only three
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The NHRC cannot by itself punish the guilty. That is the responsibility of courts.
    The NHRC is there to make independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of human rights. Thus, its recommendations are not binding on neither the courts not the government. Statement 3 is incorrect.
    The commission has been established by law as autonomous of the government, and not by the constitution, so statement 2 is incorrect, and 1 is correct.
    Any citizen of India can write a letter to the NHRC to complain against the violation of human rights. There is no fee or any formal procedure to approach the NHRC. So, statement 4 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The NHRC cannot by itself punish the guilty. That is the responsibility of courts.
    The NHRC is there to make independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of human rights. Thus, its recommendations are not binding on neither the courts not the government. Statement 3 is incorrect.
    The commission has been established by law as autonomous of the government, and not by the constitution, so statement 2 is incorrect, and 1 is correct.
    Any citizen of India can write a letter to the NHRC to complain against the violation of human rights. There is no fee or any formal procedure to approach the NHRC. So, statement 4 is correct.
33. Question 33 of 100

    33. Question

    Which schedule of the constitution of India contains provisions concerning the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya,Tripura and Mizoram.
    (A) Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
    (B) Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
    (C) Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
    (D) Ninth Schedule of the Constitution

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India contains provisions concerning the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya,Tripura and Mizoram.
    It declares that the tribal areas in the North Cachar Hills District, the Karbi Anglong District, the Bodoland Territorial Area District, the Khasi Hills District, the Jaintia Hills District, the Garo Hills District and Tripura Tribal Areas District shall be an autonomous district.

    Unattempted
    

    The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India contains provisions concerning the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya,Tripura and Mizoram.
    It declares that the tribal areas in the North Cachar Hills District, the Karbi Anglong District, the Bodoland Territorial Area District, the Khasi Hills District, the Jaintia Hills District, the Garo Hills District and Tripura Tribal Areas District shall be an autonomous district.
34. Question 34 of 100

    34. Question

    Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Special Leave in the Supreme Court:
    (1) It is a right conferred to the Indian citizens by the Constitution.
    (2) It can be granted in both final and interlocutory judgements.
    (3) It can be granted against any court or tribunal of India.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). This provision contains the four aspects as under:
    (i) It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    (ii) It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    (iii) It may be related to any matter–constitutional, civil, criminal, income-tax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc.
    (iv) It can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court (except a military court). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). This provision contains the four aspects as under:
    (i) It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    (ii) It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    (iii) It may be related to any matter–constitutional, civil, criminal, income-tax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc.
    (iv) It can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court (except a military court). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
35. Question 35 of 100

    35. Question

    Consider the following statements :
    (1) The Constitution contains specific procedures for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
    (2) The Constitution mandates that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 or 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister
36. Question 36 of 100

    36. Question

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (1) The exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to federal dispute between two or more States.
    (2) The Supreme Court can give special orders in the form of writs.
    (3) The President of India is bound to accept the advice given by the Supreme Court.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Supreme Court of India is one of the very powerful courts anywhere in the world. However, it functions within the limitations imposed by the Constitution. The functions and responsibilities of the Supreme Court are defined by the Constitution. The Supreme Court has specific jurisdiction or scope of powers.
    Statement 2 is correct : The Supreme Court of India is the defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. For that, it has original and wide powers. It issues five kinds of writs for enforcing the fundamental rights of the citizens. The five types of writs are:
    Habeas Corpus
    Mandamus
    Prohibition
    Certiorari
    Quo-Warranto
    General Facts about Writs in India:
    Article 32 also empowers Parliament to authorize any other court to issue these writs.
    Before 1950, only the High Courts of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras had the power to issue the writs.
    Article 226 empowers all the High Courts of India to issue the writs.
    Writs of India are borrowed from English law where they are known as ‘Prerogative writs’.
    Statement 1 is correct : Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to all cases between the Government of India and the States of India or between the Government of India and states on one side and one or more states on the other side or cases between different states.

    Unattempted
    

    The Supreme Court of India is one of the very powerful courts anywhere in the world. However, it functions within the limitations imposed by the Constitution. The functions and responsibilities of the Supreme Court are defined by the Constitution. The Supreme Court has specific jurisdiction or scope of powers.
    Statement 2 is correct : The Supreme Court of India is the defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. For that, it has original and wide powers. It issues five kinds of writs for enforcing the fundamental rights of the citizens. The five types of writs are:
    Habeas Corpus
    Mandamus
    Prohibition
    Certiorari
    Quo-Warranto
    General Facts about Writs in India:
    Article 32 also empowers Parliament to authorize any other court to issue these writs.
    Before 1950, only the High Courts of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras had the power to issue the writs.
    Article 226 empowers all the High Courts of India to issue the writs.
    Writs of India are borrowed from English law where they are known as ‘Prerogative writs’.
    Statement 1 is correct : Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to all cases between the Government of India and the States of India or between the Government of India and states on one side and one or more states on the other side or cases between different states.
37. Question 37 of 100

    37. Question

    In which of the following bodies, does the Chief Minister of a State hold membership?
    (1) National Integration Council
    (2) GST Council
    (3) Inter-State Council
    (4) Zonal Council
    Select the incorrect answer from the codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The chief minister holds membership in the National Integration Council, National Development Council, Interstate Council and the Zonal Council.
    The members of the GST Council include the Union Finance Minister (chairperson), the Union Minister of State (Finance) from the Centre. Each state can nominate a minister in-charge of finance or taxation or any other minister as a member.
    Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The chief minister holds membership in the National Integration Council, National Development Council, Interstate Council and the Zonal Council.
    The members of the GST Council include the Union Finance Minister (chairperson), the Union Minister of State (Finance) from the Centre. Each state can nominate a minister in-charge of finance or taxation or any other minister as a member.
    Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
38. Question 38 of 100

    38. Question

    Consider the following statements about pardoning powers of Governor.
    (1) Pardon removes both the sentence and the conviction.
    (2) Remission means substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
    (3) Commutation means reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.
    (4) Reprieve implies a stay of the execution of a sentence.
    Choose the correct statements
    (A) only statement first is correct
    (B) Only statements first and second are correct.
    (C) Only two statements are correct
    (D) Only three statements are correct

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : Pardon: Removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : •Commutation: Substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : •Remission: Reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.
    •Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
    Statement 4 is correct : •Reprieve: Implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period.
    •It is an executive power independent of the Judiciary.
    •Power is to be exercised by the President/Governor on the advice of the Cabinet.
    •The President/Governor is not bound to give reasons for his order.
    •The exercise of power by the President/Governor is not subject to judicial review except where the presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : Pardon: Removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : •Commutation: Substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : •Remission: Reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.
    •Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
    Statement 4 is correct : •Reprieve: Implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period.
    •It is an executive power independent of the Judiciary.
    •Power is to be exercised by the President/Governor on the advice of the Cabinet.
    •The President/Governor is not bound to give reasons for his order.
    •The exercise of power by the President/Governor is not subject to judicial review except where the presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.
39. Question 39 of 100

    39. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are the Constitutional Discretion of Governor.
    (1) Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President.
    (2) Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
    (3) Determining the amount payable by the Government of Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur to an autonomous Tribal District Council.
    Choose the correct statements
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Constitutional Discretion of the Governor.
    Statement 1 is correct : Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President.
    Statement 2 is correct : Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
    oWhile exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge).
    Statement 3 is incorrect : Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council (6 th scheduled areas) as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration.
    Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state.

    Unattempted
    

    Constitutional Discretion of the Governor.
    Statement 1 is correct : Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President.
    Statement 2 is correct : Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
    oWhile exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge).
    Statement 3 is incorrect : Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council (6 th scheduled areas) as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration.
    Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state.
40. Question 40 of 100

    40. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Local Self Government:
    (1) The role and functions of Gram Sabha have been specified in the constitution.
    (2) The reservation of one-third of the seats for women is not merely in general category of seats but also within seats reserved for SCs, STs and OBCs.
    (3) Each state decides how many of the 29 subjects mentioned in the 11th schedule, would be transferred to the local bodies.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The 73rd amendment made a provision for the mandatory creation of the Gram Sabha. The Gram Sabha would comprise of all the adult members registered as voters in the Panchayat area. Its role and functions are decided by the State Legislature and are not specified in the constitution.
    Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Reservation of one-third of the seats for women is not merely in the general category of seats but also within the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and backward castes. This means that a seat may be reserved simultaneously for a woman candidate and one belonging to the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
    Twenty-nine subjects, which were earlier in the State list of subjects, are identified and listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. These subjects are to be transferred to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Each State decides how many of these twenty-nine subjects would be transferred to thelocal bodies. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The 73rd amendment made a provision for the mandatory creation of the Gram Sabha. The Gram Sabha would comprise of all the adult members registered as voters in the Panchayat area. Its role and functions are decided by the State Legislature and are not specified in the constitution.
    Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Reservation of one-third of the seats for women is not merely in the general category of seats but also within the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and backward castes. This means that a seat may be reserved simultaneously for a woman candidate and one belonging to the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
    Twenty-nine subjects, which were earlier in the State list of subjects, are identified and listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. These subjects are to be transferred to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Each State decides how many of these twenty-nine subjects would be transferred to thelocal bodies. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
41. Question 41 of 100

    41. Question

    Which of the following is correct in the context of individual privileges enjoyed by a member of State Legislature?
    (A) They are bound to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court even if the state legislature is in session.
    (B) They cannot be arrested during the session of the state legislature in both civil and criminal cases.
    (C) They can be arrested under a preventive detention case even if the state legislature is in session.
    (D) They are not provided freedom of speech and liable to proceeding in a court for opinions provided in committees of the state legislature.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement (A) is incorrect. Members of the state legislature are exempted from jury service.They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when the state legislature is in session.
    Statement (B) is incorrect. They can be arrested during the session of the state legislature in criminal cases. However, they cannot be arrested during the session of the state legislature and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of such session. This privilege is applicable only in civil cases.
    Statement (C) is correct. In preventive detention cases, the members of the state legislature do not enjoy any privilege. They can be arrested anytime even if the state legislature is in session.
    Statement (D) is incorrect. They have freedom of speech in the state legislature. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in the state legislature or its committees. This freedom is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of the state legislature.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement (A) is incorrect. Members of the state legislature are exempted from jury service.They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when the state legislature is in session.
    Statement (B) is incorrect. They can be arrested during the session of the state legislature in criminal cases. However, they cannot be arrested during the session of the state legislature and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of such session. This privilege is applicable only in civil cases.
    Statement (C) is correct. In preventive detention cases, the members of the state legislature do not enjoy any privilege. They can be arrested anytime even if the state legislature is in session.
    Statement (D) is incorrect. They have freedom of speech in the state legislature. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in the state legislature or its committees. This freedom is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of the state legislature.
42. Question 42 of 100

