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      Test 2
      Test 2

      Enlight IAS – TEST 2 {J}

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      2. Review
      1. Question 1 of 100
        1. Question
        2 points

        Consider the statements with respect to “prohibition of discrimination on certain grounds” and choose the correct statements.

        (A) The state is permitted to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens.

        (B) The state is permitted to make any special provision for the advancement of any economically and educationally backward classes of citizens.

        (C) The state is permitted to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and economically backward classes of citizen.

        (D) None of the above statement is correct.

        Correct

        • Under Article 15 there are 3 exceptions to the general rule of nondiscriminations.
        1. The state is permitted to make any special provision or women and children.
        2. The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizen (or) for the SC (or) ST.

        • The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizen (or) for the SC (or) ST regarding their admission to educational institution except the minority educational institutions.

        Incorrect

        • Under Article 15 there are 3 exceptions to the general rule of nondiscriminations.
        1. The state is permitted to make any special provision or women and children.
        2. The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizen (or) for the SC (or) ST.

        • The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizen (or) for the SC (or) ST regarding their admission to educational institution except the minority educational institutions.

        Unattempted

        • Under Article 15 there are 3 exceptions to the general rule of nondiscriminations.
        1. The state is permitted to make any special provision or women and children.
        2. The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizen (or) for the SC (or) ST.

        • The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizen (or) for the SC (or) ST regarding their admission to educational institution except the minority educational institutions.

      2. Question 2 of 100
        2. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with reference to the Preamble to the Constitution.

        (1) The Preamble is a modified version of the Poorna Swaraj pledge of Indian National Congress.

        (2) The Preamble is neither a part of the basic structure of the Constitution nor a justiciable part of the Constitution.

        (3) The Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati Case held that the Preamble can be amended subject to the doctrine of “Basic Structure of the Constitution”.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 and 2 only
        (B) 2 and 3 only
        (C) 3 only
        (D) None of the above

        Correct

        • The Preamble is a part of basic structure of the Constitution, as expounded by the Keshavananda Bharathi Case, 1973.

        Incorrect

        • The Preamble is a part of basic structure of the Constitution, as expounded by the Keshavananda Bharathi Case, 1973.

        Unattempted

        • The Preamble is a part of basic structure of the Constitution, as expounded by the Keshavananda Bharathi Case, 1973.

      3. Question 3 of 100
        3. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with respect to acquisition of Indian Citizenship through “Naturalisation” in accordance with the Citizenship of India Act 1955)
        (1) Citizenship of India by naturalization can be acquired by a foreigner (not illegal migrant) who is ordinarily resident in India for twelve years.

        (2) This twelve years is calculated in such a way that the person is ordinarily resident throughout the period of twelve months immediately preceding the date of application and for eleven years in the aggregate in the fourteen years preceding the twelve months.
        The correct statement/s is/are
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        • The above two conditions + other qualifications specified in the Act.

        Incorrect

        • The above two conditions + other qualifications specified in the Act.

        Unattempted

        • The above two conditions + other qualifications specified in the Act.

      4. Question 4 of 100
        4. Question
        2 points

        With reference to Indian State of Forest Report, consider the following points :
        (1) The India State of Forest Report 2019 has been prepared by Forest Survey of India (FSI).
        (2) Tree and Forest cover has increased by 3,976 square kilometer in the last two years.
        Select the correct codes given below:
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C)Neither 1 nor 2
        (D) Both 1 and 2

        Correct

        The India State of Forest Report 2019 has been prepared by Forest Survey of India (FSI).
        The report is a biennial exercise.
        It assesses the forest and tree cover, bamboo resources, carbon stock and forest fires.
        The forest cover in the country has increased by 3,976 square kilometer in the last two years.
        The tree and forest cover together made up 25.56% of India”s area.
        In the last assessment it was 24.39%.

        Incorrect

        The India State of Forest Report 2019 has been prepared by Forest Survey of India (FSI).
        The report is a biennial exercise.
        It assesses the forest and tree cover, bamboo resources, carbon stock and forest fires.
        The forest cover in the country has increased by 3,976 square kilometer in the last two years.
        The tree and forest cover together made up 25.56% of India”s area.
        In the last assessment it was 24.39%.

        Unattempted

        The India State of Forest Report 2019 has been prepared by Forest Survey of India (FSI).
        The report is a biennial exercise.
        It assesses the forest and tree cover, bamboo resources, carbon stock and forest fires.
        The forest cover in the country has increased by 3,976 square kilometer in the last two years.
        The tree and forest cover together made up 25.56% of India”s area.
        In the last assessment it was 24.39%.

      5. Question 5 of 100
        5. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana :
        (1) It is administered by the Ministry of Agriculture.

        (2) The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) shall be the Pension Fund Manager and responsible for Pension pay out.

        (3) The scheme is voluntary and contributory for farmers in the entry age group of 18 to 40 years.
        Select the correct codes given below:
        (A) 1 and 2 only
        (B) 2 and 3 only
        (C) 1 and 3 only
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        The scheme is voluntary and contributory for farmers in the entry age group of 18 to 40 years.

        A monthly pension of Rs. 3000/– will be provided to them on attaining the age of 60 years.

        The spouse is also eligible to get a separate pension of Rs. 3000/- upon making separate contributions to the Fund.

        The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) shall be the Pension Fund Manager and responsible for Pension pay out.

        Incorrect

        The scheme is voluntary and contributory for farmers in the entry age group of 18 to 40 years.

        A monthly pension of Rs. 3000/–will be provided to them on attaining the age of 60 years.

        The spouse is also eligible to get a separate pension of Rs. 3000/- upon making separate contributions to the Fund.

        The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) shall be the Pension Fund Manager and responsible for Pension pay out.

        Unattempted

        The scheme is voluntary and contributory for farmers in the entry age group of 18 to 40 years.

        A monthly pension of Rs. 3000/–will be provided to them on attaining the age of 60 years.

        The spouse is also eligible to get a separate pension of Rs. 3000/- upon making separate contributions to the Fund.

        The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) shall be the Pension Fund Manager and responsible for Pension pay out.

      6. Question 6 of 100
        6. Question
        2 points

        Proclamation of President”s rule in a state can be made:
        (A) when a Bill introduced by the State Government is defeated in the State Legislature.

        (B) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the state, is satisfied that a situation is likely to arise in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

        (C) If the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the state or otherwise is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

        (D) When the Governor and the Chief Minister of the state differ on a vital issue.

        Correct

        “President”s rule” refers to the imposition of Article 356 of the Constitution of India on a state whose constitutional machinery has failed.
        In the event that a state government is not able to function as per the Constitution, the State comes under the direct control of the central government; in other words, it is “under President”s rule”.
        Subsequently, executive authority is exercised through the centrally appointed Governor, who has the authority to appoint retired civil servants or other administrators, to assist him.

        Incorrect

        “President”s rule” refers to the imposition of Article 356 of the Constitution of India on a state whose constitutional machinery has failed.
        In the event that a state government is not able to function as per the Constitution, the State comes under the direct control of the central government; in other words, it is “under President”s rule”.
        Subsequently, executive authority is exercised through the centrally appointed Governor, who has the authority to appoint retired civil servants or other administrators, to assist him.

        Unattempted

        “President”s rule” refers to the imposition of Article 356 of the Constitution of India on a state whose constitutional machinery has failed.
        In the event that a state government is not able to function as per the Constitution, the State comes under the direct control of the central government; in other words, it is “under President”s rule”.
        Subsequently, executive authority is exercised through the centrally appointed Governor, who has the authority to appoint retired civil servants or other administrators, to assist him.

      7. Question 7 of 100
        7. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements :
        (1) The Constitution does not mention either a Confidence Motion or a No-confidence Motion.

        (2) Article 75 does specify that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        The Constitution does not mention either a Confidence Motion or a No-confidence Motion.
        Article 75 does specify that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
        This implies that the majority of Lok Sabha MPs must not be against the Prime Minister and his Cabinet.
        In 1991, Narasimha Rao formed a minority government and later scraped together majority support.
        Article 118 of the Constitution permits each house of the Parliament to make its own rules for the conduct of business.
        Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a Motion of No-confidence.
        Any member may give a written notice, the Speaker shall read the Motion of No-confidence in the House and ask all those persons to rise who favour that the Motion be taken up.
        If there are 50 MPs in favour, the Speaker allots a date for discussing the Motion.
        The first NDA government lost such a Motion in 1999.

        Incorrect

        The Constitution does not mention either a Confidence Motion or a No-confidence Motion.
        Article 75 does specify that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
        This implies that the majority of Lok Sabha MPs must not be against the Prime Minister and his Cabinet.
        In 1991, Narasimha Rao formed a minority government and later scraped together majority support.
        Article 118 of the Constitution permits each house of the Parliament to make its own rules for the conduct of business.
        Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a Motion of No-confidence.
        Any member may give a written notice, the Speaker shall read the Motion of No-confidence in the House and ask all those persons to rise who favour that the Motion be taken up.
        If there are 50 MPs in favour, the Speaker allots a date for discussing the Motion.
        The first NDA government lost such a Motion in 1999.

        Unattempted

        The Constitution does not mention either a Confidence Motion or a No-confidence Motion.
        Article 75 does specify that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
        This implies that the majority of Lok Sabha MPs must not be against the Prime Minister and his Cabinet.
        In 1991, Narasimha Rao formed a minority government and later scraped together majority support.
        Article 118 of the Constitution permits each house of the Parliament to make its own rules for the conduct of business.
        Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a Motion of No-confidence.
        Any member may give a written notice, the Speaker shall read the Motion of No-confidence in the House and ask all those persons to rise who favour that the Motion be taken up.
        If there are 50 MPs in favour, the Speaker allots a date for discussing the Motion.
        The first NDA government lost such a Motion in 1999.

      8. Question 8 of 100
        8. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following statements regarding the Estimates Committee are correct?
        (1) No member of the Rajya Sabha is associated with it.

        (2) It has 20 members.

        (3) Its members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation for a period of one year.

        (4) The Speaker nominates one of its members to be its Chairman.
        Select the correct answer using the code given below :
        (A) 1, 2 and 3
        (B) 1, 3 and 4
        (C) 1, 2 and 4
        (D) 2, 3 and 4

        Correct

        – The Estimates Committee is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
        The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members.
        A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee and if a member, after his election to the Committee, is appointed a minister, he ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
        – The term of the office of the Committee is one year.
        The functions of the Estimates Committee are:
        – To report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform, consistent with the policy underlying the estimates may be effected;
        – To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration;
        – To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates; and
        – To suggest the form in which the estimates shall be presented to the Parliament.

        Incorrect

        – The Estimates Committee is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
        The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members.
        A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee and if a member, after his election to the Committee, is appointed a minister, he ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
        – The term of the office of the Committee is one year.
        The functions of the Estimates Committee are:
        – To report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform, consistent with the policy underlying the estimates may be effected;
        – To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration;
        – To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates; and
        – To suggest the form in which the estimates shall be presented to the Parliament.

        Unattempted

        – The Estimates Committee is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
        The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members.
        A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee and if a member, after his election to the Committee, is appointed a minister, he ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
        – The term of the office of the Committee is one year.
        The functions of the Estimates Committee are:
        – To report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform, consistent with the policy underlying the estimates may be effected;
        – To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration;
        – To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates; and
        – To suggest the form in which the estimates shall be presented to the Parliament.

      9. Question 9 of 100
        9. Question
        2 points

        The Haj Committee of India is.

        (A) a statutory body under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.

        (B) a body under the All India Muslim Majlis-e-Mushawarat (AIMMM), working in tandem with the Ministry of Minority Affairs.

        (C) a statutory body under the Ministry of External Affairs.

        (D) a body under the All India Muslim Majlis-e-Mushawarat (AIMMM), working in tandem with the Ministry of External Affairs.

        Correct

        The Haj Committee of India commonly known as Central Haj Committee (CHC) has been established under the Haj Committee Act 2002, for making arrangements for the pilgrimage of Muslims for Haj, and for matters connected therewith.
        It is a body corporate having perpetual succession.

        Incorrect

        The Haj Committee of India commonly known as Central Haj Committee (CHC) has been established under the Haj Committee Act 2002, for making arrangements for the pilgrimage of Muslims for Haj, and for matters connected therewith.
        It is a body corporate having perpetual succession.

        Unattempted

        The Haj Committee of India commonly known as Central Haj Committee (CHC) has been established under the Haj Committee Act 2002, for making arrangements for the pilgrimage of Muslims for Haj, and for matters connected therewith.
        It is a body corporate having perpetual succession.

      10. Question 10 of 100
        10. Question
        2 points

        The Governor of a state is administered the oath by:
        (A) the Chief Justice of India
        (B) the Chief Justice of the State High Court
        (C) the President
        (D) None of the above

        Correct

        Every Governor and every person discharging the functions of the Governor shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of that court available, an oath or affirmation.

        Incorrect

        Every Governor and every person discharging the functions of the Governor shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of that court available, an oath or affirmation.

        Unattempted

        Every Governor and every person discharging the functions of the Governor shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of that court available, an oath or affirmation.

      11. Question 11 of 100
        11. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding the Governor of a state:
        (1) The Governor is the constitutional head of the state.

        (2) Under Article 163 of the Constitution, the governor is bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in those cases where the Constitution or a law directs that he act at discretion.

        (3) The Governor appoints the judges of the High Court.
        Which of the statements given above are correct?
        (A) 1 and 3
        (B) 2 only
        (C) 1 and 2
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        -Judges of the High Courts are appointed by the President, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, Governor of the State and also the Chief Justice of the concerned court.
        -For appointment as a judge of a High Court, the person must be an Indian citizen who has worked as a judge in any court in India for a period not less than ten years.
        Advocates with a ten year standing in any High Court are also eligible, besides jurists whom the President of India may consider as eminent.
        -Under Article 163 of the Constitution, the Governor is bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in those cases where the Constitution or a law directs that he act at discretion.
        Such discretion is very limited.

        Incorrect

        -Judges of the High Courts are appointed by the President, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, Governor of the State and also the Chief Justice of the concerned court.
        -For appointment as a judge of a High Court, the person must be an Indian citizen who has worked as a judge in any court in India for a period not less than ten years.
        Advocates with a ten year standing in any High Court are also eligible, besides jurists whom the President of India may consider as eminent.
        -Under Article 163 of the Constitution, the Governor is bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in those cases where the Constitution or a law directs that he act at discretion.
        Such discretion is very limited.

        Unattempted

        -Judges of the High Courts are appointed by the President, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, Governor of the State and also the Chief Justice of the concerned court.
        -For appointment as a judge of a High Court, the person must be an Indian citizen who has worked as a judge in any court in India for a period not less than ten years.
        Advocates with a ten year standing in any High Court are also eligible, besides jurists whom the President of India may consider as eminent.
        -Under Article 163 of the Constitution, the Governor is bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in those cases where the Constitution or a law directs that he act at discretion.
        Such discretion is very limited.

      12. Question 12 of 100
        12. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding the Sarkaria Commission:
        (1) It made the strong suggestion that Article 370 was a transitory provision.

        (2) On Article 356, it recommended that it be used “very sparingly, in extreme cases, as a measure of last resort, when all other alternatives fail to prevent or rectify a breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state”.

        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        – It made the strong suggestion that Article 370 was not a transitory provision.
        This appears to have been made specifically in response to “One all-India political party” that demanded the deletion of Article 370 “in the interests of national integration.
        “

        Incorrect

        It made the strong suggestion that Article 370 was not a transitory provision.
        This appears to have been made specifically in response to “One all-India political party” that demanded the deletion of Article 370 “in the interests of national integration.
        ”

        Unattempted

        It made the strong suggestion that Article 370 was not a transitory provision.
        This appears to have been made specifically in response to “One all-India political party” that demanded the deletion of Article 370 “in the interests of national integration.
        ”

      13. Question 13 of 100
        13. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched?
        (1) Call Attention Motion: To draw attention of the minister on a matter of urgent public importance.