    42. Question

    Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) The Constitution confers immunity to the President and the Governors from criminal and civil cases during their term of office.
    (2) The Constitution prevents the appointment of the same person as the Governor for two or more states.
    (3) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Governor of the state.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not fully correct.
    As per Article 361 of the Indian Constitution, both the President and Governors enjoy certain immunities while in office:
    Criminal Immunity: Neither the President nor the Governor can be personally answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of their powers during their tenure. However, this does not mean that their conduct cannot be scrutinized. The Article clarifies that the conduct of the President may be reviewed by any court, tribunal, or body appointed or designated by either House of Parliament for investigating charges under Article 61.
    Civil Immunity: No criminal proceedings can be initiated or continued against the President or the Governor in any court during their term of office. Additionally, no court can issue arrest warrants for either of them. However, civil proceedings related to actions done by them in their personal capacity can proceed only after a prior notice of two months.
    In summary, while they are immune from legal actions during their term, this immunity is not absolute, and their conduct can still be examined through appropriate channels.
    The Governors of the States: There shall be a Governor for each state – (Provided that nothing in this Article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as the Governor for two or more States.)
    The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minster and the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor:
    Provided that in the states of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare, who may in addition, be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and the backward classes or any other work.
    The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the state.Heance, statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not fully correct.
    As per Article 361 of the Indian Constitution, both the President and Governors enjoy certain immunities while in office:
    Criminal Immunity: Neither the President nor the Governor can be personally answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of their powers during their tenure. However, this does not mean that their conduct cannot be scrutinized. The Article clarifies that the conduct of the President may be reviewed by any court, tribunal, or body appointed or designated by either House of Parliament for investigating charges under Article 61.
    Civil Immunity: No criminal proceedings can be initiated or continued against the President or the Governor in any court during their term of office. Additionally, no court can issue arrest warrants for either of them. However, civil proceedings related to actions done by them in their personal capacity can proceed only after a prior notice of two months.
    In summary, while they are immune from legal actions during their term, this immunity is not absolute, and their conduct can still be examined through appropriate channels.
    The Governors of the States: There shall be a Governor for each state – (Provided that nothing in this Article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as the Governor for two or more States.)
    The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minster and the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor:
    Provided that in the states of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare, who may in addition, be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and the backward classes or any other work.
    The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the state.Heance, statement 1 is correct.
43. Question 43 of 100

    43. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established by the Regulating Act of 1773.
    (2) The Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was outlined by the Pitt’s India Act.
    (3) The Federal Court was established as per the provisions of the Montagu Chelmsford reforms.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The important provisions of the Regulating Act, 1773 were:
    o Designated the Governor of Bengal as the Governor General of Bengal and provided with him the Executive Council of four members. Lord Warren Hastings was the first such Governor General.
    o Made the presidencies of Bombay and Madras entirely subordinate to the Governor-General of Bengal.
    o Provided for the establishment of the Supreme Court in Calcutta with Sir Elijah Imphey as the Chief Justice.
    o Increased the control of British Government over the Company.
    oProhibited the servants of the company from engaging in any private trade.
    The Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was specifically outlined bythe Amending Act of 1781. As per which the Supreme Court was to have jurisdiction over all the residents of Calcutta. Muslim subjects were to be tried with the Mohammedan law while the Hindu subjects were to be tried as per the Hindu law.
    ·The Federal Court was set up as per the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935 and not as per the Montagu Chelmsford Reforms (1919).

    Unattempted
    

    The important provisions of the Regulating Act, 1773 were:
    o Designated the Governor of Bengal as the Governor General of Bengal and provided with him the Executive Council of four members. Lord Warren Hastings was the first such Governor General.
    o Made the presidencies of Bombay and Madras entirely subordinate to the Governor-General of Bengal.
    o Provided for the establishment of the Supreme Court in Calcutta with Sir Elijah Imphey as the Chief Justice.
    o Increased the control of British Government over the Company.
    oProhibited the servants of the company from engaging in any private trade.
    The Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was specifically outlined bythe Amending Act of 1781. As per which the Supreme Court was to have jurisdiction over all the residents of Calcutta. Muslim subjects were to be tried with the Mohammedan law while the Hindu subjects were to be tried as per the Hindu law.
    ·The Federal Court was set up as per the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935 and not as per the Montagu Chelmsford Reforms (1919).
44. Question 44 of 100

    44. Question

    With reference to state council of ministers, consider the following statements:
    (1) When the legislative assembly passed a no-confidence motion against the council, all the ministers of the council have to resign including those belonging to Legislative Council too.
    (2) The council of ministers cannot advise the governor to dissolve the legislative assembly on any grounds.
    (3) The governor may not oblige the council of ministers which has already lost the confidence of the legislative assembly.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Collective Responsibility : The provision of collective responsibility is dealt with by Article 164. The Article mentions that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the state legislature. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the legislative assembly for all their acts of omission and commission.
    When the legislative assembly passed a no-confidence motion against the council, all the ministers of the council have to resign including those belonging to Legislative Council too.
    The council of ministers can advise the governor to dissolve the legislative assembly on the ground that the House does not represent the views of the electorate faithfully and call for fresh elections.
    The governor may not oblige the council of ministers which has lost the confidence of the legislative assembly.
    Only 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Collective Responsibility : The provision of collective responsibility is dealt with by Article 164. The Article mentions that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the state legislature. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the legislative assembly for all their acts of omission and commission.
    When the legislative assembly passed a no-confidence motion against the council, all the ministers of the council have to resign including those belonging to Legislative Council too.
    The council of ministers can advise the governor to dissolve the legislative assembly on the ground that the House does not represent the views of the electorate faithfully and call for fresh elections.
    The governor may not oblige the council of ministers which has lost the confidence of the legislative assembly.
    Only 1 and 3 are correct.
45. Question 45 of 100

    45. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding State Legislature.
    (1) There is no uniformity in the State Legislatures across various States in India.
    (2) Only 7 states have State Legislative Council.
    (3) A Money Bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council.
    (4) A State Legislative Council immediately comes into effect, after the resolution for the creation is passed by the Parliament.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    There is no uniformity in the organization of state legislatures. Most of the states have a unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system. Statement 1 is correct.
    At present (2023), only six states have two Houses (bicameral). These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka. The Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Council was abolished by the Parliament of India by the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect.
    The President has to make a notification, even after the Parliament passes the revolution. This is why the creation of a legislative Council for the State of Madhya Pradesh is still pending. Statement 4 is incorrect.
    A Money Bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council. The council cannot amend or reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the assembly within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations. Statement 3 is correct.
    The assembly can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendation of the council. In both the cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses. The final power to decide whether a particular bill is a money bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the assembly.
    Only statement 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    There is no uniformity in the organization of state legislatures. Most of the states have a unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system. Statement 1 is correct.
    At present (2023), only six states have two Houses (bicameral). These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka. The Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Council was abolished by the Parliament of India by the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect.
    The President has to make a notification, even after the Parliament passes the revolution. This is why the creation of a legislative Council for the State of Madhya Pradesh is still pending. Statement 4 is incorrect.
    A Money Bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council. The council cannot amend or reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the assembly within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations. Statement 3 is correct.
    The assembly can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendation of the council. In both the cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses. The final power to decide whether a particular bill is a money bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the assembly.
    Only statement 1 and 3 are correct.
46. Question 46 of 100

    46. Question

    Consider the following statements about State Council of Ministers:
    (1) The total number of ministers, other than Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers cannot be more than 15% of the total strength of the State legislative assembly.
    (2) The Governor can remove a minister only on the advice of the Chief Minister.
    (3) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act has made the advice of the Council of Ministers binding on the Governor.
    Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers is a state cannot be more than 15% of the total strength of the legislative assembly. This provision was added through the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
    Statement 2 is correct :Article 164 provides for the principle of individual responsibility of a minister. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasures of the Governor. But the Governor can remove a minister only on the advice of the Chief Minister.
    Statement 3 is incorrect :The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 has made ministerial advice binding on the President but no such provision has been made with respect to the Governor.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers is a state cannot be more than 15% of the total strength of the legislative assembly. This provision was added through the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
    Statement 2 is correct :Article 164 provides for the principle of individual responsibility of a minister. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasures of the Governor. But the Governor can remove a minister only on the advice of the Chief Minister.
    Statement 3 is incorrect :The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 has made ministerial advice binding on the President but no such provision has been made with respect to the Governor.
47. Question 47 of 100

    47. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding election commission
    (1) The chief election commissioner does not hold his office until the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.
    (2) The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
    (3) The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 324 of The Constitution of India mentions the provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Election Commission which is as follows.
    He can be removed by the President on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with a special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office until the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
    Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.
    Though the constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, i.e.
    The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
    The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Article 324 of The Constitution of India mentions the provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Election Commission which is as follows.
    He can be removed by the President on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with a special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office until the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
    Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.
    Though the constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, i.e.
    The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
    The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
48. Question 48 of 100

    48. Question

    Consider the following statements about the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996:
    (1) The Panchayats” legislations in the scheduled areas will be in consonance with the customary law.
    (2) The Gram Sabha to have the powers of customary mode of dispute resolution.
    (3) The Chairpersons of the Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes.
    (4) The planning and management of all water bodies and mining leases for all minerals to be given to the Gram Sabha.
    (5) The Gram Sabha to be given the power to regulate the sale of any intoxicant.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) Only two
    (B) Only four
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, the Gram Sabha has been empowered to regulate:

    (1) Power to enforce the prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant.
    (2 ) Ownership of minor forest produce.

    (3) Power to prevent the alienation of land in the scheduled areas and to take appropriate action to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a Scheduled Tribe.
    (4) Power to manage the village markets by whatever name.
    (5) Power to exercise control over the institutions and the functionaries in all social sectors.
    (6) Power to control over local plans and resources for such plans, including tribal sub-plans.
    Reservation of Seats: The reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas at every Panchayat shall be in proportion to the population of the communities in that Panchayat for whom the reservation is sought to be given under Part IX of the Constitution; Provided for that reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one-half of the total number of seats; Provided further that all seats of the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes.
    Statement 4 is incorrect : The planning and management of minor water bodies in the Scheduled Areas shall be entrusted to the Panchayats at the appropriate level.
    The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be made mandatory prior to the grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas.
    The prior recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be made mandatory for the grant of concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction.
    Every Gram Sabha shall be competent to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of the people, their cultural identity, community resources and the customary mode of dispute resolution.
    A state legislation on the Panchayats that may be made shall be in consonance with the customary law, social and religious practices, and traditional management practices of the community resources.
    Statement 1,2,3 & 5 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    According to Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, the Gram Sabha has been empowered to regulate:

    (1) Power to enforce the prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant.
    (2 ) Ownership of minor forest produce.

    (3) Power to prevent the alienation of land in the scheduled areas and to take appropriate action to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a Scheduled Tribe.
    (4) Power to manage the village markets by whatever name.
    (5) Power to exercise control over the institutions and the functionaries in all social sectors.
    (6) Power to control over local plans and resources for such plans, including tribal sub-plans.
    Reservation of Seats: The reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas at every Panchayat shall be in proportion to the population of the communities in that Panchayat for whom the reservation is sought to be given under Part IX of the Constitution; Provided for that reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one-half of the total number of seats; Provided further that all seats of the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes.
    Statement 4 is incorrect : The planning and management of minor water bodies in the Scheduled Areas shall be entrusted to the Panchayats at the appropriate level.
    The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be made mandatory prior to the grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas.
    The prior recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be made mandatory for the grant of concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction.
    Every Gram Sabha shall be competent to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of the people, their cultural identity, community resources and the customary mode of dispute resolution.
    A state legislation on the Panchayats that may be made shall be in consonance with the customary law, social and religious practices, and traditional management practices of the community resources.
    Statement 1,2,3 & 5 are correct.
49. Question 49 of 100

    49. Question

    Consider the following bodies:
    (1) NITI Aayog
    (2) Special Officer for linguistic minorities
    (3) National Commission for Backward classes
    (4) Goods and Services Tax council
    (5) Central Information commission
    Which among the above bodies have been inserted to the Constitution by way of its amendment?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) Only four

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    NITI Aayog is neither a Constitutional nor a statutory body. It was established in 2015 as the think tank of the nation by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
    The original Constitution did not contain any provision regarding the special officer for linguistic minorities. It was added to the constitution by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 and added to Part XVII of the Constitution under Article 350-B. It falls under the ministry of minority affairs.
    National Commission for Backward classes was added to the Constitution of India by way of the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018. It is mentioned in the Article 338-B of the Constitution of India.
    Goods and Service Tax council was added by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 which inserted Article 279-A.
    Central Information Commission is not a Constitutional body. It was constituted in 2005 by the Gazette notification under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
    Only options 2,3 and 4 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    NITI Aayog is neither a Constitutional nor a statutory body. It was established in 2015 as the think tank of the nation by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
    The original Constitution did not contain any provision regarding the special officer for linguistic minorities. It was added to the constitution by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 and added to Part XVII of the Constitution under Article 350-B. It falls under the ministry of minority affairs.
    National Commission for Backward classes was added to the Constitution of India by way of the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018. It is mentioned in the Article 338-B of the Constitution of India.
    Goods and Service Tax council was added by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 which inserted Article 279-A.
    Central Information Commission is not a Constitutional body. It was constituted in 2005 by the Gazette notification under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
    Only options 2,3 and 4 are correct.
50. Question 50 of 100

    50. Question

    Ebony, Mahogany, Rosewood, Rubber, trees significant to the economy, are found in which type of forests in India?
    (A) Temperate Forests
    (B) Evergreen Forests
    (C) Semi Deciduous Forests
    (D) Swamp Forests

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Some of the commercially important trees of tropical evergreen forest are ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber and cinchona.
    • Teak is the most dominant species of tropical deciduous forests.
    • Bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, arjun, mulberry are other commercially important species.