        (2) Adjournment Motion: To adjourn the House before the expiry of the time.

        (3) Privilege Motion: To draw attention of the Speaker towards incorrect/incomplete answer by a minister.

        (4) Cut Motion: Cut motion is a veto power given to the member of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand in the Financial Bill discussed by the government.
        Select the correct answer using the code given below.

        (A) 1 only.

        (B) 2 only.

        (C) 1 and 3
        (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

        Correct

        Adjournment Motion:At the end of the Question-Hour in the Parliament, motion moved by a member when it is desired to draw the attention of the Executive for the purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance.

        Incorrect

        Adjournment Motion:At the end of the Question-Hour in the Parliament, motion moved by a member when it is desired to draw the attention of the Executive for the purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance.

        Unattempted

        Adjournment Motion:At the end of the Question-Hour in the Parliament, motion moved by a member when it is desired to draw the attention of the Executive for the purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance.

      14. Question 14 of 100
        14. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding the Vice-President of India.

        (1) The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

        (2) The Vice-President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college, consisting of members of both the houses of the Parliament and the members of the State Legislatures.

        (3) When the Vice-President acts as, or discharges the functions of the President, he or she immediately ceases to perform the normal functions of being the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
        Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
        (A) 2 only
        (B) 3 only
        (C) 1 and 2
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        The Vice-President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members of both the houses of the Parliament.
        The election of the Vice-President is slightly different from the election of the President, as the members of State Legislatures are not part of the electoral college for the Vice- Presidential election.

        Incorrect

        The Vice-President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members of both the houses of the Parliament.
        The election of the Vice-President is slightly different from the election of the President, as the members of State Legislatures are not part of the electoral college for the Vice- Presidential election.

        Unattempted

        The Vice-President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members of both the houses of the Parliament.
        The election of the Vice-President is slightly different from the election of the President, as the members of State Legislatures are not part of the electoral college for the Vice- Presidential election.

      15. Question 15 of 100
        15. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding Dr. B. R. Ambedkar:
        (1) He is considered to be the architect of water and river navigation policy in India.

        (2) He founded the Independent Labour Party.
        Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 Only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        – It is known fact that Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the architect of our Constitution.
        He is also the architect of the water and river navigation policy in India.
        – Babasaheb created two powerful institutions related to water, navigation and power.
        They were:
        The Central Waterways, Irrigation and Navigation Commission and The Central Technical Power Board.
        – Independent Labour Party (ILP) was an Indian political organisation formed under the leadership of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in 1936 against the brahmanical and capitalist structures in the society.
        ILP argued for Indian labour class while also stressing on the nature of caste structures and need for its annihilation.

        Incorrect

        It is known fact that Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the architect of our Constitution.
        He is also the architect of the water and river navigation policy in India.
        – Babasaheb created two powerful institutions related to water, navigation and power.
        They were:
        The Central Waterways, Irrigation and Navigation Commission and The Central Technical Power Board.
        – Independent Labour Party (ILP) was an Indian political organisation formed under the leadership of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in 1936 against the brahmanical and capitalist structures in the society.
        ILP argued for Indian labour class while also stressing on the nature of caste structures and need for its annihilation.

        Unattempted

        It is known fact that Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the architect of our Constitution.
        He is also the architect of the water and river navigation policy in India.
        – Babasaheb created two powerful institutions related to water, navigation and power.
        They were:
        The Central Waterways, Irrigation and Navigation Commission and The Central Technical Power Board.
        – Independent Labour Party (ILP) was an Indian political organisation formed under the leadership of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in 1936 against the brahmanical and capitalist structures in the society.
        ILP argued for Indian labour class while also stressing on the nature of caste structures and need for its annihilation.

      16. Question 16 of 100
        16. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following are the voluntary provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act?
        (1) Giving representation to the MPs and MLAs at different levels falling within their constituencies.

        (2) Giving the Panchayats financial powers in relation to take and levy fees etc.

        (3) Filling of various posts at all levels of PRIs by direct election.

        (4) Devolution of powers to the Panchayats to perform the functions enlisted in the XIth schedule.
        Select the correct answer using the code given below :
        (A) 1, 2 and 4
        (B) 2, 3 and 4
        (C) 2 and 3
        (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

        Correct

        Voluntary provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act are:
        • Giving representation to the MPs and MLAs at different levels falling within their constituencies.
        • Providing reservation of seats for backward classes in Panchayats at any level.
        • Granting powers and authority to the Panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self government.
        • Granting financial powers to the Panchayats, that is, authorising them to levy fees and appropriate taxes.

        Incorrect

        Voluntary provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act are:
        • Giving representation to the MPs and MLAs at different levels falling within their constituencies.
        • Providing reservation of seats for backward classes in Panchayats at any level.
        • Granting powers and authority to the Panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self government.
        • Granting financial powers to the Panchayats, that is, authorising them to levy fees and appropriate taxes.

        Unattempted

        Voluntary provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act are:
        • Giving representation to the MPs and MLAs at different levels falling within their constituencies.
        • Providing reservation of seats for backward classes in Panchayats at any level.
        • Granting powers and authority to the Panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self government.
        • Granting financial powers to the Panchayats, that is, authorising them to levy fees and appropriate taxes.

      17. Question 17 of 100
        17. Question
        2 points

        The key features of federalism in India are:
        (1) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.

        (2) The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified by the Parliament. So, the existence and authority of each tier of government is statutorily guaranteed.

        (3) There are some federal provisions of the Constitution that cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of all the levels of government.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 1 and 3
        (C) 1, 2 and 3
        (D) None of the above

        Correct

        All statements given above are correct.
        Federal provisions of the government :• Dual polity.
        • A written Constitution.
        • Clear division of powers.
        • A rigid Constitution: Constitution is rigid to the extent that provisions which are concerned with the federal structure can be amended only by joint action of the central and state governments.
        Such provisions require for their amendment, a special majority of the Parliament and also an approval of half of the state legislatures.

        Incorrect

        All statements given above are correct.
        Federal provisions of the government :• Dual polity.
        • A written Constitution.
        • Clear division of powers.
        • A rigid Constitution: Constitution is rigid to the extent that provisions which are concerned with the federal structure can be amended only by joint action of the central and state governments.
        Such provisions require for their amendment, a special majority of the Parliament and also an approval of half of the state legislatures.

        Unattempted

        All statements given above are correct.
        Federal provisions of the government :• Dual polity.
        • A written Constitution.
        • Clear division of powers.
        • A rigid Constitution: Constitution is rigid to the extent that provisions which are concerned with the federal structure can be amended only by joint action of the central and state governments.
        Such provisions require for their amendment, a special majority of the Parliament and also an approval of half of the state legislatures.

      18. Question 18 of 100
        18. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements :
        (1) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment provided for not more than one third women”s reservation in Panchayats at all levels.

        (2) The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the state legislature and the Panchayats just as the Seventh Schedule distributes powers between the Union of India and the states.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        The Act provides for the reservation of not less than one third of the total number of seats for women.
        Further not less than one third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level shall be reserved for women.

        Incorrect

        The Act provides for the reservation of not less than one third of the total number of seats for women.
        Further not less than one third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level shall be reserved for women.

        Unattempted

        The Act provides for the reservation of not less than one third of the total number of seats for women.
        Further not less than one third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level shall be reserved for women.

      19. Question 19 of 100
        19. Question
        2 points

        Under which of the following circumstances the Governor can remove the State Chief Information Commissioner?
        (1) If he has been convicted of an offence which involves a moral turpitude.

        (2) If he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions.

        (3) On grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity.

        (4) If he engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
        Select the correct answer using the code given below?
        (A) 1, 2 and 3
        (B) 2, 3 and 4
        (C) 1, 2 and 4
        (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

        Correct

        All statements given above are correct.
        The State Information Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten State Information Commissioners.
        They are appointed by the governor.

        Incorrect

        All statements given above are correct.
        The State Information Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten State Information Commissioners.
        They are appointed by the governor.

        Unattempted

        All statements given above are correct.
        The State Information Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten State Information Commissioners.
        They are appointed by the governor.

      20. Question 20 of 100
        20. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding the Nehru Report :
        (1) Nehru Report was a report by a committee headed by Pt. Motilal Nehru.

        (2) This committee was created when Lord Birkenhead, Secretary of State of India asked the Indian leaders to draft a Constitution for the country.

        (3) This report did not define the Fundamental Rights.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 1 and 2
        (C) 2 and 3
        (D) All of the above

        Correct

        The main points of the Nehru Report were as follows:• India would be given the Dominion status.
        This means independence within the British Commonwealth.
        • India will be a federation which shall have a bicameral legislature at the Centre and the Ministry would be responsible to the legislature.
        • The Governor General of India would be the constitutional head of India and will have the same powers as that of the British Crown.
        • There will be no separate electorate.
        • The draft report also defined the Citizenship and the Fundamental Rights.

        Incorrect

        The main points of the Nehru Report were as follows:• India would be given the Dominion status.
        This means independence within the British Commonwealth.
        • India will be a federation which shall have a bicameral legislature at the Centre and the Ministry would be responsible to the legislature.
        • The Governor General of India would be the constitutional head of India and will have the same powers as that of the British Crown.
        • There will be no separate electorate.
        • The draft report also defined the Citizenship and the Fundamental Rights.

        Unattempted

        The main points of the Nehru Report were as follows:• India would be given the Dominion status.
        This means independence within the British Commonwealth.
        • India will be a federation which shall have a bicameral legislature at the Centre and the Ministry would be responsible to the legislature.
        • The Governor General of India would be the constitutional head of India and will have the same powers as that of the British Crown.
        • There will be no separate electorate.
        • The draft report also defined the Citizenship and the Fundamental Rights.

      21. Question 21 of 100
        21. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding the Simon Commission :
        (1) This commission was appointed to report on the working of the Indian constitution established by the Government of India Act 1919.

        (2) There was only one member in the Commission from the princely states.

        (3) The Liberal Federation headed by Tej Bahadur Sapru supported the Commission.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) 2 and 3
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        – It was an All White Commission, so there is no question of a member in the Commission belonging to the princely states.
        – The Liberal federation headed by Tej Bahadur Sapru opposed the Commission.

        Incorrect

        It was an All White Commission, so there is no question of a member in the Commission belonging to the princely states.
        – The Liberal federation headed by Tej Bahadur Sapru opposed the Commission.

        Unattempted

        It was an All White Commission, so there is no question of a member in the Commission belonging to the princely states.
        – The Liberal federation headed by Tej Bahadur Sapru opposed the Commission.

      22. Question 22 of 100
        22. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following certain exceptions to the general rule of non-discrimination under Article 15 of the Indian Constitution:
        (1) The state is permitted to make any special provision for women and children
        (2) The state is permitted to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes regarding their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the state, except the minority educational institutions.

        Incorrect

        The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes regarding their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the state, except the minority educational institutions.

        Unattempted

        The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes regarding their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the state, except the minority educational institutions.

      23. Question 23 of 100
        23. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to the Indian Constitution:
        (1) Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities, as well as, linguistic minorities.

        (2) Article 30 is not confined only to minorities – religious or linguistic.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities, as well as, linguistic minorities.
        However, the Supreme Court held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only.
        This is because of the use of words “section of citizens” in the Article that include minorities as well as majority.
        – Article 30 is confined only to minorities – religious or linguistic.
        However, the term “minority” has not been defined anywhere in the constitution.

        Incorrect

        Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities, as well as, linguistic minorities.
        However, the Supreme Court held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only.
        This is because of the use of words “section of citizens” in the Article that include minorities as well as majority.
        – Article 30 is confined only to minorities – religious or linguistic.
        However, the term “minority” has not been defined anywhere in the constitution.

        Unattempted

        Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities, as well as, linguistic minorities.
        However, the Supreme Court held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only.
        This is because of the use of words “section of citizens” in the Article that include minorities as well as majority.
        – Article 30 is confined only to minorities – religious or linguistic.
        However, the term “minority” has not been defined anywhere in the constitution.

      24. Question 24 of 100
        24. Question
        2 points

        The power to grant Indian citizenship lies with the:
        (A) Ministry of Home Affairs
        (B) Cabinet Secretariat
        (C) President
        (D) Prime Minister”s Office

        Correct

        Citizenship is granted under Section 6 (I) of the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955 under the category “citizenship by naturalisation.
        ” The power to grant citizenship lies with the Home Ministry.

        Incorrect

        Citizenship is granted under Section 6 (I) of the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955 under the category “citizenship by naturalisation.
        ” The power to grant citizenship lies with the Home Ministry.

        Unattempted

        Citizenship is granted under Section 6 (I) of the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955 under the category “citizenship by naturalisation.
        ” The power to grant citizenship lies with the Home Ministry.

      25. Question 25 of 100
        25. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
        (1) The Peasants and Workers Party of India.

        (2) All India Scheduled Castes Federation.

        (3) The Independent Labour Party.
        Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
        (A) 1 and 2
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) 1 and 3
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        The Peasants and Workers Party was a pro‐leftist party, formed by the leftist leaders, like Kazi Nazrul Islam, Hemanta Kumar Sarkar, Qutubuddin Ahmad and Shamsuddin Hussain.

        Incorrect

        The Peasants and Workers Party was a pro‐leftist party, formed by the leftist leaders, like Kazi Nazrul Islam, Hemanta Kumar Sarkar, Qutubuddin Ahmad and Shamsuddin Hussain.

        Unattempted

        The Peasants and Workers Party was a pro‐leftist party, formed by the leftist leaders, like Kazi Nazrul Islam, Hemanta Kumar Sarkar, Qutubuddin Ahmad and Shamsuddin Hussain.

      26. Question 26 of 100
        26. Question
        2 points

        India remains Lower-Middle-Income Nation for a year 2020-21 In this regard, consider the following statements
        (1) World Bank assign world economies to various income groups
        (2) Grouping is done on the basis of Gross National Income per capita
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 Only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) None of the above

        Correct

        GNI is the sum of value added by all resident producers plus any product taxes (less subsidies) not included in the valuation of output plus net receipts of primaryincome (compensation of employees and property income) from abroad.
        • Both the statements are correct.
        • World Bank: India continues to be a lower-middle-income country along with 46others.
        • The World Bank classifies economies based on gross national income per capita inUS dollars, calculated using what is called the Atlas method.
        •The Bank uses four income groups:
        1. Low – $1,025 or less,
        2. Lower-middle – $1,026 to $3,995
        3. Upper-middle – $3,996 to $12,375
        4. High – $12,376 or more

        Incorrect

        GNI is the sum of value added by all resident producers plus any product taxes (less subsidies) not included in the valuation of output plus net receipts of primaryincome (compensation of employees and property income) from abroad.
        • Both the statements are correct.
        • World Bank: India continues to be a lower-middle-income country along with 46others.
        • The World Bank classifies economies based on gross national income per capita inUS dollars, calculated using what is called the Atlas method.
        •The Bank uses four income groups:
        1. Low – $1,025 or less,
        2. Lower-middle – $1,026 to $3,995
        3. Upper-middle – $3,996 to $12,375
        4. High – $12,376 or more

        Unattempted

        GNI is the sum of value added by all resident producers plus any product taxes (less subsidies) not included in the valuation of output plus net receipts of primaryincome (compensation of employees and property income) from abroad.
        • Both the statements are correct.
        • World Bank: India continues to be a lower-middle-income country along with 46others.
        • The World Bank classifies economies based on gross national income per capita inUS dollars, calculated using what is called the Atlas method.
        •The Bank uses four income groups:
        1. Low – $1,025 or less,
        2. Lower-middle – $1,026 to $3,995
        3. Upper-middle – $3,996 to $12,375
        4. High – $12,376 or more

      27. Question 27 of 100
        27. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to the PaymentsInfrastructure Development Fund (PIDF)
        (1) It has been set up with a corpus of Rs. 500 crore
        (2) It has been created to encourage deployment of Point of Sale (PoS)infrastructure
        (3) The Union government has made an initial contribution of Rs. 250crore
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the cpdes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 1 and 2
        (C) 2 and 3
        (D) 1 and 3

        Correct

        The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced the creation of a Rs. 500-crore Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF).
        • PIDF has been created to encourage deployment of Point of Sale (PoS)infrastructure, both physical and digital, in tier-3 to tier-6 centres and north easternstates.
        • The setting of PIDF is in line with the measures proposed by the vision documenton payment and settlement systems in India 2019-2021.
        • Statement 3: It has a corpus of Rs. 500 crore in which the RBI has made an initialcontribution of Rs. 250 crore. The remaining will come from the card-issuing banksand card networks operating in the country.
        • The fund will be governed through an advisory council but will be managed andadministered by the RBI.

        Incorrect

        The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced the creation of a Rs. 500-crore Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF).
        • PIDF has been created to encourage deployment of Point of Sale (PoS)infrastructure, both physical and digital, in tier-3 to tier-6 centres and north easternstates.
        • The setting of PIDF is in line with the measures proposed by the vision documenton payment and settlement systems in India 2019-2021.
        • Statement 3: It has a corpus of Rs. 500 crore in which the RBI has made an initialcontribution of Rs. 250 crore. The remaining will come from the card-issuing banksand card networks operating in the country.
        • The fund will be governed through an advisory council but will be managed andadministered by the RBI.

        Unattempted

        The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced the creation of a Rs. 500-crore Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF).
        • PIDF has been created to encourage deployment of Point of Sale (PoS)infrastructure, both physical and digital, in tier-3 to tier-6 centres and north easternstates.
        • The setting of PIDF is in line with the measures proposed by the vision documenton payment and settlement systems in India 2019-2021.
        • Statement 3: It has a corpus of Rs. 500 crore in which the RBI has made an initialcontribution of Rs. 250 crore. The remaining will come from the card-issuing banksand card networks operating in the country.
        • The fund will be governed through an advisory council but will be managed andadministered by the RBI.

      28. Question 28 of 100
        28. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statement about Senkaku Islands:
        (1) Senkaku Islands are disputed islands among China, Taiwan and Japan.
        (2) The Senkakus island chain has been administered by Taiwan.
        Choose correct code :
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 Only
        (C) Both 1 & 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        A local council in southern Japan has approved a bill to change the name of an area containing Senkaku Islands from Tonoshiro to Tonoshiro Senkaku.

        • Senkaku Islands are known as the Diaoyus by China and Tiaoyutai by Taiwan.

        • The Senkakus island chain has been administered by Japan since 1972, but its legal status has remained disputed until now.

        • The islands are disputed with China and Taiwan.

        • Eight uninhabited islands lie in the East China Sea.

        • They have a total area of about 7 sq km and lie northeast of Taiwan.

        • Islands are close to strategically important shipping lanes, offer rich fishing grounds and are thought to contain oil deposits.:MSGINCORRECT: A local council in southern Japan has approved a bill to change the name of an area containing Senkaku Islands from Tonoshiro to Tonoshiro Senkaku.

        • Senkaku Islands are known as the Diaoyus by China and Tiaoyutai by Taiwan.

        • The Senkakus island chain has been administered by Japan since 1972, but its legal status has remained disputed until now.

        • The islands are disputed with China and Taiwan.

        • Eight uninhabited islands lie in the East China Sea.

        • They have a total area of about 7 sq km and lie northeast of Taiwan.

        • Islands are close to strategically important shipping lanes, offer rich fishing grounds and are thought to contain oil deposits.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      29. Question 29 of 100
        29. Question
        2 points

        With regard to the United Nations Arms Trade Treaty (UNATT), consider the following statements
        (1) It regulates the international trade in conventional arms
        (2) India has not signed the Treaty
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A)1 Only
        (B)2 Only
        (C)Both 1 and 2
        (D)Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        China has decided to join the United Nations Arms Trade Treaty (UN-ATT) to regulate its arms sales.
        • The UN-ATT regulates the international trade in conventional arms, from small arms tobattle tanks, combat aircraft and warships, and controls the flow of weapons into conflict zones.
        • It entered into force on 24th December 2014.
        • The treaty requires member countries to keep records of international transfers ofweapons and to prohibit cross-border shipments that could be used in human rightsviolations or attacks on civilians.
        • State parties to the treaty may seek assistance in its implementation and the UN TrustFacility Supporting Cooperation on Arms Regulation (UNSCAR) was launched to helpin that.
        • UNSCAR is a voluntary, flexible multi-donor trust fund to kick-start advocacy,universalisation and implementation of the ATT.
        • India has not signed the Treaty on the grounds that it is weak on terrorism and nonstate actors and these concerns find no mention in the specific prohibitions of the Treaty.:MSGINCORRECT: China has decided to join the United Nations Arms Trade Treaty (UN-ATT) to regulate its arms sales.
        • The UN-ATT regulates the international trade in conventional arms, from small arms tobattle tanks, combat aircraft and warships, and controls the flow of weapons into conflict zones.
        • It entered into force on 24th December 2014.
        • The treaty requires member countries to keep records of international transfers ofweapons and to prohibit cross-border shipments that could be used in human rightsviolations or attacks on civilians.
        • State parties to the treaty may seek assistance in its implementation and the UN TrustFacility Supporting Cooperation on Arms Regulation (UNSCAR) was launched to helpin that.
        • UNSCAR is a voluntary, flexible multi-donor trust fund to kick-start advocacy,universalisation and implementation of the ATT.
        • India has not signed the Treaty on the grounds that it is weak on terrorism and nonstate actors and these concerns find no mention in the specific prohibitions of the Treaty.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      30. Question 30 of 100
        30. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to the International Transport and Transit Corridor (ITTC)
        (1) Agreement for establishment of ITTC has been signed between Iran, India and Afghanistan
        (2) It allows Indian goods to reach Afghanistan through Gwadar Port of Iran
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 Only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        Iran has decided to proceed with the construction of rail line from Chabaharport to Zahedan, along the border with Afghanistan, without India.
        • In 2016, the Trilateral Agreement on Establishment of International Transport andTransit Corridor was signed among India, Iran and Afghanistan.
        • Statement 2: The transit and transportation corridor allows Indian goods to reach Afghanistan through Iran (not Gwadar Port which is in Pakistan), bypassing Pakistani territory, and complements the Zaranj-Delaram highway built by India inAfghanistan in 2009.
        • Under this agreement, India committed towards developing Chabahar port as wellthe land-based route connecting the port to Afghanistan.
        • India also signed a pact with Iran to provide requisite services for the constructionof Chabahar-Zahedan railway line, that cuts down travel time from the Chabaharport to the Iran-Afghanistan border.:MSGINCORRECT: Iran has decided to proceed with the construction of rail line from Chabaharport to Zahedan, along the border with Afghanistan, without India.
        • In 2016, the Trilateral Agreement on Establishment of International Transport andTransit Corridor was signed among India, Iran and Afghanistan.
        • Statement 2: The transit and transportation corridor allows Indian goods to reach Afghanistan through Iran (not Gwadar Port which is in Pakistan), bypassing Pakistani territory, and complements the Zaranj-Delaram highway built by India in Afghanistan in 2009.
        • Under this agreement, India committed towards developing Chabahar port as wellthe land-based route connecting the port to Afghanistan.
        • India also signed a pact with Iran to provide requisite services for the constructionof Chabahar-Zahedan railway line, that cuts down travel time from the Chabahar port to the Iran-Afghanistan border.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      31. Question 31 of 100
        31. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to the Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA):
        (1) It is was established by United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
        (2) It”s headquartered is situated in Hague, Netherlands
        (3) India is a member of PCA
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) 1 and 3
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) has given the ruling in Enrica Lexiecase for killing of two Keralite fishermen.
        • The Enrica Lexie case is an ongoing international controversy about a shooting offtwo Indian fishermen at the western coast of India in 2012 by two Italian Marines.
        • Statement 1: It was established by the Convention for the Pacific Settlement ofInternational Disputes, concluded at The Hague in 1899.
        • It is an intergovernmental organization providing a variety of dispute resolutionservices involving various combinations of states, state entities, internationalorganizations and private parties.
        • It”s headquartered is situated in Hague, Netherlands.
        • India is its member.:MSGINCORRECT: The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) has given the ruling in Enrica Lexiecase for killing of two Keralite fishermen.
        • The Enrica Lexie case is an ongoing international controversy about a shooting offtwo Indian fishermen at the western coast of India in 2012 by two Italian Marines.
        • Statement 1: It was established by the Convention for the Pacific Settlement ofInternational Disputes, concluded at The Hague in 1899.
        • It is an intergovernmental organization providing a variety of dispute resolutionservices involving various combinations of states, state entities, internationalorganizations and private parties.
        • It”s headquartered is situated in Hague, Netherlands.
        • India is its member.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      32. Question 32 of 100
        32. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to the International Tribunal forthe Law of the Sea (ITLOS)
        (1) It is one of dispute settlement mechanisms under the UN Convention on theLaw of the Sea (UNCLOS)
        (2) It is composed of independent members who are elected from amongpersons enjoying the highest reputation for fairness and integrity and ofrecognised competence in the field of the law of the sea
        (3) India is a member to UNCLOS
        (4) Till date no Indian citizen is elected to the ITLOS
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 and 2
        (B) 1, 2 and 3
        (C) 3 and 4
        (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

        Correct

        The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) has given the ruling in Enrica Lexie casefor killing of two Keralite fishermen.
        • In 2015, Italy had filed case against India for detaining its two marines and took the caseto International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) under United Nations Conventionon the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
        • The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent members who are elected from amongpersons enjoying the highest reputation for fairness and integrity and of recognisedcompetence in the field of the law of the sea.
        • The tribunal is based in Hamburg, Germany.
        • The Tribunal has the power to settle disputes between party states. Currently, there are161 parties.
        • India is also a signatory to this convention.
        • International law expert Neeru Chadha became the first Indian woman to be appointedas a judge at the tribunal in 2017.:MSGINCORRECT: The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) has given the ruling in Enrica Lexie casefor killing of two Keralite fishermen.
        • In 2015, Italy had filed case against India for detaining its two marines and took the caseto International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) under United Nations Conventionon the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
        • The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent members who are elected from amongpersons enjoying the highest reputation for fairness and integrity and of recognisedcompetence in the field of the law of the sea.
        • The tribunal is based in Hamburg, Germany.
        • The Tribunal has the power to settle disputes between party states. Currently, there are161 parties.
        • India is also a signatory to this convention.
        • International law expert Neeru Chadha became the first Indian woman to be appointedas a judge at the tribunal in 2017.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      33. Question 33 of 100
        33. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to the Kholongchhu Hydropower Project
        (1) It is the first-ever Joint Venture project between India and Bhutan
        (2) It is run-of-the-river project located on the lower course of the Brahmaputra River
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 Only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        India and Bhutan have signed concession agreement on the 600 MW Kholongchhu Hydropower Project.
        • It is the first-ever Joint Venture (JV) project between India and Bhutan.
        • The JV partners are Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVN), and the Druk Green Power Corporation (DGPC) from India and Bhutan respectively.
        • Statement 2: The 600 MW run-of-the-river project is located on the lower course of the Kholongchhu river in eastern Bhutan”s Trashiyangtse district.:MSGINCORRECT: India and Bhutan have signed concession agreement on the 600 MW Kholongchhu Hydropower Project.
        • It is the first-ever Joint Venture (JV) project between India and Bhutan.
        • The JV partners are Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVN), and the Druk Green Power Corporation (DGPC) from India and Bhutan respectively.
        • Statement 2: The 600 MW run-of-the-river project is located on the lower course of the Kholongchhu river in eastern Bhutan”s Trashiyangtse district.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      34. Question 34 of 100
        34. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to the places sometimes mentioned in the news:
        (1) Iconic Hagia Sophia Museum is located in Isatanbul, Turkey
        (2) Natanz is an Underground Nuclear Facility located in Iran
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A)1 Only
        (B)2 Only
        (C)Both 1 and 2
        (D)Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        The government of Turkey has decided to convert Istanbul”s iconic Hagia Sophia Museum into a mosque.
        (2) Recently, a fire broke out at Natanz, an Underground Nuclear Facility of Iran used forenriching uranium.
        • Hagia Sophia is the former Greek Orthodox Christian patriarchal cathedral, later anOttoman imperial mosque and now a museum located in Istanbul, Turkey.
        – Built in AD 537 (Byzantine architecture), during the reign of Justinian 1, the Eastern Romanemperor, it is famous for its large dome.
        – The 1,500-year-old structure has been listed as a UNESCO”S World Heritage site.
        • Natanz, an Underground Nuclear Facility of Iran, hosts the country”s main uraniumenrichment facility.
        – It is known as the first Pilot Fuel Enrichment Plant of Iran.
        – Natanz became a point of controversy as Iran refused to allow an IAEA inspector into thefacility in 2019, after allegedly testing positive for suspected traces of explosive nitrates.:MSGINCORRECT: The government of Turkey has decided to convert Istanbul”s iconic Hagia Sophia Museum into a mosque.
        (2) Recently, a fire broke out at Natanz, an Underground Nuclear Facility of Iran used forenriching uranium.
        • Hagia Sophia is the former Greek Orthodox Christian patriarchal cathedral, later anOttoman imperial mosque and now a museum located in Istanbul, Turkey.
        – Built in AD 537 (Byzantine architecture), during the reign of Justinian 1, the Eastern Romanemperor, it is famous for its large dome.
        – The 1,500-year-old structure has been listed as a UNESCO”S World Heritage site.
        • Natanz, an Underground Nuclear Facility of Iran, hosts the country”s main uraniumenrichment facility.
        – It is known as the first Pilot Fuel Enrichment Plant of Iran.
        – Natanz became a point of controversy as Iran refused to allow an IAEA inspector into thefacility in 2019, after allegedly testing positive for suspected traces of explosive nitrates.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      35. Question 35 of 100
        35. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to the Monetization of Deficit
        (1) It involves the financing of extra expenses with money instead of debt
        (2) There is no increase in net public debt
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 Only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        Former governors of the Reserve Bank of India and other experts believe that the centralbank will have to partly monetise the government”s fiscal deficit, which is likely to balloonas it battles the impact of the coronavirus disease (Covid-19).
        • If the expenditure of the government exceeds its income, the government is said tohave incurred a fiscal deficit. This deficit financing has to be done either by borrowingfrom the market or monetisation of deficit through RBI.
        • monetization of fiscal deficits involves the financing of such extra expenses withmoney, instead of debt to be repaid at some future dates.
        • It is a form of “non-debt financing”. As a result, under monetization, there is noincrease in net (not gross) public debt.:MSGINCORRECT: Former governors of the Reserve Bank of India and other experts believe that the centralbank will have to partly monetise the government”s fiscal deficit, which is likely to balloonas it battles the impact of the coronavirus disease (Covid-19).
        • If the expenditure of the government exceeds its income, the government is said tohave incurred a fiscal deficit. This deficit financing has to be done either by borrowingfrom the market or monetisation of deficit through RBI.
        • monetization of fiscal deficits involves the financing of such extra expenses withmoney, instead of debt to be repaid at some future dates.
        • It is a form of “non-debt financing”. As a result, under monetization, there is noincrease in net (not gross) public debt.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      36. Question 36 of 100
        36. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following is/are the objective of the Banking Regulation(Amendment) Ordinance, 2020?
        (1) to bring all the Urban Cooperative Banks (UCB) and Multi State Cooperative Banks under the direct supervision of Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
        (2) to allow RBI to make a scheme of reconstruction or amalgamation ofa banking company without imposing moratorium
        (3) to bring Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) under thepurview of Ministry of Finance, GoI
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 1 and 2
        (C) 2 and 3
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        • the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was promulgatedin pursuance of the commitment to ensure safety of depositors acrossbanks.
        • The Ordinance seeks to amend the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (Act),which regulates the functioning of banks and provides details on variousaspects such as licensing, management, and operations of banks.
        • It aims to bring all the Urban Cooperative Banks (UCB) and Multi StateCooperative Banks under the direct supervision of Reserve Bank of India(RBI).
        • Ordinance also allows RBI to make a scheme of reconstruction oramalgamation of a banking company without imposing moratorium.
        • The amendments do not apply to Primary Agricultural Credit Societies(PACS) or co-operative societies whose primary object and principalbusiness is long-term finance for agricultural development.:MSGINCORRECT:
        • the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was promulgatedin pursuance of the commitment to ensure safety of depositors acrossbanks.
        • The Ordinance seeks to amend the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (Act),which regulates the functioning of banks and provides details on variousaspects such as licensing, management, and operations of banks.
        • It aims to bring all the Urban Cooperative Banks (UCB) and Multi StateCooperative Banks under the direct supervision of Reserve Bank of India(RBI).
        • Ordinance also allows RBI to make a scheme of reconstruction oramalgamation of a banking company without imposing moratorium.
        • The amendments do not apply to Primary Agricultural Credit Societies(PACS) or co-operative societies whose primary object and principalbusiness is long-term finance for agricultural development.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      37. Question 37 of 100
        37. Question
        2 points