    Unattempted
    

    Some of the commercially important trees of tropical evergreen forest are ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber and cinchona.
    • Teak is the most dominant species of tropical deciduous forests.
    • Bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, arjun, mulberry are other commercially important species.
51. Question 51 of 100

    51. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Landslide is a gradual settling or sudden sinking of the Earth’s surface.
    (2) Land subsidence is defined as the movement of a mass of rock, debris, or earth down a slope.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The subsidence (ground sinking) in Joshimath (at an altitude of over 6,000 feet) in Uttarakhand has delivered stern warning for the State’s administration.
    Statement 1 is not correct: Land subsidence is a gradual settling or sudden sinking of the Earth’s surface. Subsidence – sinking of the ground because of underground material movement—is most often caused by the removal of water, oil, natural gas, or mineral resources out of the ground by pumping, fracking, or mining activities.
    Subsidence can also be caused by natural events such as earthquakes, soil compaction, glacial isostatic adjustment, erosion, sinkhole formation, and adding water to fine soils deposited by wind (a natural process known as loess deposits).
    Statement 2 is not correct: A landslide is defined as the movement of a mass of rock, debris, or earth down a slope. They are a type of mass wasting, which denotes any downward movement of soil and rock under the direct influence of gravity. The term landslide encompasses five modes of slope movement: falls, topples, slides, spreads, and flows.

    Unattempted
    

    The subsidence (ground sinking) in Joshimath (at an altitude of over 6,000 feet) in Uttarakhand has delivered stern warning for the State’s administration.
    Statement 1 is not correct: Land subsidence is a gradual settling or sudden sinking of the Earth’s surface. Subsidence – sinking of the ground because of underground material movement—is most often caused by the removal of water, oil, natural gas, or mineral resources out of the ground by pumping, fracking, or mining activities.
    Subsidence can also be caused by natural events such as earthquakes, soil compaction, glacial isostatic adjustment, erosion, sinkhole formation, and adding water to fine soils deposited by wind (a natural process known as loess deposits).
    Statement 2 is not correct: A landslide is defined as the movement of a mass of rock, debris, or earth down a slope. They are a type of mass wasting, which denotes any downward movement of soil and rock under the direct influence of gravity. The term landslide encompasses five modes of slope movement: falls, topples, slides, spreads, and flows.
52. Question 52 of 100

    52. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Commission:
    (1) The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and it works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
    (2) It is appointed for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of the constituencies all over the country.
    (3) A quota of constituencies to be reserved in each state is fixed, depending on the overall proportion of the SCs or the STs in the total population of the country.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and it works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. It is appointed for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of the constituencies all over the country.
    A quota of constituencies to be reserved in each state is fixed, depending on the proportion of the SCs or the STs in that state.
    After drawing the boundaries, the Delimitation Commission looks at the composition of population in each constituency.
    Those constituencies that have the highest proportion of the Scheduled Tribe population are reserved for the STs. In the case of the Scheduled Castes, the Delimitation Commission looks at two things. It picks constituencies that have higher proportion of the Scheduled Caste population. But, it also spreads these constituencies in different regions of the state. This is done because the Scheduled Caste population is generally spread evenly throughout the country. These reserved constituencies can be rotated each time the delimitation exercise is undertaken. Delimitation literally means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of the territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body.
    Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and it works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. It is appointed for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of the constituencies all over the country.
    A quota of constituencies to be reserved in each state is fixed, depending on the proportion of the SCs or the STs in that state.
    After drawing the boundaries, the Delimitation Commission looks at the composition of population in each constituency.
    Those constituencies that have the highest proportion of the Scheduled Tribe population are reserved for the STs. In the case of the Scheduled Castes, the Delimitation Commission looks at two things. It picks constituencies that have higher proportion of the Scheduled Caste population. But, it also spreads these constituencies in different regions of the state. This is done because the Scheduled Caste population is generally spread evenly throughout the country. These reserved constituencies can be rotated each time the delimitation exercise is undertaken. Delimitation literally means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of the territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body.
    Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
53. Question 53 of 100

    53. Question

    Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Inter-State trade andcommerce provisioned under the Constitution?
    (1) The restrictions cannot be imposed on the trade, commerce and intercourse either at the frontier of any state or at any prior or subsequent stage.
    (2) The Legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse through a bill introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the Governor.
    (3) The Constitution provides the provision to prohibit the imposition of discriminatory taxes by the state.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Article 301 in Part XIII of the Constitution declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free and also restricts the states imposing the restrictions either at the front of any state or at any prior or subsequent stage.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 303 under Part XIII of the Constitution provides that the legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse with that state or within that state in public interest. But, a Bill for this purpose can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the President.
    Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution under Article 305 provides the provision to prohibit the imposition of discriminatory taxes by the state. Thus, the legislature of a state can impose on goods imported from other states or the union territories any tax to which similar goods manufactured in that state are subject.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. Article 301 in Part XIII of the Constitution declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free and also restricts the states imposing the restrictions either at the front of any state or at any prior or subsequent stage.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 303 under Part XIII of the Constitution provides that the legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse with that state or within that state in public interest. But, a Bill for this purpose can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the President.
    Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution under Article 305 provides the provision to prohibit the imposition of discriminatory taxes by the state. Thus, the legislature of a state can impose on goods imported from other states or the union territories any tax to which similar goods manufactured in that state are subject.
54. Question 54 of 100

    54. Question

    Which of the following statements are correct?
    (1) The definition of the “Office of Profit” has evolved over the years, with interpretations made in various court judgments.
    (2) The “Office of Profit” law seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution – the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.
    (3) The Supreme Court, in the Jaya Bachchan v/s the Union of India case, developed the doctrine of “potential effect of an office”.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The definition of the “Office of Profit” has evolved over the years, with interpretations made in various court judgments. An Office of Profit has been interpreted to be a position that brings to the office-holder some financial gain, or advantage, or benefit. The amount of such profit is immaterial. The MPs and the MLAs, as the membersof the legislature, hold the government accountable for its work. The essence of disqualification under the Office of Profit law is that if the legislators hold an “Office of Profit” under the government, they might be susceptible to government influence and may not discharge their constitutional mandate fairly.
    The intent is that there should be no conflict between the duties and the interests of an elected member. Hence, the Office of Profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution – the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.
    The Election Commission of India (ECI) examined the rich jurisprudence of theOffice of Profit and disqualification of a member of the Legislative Assembly, andenlisted three determinative tests — test of pecuniary gain, executive nature of the office, test of exercise of the constitutional/executive powers while functioning as the Parliamentary Secretary.
    The “potential doctrine”, as established in the Jaya Bachchan case, 2006:
    The Supreme Court, in its seminal decision in the Jaya Bachchan v/s theUnion of India case, developed the doctrine of “potential effect of an office” toascertain the nature of office.
    The “potential doctrine” presumes certain things associated and attached with the“office” in question. It calls for further facts to be established beyond a particular standard. Too much reliance on the “potential doctrine” by the ECI makes it more susceptible for challenge on that account alone.
    Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The definition of the “Office of Profit” has evolved over the years, with interpretations made in various court judgments. An Office of Profit has been interpreted to be a position that brings to the office-holder some financial gain, or advantage, or benefit. The amount of such profit is immaterial. The MPs and the MLAs, as the membersof the legislature, hold the government accountable for its work. The essence of disqualification under the Office of Profit law is that if the legislators hold an “Office of Profit” under the government, they might be susceptible to government influence and may not discharge their constitutional mandate fairly.
    The intent is that there should be no conflict between the duties and the interests of an elected member. Hence, the Office of Profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution – the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.
    The Election Commission of India (ECI) examined the rich jurisprudence of theOffice of Profit and disqualification of a member of the Legislative Assembly, andenlisted three determinative tests — test of pecuniary gain, executive nature of the office, test of exercise of the constitutional/executive powers while functioning as the Parliamentary Secretary.
    The “potential doctrine”, as established in the Jaya Bachchan case, 2006:
    The Supreme Court, in its seminal decision in the Jaya Bachchan v/s theUnion of India case, developed the doctrine of “potential effect of an office” toascertain the nature of office.
    The “potential doctrine” presumes certain things associated and attached with the“office” in question. It calls for further facts to be established beyond a particular standard. Too much reliance on the “potential doctrine” by the ECI makes it more susceptible for challenge on that account alone.
    Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct.
55. Question 55 of 100

    55. Question

    With reference to Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:
    (1) The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.
    (2) One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under the Government of India or of a state at least for five years.
    (3) The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are determined by the Parliament.
    (4) The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.
    Usually, the Commission consists of 9 to 11 members including the chairman. Every member holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
    One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under the Government of India or of a state at least for ten years.
    Article-322 : Expenses of UPSC :
    The expenses of the Union Public Service Commission, including any salaries, allowances and pensions shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
    All statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.
    Usually, the Commission consists of 9 to 11 members including the chairman. Every member holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
    One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under the Government of India or of a state at least for ten years.
    Article-322 : Expenses of UPSC :
    The expenses of the Union Public Service Commission, including any salaries, allowances and pensions shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
    All statements are correct.
56. Question 56 of 100

    56. Question

    With reference to State Public Service Commission (SPSC), consider the following statements:
    (1) The Chairman or a member of SPSC after having completed his first term is not eligible for reappointment to that office.
    (2) A member of SPSC on ceasing to hold office can become Chairman of other SPSC.
    (3) The entire expenditure including salaries, allowances etc., of the Chairman and members of the SPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of State.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Following provisions of the Constitution safeguard the independence of the SPSC :
    Only President can remove the Chairman or a member of the SPSC and only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, there is security of tenure.
    The conditions of service of the Chairman or a member cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
    The entire expenditure including salaries, allowances etc., of the Chairman and members of the SPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, they are not voted in Parliament. Hence, statements 3 is incorrect.
    The Chairman of SPSC on ceasing to hold office is not eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state. But, he or she can be Chairman or member of UPSC or chairman of other SPSC. Hence, statements 2 is correct.
    A member of SPSC on ceasing to hold office is eligible for appointment as the Chairman or member of UPSC or Chairman of the same or other SPSC, but not in any other employment in the Government of India or a state.
    The Chairman or a member of SPSC after having completed his first term is not eligible for reappointment to that office. Thus, there is no second term for the same office. Hence, statements 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Following provisions of the Constitution safeguard the independence of the SPSC :
    Only President can remove the Chairman or a member of the SPSC and only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, there is security of tenure.
    The conditions of service of the Chairman or a member cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
    The entire expenditure including salaries, allowances etc., of the Chairman and members of the SPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, they are not voted in Parliament. Hence, statements 3 is incorrect.
    The Chairman of SPSC on ceasing to hold office is not eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state. But, he or she can be Chairman or member of UPSC or chairman of other SPSC. Hence, statements 2 is correct.
    A member of SPSC on ceasing to hold office is eligible for appointment as the Chairman or member of UPSC or Chairman of the same or other SPSC, but not in any other employment in the Government of India or a state.
    The Chairman or a member of SPSC after having completed his first term is not eligible for reappointment to that office. Thus, there is no second term for the same office. Hence, statements 1 is correct.
57. Question 57 of 100

    57. Question

    Consider the following statements about the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
    (1) The State Election Commissions have been established by it.
    (2) The District Planning Committees have been established by it.
    (3) The State Finance Commissions have been established by it.
    (4) The Metropolitan Planning Committees have been established by it.
    (5) It introduced Part IXB of the Constitution.
    (6) The 12th Schedule to the Constitution was introduced.
    Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only three
    (C) Only four
    (D) Only five

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The 74th Constitutional Amendment act, 1992 was introduced to provide for constitutional status to the urban local bodies.
    (1) The 12th Schedule to the Constitution, containing 18 subjects, that can be devolved to the urban local bodies, was introduced. Hence, statement 6 is correct.
    (2) The Metropolitan Planning Committees were established by it. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    (3) The District Planning Committees were also established by it. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    (4) The State Finance Commissions were constituted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, 1992. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    (5) Part IXA of the Constitution was established.
    (6) The State Election Commissions were also established by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Part IXB of the Constitution grants constitutional status to co-operative societies and contains provisions for their democratic functioning. It was inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-seventh Amendment) Act, 2011. Hence, statement 5 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The 74th Constitutional Amendment act, 1992 was introduced to provide for constitutional status to the urban local bodies.
    (1) The 12th Schedule to the Constitution, containing 18 subjects, that can be devolved to the urban local bodies, was introduced. Hence, statement 6 is correct.
    (2) The Metropolitan Planning Committees were established by it. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    (3) The District Planning Committees were also established by it. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    (4) The State Finance Commissions were constituted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, 1992. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    (5) Part IXA of the Constitution was established.
    (6) The State Election Commissions were also established by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Part IXB of the Constitution grants constitutional status to co-operative societies and contains provisions for their democratic functioning. It was inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-seventh Amendment) Act, 2011. Hence, statement 5 is incorrect.
58. Question 58 of 100

    58. Question

    Consider the following statements about Co-operatives:
    (1) The right to form Co-operatives is a Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Constitution.
    (2) It is the responsibility of the state to promote democratic control and professional management of the Cooperative Societies.
    (3) Part X of the Constitution deals with Co-operatives.
    (4) The Constitution imposes an upper limit on the number of Board of Directors of the Co-operatives.
    (5) At least one seat on the Board of the Co-operative Societies is to be reserved for women.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only three
    (C) Only four
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The 97th Constitutional Amendment, 2011 provided constitutional status to the Co-operatives.
    • Statement 1 is correct : Article 19 was amended to give the right to form a Co-operative Society a Fundamental Right.
    • Statement 2 is correct : Article 43B was introduced, which says that the state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the Co-operative Societies.
    • Statement 4 is correct : The Constitution puts an upper limit on the maximum number of directors of a Co-operative Society as 21.
    Statement 5 is incorrect : Provided further that the legislature of a state shall, by law, provide for reservation of one seat for the SC or the ST, and two seats for women on the Board of every Co-operative Society, consisting of individuals as members and having members from such class or category of persons.
    • Statement 3 is incorrect : Part IXB of the Constitution deals with the Co-operative Societies.

    Unattempted
    

    The 97th Constitutional Amendment, 2011 provided constitutional status to the Co-operatives.
    • Statement 1 is correct : Article 19 was amended to give the right to form a Co-operative Society a Fundamental Right.
    • Statement 2 is correct : Article 43B was introduced, which says that the state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the Co-operative Societies.
    • Statement 4 is correct : The Constitution puts an upper limit on the maximum number of directors of a Co-operative Society as 21.
    Statement 5 is incorrect : Provided further that the legislature of a state shall, by law, provide for reservation of one seat for the SC or the ST, and two seats for women on the Board of every Co-operative Society, consisting of individuals as members and having members from such class or category of persons.
    • Statement 3 is incorrect : Part IXB of the Constitution deals with the Co-operative Societies.
59. Question 59 of 100

    59. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time and vice versa.
    (2) A deadlock between the legislative assembly and legislative council can be resolved through a joint sitting.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time but not vice versa. When a bill is passed by the assembly for the second time and transmitted to the legislative council, if the legislative council rejects the bill again, or proposes amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative assembly, or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form inwhich it was passed by the legislative assembly for the second time.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no possibility of deadlock between the state legislative assembly and legislative council. At most, the council can detain or delay the bill for the period of four months three months in the first instance and one month in the second instance. In other words, the council is not even a revising body like Rajya Sabha; it is only a dilatory chamber or an advisory body.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time but not vice versa. When a bill is passed by the assembly for the second time and transmitted to the legislative council, if the legislative council rejects the bill again, or proposes amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative assembly, or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form inwhich it was passed by the legislative assembly for the second time.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no possibility of deadlock between the state legislative assembly and legislative council. At most, the council can detain or delay the bill for the period of four months three months in the first instance and one month in the second instance. In other words, the council is not even a revising body like Rajya Sabha; it is only a dilatory chamber or an advisory body.
60. Question 60 of 100

    60. Question

    With reference to the Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) The President determines the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission.
    (2) Parliament constitutes the Finance Commission every five years.
    (3) The tenure of the office of the Member of the Finance Commission is specified by the Parliament and in some cases, the members are also re-appointed.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every five years or on time considered necessary by him. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Composition of Finance Commission of India:
    Finance Commission Chairman and Members
    Chairman: Heads the Commission and presides over the activities.
    He should have had public affairs experience.
    Four Members — The Parliament determines legally the qualifications of the members of the Commission and their selection methods. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Qualifications of Finance Commission Chairman and Members.
    The 4 members should be or have been qualified as High Court judges, or be knowledgeable in finance or experienced in financial matters and are in administration, or possess knowledge in economics. All the appointments are made by the President of the country.
    Grounds of disqualification of members: found to be of unsound mind, involved in a vile act, if there is a conflict of interest.
    The tenure of the office of the Member of the Finance Commission is specified by the President of India and in some cases, the members are also re-appointed. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    The members shall give part-time or service to the Commission as scheduled by the President.
    The salary of the members is as per the provisions laid down by the Constitution.
    The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission vide the Finance Commission Act,1951.

    Unattempted
    

    President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every five years or on time considered necessary by him. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Composition of Finance Commission of India:
    Finance Commission Chairman and Members
    Chairman: Heads the Commission and presides over the activities.
    He should have had public affairs experience.
    Four Members — The Parliament determines legally the qualifications of the members of the Commission and their selection methods. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    Qualifications of Finance Commission Chairman and Members.
    The 4 members should be or have been qualified as High Court judges, or be knowledgeable in finance or experienced in financial matters and are in administration, or possess knowledge in economics. All the appointments are made by the President of the country.
    Grounds of disqualification of members: found to be of unsound mind, involved in a vile act, if there is a conflict of interest.
    The tenure of the office of the Member of the Finance Commission is specified by the President of India and in some cases, the members are also re-appointed. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    The members shall give part-time or service to the Commission as scheduled by the President.
    The salary of the members is as per the provisions laid down by the Constitution.
    The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission vide the Finance Commission Act,1951.
61. Question 61 of 100

    61. Question

    Consider the following statements with regarding to the Governor of a State.
    (1) Governor is elected indirectly by the people of the state.
    (2) A Citizen by registration can become governor of the state.
    Choose the correct statements
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : GOVERNOR is Appointed by the PRESIDENT.
    He is neither elected directly by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college. (Canadian Model).
    Independent constitutional office, not under the control of or subordinate nor an employment under the Central government.
    Statement 2 is correct : He should be a Citizen of India either Naturalized or by Registration and should have Completed 35 years of age to be appointed as the governor.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : GOVERNOR is Appointed by the PRESIDENT.
    He is neither elected directly by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college. (Canadian Model).
    Independent constitutional office, not under the control of or subordinate nor an employment under the Central government.
    Statement 2 is correct : He should be a Citizen of India either Naturalized or by Registration and should have Completed 35 years of age to be appointed as the governor.
62. Question 62 of 100

    62. Question

    With reference to Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider following statements:
    (1) It is authorized to audit Contingency Fund of India.
    (2) CAG submits annual audit report of the union to the President of India.
    (3) CAG compiles and maintains accounts of both central and state governments.
    (4) CAG is removed by the President on the same grounds and in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only 1 and 2
    (B) Only 1 and 3
    (C) Only 1, 2 and 4
    (D) All of the Above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the parliament and the Constitution are:
    •audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly.
    •CAG audits all expenditures from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India and of each state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    •CAG audits all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or state revenues, Government companies, etc.
    •CAG audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor. E.g.: the audit of local bodies.
    • Article 151 : CAG submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the President, who shall, in turn, place them before both the houses of Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    CAG submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of a State to the Governor, who shall, in turn, place them before the state legislature.
    •CAG acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
    •CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments. In 1976, CAG was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of accounts of the Central Government. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    •CAG holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
    •CAG can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president.
    •CAG can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    •The role of CAG in the auditing of public corporations is limited and falls broadly into 3 categories.
    •audited by private professional auditors who are appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the CAG – Central Warehousing Corporation, etc.
    •totally subjected to private audit and the CAG does not come into the picture at all – RBI, SBI, LIC, FCI etc.

    Unattempted
    

    The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the parliament and the Constitution are:
    •audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly.
    •CAG audits all expenditures from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India and of each state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    •CAG audits all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or state revenues, Government companies, etc.
    •CAG audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor. E.g.: the audit of local bodies.
    • Article 151 : CAG submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the President, who shall, in turn, place them before both the houses of Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    CAG submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of a State to the Governor, who shall, in turn, place them before the state legislature.
    •CAG acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
    •CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments. In 1976, CAG was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of accounts of the Central Government. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    •CAG holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
    •CAG can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president.
    •CAG can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    •The role of CAG in the auditing of public corporations is limited and falls broadly into 3 categories.
    •audited by private professional auditors who are appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the CAG – Central Warehousing Corporation, etc.
    •totally subjected to private audit and the CAG does not come into the picture at all – RBI, SBI, LIC, FCI etc.
63. Question 63 of 100

    63. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Advocate General of State :
    (1) He should be eligible to be appointed as the judge of the District Court.
    (2) A pleader over 10 years in any high court.
    (3) He shouldn’t be more than 62 years of age as is the age qualification for a High Court Judge.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) None
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The governor appoints the advocate general of state on the advice of the council of ministers of the state. The person who is eligible to hold the office of advocate general in India must meet the following criteria:
    •He must be an Indian Citizen.
    •He should be eligible to be appointed as the judge of the High Court; Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. He must meet one of the following eligibility criteria:
    •A barrister having experience of more than 5 years.
    •A civil servant with an experience of more than 10 years along with an experience as a servant in Zila Court for at least 3 years.
    •A pleader over 10 years in any high court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    •The Governor of each state shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed judges in high court.
    •There is no fixed term of office and no upper-age-limit mentioned for the Advocate general.
    He shouldn’t be more than 62 years of age as is the age qualification for a High Court Judge. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The governor appoints the advocate general of state on the advice of the council of ministers of the state. The person who is eligible to hold the office of advocate general in India must meet the following criteria:
    •He must be an Indian Citizen.
    •He should be eligible to be appointed as the judge of the High Court; Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. He must meet one of the following eligibility criteria:
    •A barrister having experience of more than 5 years.
    •A civil servant with an experience of more than 10 years along with an experience as a servant in Zila Court for at least 3 years.
    •A pleader over 10 years in any high court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    •The Governor of each state shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed judges in high court.
    •There is no fixed term of office and no upper-age-limit mentioned for the Advocate general.
    He shouldn’t be more than 62 years of age as is the age qualification for a High Court Judge. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
64. Question 64 of 100