        Kisan Credit Card Campaign launched for farmers to provideadequate and timely credit support for:
        (1) Short term credit requirements
        (2) Post-harvest expenses
        (3) Consumption requirements of farmer household
        (4) Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
        (B) 1 and 2
        (C) 1, 2 and 4
        (D) 3 and 4

        Correct

        • Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) campaign launched for 1.5 crore dairy farmers. Thespecial drive to provide KCC to 1.5 crore dairy farmers is part of the Prime Minister”s Atma Nirbhar Bharat package for Farmers.
        • It aims to provide short term credit to dairy farmers for meeting their requirements for working capital, marketing etc.
        It provides adequate and timely credit support to the farmers from the banking system for their cultivation and other needs like:
        -Short term credit requirements
        -Post-harvest expenses
        -Consumption requirements of farmer household
        -Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture
        -Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities:MSGINCORRECT: • Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) campaign launched for 1.5 crore dairy farmers. Thespecial drive to provide KCC to 1.5 crore dairy farmers is part of the Prime Minister”s Atma Nirbhar Bharat package for Farmers.
        • It aims to provide short term credit to dairy farmers for meeting their requirements for working capital, marketing etc.
        It provides adequate and timely credit support to the farmers from the banking system for their cultivation and other needs like:
        -Short term credit requirements
        -Post-harvest expenses
        -Consumption requirements of farmer household
        -Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture
        -Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      38. Question 38 of 100
        38. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following areas are categorized as Strategic Public Sector Enterprises?
        (1) Arms & Ammunition
        (2) Atomic Energy
        (3) Railways transport
        (4) Production of Electricity
        Select the CORRECT answer using the codes given below
        (A) 1 and 2
        (B) 1, 2 and 3
        (C) 2 and 4
        (D) 1,2, 3 and 4

        Correct

        • Under Atmanirbhar Bharat package, a new Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) policyhas been announced with plans to privatise PSEs, except the ones functioning incertain strategic sectors.
        • Each strategic sector will consist, at least one and no more than four PublicSector Enterprises (PSEs).
        • Government, in 1999 classified the PSEs into strategic and non-strategic areas forthe purpose of disinvestment.
        • The industrial activities or industries belonging to sectors of national importanceare categorised as Strategic sectors.It includes:
        -Arms & Ammunition and the allied items of defence equipment, defence aircrafts and warships.
        -Atomic Energy (except areas related to operation of nuclear power andapplications of radiation and radio-isotopes to agriculture, medicine and nonstrategic industries).
        -Railways transport.:MSGINCORRECT: • Under Atmanirbhar Bharat package, a new Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) policyhas been announced with plans to privatise PSEs, except the ones functioning incertain strategic sectors.
        • Each strategic sector will consist, at least one and no more than four PublicSector Enterprises (PSEs).
        • Government, in 1999 classified the PSEs into strategic and non-strategic areas forthe purpose of disinvestment.
        • The industrial activities or industries belonging to sectors of national importanceare categorised as Strategic sectors.It includes:
        -Arms & Ammunition and the allied items of defence equipment, defence aircrafts and warships.
        -Atomic Energy (except areas related to operation of nuclear power andapplications of radiation and radio-isotopes to agriculture, medicine and nonstrategic industries).
        -Railways transport.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      39. Question 39 of 100
        39. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following vendors are eligible under the PM Street Vendor”s Atmanirbhar Nidhi Scheme?
        (1) Barber shops
        (2) Pan Shops
        (3) Street-food Vendors
        (4) Goods and services related to textiles and apparel
        Select the CORRECT answer using the codes given below
        (A) 3 Only
        (B) 1, 2 and 3
        (C) 1 and 3
        (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

        Correct

        The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has launched Pradhan Mantri StreetVendor”s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi), for providing affordable loans to streetvendors.
        • The scheme would benefit vendors, hawkers, thelewale and people involved ingoods and services related to textiles, apparel, artisan products, barbers shops,laundry services etc. in different areas.
        • The vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000, which is repayablein monthly instalments within a year. The loans would be without collateral.
        • It is for the first time that Microfinance Institutions, Non-Banking Financial Company,Self Help Groups have been allowed in a scheme for the urban poor due to theirground level presence and proximity to the urban poor including the streetvendors.
        • There will be no penalty on early repayment of loan.
        • This is for the first time that street vendors from peri- urban/rural areas have becomebeneficiaries of an urban livelihood programme.:MSGINCORRECT: The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has launched Pradhan Mantri StreetVendor”s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi), for providing affordable loans to streetvendors.
        • The scheme would benefit vendors, hawkers, thelewale and people involved ingoods and services related to textiles, apparel, artisan products, barbers shops,laundry services etc. in different areas.
        • The vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000, which is repayablein monthly instalments within a year. The loans would be without collateral.
        • It is for the first time that Microfinance Institutions, Non-Banking Financial Company,Self Help Groups have been allowed in a scheme for the urban poor due to theirground level presence and proximity to the urban poor including the streetvendors.
        • There will be no penalty on early repayment of loan.
        • This is for the first time that street vendors from peri- urban/rural areas have becomebeneficiaries of an urban livelihood programme.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      40. Question 40 of 100
        40. Question
        2 points

        In the context of Social Stock Exchanges (SSE), which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
        (A) It is an electronic fundraising platform
        (B) Banks, NBFCs and other investors can also raise capital from SSE
        (C) Under it, Social enterprises is a revenue-generating business whose primary objective is to achieve a social objective
        (D) None of the above

        Correct

        • Expert panel setup by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has prepared draft norms for Social Stock Exchanges (SSE).
        • Social Stock Exchange (SSE) is an electronic fundraising platform that allows investors to buy shares in a social enterprise that has been vetted by the exchange.
        • Social enterprises includes a revenue-generating business whose primary objective is to achieve a social objective, for example, providing healthcare or clean energy.
        • This will unlock funds from donors, philanthropic foundations, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) spenders and impact investors for social development.
        • Banks, NBFCs and other investors can also raise capital from SSE to participate in the growth journey of the social enterprises and thereby deepen their impact.:MSGINCORRECT: • Expert panel setup by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has prepared draft norms for Social Stock Exchanges (SSE).
        • Social Stock Exchange (SSE) is an electronic fundraising platform that allows investors to buy shares in a social enterprise that has been vetted by the exchange.
        • Social enterprises includes a revenue-generating business whose primary objective is to achieve a social objective, for example, providing healthcare or clean energy.
        • This will unlock funds from donors, philanthropic foundations, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) spenders and impact investors for social development.
        • Banks, NBFCs and other investors can also raise capital from SSE to participate in the growth journey of the social enterprises and thereby deepen their impact.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      41. Question 41 of 100
        41. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following are the eligible beneficiaries under Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF)?
        (1) Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs)
        (2) MSMEs
        (3) not-for-profit companies
        (4) Private Companies
        (5) Individual entrepreneurs
        Select the CORRECT answer using the codes given below
        (A) 1, 2 and 3
        (B) 1, 3 and 5
        (C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
        (D) All of the above

        Correct

        • Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the establishmentof Animal Husbandry infrastructure Development Fund worth Rs. 15000crores.
        • It would facilitate investments in establishment of infrastructure fordairy and meat processing and value addition infrastructure andestablishment of animal feed plant in the private sector.
        • Eligible beneficiaries under AHIDF are Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), MSMEs, not-for-profit companies, Private Companies and individual entrepreneurs.
        • Minimum 10% margin money to be contributed by beneficiary. The balance 90% would be the loan component to be made available by scheduled banks.
        • Government of India will provide 3% interest subvention to eligible beneficiaries.:MSGINCORRECT: • Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the establishmentof Animal Husbandry infrastructure Development Fund worth Rs. 15000crores.
        • It would facilitate investments in establishment of infrastructure fordairy and meat processing and value addition infrastructure andestablishment of animal feed plant in the private sector.
        • Eligible beneficiaries under AHIDF are Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), MSMEs, not-for-profit companies, Private Companies and individual entrepreneurs.
        • Minimum 10% margin money to be contributed by beneficiary. The balance 90% would be the loan component to be made available by scheduled banks.
        • Government of India will provide 3% interest subvention to eligible beneficiaries.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      42. Question 42 of 100
        42. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements about National Commission for Protection of Child Rights:
        1. NCPCR is a statutory body.
        2. As per NCPCR a child includes person only up to the age of 16.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        Taking suo moto cognizance, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) hasserved a notice to the Rajasthan government seeking its response on its recent guidelines issued foradmissions to pre-primary classes in private schools.National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
        • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body established under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
        • It works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child Development. The Commission became operational in 2007.
        • The Commission is mandated under CPCR Act, 2005 to ensure that all laws, policies, programmes, and administrative mechanisms are in agreement with the child rights enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
        • As per the definition of the commission, a child includes person up to the age of 18 years.:MSGINCORRECT: Taking suo moto cognizance, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) hasserved a notice to the Rajasthan government seeking its response on its recent guidelines issued foradmissions to pre-primary classes in private schools.National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
        • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body established under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
        • It works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child Development. The Commission became operational in 2007.
        • The Commission is mandated under CPCR Act, 2005 to ensure that all laws, policies, programmes, and administrative mechanisms are in agreement with the child rights enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
        • As per the definition of the commission, a child includes person up to the age of 18 years.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      43. Question 43 of 100
        43. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding Malabar Exercise:
        1. Malabar is a trilateral military exercise between India, USA and Japan.
        2. The annual Malabar series began in 1992 as a bilateral exercise between India and theUnited States.
        Which of the above statements is/are Correct?
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 Only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        India is planning to invite Australia to join its high-level naval exercise named Malabar Exercise. If a green signal is given then it will be the first time since 2007 that all members of Quad will participate in a joint military drill.Australis”s Willingness to Join the Grouping
        • For years, Australia has wanted to be party to the Malabar exercise. It even agreed to join in as anobserver in 2017.
        • Australia is a part of Quad group which includes India, USA, Japan and Australia. However, Quadbecame dormant from 2008 to 2017.
        • While quad has been made operational once again since 2017, it only took off in a significant wayafter a meeting between the countries” foreign ministers in September 2019.
        • Also, tensions between Australia and China have been high since Australia in April 2020 calledfor an investigation into the origins of COVID-19.
        • China responded by reportedly drawing up a list of Australian exports that could be subject to tariffsand stricter controls.Why India Resisted The Inclusion Of Australia So Far?
        • India did not want to antagonise China. China has been uncomfortable with the informal coalition offour democracies, which was first formed in 2004 to help nations in the Indo-Pacific after the tsunamiand revived in 2017.
        • China views this maritime Quadrilateral as an Asian-NATO whose only aim is to contain the rise ofChina.About Malabar Exercise:
        • Exercise Malabar is a trilateral naval exercise involving the United States, Japan and India aspermanent partners.
        • Originally begun in 1992 as a bilateral exercise between India and the United States, Japan becamea permanent partner in 2015.:MSGINCORRECT: India is planning to invite Australia to join its high-level naval exercise named Malabar Exercise. If a green signal is given then it will be the first time since 2007 that all members of Quad will participate in a joint military drill.Australis”s Willingness to Join the Grouping
        • For years, Australia has wanted to be party to the Malabar exercise. It even agreed to join in as anobserver in 2017.
        • Australia is a part of Quad group which includes India, USA, Japan and Australia. However, Quadbecame dormant from 2008 to 2017.
        • While quad has been made operational once again since 2017, it only took off in a significant wayafter a meeting between the countries” foreign ministers in September 2019.
        • Also, tensions between Australia and China have been high since Australia in April 2020 calledfor an investigation into the origins of COVID-19.
        • China responded by reportedly drawing up a list of Australian exports that could be subject to tariffsand stricter controls.Why India Resisted The Inclusion Of Australia So Far?
        • India did not want to antagonise China. China has been uncomfortable with the informal coalition offour democracies, which was first formed in 2004 to help nations in the Indo-Pacific after the tsunamiand revived in 2017.
        • China views this maritime Quadrilateral as an Asian-NATO whose only aim is to contain the rise ofChina.About Malabar Exercise:
        • Exercise Malabar is a trilateral naval exercise involving the United States, Japan and India aspermanent partners.
        • Originally begun in 1992 as a bilateral exercise between India and the United States, Japan becamea permanent partner in 2015.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      44. Question 44 of 100
        44. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following sentences about G4 Flu Virus
        1. G4 flu virus is a newly emerged strain of influenza virus that is infecting Chinese chickenand that has the potential of triggering a pandemic.
        2. It is reported that the new strain (G4) has descended from the H5N7 strain that wasresponsible for the 2009 swine flu pandemic.
        3. It is also found that the G4 strain has the capability of binding to human-type receptors.
        Which of the above statements is/are incorrect
        (A) 1 and 2 only
        (B) 2 and 3 only
        (C) 3 only
        (D) 1, 2 and 3 only