    64. Question

    Which of the following statements probably do not reflect the federal spirit of the constitution?
    (1) The property of the centre in the states cannot be taxed by the state government.
    (2) Use Maladministration as a reason to enforce the president’s rule.
    (3) Absence of legislative assembly members in the Impeachment process of president.
    (4) The Governor does not have power to remove Judges of the high court.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The states do not have the power to tax the centre property in their jurisdiction. Emergency provisions are against the federal spirit.
    ·Statement 2 is correct: Maladministration is used as a criterion to enforce president rule, which is against the federal spirit.
    ·Statement 3 is correct: The president represents the union and state administration. In the appointment process, the state legislative assemblies participate in the electoral college but in the removal, they are not part of it. This is also not in the true spirit of federalism.
    ·Statement 4 is correct: Governors do not have any role in the appointment and removal of high court judges. He is the head of the federal unit i. e state, and not giving him any power in the appointment and removal of the high court is against the federal spirit.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The states do not have the power to tax the centre property in their jurisdiction. Emergency provisions are against the federal spirit.
    ·Statement 2 is correct: Maladministration is used as a criterion to enforce president rule, which is against the federal spirit.
    ·Statement 3 is correct: The president represents the union and state administration. In the appointment process, the state legislative assemblies participate in the electoral college but in the removal, they are not part of it. This is also not in the true spirit of federalism.
    ·Statement 4 is correct: Governors do not have any role in the appointment and removal of high court judges. He is the head of the federal unit i. e state, and not giving him any power in the appointment and removal of the high court is against the federal spirit.
65. Question 65 of 100

    65. Question

    Consider the following special provisions about Nagaland under Article 371-A of the Constitution:
    (1) It provided for indirect representation into the Nagaland Legislative Assembly.
    (2) Limitations have been placed on the Acts of Parliament with respect to ownership and transfer of land.
    (3) The Governor of Nagaland has special responsibility for law and order in the state.
    Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : Article 371A provides that the members in the Nagaland Legislative Assembly from the Tuensang district are not elected directly by the people but by the regional council.
    Article 371A provides that “No Act of Parliament in respect of:religious or social practices of the Nagas,
    Statement 2 is correct : Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law,ownership and transfer of land and its resources shall apply to the State of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland by a resolution so decides.”
    Statement 3 is correct : Article 371A also provides that the Governor of Nagaland shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state so long as internal disturbances caused by the hostile Nagas continue.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : Article 371A provides that the members in the Nagaland Legislative Assembly from the Tuensang district are not elected directly by the people but by the regional council.
    Article 371A provides that “No Act of Parliament in respect of:religious or social practices of the Nagas,
    Statement 2 is correct : Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law,ownership and transfer of land and its resources shall apply to the State of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland by a resolution so decides.”
    Statement 3 is correct : Article 371A also provides that the Governor of Nagaland shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state so long as internal disturbances caused by the hostile Nagas continue.
66. Question 66 of 100

    66. Question

    With reference to the recommendations given by the Ashok Mehta committee, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    (1) Establishment of a three-tier Panchayati rajsystem–gram panchayat at the village level, panchayat samiti at the block level and zila parishad at the district level.
    (2) Zila parishad should be the executive body and made responsible for planning at the district level.
    (3) A post of District Development Commissioner should be created. He should act as the chief executive officer of the Zila Parishad and should be in charge of all the development departments at the district level.
    Select the answer using the codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : Balwant Rai Mehta recommended establishment of a three-tier panchayati raj system–gram panchayat at the village level, panchayat samiti at the block level and zila parishad at the district level, whereas Ashok Mehta recommended the three-tier system of Panchayati raj should be replaced by the two tier system, that is, zila parishad at the district level, and below it, the Mandal panchayat consisting of a group of villages with a total population of 15,000 to 20,000.
    Statement 2 is correct : Zila parishad should be the executive body and made responsible for planning at the district level is one of the major recommendations of Ashok Mehta.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : A post of District Development Commissioner should be created. He should act as the chief executive officer of the Zila Parishad and should be in charge of all the development departments at the district level is one of the major recommendations given by G.V.K Rao committee.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : Balwant Rai Mehta recommended establishment of a three-tier panchayati raj system–gram panchayat at the village level, panchayat samiti at the block level and zila parishad at the district level, whereas Ashok Mehta recommended the three-tier system of Panchayati raj should be replaced by the two tier system, that is, zila parishad at the district level, and below it, the Mandal panchayat consisting of a group of villages with a total population of 15,000 to 20,000.
    Statement 2 is correct : Zila parishad should be the executive body and made responsible for planning at the district level is one of the major recommendations of Ashok Mehta.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : A post of District Development Commissioner should be created. He should act as the chief executive officer of the Zila Parishad and should be in charge of all the development departments at the district level is one of the major recommendations given by G.V.K Rao committee.
67. Question 67 of 100

    67. Question

    With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements-
    (1) Tenure for the judge of the Supreme Court is fixed by the constitution itself.
    (2) The President can issue removal orders for a judge after the recommendation of the Collegium.
    (3) Since the commencement of the constitution no Judge of the Supreme Court has been impeached.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect :The Constitution has not fixed any tenure for the judge of the Supreme Court. But, it makes the following provisions in this matter-
    (1) He/she holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding his age is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament.
    (2) He/she can resign his office by writing to the President.
    (3) Statement 2 is incorrect :He/she can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament only.
    A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office by an order of the President only. The President can issue such removal orders only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament.
    Statement 3 is correct : The Constitution under Article 124(4) has provided for the impeachment of judges on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity but the Constitution has not given any mandate till date as to what constitutes ‘misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’. Since the commencement of the constitution no Judge of the Supreme Court has been impeached. The process of impeachment has been kept complex to maintain the independence of the judiciary and to ensure safe tenure to the judges who are imparting justice.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect :The Constitution has not fixed any tenure for the judge of the Supreme Court. But, it makes the following provisions in this matter-
    (1) He/she holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding his age is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament.
    (2) He/she can resign his office by writing to the President.
    (3) Statement 2 is incorrect :He/she can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament only.
    A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office by an order of the President only. The President can issue such removal orders only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament.
    Statement 3 is correct : The Constitution under Article 124(4) has provided for the impeachment of judges on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity but the Constitution has not given any mandate till date as to what constitutes ‘misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’. Since the commencement of the constitution no Judge of the Supreme Court has been impeached. The process of impeachment has been kept complex to maintain the independence of the judiciary and to ensure safe tenure to the judges who are imparting justice.
68. Question 68 of 100

    68. Question

    With reference to the Judicial Review powers of the Supreme court of India, consider the following statements-
    (1) The Supreme Court of India has the power to review its own judgement.
    (2) The term Judicial Review is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.
    (3) The scope of judicial review evolved to protect the constitutionally guaranteed fundamental rights of citizens.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : Article 137 Constitution of India: Review of judgments or orders by the Supreme Court. Subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament or any rules, the Supreme Court shall have power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : The term Judicial Review is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. However, Some provisions in the constitution in the support of the judicial review are: Article 13 declares that any law which contravenes any of the provisions of the part of Fundamental Rights shall be void.
    Articles 32 and 226 gives the roles of the protector and guarantor of fundamental rights to the Supreme Court and High Courts.
    Statement 3 is correct : Judicial review evolved to protect the constitutionally guaranteed fundamental rights of citizens. In order to scrutinize the legitimacy of administrative action and the statutes, the Constitution of India has given several powers to the high courts and the Supreme Court of India. To guard the rights of the public and implement the fundamental rights are the main objectives of judicial review.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : Article 137 Constitution of India: Review of judgments or orders by the Supreme Court. Subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament or any rules, the Supreme Court shall have power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : The term Judicial Review is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. However, Some provisions in the constitution in the support of the judicial review are: Article 13 declares that any law which contravenes any of the provisions of the part of Fundamental Rights shall be void.
    Articles 32 and 226 gives the roles of the protector and guarantor of fundamental rights to the Supreme Court and High Courts.
    Statement 3 is correct : Judicial review evolved to protect the constitutionally guaranteed fundamental rights of citizens. In order to scrutinize the legitimacy of administrative action and the statutes, the Constitution of India has given several powers to the high courts and the Supreme Court of India. To guard the rights of the public and implement the fundamental rights are the main objectives of judicial review.
69. Question 69 of 100

    69. Question

    The provisions of the fifth schedule of the Constitution of India shall not apply to which of the following states?
    (1) Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh
    (2) Tripura and Meghalaya
    (3) Assam and Mizoram
    (4) Orissa and Manipur
    Select the correct answers using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Fifth schedule of the Indian Constitution:
    According to article 244 of part X of the constitution, the provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
    ·The Philosophy behind the schedule areas is that they are inhabited by aboriginals who are socially and economically backward and hence special efforts need to be made to improve their condition. Therefore the whole of the normal administrative machinery operating in the state is not extended to the schedule areas and the central government has somewhat greater responsibility for this area.

    Unattempted
    

    Fifth schedule of the Indian Constitution:
    According to article 244 of part X of the constitution, the provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
    ·The Philosophy behind the schedule areas is that they are inhabited by aboriginals who are socially and economically backward and hence special efforts need to be made to improve their condition. Therefore the whole of the normal administrative machinery operating in the state is not extended to the schedule areas and the central government has somewhat greater responsibility for this area.
70. Question 70 of 100

    70. Question

    With reference to Fifth Schedule of the constitution of India, consider the following statements:
    (1) The President of India has the power to declare a particular region as a scheduled area.
    (2) When required by the President, the Governor has to submit a report regarding the administration of such areas.
    (3) Each state with a scheduled area may or may not establish a Tribes Advisory Council to advise on the welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes.
    Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such re-designation on area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
    Statement 2 is correct : The executive power of a state extends to the scheduled areas therein. But the governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. He has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the president. The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : Each state having a scheduled area has to Mandatorily establish the tribes Advisory Council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes.
    It consists of 20 members, three-fourth of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly. A similar Council can also be established in a state having Scheduled Tribes, but not schedule areas therein,if the president so directs.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such re-designation on area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
    Statement 2 is correct : The executive power of a state extends to the scheduled areas therein. But the governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. He has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the president. The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : Each state having a scheduled area has to Mandatorily establish the tribes Advisory Council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes.
    It consists of 20 members, three-fourth of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly. A similar Council can also be established in a state having Scheduled Tribes, but not schedule areas therein,if the president so directs.
71. Question 71 of 100

    71. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding National Legal Services Authority (NALSA):
    (1) It is a statutory body created under the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987.
    (2) Strengthening the Alternate Dispute Mechanism is one of its mains functions.
    (3) Persons in custody and Industrial Workmen are not entitled to free legal services under NALSA.
    (4) Secretaries from the Department of Justice and Department of Expenditures are its ex-officio members.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only three
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body established under the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 to provide free, inclusive, and fair justice to the marginalized and the disadvantaged section of the society.
    Statement 2 is correct : Strengthening the system of Lok Adalats and other Alternative Dispute Mechanisms are important functions of NALSA.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : Women/Children, members from SC/ST, Industrial workmen, Disabled persons, persons in custody, Victims of mass disasters, victims of trafficking and those with annual income less than 1 lakh are entitled to legal protection under the NALSA.
    Statement 4 is correct : Secretary, Department of Justice under the Ministry of Law and Justice and Secretary, Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance are the ex- officio members of the NALSA.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body established under the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 to provide free, inclusive, and fair justice to the marginalized and the disadvantaged section of the society.
    Statement 2 is correct : Strengthening the system of Lok Adalats and other Alternative Dispute Mechanisms are important functions of NALSA.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : Women/Children, members from SC/ST, Industrial workmen, Disabled persons, persons in custody, Victims of mass disasters, victims of trafficking and those with annual income less than 1 lakh are entitled to legal protection under the NALSA.
    Statement 4 is correct : Secretary, Department of Justice under the Ministry of Law and Justice and Secretary, Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance are the ex- officio members of the NALSA.
72. Question 72 of 100

    72. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Gram Nyayalayas.
    (1) These are the statutory mobile courts established to provide legal service to the poor and the disadvantaged.
    (2) They are established by the Governor of the state concerned in consultation with the state High court.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both1and2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Gram Nyayalayas were established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 to provide for the justice at the grassroot level. It provides speedy and inexpensive justice to the poor and is established on the recommendations of the Law Commission.
    Gram Nyayalayas are established by the State Government in consultation with the state High Courts.

    Unattempted
    

    Gram Nyayalayas were established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 to provide for the justice at the grassroot level. It provides speedy and inexpensive justice to the poor and is established on the recommendations of the Law Commission.
    Gram Nyayalayas are established by the State Government in consultation with the state High Courts.
73. Question 73 of 100

    73. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding PESA Act:
    (1) The state government may nominate members at all levels of Panchayats.
    (2) The nomination by the state government shall not exceed one-tenth of total members to be elected in the panchayat.
    (3) Only a member of the Scheduled Tribe can become a chairman of Panchayats at all levels.
    Select the correct statement/s from the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 or PESA is a law enacted by the Government of India for ensuring self- governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for people living in the Scheduled Areas of India.
    Statement 1 is incorrect : The state government may nominate such Scheduled Tribes which have no representation in the panchayat. These nominations can be made at intermediate or district level and not in village level.
    Statement 2 and 3 are correct : The nomination by the state government shall not exceed one-tenth of total members to be elected in the panchayat at that level All seats of Chairperson at all levels of Panchayats, under PESA, must be occupied by members of Scheduled Tribe.

    Unattempted
    

    The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 or PESA is a law enacted by the Government of India for ensuring self- governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for people living in the Scheduled Areas of India.
    Statement 1 is incorrect : The state government may nominate such Scheduled Tribes which have no representation in the panchayat. These nominations can be made at intermediate or district level and not in village level.
    Statement 2 and 3 are correct : The nomination by the state government shall not exceed one-tenth of total members to be elected in the panchayat at that level All seats of Chairperson at all levels of Panchayats, under PESA, must be occupied by members of Scheduled Tribe.
74. Question 74 of 100

    74. Question

    With reference to the Election Commission which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    (1) The Election Commission has been functioning as a multi-member body consisting of three election commissioners since its inception.
    (2) The chief election commissioner has equal powers and receives salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court, whereas other election commissioners are similar to the judge of the High Court.
    (3) In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief election commissioners and /or two other election commissioners the matter is decided by the Supreme Court.
    Select the answers using the codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : During its inception 1950 the election commission functioned as a single member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and since 1993 it is functioning as a multi-member body consisting three election commissioners.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : In case of difference opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : During its inception 1950 the election commission functioned as a single member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and since 1993 it is functioning as a multi-member body consisting three election commissioners.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : In case of difference opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
75. Question 75 of 100

    75. Question

    With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:
    (1) The Constitution mandates that the election commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and two other election commissioners.
    (2) The election commission has been a three- member Commission ever since its Inception in 1950.
    (3) The appointment of the various members of the election commission is done by the president of India.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    According to article 324 of the Constitution of India the election commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other election commissioners as the President may from time- to-time fix.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : The election commission functioned as a single member body consisting of the chief election commissioner only from 1950 to 1989. From oct 1989 to jan 1990 it became a three-member body. It again became a single member body from Jan 1990 to Sep 1993.
    Since Oct 1993 the election commission has been a multi member body consisting of three members.
    Statement 3 is correct : According to 324 of the constitution, the appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners, subject to the provisions of any law made and that behalf by parliament, shall be made by the president.

    Unattempted
    

    According to article 324 of the Constitution of India the election commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other election commissioners as the President may from time- to-time fix.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : The election commission functioned as a single member body consisting of the chief election commissioner only from 1950 to 1989. From oct 1989 to jan 1990 it became a three-member body. It again became a single member body from Jan 1990 to Sep 1993.
    Since Oct 1993 the election commission has been a multi member body consisting of three members.
    Statement 3 is correct : According to 324 of the constitution, the appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners, subject to the provisions of any law made and that behalf by parliament, shall be made by the president.
76. Question 76 of 100

    76. Question

    With reference to the model code of conduct (MCC) consider the following statements:
    (1) It has no legal backing and is based on consensus among political parties.
    (2) It traces its roots to a code of conduct issued during the Assembly elections of Kerala in the year 1960.
    (3) The MCC is operational from the date that the election schedule is announced till the date the voting process ends.
    Which of the above statements is/ are not correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : The model code of conduct issued by the ECI is a set of guidelines meant for political parties, candidates and governments to adhere to during an election. This code is based on consensus among political parties. It has not been given any legal backing. However, certain provisions of the MCC may be enforced through invoking corresponding provisions in other statutes such as the Indian Penal Code, 1860, Code of Criminal.
    Statement 2 is correct : The origin of the MCC lies in the Assembly elections of Kerala in 1960, when the State administration prepared a ‘Code of Conduct’ for political actors.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : MCC is enforced from the date the Election Commission announces the poll schedule and remains operational till the process of elections is completed,

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : The model code of conduct issued by the ECI is a set of guidelines meant for political parties, candidates and governments to adhere to during an election. This code is based on consensus among political parties. It has not been given any legal backing. However, certain provisions of the MCC may be enforced through invoking corresponding provisions in other statutes such as the Indian Penal Code, 1860, Code of Criminal.
    Statement 2 is correct : The origin of the MCC lies in the Assembly elections of Kerala in 1960, when the State administration prepared a ‘Code of Conduct’ for political actors.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : MCC is enforced from the date the Election Commission announces the poll schedule and remains operational till the process of elections is completed,
77. Question 77 of 100

    77. Question

    Who of the following can be judicial member of national Human Rights Commission:
    (1) Serving judge of the Supreme Court
    (2) Retired judge of the Supreme Court
    (3) Retired chief justice of a high court
    (4) Retired judge of High Court
    Select the incorrect answer from the code given below
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct : The Chairperson should be a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court and other judicial members should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court.
    Serving judge of Supreme Court can become a member of National Human Rights Commission.
    Retired judge of Supreme Court is also eligible to become member of Supreme Court.
    Retired Chief Justice of High Court can also become a member of of National Human Rights Commission.
    Statement 4 is not correct : A Retired judge of the high court is not eligible to become a member of NHRC.

    Unattempted
    

    Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct : The Chairperson should be a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court and other judicial members should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court.
    Serving judge of Supreme Court can become a member of National Human Rights Commission.
    Retired judge of Supreme Court is also eligible to become member of Supreme Court.
    Retired Chief Justice of High Court can also become a member of of National Human Rights Commission.
    Statement 4 is not correct : A Retired judge of the high court is not eligible to become a member of NHRC.
78. Question 78 of 100

    78. Question

    Which of the statements given below is/are correct regarding Special Officer for linguistic minorities?
    (1) It is a statutory body.
    (2) The officer is appointed by the President of India.
    (3) The officer investigates matters relating to safeguards provided to Linguistic Minorities and reports to the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) All of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 350B: Special Officer for linguistic minorities. There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President. It shall be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under this Constitution and report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct, and the President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, and sent to the Governments of the States concerned.
    Special officer for linguistic minorities is a constitutional body. But originally, the constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the special officer for linguistic minorities. Later, the states reorganization Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new article 350-B in Part XVII of the constitution. It comes under the Ministry of Minority affairs.
    Statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Article 350B: Special Officer for linguistic minorities. There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President. It shall be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under this Constitution and report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct, and the President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, and sent to the Governments of the States concerned.
    Special officer for linguistic minorities is a constitutional body. But originally, the constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the special officer for linguistic minorities. Later, the states reorganization Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new article 350-B in Part XVII of the constitution. It comes under the Ministry of Minority affairs.
    Statement 2 is correct.
79. Question 79 of 100

    79. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind.
    (2) In India, their population is present only in the Upper Ganga River.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Dolphins are among one of the oldest creatures in the world along with some species of turtles, crocodiles and sharks. The Gangetic Dolphins are generally blind and catch their prey in a unique manner. They emit an ultrasonic sound which reaches the prey. The dolphin then registers this image in its mind and subsequently catches hold of its prey.
    Statement 2 is not correct: The distributional range of the Ganges river dolphin includes over 10,000 km of the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna, and the Sangu-Karnaphuli River systems in Bangladesh, India and Nepal.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Dolphins are among one of the oldest creatures in the world along with some species of turtles, crocodiles and sharks. The Gangetic Dolphins are generally blind and catch their prey in a unique manner. They emit an ultrasonic sound which reaches the prey. The dolphin then registers this image in its mind and subsequently catches hold of its prey.
    Statement 2 is not correct: The distributional range of the Ganges river dolphin includes over 10,000 km of the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna, and the Sangu-Karnaphuli River systems in Bangladesh, India and Nepal.
80. Question 80 of 100

    80. Question

    With reference to the Ozone, consider the following statements:
    (1) Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere.
    (2) Ozone occurs in two layers of the atmosphere.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere. But this “good” ozone is gradually being destroyed by man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS), including chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), halons, methyl bromide, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform.
    Statement 2 is correct: Ozone occurs in two layers of the atmosphere. The layer closest to the Earth’s surface is the troposphere. Here, groundlevel or “bad” ozone is an air pollutant that is harmful to breathe and it damages crops, trees and other vegetation.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere. But this “good” ozone is gradually being destroyed by man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS), including chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), halons, methyl bromide, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform.
    Statement 2 is correct: Ozone occurs in two layers of the atmosphere. The layer closest to the Earth’s surface is the troposphere. Here, groundlevel or “bad” ozone is an air pollutant that is harmful to breathe and it damages crops, trees and other vegetation.
81. Question 81 of 100

    81. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding a Fish:
    (1) It is Native to South Asia where it is found in India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan.
    (2) It is a significant vertebrate model organism in scientific research as their embryo is transparent & their development is incredibly fast.
    (3) According to a recent study by the Agharkar Research Institute (ARI), a protein found in the backbone of this fish can have potential therapeutic implications for regeneration in degenerated human discs.
    The statements given above are related to which of the following?
    (A) Rohu
    (B) Zebrafish
    (C) Swordfish
    (D) Prawn

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Zebrafish
    • Study by Agharkar Research Institute (ARI):
    A protein found in the backbone of zebrafish plays a positive role in disc maintenance and promotes regeneration in aged discs between vertebrae.
    This protein of zebrafish can have potential therapeutic implications to promote regeneration in degenerated human discs.
    • Habitat:
    Zebrafish typically inhabit moderately flowing to stagnant clear water of quite shallow depth in streams, canals, ditches, oxbow lakes, ponds and rice paddies.
    Native to South Asia where it is found in India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan.
    • Characteristics that make them significant for research:
    Transparent Embryo:
    Zebrafish are useful because the embryo is transparent, it develops outside of its mother, and its development from eggs to larvae happens in just three days.
    Faster development:
    The other main advantage is that they develop incredibly fast.
    So from a single cell the day they’re born, they will have a head, and a tail, and a beating heart within 24 hours. By 72 hours their brains are working, and fins and trunk are twitching, and by five days old they are swimming around and they’re hunting and they’re fully viable organisms.
    This is perfect essentially for both geneticists and developmental biologists.