        Correct

        ● In a new research, scientists from China have identified a “emerged” strain of influenza virus,G4 flu virus, that is infecting Chinese pigs and that has the potential of triggering a pandemic.
        ● Scientists report that the new strain (G4) has descended from the H1N1 strain that was responsiblefor the 2009 swine flu pandemic.
        ● They also found that the G4 strain has the capability of binding to human-type receptors (like, theSARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2 receptors in humans), was able to copy itself in human airwayepithelial cells, and it showed effective infectivity and aerosol transmission in ferrets.:MSGINCORRECT: ● In a new research, scientists from China have identified a “emerged” strain of influenza virus,G4 flu virus, that is infecting Chinese pigs and that has the potential of triggering a pandemic.
        ● Scientists report that the new strain (G4) has descended from the H1N1 strain that was responsiblefor the 2009 swine flu pandemic.
        ● They also found that the G4 strain has the capability of binding to human-type receptors (like, theSARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2 receptors in humans), was able to copy itself in human airwayepithelial cells, and it showed effective infectivity and aerosol transmission in ferrets.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      45. Question 45 of 100
        45. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to the GilgitBaltistan
        (1) It is a chunk of high-altitude territory located on the north western corner of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir
        (2) Important rivers of India like Indus and Shyok passes through it
        (3) China Pakistan Economic Corridor passes through GilgitBaltistan
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) 1 and 3
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        India has strongly rejected Pakistan”s move to grant provisional provincial status toGilgit – Baltistan.
        • The region was a part of the erstwhile princely state of Jammu and Kashmir, buthas been under Pakistan”s control since 4th November, 1947, following the invasionof Kashmir by tribal militias and the Pakistan army.
        • Statement 1: It is a chunk of high-altitude territory located on the north westerncorner of the Union Territory of Ladakh.
        • The Gilgit-Baltistan region is at the centre of USD 65 billion China Pakistan EconomicCorridor Infrastructure development plan.
        • Rivers flowing through Gilgit-Baltistan – Indus, Jhelum, Shyok, Gilgit, Kishen Ganga,etc
        • Recently, Saudi Arabia, a key ally of Pakistan, had removed Pakistan-occupiedKashmir and Gilgit-Baltistan from the Pakistan map on its new banknote after Indiaasked it to take “urgent corrective steps” about the “gross misrepresentation”.:MSGINCORRECT: India has strongly rejected Pakistan”s move to grant provisional provincial status toGilgit – Baltistan.
        • The region was a part of the erstwhile princely state of Jammu and Kashmir, buthas been under Pakistan”s control since 4th November, 1947, following the invasionof Kashmir by tribal militias and the Pakistan army.
        • Statement 1: It is a chunk of high-altitude territory located on the north westerncorner of the Union Territory of Ladakh.
        • The Gilgit-Baltistan region is at the centre of USD 65 billion China Pakistan EconomicCorridor Infrastructure development plan.
        • Rivers flowing through Gilgit-Baltistan – Indus, Jhelum, Shyok, Gilgit, Kishen Ganga,etc
        • Recently, Saudi Arabia, a key ally of Pakistan, had removed Pakistan-occupiedKashmir and Gilgit-Baltistan from the Pakistan map on its new banknote after Indiaasked it to take “urgent corrective steps” about the “gross misrepresentation”.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      46. Question 46 of 100
        46. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to the GulfCooperation Council (GCC)
        (1) It is a political, economic, social, and regional organisation accordingto its charter
        (2) It is headquartered in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
        (3) All the members of GCC borders the Persian Gulf
        Select the CORRECT statements using the codes given below
        (A) 1 and 2
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) 1 and 3
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) , a leading regional organisation comprising almost all Arab countries.
        • GCC was established by an agreement concluded in 1981 among Bahrain,Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE in view of their specialrelations, geographic proximity, similar political systems based on Islamicbeliefs, joint destiny and common objectives.
        • The structure of the GCC consists of the Supreme Council (the highestauthority), the Ministerial Council and the Secretariat General.
        • The Secretariat is located in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
        • It is a political, economic, social, and regional organisation according to itscharter.:MSGINCORRECT: Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) , a leading regional organisation comprising almost all Arab countries.
        • GCC was established by an agreement concluded in 1981 among Bahrain,Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE in view of their specialrelations, geographic proximity, similar political systems based on Islamicbeliefs, joint destiny and common objectives.
        • The structure of the GCC consists of the Supreme Council (the highestauthority), the Ministerial Council and the Secretariat General.
        • The Secretariat is located in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
        • It is a political, economic, social, and regional organisation according to itscharter.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      47. Question 47 of 100
        47. Question
        2 points

        India”s annual resolution on the issue of counter-terrorism wasadopted by consensus in the First Committee of the United Nations GeneralAssembly (UNGA) . Consider the following statements with regard to the FirstCommittee of UNGA
        (1) It deals with disarmament, global challenges and threats to peace thataffect the international community
        (2) It is the only Main Committee of the General Assembly entitled to verbatimrecords coverage
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 Only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) None of the above

        Correct

        India”s resolution “Measures to prevent terrorists from acquiring weapons of massdestruction” was co-sponsored by more than 75 countries and adopted by consensuswithout a vote.
        • India”s resolution predates the adoption of resolution 1540 by the SecurityCouncil.
        • In resolution 1540 of the year 2004, the Security Council decided that all Statesshall refrain from providing any form of support to non-State actors that attempt todevelop, acquire, manufacture, possess, transport, transfer or use nuclear,chemical or biological weapons and their means of delivery, in particular forterrorist purposes.
        • The First Committee (Disarmament and International security) deals withdisarmament, global challenges and threats to peace that affect theinternational community and seeks out solutions to the challenges in theinternational security regime.
        • The Committee works in close cooperation with the United Nations DisarmamentCommission and the Geneva-based Conference on Disarmament.
        • It is the only Main Committee of the General Assembly entitled to verbatimrecords coverage.:MSGINCORRECT: India”s resolution “Measures to prevent terrorists from acquiring weapons of massdestruction” was co-sponsored by more than 75 countries and adopted by consensuswithout a vote.
        • India”s resolution predates the adoption of resolution 1540 by the SecurityCouncil.
        • In resolution 1540 of the year 2004, the Security Council decided that all Statesshall refrain from providing any form of support to non-State actors that attempt todevelop, acquire, manufacture, possess, transport, transfer or use nuclear,chemical or biological weapons and their means of delivery, in particular forterrorist purposes.
        • The First Committee (Disarmament and International security) deals withdisarmament, global challenges and threats to peace that affect theinternational community and seeks out solutions to the challenges in theinternational security regime.
        • The Committee works in close cooperation with the United Nations DisarmamentCommission and the Geneva-based Conference on Disarmament.
        • It is the only Main Committee of the General Assembly entitled to verbatimrecords coverage.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      48. Question 48 of 100
        48. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statement(s) with regard to the RegionalComprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
        (1) It consists of 10 Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)members with other countries
        (2) Both India and USA are not a part of RCEP
        Select the INCORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 Only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) has comeinto existence on the sidelines of the 37th ASEAN Summit.
        • It has laid down the path for restarting discussion that had failed to admit Indiaearlier and said “new” developments would be taken into consideration ifIndia re-applies.
        • It consists of 10 Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) members, aswell as South Korea, China, Japan, Australia and New Zealand.
        • It excludes the USA, which withdrew from the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) in2017.
        • Negotiations over the RCEP deal began in 201
        (2) India was also part of thenegotiations but it pulled out in 2019 over concerns that lower tariffs could hurtlocal producers.:MSGINCORRECT: The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) has comeinto existence on the sidelines of the 37th ASEAN Summit.
        • It has laid down the path for restarting discussion that had failed to admit Indiaearlier and said “new” developments would be taken into consideration ifIndia re-applies.
        • It consists of 10 Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) members, aswell as South Korea, China, Japan, Australia and New Zealand.
        • It excludes the USA, which withdrew from the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) in2017.
        • Negotiations over the RCEP deal began in 201
        (2) India was also part of thenegotiations but it pulled out in 2019 over concerns that lower tariffs could hurtlocal producers.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      49. Question 49 of 100
        49. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following countries are the members of CollectiveSecurity Treaty Organization?
        (A) Armenia, Azerbaijan and Russia
        (B) Azerbaijan, Belarus, Georgia and Russia
        (C) Russia, Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan
        (D) Russia, USA, Armenia and Azerbaijan

        Correct

        Russia has brokered a new peace deal between Armenia and Azerbaijan.Both counties have been in a military conflict over the disputed region of NagornoKarabakh in the South Caucasus.
        • Russia has always taken a balanced position on the matter and has traditionallygood relations with both countries. It supplies arms to both countries.
        • Russia has a military base in Armenia and both are members of the Moscow-ledCollective Security Treaty Organisation.
        • The treaty envisages Russia”s military support if Armenia is attacked. However, itdoes not include Nagorno-Karabakh or the other Azerbaijani regions around itseized by Armenian forces
        • The Collective Security Treaty Organization is an intergovernmentalmilitary alliance in Eurasia that consists of selected post-Soviet states.
        • In 1992, six post-Soviet states belonging to the Commonwealth ofIndependent States—Russia, Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan,and Uzbekistan—signed the Collective Security Treaty also referred to asthe “Tashkent Pact” or “Tashkent Treaty“.
        • Three other post-Soviet states—Azerbaijan, Belarus, and Georgia—signedthe next year and the treaty took effect in 1994.
        • However, six of the nine—all but Azerbaijan, Georgia, and Uzbekistan—agreed to renew the treaty for five more years, and in 2002 those sixagreed to create the Collective Security Treaty Organization as a militaryalliance:MSGINCORRECT: Russia has brokered a new peace deal between Armenia and Azerbaijan.Both counties have been in a military conflict over the disputed region of NagornoKarabakh in the South Caucasus.
        • Russia has always taken a balanced position on the matter and has traditionallygood relations with both countries. It supplies arms to both countries.
        • Russia has a military base in Armenia and both are members of the Moscow-ledCollective Security Treaty Organisation.
        • The treaty envisages Russia”s military support if Armenia is attacked. However, itdoes not include Nagorno-Karabakh or the other Azerbaijani regions around itseized by Armenian forces
        • The Collective Security Treaty Organization is an intergovernmentalmilitary alliance in Eurasia that consists of selected post-Soviet states.
        • In 1992, six post-Soviet states belonging to the Commonwealth ofIndependent States—Russia, Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan,and Uzbekistan—signed the Collective Security Treaty also referred to asthe “Tashkent Pact” or “Tashkent Treaty“.
        • Three other post-Soviet states—Azerbaijan, Belarus, and Georgia—signedthe next year and the treaty took effect in 1994.
        • However, six of the nine—all but Azerbaijan, Georgia, and Uzbekistan—agreed to renew the treaty for five more years, and in 2002 those sixagreed to create the Collective Security Treaty Organization as a militaryalliance:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      50. Question 50 of 100
        50. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with regard to an “Arria formula”meeting
        (1) It is an informal meeting of members of the United Nations SecurityCouncil (UNSC)
        (2) It must be convened by a member of the UNSC in order for themeeting to take place
        Select the CORRECT statement(s) using the codes given below
        (A) 1 Only
        (B) 2 Only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        As USA has announced to withdraw troops from Afghanistan.
        • At a recent United Nations Security Council (UNSC) meeting, convened under the ArriaFormula (informally convened at the request of a UNSC member), India called for an“immediate comprehensive ceasefire” in Afghanistan, while welcoming all opportunities tobring peace to the country.
        • An “Arria formula” meeting is an informal meeting of members of the United Nations SecurityCouncil, which must be convened by a member of the United Nations Security Council(UNSC) in order for the meeting to take place.
        • The first Arria formula meeting was held in 1992, after Venezuelan Ambassador Diego Arria,who during this time was the president of the Security Council, was contacted by a Croatianpriest, Fra Joko Zorko who wanted to speak to members of the UNSC to report an eyewitnessaccount of violence in Bosnia and Herzegovina during the Crisis of Yugoslavia.
        • As the structure of the UNSC meetings wouldn”t allow for the testimony tobe heard during a security council meeting, and there was no formalway to hold a meeting between the UNSC and Fra Joko Zorko,
        • Ambassador Diego Arria invited council members to meet outside theCouncil chambers in the UN delegates lounge to share the testimony ofFra Joko Zorko.
        • After this first meeting, Ambassador Diego Arria decided toinstitutionalise the meeting and it became known as the Arria formula.:MSGINCORRECT: As USA has announced to withdraw troops from Afghanistan.
        • At a recent United Nations Security Council (UNSC) meeting, convened under the ArriaFormula (informally convened at the request of a UNSC member), India called for an“immediate comprehensive ceasefire” in Afghanistan, while welcoming all opportunities tobring peace to the country.
        • An “Arria formula” meeting is an informal meeting of members of the United Nations SecurityCouncil, which must be convened by a member of the United Nations Security Council(UNSC) in order for the meeting to take place.
        • The first Arria formula meeting was held in 1992, after Venezuelan Ambassador Diego Arria,who during this time was the president of the Security Council, was contacted by a Croatianpriest, Fra Joko Zorko who wanted to speak to members of the UNSC to report an eyewitnessaccount of violence in Bosnia and Herzegovina during the Crisis of Yugoslavia.
        • As the structure of the UNSC meetings wouldn”t allow for the testimony tobe heard during a security council meeting, and there was no formalway to hold a meeting between the UNSC and Fra Joko Zorko,
        • Ambassador Diego Arria invited council members to meet outside theCouncil chambers in the UN delegates lounge to share the testimony ofFra Joko Zorko.
        • After this first meeting, Ambassador Diego Arria decided toinstitutionalise the meeting and it became known as the Arria formula.:HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      51. Question 51 of 100
        51. Question
        2 points

        The Putrajaya Vision 2040 is adopted by:
        (A) East Asia Summit
        (B) European Union
        (C) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
        (D) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)

        Correct

        • APEC (Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation) leaders adopted the Putrajaya Vision 2040, a new 20-year growth visionto replace the Bogor Goals named after the Indonesian town where leadersagreed in 1994 to free and open trade and investment.
        • India is not a Member of APEC.
        • India had requested membership in APEC, and received initial support fromthe United States, Japan, Australia and Papua New Guinea.
        • Officials have decided not to allow India to join as India does not border thePacific Ocean, which all current members do.
        • India was invited to be an observer for the first time in November 2011. :MSGINCORRECT:
        • APEC (Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation) leaders adopted the Putrajaya Vision 2040, a new 20-year growth visionto replace the Bogor Goals named after the Indonesian town where leadersagreed in 1994 to free and open trade and investment.
        • India is not a Member of APEC.
        • India had requested membership in APEC, and received initial support fromthe United States, Japan, Australia and Papua New Guinea.
        • Officials have decided not to allow India to join as India does not border thePacific Ocean, which all current members do.
        • India was invited to be an observer for the first time in November 2011. :HINT:

        Incorrect

        Unattempted

      52. Question 52 of 100
        52. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following vision and goals has/have been added in the Constitution to ban practice of discrimination?
        (1) Declared untouchability as crime and legally abolished it by law.

        (2) Opened recruitment process for government job to all.

        (3) Placed the responsibility of determining special steps to realize Right to Equality for all people on the government irrespective of major or marginal communities.

        Codes:
        (A) Only 1
        (B) 1 and 3
        (C) 1 and 2
        (D) All

        Correct

        Equality is not only a major value contained in the Preamble, but also a fundamental right included in Part III of Constitution.

        Other major values ​​are justice, freedom and fraternity.

        The act of untouchability as a practice is against the concept of equality.
        This is the worst form of discrimination.

        Thus Article 17 abolishes it completely in all its forms.

        It is the responsibility of the government, including the judiciary, to create an equal level of society by providing opportunities for recruitment to all.

        The government gives special facilities to women, SC, ST, OBC, physically challenged people etc.
        from time to time, hence the statement is false.
        (Article 15).

        Incorrect

        Equality is not only a major value contained in the Preamble, but also a fundamental right included in Part III of Constitution.

        Other major values ​​are justice, freedom and fraternity.

        The act of untouchability as a practice is against the concept of equality.

        This is the worst form of discrimination.

        Thus Article 17 abolishes it completely in all its forms.
        It is the responsibility of the government, including the judiciary, to create an equal level of society by providing opportunities for recruitment to all.

        The government gives special facilities to women, SC, ST, OBC, physically challenged people etc.
        from time to time, hence the statement is false.
        (Article 15).