    Unattempted
    

    Zebrafish
    • Study by Agharkar Research Institute (ARI):
    A protein found in the backbone of zebrafish plays a positive role in disc maintenance and promotes regeneration in aged discs between vertebrae.
    This protein of zebrafish can have potential therapeutic implications to promote regeneration in degenerated human discs.
    • Habitat:
    Zebrafish typically inhabit moderately flowing to stagnant clear water of quite shallow depth in streams, canals, ditches, oxbow lakes, ponds and rice paddies.
    Native to South Asia where it is found in India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan.
    • Characteristics that make them significant for research:
    Transparent Embryo:
    Zebrafish are useful because the embryo is transparent, it develops outside of its mother, and its development from eggs to larvae happens in just three days.
    Faster development:
    The other main advantage is that they develop incredibly fast.
    So from a single cell the day they’re born, they will have a head, and a tail, and a beating heart within 24 hours. By 72 hours their brains are working, and fins and trunk are twitching, and by five days old they are swimming around and they’re hunting and they’re fully viable organisms.
    This is perfect essentially for both geneticists and developmental biologists.
82. Question 82 of 100

    82. Question

    With reference to National Commission for Scheduled Castes, consider following statements:
    (1) Originally the Constitution just had a Special officer for SCs and STs.
    (2) National Commission for SCs came into existence in 2005.
    (3) 89th Amendment bifurcated the National Commission for SCs and STs in to two.
    Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    •The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional body. Article 338 of the Constitution says that There shall be a commission for the Scheduled Castes to be known as the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes.
    •The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the commission into two distinct bodies – National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338) and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Article 338-A).
    •The separate National Commission for SCs came into existence in 2004.
    •It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and three other members.
    •They are appointed by the President.
    •Their conditions of service and tenure of office are determined by the President.
    Under the original provisions of Article 338 of the Constitution, Special Officer (Commissioner) for SC&ST appointed was assigned the duty to investigate all matters relating to the Safeguards for SCs and STs in various Statutes and to report to the President upon the working of these Safeguards.
    Statement 1 & 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    •The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional body. Article 338 of the Constitution says that There shall be a commission for the Scheduled Castes to be known as the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes.
    •The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the commission into two distinct bodies – National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338) and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Article 338-A).
    •The separate National Commission for SCs came into existence in 2004.
    •It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and three other members.
    •They are appointed by the President.
    •Their conditions of service and tenure of office are determined by the President.
    Under the original provisions of Article 338 of the Constitution, Special Officer (Commissioner) for SC&ST appointed was assigned the duty to investigate all matters relating to the Safeguards for SCs and STs in various Statutes and to report to the President upon the working of these Safeguards.
    Statement 1 & 3 are correct.
83. Question 83 of 100

    83. Question

    Which of the following are the powers of National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?
    (1) Commission has powers of civil court.
    (2) The Central government and the state governments are obligated to consult the commission on all major policy matters affecting the STs.
    (3) It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and three other members. They are appointed by the President.
    (4) A new Ministry of Tribal Affairs was created in 1999.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only three
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The commission is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure.
    Statement 1 is correct : The commission, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit and in particular in respect of the following matters –
    •summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him on oath;
    •requiring the discovery and production of any document;
    •receiving evidence on affidavits;
    •requisitioning any public record from any court or office;
    •issuing summons for the examination of witnesses and documents; and
    •any other matter which the President may determine.
    Statement 2 is correct : The Central government and the state governments are obligated to consult the commission on all major policy matters affecting the STs.
    Statement 4 is correct : A new Ministry of Tribal Affairs was created in 1999 for a more focused approach towards the welfare and development of the STs.
    Statement 3 is correct : It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and three other members. They are appointed by the President. Their conditions of service and tenure of office are also determined by the President.

    Unattempted
    

    The commission is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure.
    Statement 1 is correct : The commission, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit and in particular in respect of the following matters –
    •summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him on oath;
    •requiring the discovery and production of any document;
    •receiving evidence on affidavits;
    •requisitioning any public record from any court or office;
    •issuing summons for the examination of witnesses and documents; and
    •any other matter which the President may determine.
    Statement 2 is correct : The Central government and the state governments are obligated to consult the commission on all major policy matters affecting the STs.
    Statement 4 is correct : A new Ministry of Tribal Affairs was created in 1999 for a more focused approach towards the welfare and development of the STs.
    Statement 3 is correct : It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and three other members. They are appointed by the President. Their conditions of service and tenure of office are also determined by the President.
84. Question 84 of 100

    84. Question

    With reference to Attorney General of India, consider following statements:
    (1) He can take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha.
    (2) He can be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha.
    (3) He can speak in the Lok Sabha.
    (4) He can vote in the Lok Sabha.
    Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. Hence, statement 1,2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. Hence, statement 1,2 and 3 are correct.
85. Question 85 of 100

    85. Question

    Consider following statements about Ken-Betwa river link project:
    (1) The linking canal will flow through Chhatarpur, Tikamgarh and Jhansi districts.
    (2) The link will be in the form of a canal that will be fed by the new Daudhan Dam on the Betwa river.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The linking canal will flow through Chhatarpur, Tikamgarh and Jhansi districts. Statement 1 is correct.
    The link will be in the form of a canal that will be fed by the new Daudhan Dam on the Ken. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The linking canal will flow through Chhatarpur, Tikamgarh and Jhansi districts. Statement 1 is correct.
    The link will be in the form of a canal that will be fed by the new Daudhan Dam on the Ken. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
86. Question 86 of 100

    86. Question

    Consider the following statements
    (1) Ken-Betwa Link Project is the first project under the National Perspective Plan for the interlinking of rivers.
    (2) Both Ken and Betwa are the tributaries of the Godavari River.
    Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
    (A) 1 Only
    (B) 2 Only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct:The Third Meeting of the Steering Committee of the Ken-Betwa Link Project (SC-KBLP) was held.
    Ken-Betwa Link Project is the first project under the National Perspective Plan for the interlinking of rivers. It aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken river in Madhya Pradesh to Betwa in Uttar Pradesh to irrigate the drought-prone Bundelkhand region. Statement 2 is not correct: Ken and Betwa are the tributaries of the Yamuna.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct:The Third Meeting of the Steering Committee of the Ken-Betwa Link Project (SC-KBLP) was held.
    Ken-Betwa Link Project is the first project under the National Perspective Plan for the interlinking of rivers. It aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken river in Madhya Pradesh to Betwa in Uttar Pradesh to irrigate the drought-prone Bundelkhand region. Statement 2 is not correct: Ken and Betwa are the tributaries of the Yamuna.
87. Question 87 of 100

    87. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Urea has 46% nitrogen (N), while Di-ammonium Phosphate (DAP) contains 46% phosphorus (P) plus 18% N.
    (2) Prices of other fertilizers compared to Urea & DAP are relatively higher.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    • Urea & DAP:
    Urea has 46% nitrogen (N), while DAP contains 46% phosphorus (P) plus 18% N and MOP has 60% potassium (K). Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • Urea:
    Annual consumption of this nitrogenous fertilizer has risen from 30 to 35 million tonnes (mt) in the last five years.
    • DAP:
    Di-ammonium phosphate or DAP is also seeing a similar phenomenon of over-application.
    • Underpricing of other fertilizers:
    Government has fixed maximum retail prices of Urea & DAP. It has informally-fixed MRPs for NPKS complexes and muriate of potash (MOP).
    Prices of other fertilizers compared to Urea & DAP are relatively higher. So farmers have little incentive to buy other fertilizers. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    • Urea & DAP:
    Urea has 46% nitrogen (N), while DAP contains 46% phosphorus (P) plus 18% N and MOP has 60% potassium (K). Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • Urea:
    Annual consumption of this nitrogenous fertilizer has risen from 30 to 35 million tonnes (mt) in the last five years.
    • DAP:
    Di-ammonium phosphate or DAP is also seeing a similar phenomenon of over-application.
    • Underpricing of other fertilizers:
    Government has fixed maximum retail prices of Urea & DAP. It has informally-fixed MRPs for NPKS complexes and muriate of potash (MOP).
    Prices of other fertilizers compared to Urea & DAP are relatively higher. So farmers have little incentive to buy other fertilizers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
88. Question 88 of 100

    88. Question

    The exclusive original jurisdictions of the Supreme Court does not extend to
    (1) Inter-state water disputes
    (2) Matters referred to the Finance Commission
    (3) Adjustment of certain expenses between the Centre and the States
    (4) Dispute between two or more states
    (5) Disputes regarding election of the President and the Vice-President
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only three
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court means that, no other court in India shall have the power to entertain any such suit on which only Supreme Court can provide judgments.
    This jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:
    • A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument.
    • A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement etc., which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction does not extent to such a dispute.
    • Inter-state water disputes.
    • Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
    • Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states.
    • Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
    • Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.
    As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. Thus, the disputes between two or more states or the Centre and one or more states, comes under exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
    Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court means that, no other court in India shall have the power to entertain any such suit on which only Supreme Court can provide judgments.
    This jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:
    • A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument.
    • A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement etc., which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction does not extent to such a dispute.
    • Inter-state water disputes.
    • Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
    • Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states.
    • Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
    • Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.
    As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. Thus, the disputes between two or more states or the Centre and one or more states, comes under exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
    Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
89. Question 89 of 100

    89. Question

    Which of the following is/are the federal features of the Indian Constitution?
    (1) The Constitution is written and not easily amendable.
    (2) Equal representation of all states in Rajya Sabha.
    (3) Bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House and a Lower House.
    Select the incorrect answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid.
    Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure.
    State governments derive their authority from the constitution, not the Centre.
    The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31.

    Unattempted
    

    The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid.
    Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure.
    State governments derive their authority from the constitution, not the Centre.
    The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31.
90. Question 90 of 100

    90. Question

    Choose the correct statements about the Election Commission of India:
    (1) It has been a multi-member body since the commencement of the Constitution.
    (2) All its members have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections.
    (3) All its members are appointed for a five-year term.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution provided for the Election Commission to be either a single member or a multi-member body. Till 1989, the Election Commission was single member. Just before the 1989 general elections, two Election Commissioners were appointed, making the body multi-member. Soon after the elections, the Commission reverted to its single member status. In 1993, two Election Commissioners were once again appointed and the Commission became multi-member and has remained multi-member since then.
    Statement 2 is correct. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) presides over the Election Commission, but does not have more powers than the other Election Commissioners. The CEC and the two Election Commissioners have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections as a collective body.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The Constitution ensures the security of the tenure of the CEC and Election Commissioners. They are appointed for a six-year term or continue till the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution provided for the Election Commission to be either a single member or a multi-member body. Till 1989, the Election Commission was single member. Just before the 1989 general elections, two Election Commissioners were appointed, making the body multi-member. Soon after the elections, the Commission reverted to its single member status. In 1993, two Election Commissioners were once again appointed and the Commission became multi-member and has remained multi-member since then.
    Statement 2 is correct. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) presides over the Election Commission, but does not have more powers than the other Election Commissioners. The CEC and the two Election Commissioners have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections as a collective body.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. The Constitution ensures the security of the tenure of the CEC and Election Commissioners. They are appointed for a six-year term or continue till the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
91. Question 91 of 100

    91. Question

    With reference to Sarkaria Commission, consider the following statements:
    (1) The commission was to review the question of centre state relation.
    (2) Its recommendations led to the formation of Inter state council.
    (3) It leads to the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner to address governmental corruption.
    Which of the statements(s) given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The Sarkaria Commission was asked to examine and review the working on existing arrangements between the Centre and states in all spheres and recommend appropriate changes and measures.
    Statement 2 is correct: Inter-State council is a constitutional body under Article 263 of the constitution. It was established by Presidential Order dated 28th May 1990. The purpose of the Interstate Council is to facilitate coordination between states and the centre.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Central Vigilance Commissioner an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. CVC was established on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam Committee, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct: The Sarkaria Commission was asked to examine and review the working on existing arrangements between the Centre and states in all spheres and recommend appropriate changes and measures.
    Statement 2 is correct: Inter-State council is a constitutional body under Article 263 of the constitution. It was established by Presidential Order dated 28th May 1990. The purpose of the Interstate Council is to facilitate coordination between states and the centre.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Central Vigilance Commissioner an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. CVC was established on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam Committee, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
92. Question 92 of 100

    92. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The minimum strength of the legislative council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly.
    (2) The Parliament can create a legislative council for a state if the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect with a simple majority.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 406. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state. This is done to ensure the predominance of the directly elected House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect. Such a specific resolution must be passed by the state assembly by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the assembly present and voting. This Act of Parliament is not to be deemed as an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 and is passed like an ordinary piece of legislation. (i.e., by simple majority)

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 406. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state. This is done to ensure the predominance of the directly elected House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect. Such a specific resolution must be passed by the state assembly by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the assembly present and voting. This Act of Parliament is not to be deemed as an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 and is passed like an ordinary piece of legislation. (i.e., by simple majority)
93. Question 93 of 100

    93. Question

    With reference to National Emergency, consider the following statements:
    (1) The proclamation of a war emergency cannot be made by the President unless the Union cabinet gives him in written that such proclamation should be made.
    (2) The 39th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration of a National Emergency immune from the judicial review.
    (3) During national emergency parliament can not make law on any subject mentioned in the state’s list.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The proclamation of a war emergency cannot be made by the President unless the Union cabinet gives him in written that such proclamation should be made. The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration of a National Emergency immune from the judicial review. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Statement 2 is incorrect.
    If the proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of one month without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.
    During national emergency parliament can make law on any subject mentioned in the state’s list. Statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The proclamation of a war emergency cannot be made by the President unless the Union cabinet gives him in written that such proclamation should be made. The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration of a National Emergency immune from the judicial review. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Statement 2 is incorrect.
    If the proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of one month without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.
    During national emergency parliament can make law on any subject mentioned in the state’s list. Statement 3 is incorrect.
94. Question 94 of 100

    94. Question

    Which of the following are the main jurisdictions of the High Court of a State?
    (1) Original jurisdiction
    (2) Supervisory jurisdiction
    (3) A court of record
    (4) Advisory jurisdiction
    Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (A) Only 1, 2 and 3
    (B) Only 2, 3 and 4
    (C) Only 1, 3 and 4
    (D) Only 1, 2 and 4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    At present, a high court enjoys the following jurisdiction and powers:
    Original jurisdiction.
    Writ jurisdiction.
    Appellate jurisdiction.
    Supervisory jurisdiction.
    Control over subordinate courts.
    A court of record.
    Power of judicial review

    Unattempted
    

    At present, a high court enjoys the following jurisdiction and powers:
    Original jurisdiction.
    Writ jurisdiction.
    Appellate jurisdiction.
    Supervisory jurisdiction.
    Control over subordinate courts.
    A court of record.
    Power of judicial review
95. Question 95 of 100

    95. Question

    With reference to Gram Nyayalayas, consider the following statements:
    (1) It has jurisdiction over both civil and criminal cases.
    (2) The appeals against its decisions lie directly in High Courts.
    (3) A Gram Nyayalaya is bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Gram Nyayalayas have jurisdiction over both Civil and Criminal cases. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    An appeal against a judgement of the Gram Nyayalaya is taken forward as follows: Session Courts in case of criminal case; District courts in case of civil cases. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    A Gram Nyayalaya is not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; but is guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Gram Nyayalayas have jurisdiction over both Civil and Criminal cases. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    An appeal against a judgement of the Gram Nyayalaya is taken forward as follows: Session Courts in case of criminal case; District courts in case of civil cases. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    A Gram Nyayalaya is not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; but is guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
96. Question 96 of 100

    96. Question

    With reference to 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, consider following statements:
    (1) Organization of Gram Sabha is a compulsory provision.
    (2) Making the grants-in-aid to the panchayats from the consolidated fund of the state is a compulsory provision
    (3) Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats is a compulsory provision
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Compulsory Provisions :
    Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
    Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
    21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
    Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.
    Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
    Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
    Voluntary Provisions :
    Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
    Assigning to a panchayat the taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government.
    Making the grants-in-aid to the panchay-ats from the consolidated fund of the state
    Providing for constitution of funds for crediting all moneys of the panchayats.

    Unattempted
    

    Compulsory Provisions :
    Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
    Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
    21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
    Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.
    Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
    Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
    Voluntary Provisions :
    Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
    Assigning to a panchayat the taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government.
    Making the grants-in-aid to the panchay-ats from the consolidated fund of the state
    Providing for constitution of funds for crediting all moneys of the panchayats.
97. Question 97 of 100

    97. Question

    Under Article 257 of the Indian Constitution, the Centre is empowered to give directions to the States regarding
    (1) The construction and maintenance of means of communication.
    (2) The measures for the protection of the railway within the States.
    (3) The execution of specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Caste People.
    Which of the statements given above is incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Article 257: Control of the Union over States in certain cases, the Centre is empowered to give directions to the states with regard to the exercise of their executive power in the following matters:
    the construction and maintenance of means of communication (declared to be of national or military importance) by the state;
    the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state;
    the provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups in the state; and
    the drawing up and execution of the specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the state.
    Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Article 257: Control of the Union over States in certain cases, the Centre is empowered to give directions to the states with regard to the exercise of their executive power in the following matters:
    the construction and maintenance of means of communication (declared to be of national or military importance) by the state;
    the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state;
    the provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups in the state; and
    the drawing up and execution of the specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the state.
    Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
98. Question 98 of 100

    98. Question

    With reference to state funding of elections, consider the following statements:
    (1) It means that government gives funds to political parties or candidates for contesting elections.
    (2) Partial state funding of elections is practised in India.
    (3) It can limit the influence of wealthy people and rich mafias.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    State funding of elections means that government gives funds to political parties or candidates for contesting elections. State funding increases transparency inside the party and also in candidate finance, as certain restrictions can be put along with state funding. State funding can limit the influence of wealthy people and rich mafias, thereby purifying the election process Through state funding the demand for internal democracy in party, women representations, representations of weaker section can be encouraged. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
    Through state funding of elections the tax payers are forced to support even those political parties or candidates, whose view they do not subscribe to. State funding encourages status quo that keeps the established party or candidate in power and makes it difficult for the new parties.
    State funding of elections is not practiced in India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    State funding of elections means that government gives funds to political parties or candidates for contesting elections. State funding increases transparency inside the party and also in candidate finance, as certain restrictions can be put along with state funding. State funding can limit the influence of wealthy people and rich mafias, thereby purifying the election process Through state funding the demand for internal democracy in party, women representations, representations of weaker section can be encouraged. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
    Through state funding of elections the tax payers are forced to support even those political parties or candidates, whose view they do not subscribe to. State funding encourages status quo that keeps the established party or candidate in power and makes it difficult for the new parties.
    State funding of elections is not practiced in India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
99. Question 99 of 100

    99. Question

    With respect to the administrative tribunals, consider the following statements:
    (1) They are statutory bodies.
    (2) They function on the principles of “natural justice”.
    (3) An appeal to the decision of the CAT lies with the Supreme Court.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Administrative tribunals are authorities outside the ordinary court system, which interpret and apply the laws when acts of public administration are questioned in formal suits by the courts or by other established methods. In other words, they are agencies created by specific enactments for adjudicate upon disputes that may arise in the course of implementation of the provisions of relevant enactments i.e specially constituted authorities established by law to settle the dispute between the citizen and administration.
    They are judicial in the sense that the tribunals have to decide facts and apply them impartially, without considering executive policy. They are administrative because the reasons for preferring them to the ordinary courts of law are administrative reasons.
    They are established by the executive in accordance with statutory provisions. Hence, statement 1 is correct. They are required to act judicially and perform quasi-judicial functions. The proceedings are deemed to be judicial proceedings and in certain procedural matters they have powers of a civil court. They are not bound by the elaborate rules of evidence or procedures governing the ordinary courts.
    They are independent bodies and are only required to follow the procedure prescribed by the relevant law and observe the principles of “Natural Justice”. They do not follow the technicalities of rules of procedure and evidence prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) and Evidence Act respectively. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Initially the decision of the Tribunal could be challenged before Hon'ble Supreme Court by filing Special Leave Petition. However, after the Supreme Court's decision in L. Chandra Kumar's case, the orders of Central Administrative Tribunal are now being challenged by way of Writ Petition under Article 226/227 of the Constitution before respective High Court in whose territorial jurisdiction the Bench of the Tribunal is situated. Hence, only statement 3 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Administrative tribunals are authorities outside the ordinary court system, which interpret and apply the laws when acts of public administration are questioned in formal suits by the courts or by other established methods. In other words, they are agencies created by specific enactments for adjudicate upon disputes that may arise in the course of implementation of the provisions of relevant enactments i.e specially constituted authorities established by law to settle the dispute between the citizen and administration.
    They are judicial in the sense that the tribunals have to decide facts and apply them impartially, without considering executive policy. They are administrative because the reasons for preferring them to the ordinary courts of law are administrative reasons.
    They are established by the executive in accordance with statutory provisions. Hence, statement 1 is correct. They are required to act judicially and perform quasi-judicial functions. The proceedings are deemed to be judicial proceedings and in certain procedural matters they have powers of a civil court. They are not bound by the elaborate rules of evidence or procedures governing the ordinary courts.
    They are independent bodies and are only required to follow the procedure prescribed by the relevant law and observe the principles of “Natural Justice”. They do not follow the technicalities of rules of procedure and evidence prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) and Evidence Act respectively. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Initially the decision of the Tribunal could be challenged before Hon'ble Supreme Court by filing Special Leave Petition. However, after the Supreme Court's decision in L. Chandra Kumar's case, the orders of Central Administrative Tribunal are now being challenged by way of Writ Petition under Article 226/227 of the Constitution before respective High Court in whose territorial jurisdiction the Bench of the Tribunal is situated. Hence, only statement 3 is incorrect.
100. Question 100 of 100

     100. Question

     With reference to Notified Area Committee, consider the following statements:
     (1) Created by a notification and functions within the framework of the State Municipal Act.
     (2) Unlike the municipality, it is an entirely nominated body by state government.
     (3) it’s a statutory body created for administration of fast developing town and town which does not yet fulfill all conditions necessary for constitution of a municipality.
     Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
     (A) Only one
     (B) Only two
     (C) All
     (D) None

     • A
     • B
     • C
     • D
     Correct
     

     Incorrect
     

     Notified Area Committee
     A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types of areas–a fast developing town due to industrialisation, and a town which does not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered important by the state government.
     Since it is established by a notification in the government gazette, it is called as notified area committee. Though it functions within the framework of the State Municipal Act, only those provisions of the act apply to it which are notified in the government gazette by which it is created. It may also be entrusted to exercise powers under any other act.
     Its powers are almost equivalent to those of a municipality. But unlike the municipality, it is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government. Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a statutory body.
     Only 1 and 2 are correct.

     Unattempted
     

     Notified Area Committee
     A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types of areas–a fast developing town due to industrialisation, and a town which does not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered important by the state government.
     Since it is established by a notification in the government gazette, it is called as notified area committee. Though it functions within the framework of the State Municipal Act, only those provisions of the act apply to it which are notified in the government gazette by which it is created. It may also be entrusted to exercise powers under any other act.
     Its powers are almost equivalent to those of a municipality. But unlike the municipality, it is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government. Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a statutory body.
     Only 1 and 2 are correct.