        Unattempted

        Equality is not only a major value contained in the Preamble, but also a fundamental right included in Part III of Constitution.

        Other major values ​​are justice, freedom and fraternity.

        The act of untouchability as a practice is against the concept of equality.

        This is the worst form of discrimination.

        Thus Article 17 abolishes it completely in all its forms.
        It is the responsibility of the government, including the judiciary, to create an equal level of society by providing opportunities for recruitment to all.

        The government gives special facilities to women, SC, ST, OBC, physically challenged people etc.
        from time to time, hence the statement is false.
        (Article 15).

      53. Question 53 of 100
        53. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements related to the Public Interest Litigation:
        (1) Public Interest Litigation is an explicit provision of the constitution which the Supreme Court adheres to.

        (2) A letter written to the Supreme Court can be admitted as a petition.

        (3) It allows any individual or organisation to file a PIL in the High Court or the Supreme Court on behalf of those whose rights are being violated.

        Which of the above statements is/are correct?
        (A) Only 1
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) 1 and 3
        (D) All

        Correct

        There is no mention of PIL in the constitution, though it can be traced to the Article 32(right to constitutional remedies).

        Concept of PIL signifies procedure is not important, justice is important.

        Incorrect

        There is no mention of PIL in the constitution, though it can be traced to the Article 32(right to constitutional remedies).

        Concept of PIL signifies procedure is not important, justice is important.

        Unattempted

        There is no mention of PIL in the constitution, though it can be traced to the Article 32(right to constitutional remedies).

        Concept of PIL signifies procedure is not important, justice is important.

      54. Question 54 of 100
        54. Question
        2 points

        What factor(s) have led to the marginalization of adivasis in the Indian society?
        (1) Developmental model works by the government in tribal majority regions.

        (2) Unique culture and lack of integration by the people.

        (3) Entry of merchants & moneylenders in tribal areas.

        (4) Control of state over forest and other natural resources.

        Codes:
        (A) 1, 2 and 3
        (B) 2, 3 and 4
        (C) Only 3
        (D) All

        Correct

        Development models being implemented in tribal areas are not concerned of tribal interests rather it makes tribals deprived of their community resources.
        Stereotypes associated with tribal culture causes much harm to them.

        It leads to their marginalisation.

        Merchants & Moneylenders are usually involved in exploitative business.

        Control over forest deprives them of their livelihood , making them economically marginalised.

        Incorrect

        Development models being implemented in tribal areas are not concerned of tribal interests rather it makes tribals deprived of their community resources.

        Stereotypes associated with tribal culture causes much harm to them.

        It leads to their marginalisation.

        Merchants & Moneylenders are usually involved in exploitative business.

        Control over forest deprives them of their livelihood , making them economically marginalised.

        Unattempted

        Development models being implemented in tribal areas are not concerned of tribal interests rather it makes tribals deprived of their community resources.

        Stereotypes associated with tribal culture causes much harm to them.

        It leads to their marginalisation.

        Merchants & Moneylenders are usually involved in exploitative business.

        Control over forest deprives them of their livelihood , making them economically marginalised.

      55. Question 55 of 100
        55. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding a Constitutional Amendment Bill:
        (1) If the Constitutional Amendment Bill is not passed by one of the houses of the parliament, the bill will be lapsed.

        (2) Constitutional Amendment cannot be introduced by private member.

        Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
        (A) Only 1
        (B) Only 2
        (C) Both
        (D) None

        Correct

        There is no provision for calling the joint session of the two houses of the parliament.

        Incorrect

        There is no provision for calling the joint session of the two houses of the parliament.

        Unattempted

        There is no provision for calling the joint session of the two houses of the parliament.

      56. Question 56 of 100
        56. Question
        2 points

        To foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised people with one another comes under which of the following?
        (A) Fundamental Duties
        (B) Directive Principle of State Policy
        (C) Fundamental Rights
        (D) Preamble

        Correct

        Article 51 of the Indian Constitution lays down some Directive Principles of State Policy on “Promotion of international peace and security”.

        “The State shall endeavour to –

        • Promote international peace and security.

        • Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.

        • Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised people with one another; and

        • Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

        Incorrect

        Article 51 of the Indian Constitution lays down some Directive Principles of State Policy on “Promotion of international peace and security”.

        “The State shall endeavour to –

        • Promote international peace and security.

        • Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.

        • Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised people with one another; and

        • Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

        Unattempted

        Article 51 of the Indian Constitution lays down some Directive Principles of State Policy on “Promotion of international peace and security”.

        “The State shall endeavour to –

        • Promote international peace and security.

        • Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.

        • Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised people with one another; and

        • Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

      57. Question 57 of 100
        57. Question
        2 points

        The principle of proportionate justice includes:
        (A) This principle involves rewarding different jobs differently on the basis of efforts and skills required and the danger involved.

        (B) This principle involves distributing rewards and duties on the basis of special needs of people.

        (C) This indicates the principle of treating people equally.

        (D) This indicates the principle of treating people equally irrespective of caste and gender.

        Correct

        Proportionate justice: This principle indicates rewarding people in proportion to the scale and quality of their effort.

        It is just to reward different jobs differently on the basis of efforts and skills required and the danger involved.

        Thus, proportionality provides balance to the principle of equal treatment.

        The reward and compensation for a surgeon and an architect varies according to the skill that is required in their job.

        Incorrect

        Proportionate justice: This principle indicates rewarding people in proportion to the scale and quality of their effort.

        It is just to reward different jobs differently on the basis of efforts and skills required and the danger involved.

        Thus, proportionality provides balance to the principle of equal treatment.

        The reward and compensation for a surgeon and an architect varies according to the skill that is required in their job.

        Unattempted

        Proportionate justice: This principle indicates rewarding people in proportion to the scale and quality of their effort.

        It is just to reward different jobs differently on the basis of efforts and skills required and the danger involved.

        Thus, proportionality provides balance to the principle of equal treatment.

        The reward and compensation for a surgeon and an architect varies according to the skill that is required in their job.

      58. Question 58 of 100
        58. Question
        2 points

        Citizen Charter is a tool for facilitating delivery of services to the citizens.

        Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the Citizen Charter?
        (1) It is not legally enforceable thus non- justiciable.

        (2) Department of Consumer Affairs provide guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.

        (3) “Obligations of the users” has been added in Indian model as it is absent in UK model.

        Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
        (A) 1 and 3
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) Only 1
        (D) All

        Correct

        The Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non- justiciable.

        However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc.
        with commitments from the Organisation and its clients.

        Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.

        Primarily an adaptation of the UK model, the Indian Citizen”s Charter has an additional component of “expectations from the clients” or in other words “obligations of the users”.
        Involvement of consumer organisations, citizen groups, and other stakeholders in the formulation of the Citizen”s Charter is emphasised to ensure that the Citizen”s Charter meets the needs of the users.

        Incorrect

        The Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non- justiciable.

        However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc.
        with commitments from the Organisation and its clients.

        Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.
        Primarily an adaptation of the UK model, the Indian Citizen”s Charter has an additional component of “expectations from the clients” or in other words “obligations of the users”.

        Involvement of consumer organisations, citizen groups, and other stakeholders in the formulation of the Citizen”s Charter is emphasised to ensure that the Citizen”s Charter meets the needs of the users.

        Unattempted

        The Citizen”s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non- justiciable.

        However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc.
        with commitments from the Organisation and its clients.

        Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.
        Primarily an adaptation of the UK model, the Indian Citizen”s Charter has an additional component of “expectations from the clients” or in other words “obligations of the users”.

        Involvement of consumer organisations, citizen groups, and other stakeholders in the formulation of the Citizen”s Charter is emphasised to ensure that the Citizen”s Charter meets the needs of the users.

      59. Question 59 of 100
        59. Question
        2 points

        The Speaker for determining the question of disqualification and the procedure which shall be followed under Anti-Defection law, refer the issue to which of the following parliamentary committee?
        (A) Business Advisory Committee
        (B) Committee of Privileges
        (C) Committee on Petitions
        (D) Committee on Government Assurances

        Correct

        The procedure which shall be followed by the Speaker for determining the question of disqualification and the procedure which shall be followed by the Committee of Privileges for making preliminary inquiry- shall, so far as may be, the same as the procedure for making inquiry and determination by the Committee of any question of breach of privilege of the House.

        If the Speaker makes a reference to the Committee of Privileges, he shall proceed to determine the question as soon as may be after receipt of the report from the Committee.

        Incorrect

        The procedure which shall be followed by the Speaker for determining the question of disqualification and the procedure which shall be followed by the Committee of Privileges for making preliminary inquiry- shall, so far as may be, the same as the procedure for making inquiry and determination by the Committee of any question of breach of privilege of the House.

        If the Speaker makes a reference to the Committee of Privileges, he shall proceed to determine the question as soon as may be after receipt of the report from the Committee.

        Unattempted

        The procedure which shall be followed by the Speaker for determining the question of disqualification and the procedure which shall be followed by the Committee of Privileges for making preliminary inquiry- shall, so far as may be, the same as the procedure for making inquiry and determination by the Committee of any question of breach of privilege of the House.

        If the Speaker makes a reference to the Committee of Privileges, he shall proceed to determine the question as soon as may be after receipt of the report from the Committee.

      60. Question 60 of 100
        60. Question
        2 points

        Under which of the following situations, Judicial Review is applicable?
        (1) Decisions made by speakers under the anti-defection law.

        (2) President”s decision to suspend the state assembly under President”s rule.

        (3) Privilege given to legislatures.

        Codes:
        (A) Only 2
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) 1 and 2
        (D) All

        Correct

        The Constitution says the decision of the speaker shall be final.

        However, there are several instances in which Parliament”s decisions have been subjected to judicial review.

        These include decisions made by speakers under the anti-defection law.

        President”s decision to suspend the state assembly under President”s rule is subject to judicial review.

        Incorrect

        The Constitution says the decision of the speaker shall be final.
        However, there are several instances in which Parliament”s decisions have been subjected to judicial review.
        These include decisions made by speakers under the anti-defection law.
        President”s decision to suspend the state assembly under President”s rule is subject to judicial review.

        Unattempted

        The Constitution says the decision of the speaker shall be final.
        However, there are several instances in which Parliament”s decisions have been subjected to judicial review.
        These include decisions made by speakers under the anti-defection law.
        President”s decision to suspend the state assembly under President”s rule is subject to judicial review.

      61. Question 61 of 100
        61. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following cases can be placed under the violation of the Separation of Power?
        (1) Re-promulgation of Enemy Property Ordinance.

        (2) Imposing cess on diesel cars by the Supreme Court.

        (3) Mandatory playing of national anthem in cinema halls.

        Codes:
        (A) Only 1
        (B) Only 2
        (C) Only 3
        (D) All

        Correct

        Violation of the separation of power:

        • Ordinance – Executive vs Legislative.

        • Cess on diesel cars – Executive vs judiciary.

        • Playing of national anthem – Executive vs Judiciary.

        Incorrect

        Violation of the separation of power:

        • Ordinance – Executive vs Legislative.

        • Cess on diesel cars – Executive vs judiciary.

        • Playing of national anthem – Executive vs Judiciary.

        Unattempted

        Violation of the separation of power:

        • Ordinance – Executive vs Legislative.

        • Cess on diesel cars – Executive vs judiciary.

        • Playing of national anthem – Executive vs Judiciary.

      62. Question 62 of 100
        62. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with respect to the Social Audit:
        (1) It creates awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local, social and productive services.

        (2) It increases efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.

        (3) Social Audits as a means of continuous public vigilance is mandatory in case of MGNREGA and Swatchch Bharat Abhiyan.

        Which of the above statements is/are correct?
        (A) Only 1
        (B) 1 and 3
        (C) 1 and 2
        (D) All

        Correct

        A social audit is a process by which the people, final beneficiaries of schemes & program are empowered to audit scheme such as MGNREGA to encourage local democracy and social transparency of an organization.
        Social audits are conducted jointly by the government and people, especially by those people who are affected by, or are

        • The intended beneficiaries of the activity, being audited.
        Any resident of a panchayat can do social audit that is part of gram Sabah.
        Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below:
        – Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.

        – Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.

        – Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.

        – Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of rural poor.

        – Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services.

        Incorrect

        A social audit is a process by which the people, final beneficiaries of schemes & program are empowered to audit scheme such as MGNREGA to encourage local democracy and social transparency of an organization.
        Social audits are conducted jointly by the government and people, especially by those people who are affected by, or are

        • The intended beneficiaries of the activity, being audited.
        Any resident of a panchayat can do social audit that is part of gram Sabah.
        Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below:
        – Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.

        – Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.

        – Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.

        – Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of rural poor.

        – Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services.

        Unattempted

        A social audit is a process by which the people, final beneficiaries of schemes & program are empowered to audit scheme such as MGNREGA to encourage local democracy and social transparency of an organization.
        Social audits are conducted jointly by the government and people, especially by those people who are affected by, or are

        • The intended beneficiaries of the activity, being audited.
        Any resident of a panchayat can do social audit that is part of gram Sabah.
        Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below:
        – Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.

        – Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.

        – Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.

        – Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of rural poor.

        – Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services.

      63. Question 63 of 100
        63. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following are voluntary provisions under the PRI Act?
        (1) Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.

        (2) Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.

        (3) Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level.

        Select the correct answer using below given options:
        (A) 1 and 2
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) Only 3
        (D) All

        Correct

        Voluntary Provisions of 73rd Amendment Act:

        • Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.

        • Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level.

        • Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.

        • Granting financial powers to the panchayats, i.e. authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.

        Compulsory Provisions of 73rd Amendment Act:

        • Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.

        • Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.

        • Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.

        • Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.

        • 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.

        • Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.

        Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.

        Incorrect

        Voluntary Provisions of 73rd Amendment Act:

        • Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.

        • Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level.

        • Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.

        • Granting financial powers to the panchayats, i.
        e.
        authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.

        Compulsory Provisions of 73rd Amendment Act:

        • Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.

        • Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.

        • Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.

        • Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.

        • 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.

        • Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.

        Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.

        Unattempted

        Voluntary Provisions of 73rd Amendment Act:

        • Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.

        • Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level.

        • Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.

        • Granting financial powers to the panchayats, i.
        e.
        authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.

        Compulsory Provisions of 73rd Amendment Act:

        • Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.

        • Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.

        • Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.

        • Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.

        • 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.

        • Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.

        Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.

      64. Question 64 of 100
        64. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following are the powers of the Central Vigilance Commission?
        (1) It can summon and enforce the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him on oath.

        (2) Technical audit of construction works of Governmental organisations from a vigilance angle.

        (3) CVC can direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own.

        (4) CVC have powers to register criminal case and disciplinary cases against public servants.

        Select the correct answer suing the codes given below:
        (A) 1, 2 and 3
        (B) 1, 3 and 4
        (C) 1 and 2
        (D) None

        Correct

        The members of CVC are appointed by a committee consisting of Prime minister, Union home minister, Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha.
        Speaker of Lok Sabha does not a part of selection committee.
        The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed.
        The President may, by order, remove from office the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner if the Central Vigilance Commissioner or such Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be: is adjudged an insolvent; or has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the Central Government, involves moral turpitude; or engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions as a Central Vigilance Commissioner or a Vigilance Commissioner.

        Incorrect

        The members of CVC are appointed by a committee consisting of Prime minister, Union home minister, Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha.
        Speaker of Lok Sabha does not a part of selection committee.
        The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed.
        The President may, by order, remove from office the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner if the Central Vigilance Commissioner or such Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be: is adjudged an insolvent; or has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the Central Government, involves moral turpitude; or engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions as a Central Vigilance Commissioner or a Vigilance Commissioner.

        Unattempted

        The members of CVC are appointed by a committee consisting of Prime minister, Union home minister, Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha.
        Speaker of Lok Sabha does not a part of selection committee.
        The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed.
        The President may, by order, remove from office the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner if the Central Vigilance Commissioner or such Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be: is adjudged an insolvent; or has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the Central Government, involves moral turpitude; or engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions as a Central Vigilance Commissioner or a Vigilance Commissioner.

      65. Question 65 of 100
        65. Question
        2 points

        The basic objective of the Citizen”s Charter is to empower the citizen in relation to public service delivery.
        Which of the following is the correct objective with respect to Citizen”s Charter?
        (1) Quality of Service
        (2) Providing Choices
        (3) Accountability
        (4) Value for Money
        Select the correct answer using the codes given below
        (A) 1, 2 and 4
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) 1, 2 and 3
        (D) All

        Correct

        Citizen”s Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of Standard of Services, Information, Choice and Consultation, Non-discrimination and Accessibility, Grievance Redress, Courtesy and Value for Money.
        This also includes expectations of the Organisation from the Citizen for fulfilling the commitment of the Organisation.
        The basic objective of the Citizen”s Charter is to empower the citizen in relation to public service delivery.
        The six principles of the Citizen”s Charter movement as originally framed were:
        • Quality: Improving the quality of services;
        • Choice: Providing choice wherever possible;.
        Standards: Specify what to expect and how to act if standards are not met;
        • Value: Add value for the taxpayers” money;
        • Accountability: Be accountable to individuals and organisations; and
        • Transparency: Ensure transparency in Rules/Procedures/Schemes/ Grievances.

        Incorrect

        Citizen”s Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of Standard of Services, Information, Choice and Consultation, Non-discrimination and Accessibility, Grievance Redress, Courtesy and Value for Money.
        This also includes expectations of the Organisation from the Citizen for fulfilling the commitment of the Organisation.
        The basic objective of the Citizen”s Charter is to empower the citizen in relation to public service delivery.
        The six principles of the Citizen”s Charter movement as originally framed were:
        • Quality: Improving the quality of services;
        • Choice: Providing choice wherever possible;.
        Standards: Specify what to expect and how to act if standards are not met;
        • Value: Add value for the taxpayers” money;
        • Accountability: Be accountable to individuals and organisations; and
        • Transparency: Ensure transparency in Rules/Procedures/Schemes/ Grievances.

        Unattempted

        Citizen”s Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of Standard of Services, Information, Choice and Consultation, Non-discrimination and Accessibility, Grievance Redress, Courtesy and Value for Money.
        This also includes expectations of the Organisation from the Citizen for fulfilling the commitment of the Organisation.
        The basic objective of the Citizen”s Charter is to empower the citizen in relation to public service delivery.
        The six principles of the Citizen”s Charter movement as originally framed were:
        • Quality: Improving the quality of services;
        • Choice: Providing choice wherever possible;.
        Standards: Specify what to expect and how to act if standards are not met;
        • Value: Add value for the taxpayers” money;
        • Accountability: Be accountable to individuals and organisations; and
        • Transparency: Ensure transparency in Rules/Procedures/Schemes/ Grievances.

      66. Question 66 of 100
        66. Question
        2 points

        In India, funds are mobilised by political parties or their candidates to finance elections and other political campaigns.
        Under the Representation of People Act, 1951 which of the following entities are allowed to contribute to the political parties?
        (1) Individuals
        (2) Private companies.

        (3) Foreign-owned companies in India.

        Codes:
        (A) Only 1
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) 1 and 2
        (D) All

        Correct

        In India, funds are mobilised by political parties or their candidates to finance elections and other political campaigns.
        Under the Representation of People Act, 1951 individuals and companies (other than a government company) are allowed to contribute to political parties.
        While there are no limits on the amount of contributions any individual makes to a political party, corporate contributions are regulated.
        Companies may donate a maximum of 7.5 percent of the company”s average net profit during the three preceding financial years.
        Foreign contributions to political parties are prohibited.
        Recently the finance bill amended the definition of what will constitute a foreign source of funding retrospectively with effect from 26 September 2010 to state that:”Provided that where the nominal value of share capital is within the limits specified for foreign investment under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, or the rules or regulations made there under, then, notwithstanding the nominal value of share capital of a company being more than one- half of such value at the time of making the contribution, such company shall not be a foreign source.
        ” Currently, any company in India with foreign investments of over 50% is considered as a “foreign source.
        “At present, under FCRA, political parties are barred from receiving foreign funding, as are election candidates, elected legislatures, reporters, editors, owners, printers and publishers of registered newspapers, judges and government employees.

        Incorrect

        In India, funds are mobilised by political parties or their candidates to finance elections and other political campaigns.
        Under the Representation of People Act, 1951 individuals and companies (other than a government company) are allowed to contribute to political parties.
        While there are no limits on the amount of contributions any individual makes to a political party, corporate contributions are regulated.
        Companies may donate a maximum of 7.5 percent of the company”s average net profit during the three preceding financial years.
        Foreign contributions to political parties are prohibited.
        Recently the finance bill amended the definition of what will constitute a foreign source of funding retrospectively with effect from 26 September 2010 to state that:”Provided that where the nominal value of share capital is within the limits specified for foreign investment under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, or the rules or regulations made there under, then, notwithstanding the nominal value of share capital of a company being more than one- half of such value at the time of making the contribution, such company shall not be a foreign source.
        ” Currently, any company in India with foreign investments of over 50% is considered as a “foreign source.
        “At present, under FCRA, political parties are barred from receiving foreign funding, as are election candidates, elected legislatures, reporters, editors, owners, printers and publishers of registered newspapers, judges and government employees.

        Unattempted

        In India, funds are mobilised by political parties or their candidates to finance elections and other political campaigns.
        Under the Representation of People Act, 1951 individuals and companies (other than a government company) are allowed to contribute to political parties.
        While there are no limits on the amount of contributions any individual makes to a political party, corporate contributions are regulated.
        Companies may donate a maximum of 7.5 percent of the company”s average net profit during the three preceding financial years.
        Foreign contributions to political parties are prohibited.
        Recently the finance bill amended the definition of what will constitute a foreign source of funding retrospectively with effect from 26 September 2010 to state that:”Provided that where the nominal value of share capital is within the limits specified for foreign investment under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, or the rules or regulations made there under, then, notwithstanding the nominal value of share capital of a company being more than one- half of such value at the time of making the contribution, such company shall not be a foreign source.
        ” Currently, any company in India with foreign investments of over 50% is considered as a “foreign source.
        “At present, under FCRA, political parties are barred from receiving foreign funding, as are election candidates, elected legislatures, reporters, editors, owners, printers and publishers of registered newspapers, judges and government employees.

      67. Question 67 of 100
        67. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements related to the methods used by pressure groups:
        (1) Electioneering: Persuading public officers to adopt and enforce policies of their interest.

        (2) Lobbying: Placing in public office persons who favour their interests.

        (3) Propagandizing: Influencing the public opinion.

        (4) Gherao: Confine the employer”s to a particular place and they are not allowed to move about and do their routine work.

        Which of the above stated methods is/are correct?
        (A) 3 and 4
        (B) 1, 2 and 3
        (C) 2, 3 and 4
        (D) All

        Correct

        The different methods are:
        • Electioneering: Placing in public office persons who favour their interests.

        • Lobbying: Persuading public officers to adopt and enforce policies of their interest.

        • Propagandizing: Influencing the public opinion.

        • Gherao: In this technique the members of the pressure group encircle and confine the employer”s to a particular place and they are not allowed to move about and do their routine work.

        Incorrect

        The different methods are:
        • Electioneering: Placing in public office persons who favour their interests.

        • Lobbying: Persuading public officers to adopt and enforce policies of their interest.

        • Propagandizing: Influencing the public opinion.

        • Gherao: In this technique the members of the pressure group encircle and confine the employer”s to a particular place and they are not allowed to move about and do their routine work.

        Unattempted

        The different methods are:
        • Electioneering: Placing in public office persons who favour their interests.

        • Lobbying: Persuading public officers to adopt and enforce policies of their interest.

        • Propagandizing: Influencing the public opinion.

        • Gherao: In this technique the members of the pressure group encircle and confine the employer”s to a particular place and they are not allowed to move about and do their routine work.

      68. Question 68 of 100
        68. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following statements is/are true about the cooperative society in India?
        (1) There is no mention of cooperative societies in the constitution.

        (2) Provisions for incorporation, regulation and winding up of co-operative societies is governed by the central government.

        (3) State Election Commission is responsible for conduct of elections of cooperative boards.
        Codes:
        (A) 1 and 2
        (B) Only 2
        (C) Only 3
        (D) None

        Correct

        In Part III of the constitution, after words “or unions” the words “Cooperative Societies” was added.
        In Part IV a new Article 43B was inserted, which says: The state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies”.
        After Part IXA of the constitution, a Part IXB was inserted to accommodate state vs centre roles.
        It also ensures holding regular elections under the supervision of autonomous authorities, five-year term for functionaries and independent audit.
        Significantly, it also mandates that in case the board is dissolved, the new one is constituted within six months.
        Such a constitutional provision was urgently required as the woes of the cooperative sector are far too many, long- lasting and deep-rooted to be addressed under the present lax legal framework.
        Cooperatives could set up agency which would oversee election.

        Incorrect

        In Part III of the constitution, after words “or unions” the words “Cooperative Societies” was added.
        In Part IV a new Article 43B was inserted, which says: The state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies”.
        After Part IXA of the constitution, a Part IXB was inserted to accommodate state vs centre roles.
        It also ensures holding regular elections under the supervision of autonomous authorities, five-year term for functionaries and independent audit.
        Significantly, it also mandates that in case the board is dissolved, the new one is constituted within six months.
        Such a constitutional provision was urgently required as the woes of the cooperative sector are far too many, long- lasting and deep-rooted to be addressed under the present lax legal framework.
        Cooperatives could set up agency which would oversee election.

        Unattempted

        In Part III of the constitution, after words “or unions” the words “Cooperative Societies” was added.
        In Part IV a new Article 43B was inserted, which says: The state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies”.
        After Part IXA of the constitution, a Part IXB was inserted to accommodate state vs centre roles.
        It also ensures holding regular elections under the supervision of autonomous authorities, five-year term for functionaries and independent audit.
        Significantly, it also mandates that in case the board is dissolved, the new one is constituted within six months.
        Such a constitutional provision was urgently required as the woes of the cooperative sector are far too many, long- lasting and deep-rooted to be addressed under the present lax legal framework.
        Cooperatives could set up agency which would oversee election.

      69. Question 69 of 100
        69. Question
        2 points

        The President can remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner from the office under which of the following circumstances?
        (1) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment.

        (2) On the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

        Select the correct answer using below given.
        codes:
        (A) Only 1
        (B) Only 2
        (C) Both.
        (D) None.

        Correct

        The president can remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner from the office under the following circumstances:
        • If he is adjudged an insolvent; or
        • If he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the Central government) involves a moral turpitude; or
        • If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
        • If he is (in the opinion of the president), unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or
        • If he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions.
        In addition to these, the president can also remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
        However, in these cases, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
        If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the president can remove him.
        He is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he:
        • Is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Central government, or
        • Participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit or emolument arising there from otherwise than as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company.

        Incorrect

        The president can remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner from the office under the following circumstances:
        • If he is adjudged an insolvent; or
        • If he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the Central government) involves a moral turpitude; or
        • If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
        • If he is (in the opinion of the president), unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or
        • If he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions.
        In addition to these, the president can also remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
        However, in these cases, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
        If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the president can remove him.
        He is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he:
        • Is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Central government, or
        • Participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit or emolument arising there from otherwise than as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company.

        Unattempted

        The president can remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner from the office under the following circumstances:
        • If he is adjudged an insolvent; or
        • If he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the Central government) involves a moral turpitude; or
        • If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
        • If he is (in the opinion of the president), unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or
        • If he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions.
        In addition to these, the president can also remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
        However, in these cases, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
        If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the president can remove him.
        He is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he:
        • Is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Central government, or
        • Participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit or emolument arising there from otherwise than as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company.

      70. Question 70 of 100
        70. Question
        2 points

        Elections in India are conducted according to the procedure laid down by law.
        Which of the following are the functions of the Returning Officer?
        (1) The Returning Officer is designated by the Election Commission in consultation with the concerned State government.

        (2) All the nomination papers are scrutinized by the Returning Officer of constituency.

        (3) Election symbols are allotted by Returning Officer in accordance with the directions issued by the Election Commission.

        (4) Returning Officer accepts withdrawal of the candidates and announces the final list.
        Select the correct answer using below given.
        codes:
        (A) 1 and 3
        (B) 2 and 4
        (C) 1, 2 and 4
        (D) All

        Correct

        In every constituency, one Officer is designated as Returning Officer by the Commission in consultation with the concerned State government.
        However, an Officer can be nominated as Returning Officer for more than one constituency.
        All the nomination papersare submitted to the Returning Officer.
        Papers are scrutinised by him/her and if they are in order, accepted by him/her.
        Election symbols are allotted by him/her in accordance with the directions issued by the Election Commission.
        He/she also accepts withdrawal of the candidates and announces the final list.
        He/she supervises all the polling booths, votes are counted under his/her supervision and finally result is announced by him/her.
        In fact, the Returning Officer is the overall in charge of the efficient and fair conduct of elections in the concerned constituency.

        Incorrect

        In every constituency, one Officer is designated as Returning Officer by the Commission in consultation with the concerned State government.
        However, an Officer can be nominated as Returning Officer for more than one constituency.
        All the nomination papersare submitted to the Returning Officer.
        Papers are scrutinised by him/her and if they are in order, accepted by him/her.
        Election symbols are allotted by him/her in accordance with the directions issued by the Election Commission.
        He/she also accepts withdrawal of the candidates and announces the final list.
        He/she supervises all the polling booths, votes are counted under his/her supervision and finally result is announced by him/her.
        In fact, the Returning Officer is the overall in charge of the efficient and fair conduct of elections in the concerned constituency.

        Unattempted

        In every constituency, one Officer is designated as Returning Officer by the Commission in consultation with the concerned State government.
        However, an Officer can be nominated as Returning Officer for more than one constituency.
        All the nomination papersare submitted to the Returning Officer.
        Papers are scrutinised by him/her and if they are in order, accepted by him/her.
        Election symbols are allotted by him/her in accordance with the directions issued by the Election Commission.
        He/she also accepts withdrawal of the candidates and announces the final list.
        He/she supervises all the polling booths, votes are counted under his/her supervision and finally result is announced by him/her.
        In fact, the Returning Officer is the overall in charge of the efficient and fair conduct of elections in the concerned constituency.

      71. Question 71 of 100
        71. Question
        2 points

        In which of the following matters PIL can be filed?
        (A) Exploitation of casual labourers and non- payment of wages.

        (B) Harassment of persons belonging to SC/ST.

        (C) Petitions from riot victims.

        (D) All of the above.

        Correct

        Public Interest Litigation is a device by filing a PIL are entitled to and seek enforcement of public duty and observance of the constitutional law or legal provisions.
        Such litigation only for redressal of a public injury, enforcement of a public duty or vindicating interest o the public nature and it is necessary that the petition is not field for personal gain or private motive or for other extraneous consideration and is field bona fide in public interest.
        The matters generally includes in the PIL are:
        • Bonded labours matters.

        • Matters of neglected children
        • Exploitation of casual labourers and non- payment of wages of them (except in individual cases).

        • Mattes of harassment or torture of persons belonging to schedule castes, schedule tribes and economically backward classes, either by co-villagers or by police.

        • Matters relating to environmental pollution disturbance of ecological balance, drugs food adulteration, maintenance of heritage and culture, antiques, forest and wild life.

        • Petitions from riot victims

        Incorrect

        Public Interest Litigation is a device by filing a PIL are entitled to and seek enforcement of public duty and observance of the constitutional law or legal provisions.
        Such litigation only for redressal of a public injury, enforcement of a public duty or vindicating interest of the public nature and it is necessary that the petition is not field for personal gain or private motive or for other extraneous consideration and is field bona fide in public interest.
        The matters generally includes in the PIL are:
        • Bonded labours matters.

        • Matters of neglected children
        • Exploitation of casual labourers and non- payment of wages of them (except in individual cases).

        • Mattes of harassment or torture of persons belonging to schedule castes, schedule tribes and economically backward classes, either by co-villagers or by police.

        • Matters relating to environmental pollution disturbance of ecological balance, drugs food adulteration, maintenance of heritage and culture, antiques, forest and wild life.

        • Petitions from riot victims

        Unattempted

        Public Interest Litigation is a device by filing a PIL are entitled to and seek enforcement of public duty and observance of the constitutional law or legal provisions.
        Such litigation only for redressal of a public injury, enforcement of a public duty or vindicating interest of the public nature and it is necessary that the petition is not field for personal gain or private motive or for other extraneous consideration and is field bona fide in public interest.
        The matters generally includes in the PIL are:
        • Bonded labours matters.

        • Matters of neglected children
        • Exploitation of casual labourers and non- payment of wages of them (except in individual cases).

        • Mattes of harassment or torture of persons belonging to schedule castes, schedule tribes and economically backward classes, either by co-villagers or by police.

        • Matters relating to environmental pollution disturbance of ecological balance, drugs food adulteration, maintenance of heritage and culture, antiques, forest and wild life.

        • Petitions from riot victims

      72. Question 72 of 100
        72. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following is/are the ways by which the central government can have control over the states?
        (1) If any state government fails to comply with the directions of centre , the centre has the power to impose President”s Rule.

        (2) Centre can change the list of subjects over which states has the power to tax even without the consent of the states.

        (3) Central government has the right to declare any part of any state as “disturbed area” under AFSPA,1958 without the consent of the state.
        Codes:
        (A) 1 and 3
        (B) Only 2
        (C) Only 3
        (D) All

        Correct

        As per the constitution if any state government fails to comply with the directions of centre , the time has come when state machinery is not running as per the provisions of the constitution and the centre has the power to impose President”s Rule.
        Centre can”t change the list of subjects over which states has the power to tax even without the consent of the states .
        It needs atleast the consent of half the state legislatures.
        Central government has the right to declare any part of any state as “disturbed area” under AFSPA ,1958 without the consent of the state.

        Incorrect

        As per the constitution if any state government fails to comply with the directions of centre , the time has come when state machinery is not running as per the provisions of the constitution and the centre has the power to impose President”s Rule.
        Centre can”t change the list of subjects over which states has the power to tax even without the consent of the states .
        It needs atleast the consent of half the state legislatures.
        Central government has the right to declare any part of any state as “disturbed area” under AFSPA ,1958 without the consent of the state.

        Unattempted

        As per the constitution if any state government fails to comply with the directions of centre , the time has come when state machinery is not running as per the provisions of the constitution and the centre has the power to impose President”s Rule.
        Centre can”t change the list of subjects over which states has the power to tax even without the consent of the states .
        It needs atleast the consent of half the state legislatures.
        Central government has the right to declare any part of any state as “disturbed area” under AFSPA ,1958 without the consent of the state.

      73. Question 73 of 100
        73. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the Single Transferable Vote system?
        (A) It enables votes to be cast for individual candidates rather than for parties thus reduces “wasted votes”.

        (B) The process of counting the results takes longer time than First Past the Post system.

        (C) The competition between members of the same party allows candidates to be judged on their own merits.

        (D) It encourages tactical voting, as many voters vote not for the candidate they like the most.

        Correct

        First Past the Post System encourages tactical voting, as many voters vote not for the candidate they like the most, but against the candidate they most dislike.

        Incorrect

        First Past the Post System encourages tactical voting, as many voters vote not for the candidate they like the most, but against the candidate they most dislike.

        Unattempted

        First Past the Post System encourages tactical voting, as many voters vote not for the candidate they like the most, but against the candidate they most dislike.

      74. Question 74 of 100
        74. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following not the salient feature of the Theocracy form of government?
        (A) There is no separation between religion and state.

        (B) The laws of the land are decided by the religious belief.

        (C) Theocratic societies are authoritarian in nature.

        (D) Theocratic society is focused on the greater good so opinions of people are taken in decision making.

        Correct

        Citizens of a theocratic society must come to terms with the fact that an individual”s opinion is not going to be valued.
        The emphasis of a theocratic society is focused on the greater good, so not only is an opinion never heard, but it will not even be considered.
        Even though a person is able to vote, there is no difference between the two candidates that they have to choose from.

        Incorrect

        Citizens of a theocratic society must come to terms with the fact that an individual”s opinion is not going to be valued.
        The emphasis of a theocratic society is focused on the greater good, so not only is an opinion never heard, but it will not even be considered.
        Even though a person is able to vote, there is no difference between the two candidates that they have to choose from.

        Unattempted

        Citizens of a theocratic society must come to terms with the fact that an individual”s opinion is not going to be valued.
        The emphasis of a theocratic society is focused on the greater good, so not only is an opinion never heard, but it will not even be considered.
        Even though a person is able to vote, there is no difference between the two candidates that they have to choose from.

      75. Question 75 of 100
        75. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following is/are Socialist principles of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
        (1) To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections.

        (2) To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health.

        (3) To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.

        (4) To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch.
        Select the incorrect answer using below given.
        codes:
        (A) 1 and 4
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) All
        (D) 1, 2 and 4

        Correct

        Gandhian Principles: These principles are based on Gandhian ideology.
        They represent the programme of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement.
        In order to fulfil the dreams of Gandhi, some of his ideas were included as Directive Principles.
        They require the State:
        • To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).

        • To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48).
        Socialistic Principles
        These principles reflect the ideology of socialism.
        They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state.
        They direct the state:
        • To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).

        • To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47).

        Incorrect

        Gandhian Principles: These principles are based on Gandhian ideology.
        They represent the programme of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement.
        In order to fulfil the dreams of Gandhi, some of his ideas were included as Directive Principles.
        They require the State:
        • To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).

        • To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48).
        Socialistic Principles
        These principles reflect the ideology of socialism.
        They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state.
        They direct the state:
        • To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).

        • To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47).

        Unattempted

        Gandhian Principles: These principles are based on Gandhian ideology.
        They represent the programme of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement.
        In order to fulfil the dreams of Gandhi, some of his ideas were included as Directive Principles.
        They require the State:
        • To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).

        • To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48).
        Socialistic Principles
        These principles reflect the ideology of socialism.
        They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state.
        They direct the state:
        • To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).

        • To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47).

      76. Question 76 of 100
        76. Question
        2 points

        There are extra-constitutional devices to promote cooperation and coordination between the Centre and the states.
        Which of the following are them?
        (1) The North-Eastern Council.

        (2) Central Council of Homoeopathy.

        (3) The Transport Development Council.

        (4) The University Grants Commission.
        Select the correct answer from the code given below:
        (A) 1 and 4
        (B) 3 and 4
        (C) 2, 3 and 4
        (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

        Correct

        The non-constitutional advisory bodies include the National Integration Council, the Central Council of Health, the Central Council of Local Government and Urban Development, the Zonal Councils, the North-Eastern Council, the Central Council of Indian Medicine, Central Council of Homoeopathy, the Central Family Welfare Council, the Transport Development Council, the University Grants Commission and so on.

        Incorrect

        The non-constitutional advisory bodies include the National Integration Council, the Central Council of Health, the Central Council of Local Government and Urban Development, the Zonal Councils, the North-Eastern Council, the Central Council of Indian Medicine, Central Council of Homoeopathy, the Central Family Welfare Council, the Transport Development Council, the University Grants Commission and so on.

        Unattempted

        The non-constitutional advisory bodies include the National Integration Council, the Central Council of Health, the Central Council of Local Government and Urban Development, the Zonal Councils, the North-Eastern Council, the Central Council of Indian Medicine, Central Council of Homoeopathy, the Central Family Welfare Council, the Transport Development Council, the University Grants Commission and so on.

      77. Question 77 of 100
        77. Question
        2 points

        With reference to the preventive detention in India, consider the following statements:
        (1) It is mandatory to inform the detainee of the grounds of arrest.

        (2) It is compulsory to produce the detained person before a magistrate within 24 hours.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.
        – Preventive detention finds mention in Article 22 and means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court.
        Its purpose is to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future.
        – The first part of Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is arrested or detained under an ordinary law:
        •Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.

        •Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.

        • Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time.

        •Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.

        •These safeguards are not available to an alien or a person arrested or detained under a preventive detention law.
        – Persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law has following safeguard:
        •The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
        The board is to consist of judges of a high court.
        No democratic country in the world has made preventive detention as an Integral part of the Constitution as has been done in India.
        It is unknown in USA.

        Incorrect

        Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.
        – Preventive detention finds mention in Article 22 and means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court.
        Its purpose is to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future.
        – The first part of Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is arrested or detained under an ordinary law:
        •Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.

        •Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.

        • Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time.

        •Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.

        •These safeguards are not available to an alien or a person arrested or detained under a preventive detention law.
        – Persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law has following safeguard:
        •The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
        The board is to consist of judges of a high court.
        No democratic country in the world has made preventive detention as an Integral part of the Constitution as has been done in India.
        It is unknown in USA.

        Unattempted

        Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.
        – Preventive detention finds mention in Article 22 and means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court.
        Its purpose is to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future.
        – The first part of Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is arrested or detained under an ordinary law:
        •Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.

        •Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.

        • Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time.

        •Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.

        •These safeguards are not available to an alien or a person arrested or detained under a preventive detention law.
        – Persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law has following safeguard:
        •The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
        The board is to consist of judges of a high court.
        No democratic country in the world has made preventive detention as an Integral part of the Constitution as has been done in India.
        It is unknown in USA.

      78. Question 78 of 100
        78. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following would fall under definition of State as defined in Article 12 for the purposes of Part III of the Indian Constitution?
        (1) Parliament.

        (2) Panchayats and Municipalities.

        (3) Statutory authorities.
        Select the correct answer using code given below.

        (A) 1 and 2 only
        (B) 2 and 3 only
        (C) 1, 2 and 3
        (D) 1 and 3 only

        Correct

        Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III.
        – According to it, the State includes the following: (A) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
        (B) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.
        (C) All local authorities, that is, municipalities panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
        (D) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non- statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
        -Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies.
        It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
        – According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ̳State” under Article 12.

        Incorrect

        Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III.
        – According to it, the State includes the following:
        (A) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
        (B) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.
        (C) All local authorities, that is, municipalities panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
        (D) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non- statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
        -Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies.
        It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
        -According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ̳State” under Article 12.

        Unattempted

        Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III.
        – According to it, the State includes the following:
        (A) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
        (B) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.
        (C) All local authorities, that is, municipalities panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
        (D) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non- statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
        -Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies.
        It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
        -According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ̳State” under Article 12.

      79. Question 79 of 100
        79. Question
        2 points

        With reference to Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, consider the following statements.

        (1) Under this act, cattle can be purchased only for agricultural purposes.

        (2) It extends to dog breeders and aquarium shop owners.

        (3) The Animal welfare board of India was established under it.
        Which of the statements given above are correct?
        (A) 1 and 2 only.

        (B) 2 and 3 only.

        (C) 1 and 3 only.

        (D) 1, 2 and
        (3)

        Correct

        The Union government has notified Prevention of cruelty to animals (Regulation of Livestock Markets) Rules, 2017 under Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 for restricting trade in cattle.
        Key provision is ban on sale of cattle for slaughter at animal markets across the country.
        The cattle can now be purchased only for ―agricultural purposes‖.
        Hence, statement 1 is correct.
        – Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960:
        •It was enacted to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals.

        •Animal welfare board of India in Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, was established under this act.
        Hence, statement 3 is correct.

        • It extends to whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir.

        •It regulates animal markets, dog breeders, aquarium and pet fish shop owners.
        Hence statement 2 is correct.

        Incorrect

        The Union government has recently notified Prevention of cruelty to animals (Regulation of Livestock Markets) Rules, 2017 under Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 for restricting trade in cattle.
        Key provision is ban on sale of cattle for slaughter at animal markets across the country.
        The cattle can now be purchased only for ―agricultural purposes.
        Hence, statement 1 is correct.
        – Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960:
        •It was enacted to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals.

        •Animal welfare board of India in Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, was established under this act.
        Hence, statement 3 is correct.

        • It extends to whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir.

        •It regulates animal markets, dog breeders, aquarium and pet fish shop owners.
        Hence statement 2 is correct.

        Unattempted

        The Union government has recently notified Prevention of cruelty to animals (Regulation of Livestock Markets) Rules, 2017 under Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 for restricting trade in cattle.
        Key provision is ban on sale of cattle for slaughter at animal markets across the country.
        The cattle can now be purchased only for ―agricultural purposes.
        Hence, statement 1 is correct.
        – Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960:
        •It was enacted to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals.

        •Animal welfare board of India in Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, was established under this act.
        Hence, statement 3 is correct.

        • It extends to whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir.

        •It regulates animal markets, dog breeders, aquarium and pet fish shop owners.
        Hence statement 2 is correct.

      80. Question 80 of 100
        80. Question
        2 points

        Which among the following is an objective behind the system of “checks and balances”?
        (A) It ensures that none of the organs of state can exercise unlimited power.

        (B) It aims to give space to diverse social groups in the government and administration.

        (C) It ensures that interest groups have an influence on the decision making process.

        (D) It limits the centralizing tendency of union government in a federation.

        Correct

        Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
        Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
        Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
        Each organ checks the others.
        This results in a balance of power among various institutions.
        Even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies.
        Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures.
        This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances.

        Incorrect

        Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
        Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
        Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
        Each organ checks the others.
        This results in a balance of power among various institutions.
        Even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies.
        Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures.
        This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances.

        Unattempted

        Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
        Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
        Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
        Each organ checks the others.
        This results in a balance of power among various institutions.
        Even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies.
        Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures.
        This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances.

      81. Question 81 of 100
        81. Question
        2 points

        Who among the following are eligible for getting free legal services by National Legal Service Authority (NALSA)?
        (1) Person in custody.

        (2) Victims of mass disaster.

        (3) Persons whose annual income does not exceed Rs one lakh.
        Select the correct answer using the code given below.

        (A) 3 only
        (B) 1 and 2 only
        (C) 2 and 3 only
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA) was formed on 5 December 1995 under the authority of the Legal Services Authorities Act 1987.
        Its purpose is to provide free legal services to eligible candidates (defined in Sec. 12 of the Act), and to organize LokAdalats for speedy resolution of cases.
        The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief of NALSA while second seniormost judge of Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman.
        The eligible person under The Legal Service Authority Act, 1987 include:
        1. Women and children
        2. Members of SC/ST
        3. Industrial workmen
        4. Victim of mass disaster, violence
        5. Disabled persons
        6. Person in custody
        7. Persons whose annual income does not exceed Rs one lakh.

        Incorrect

        National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA) was formed on 5 December 1995 under the authority of the Legal Services Authorities Act 1987.
        Its purpose is to provide free legal services to eligible candidates (defined in Sec. 12 of the Act), and to organize LokAdalats for speedy resolution of cases.
        The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief of NALSA while second seniormost judge of Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman.
        The eligible person under The Legal Service Authority Act, 1987 include:
        1. Women and children
        2. Members of SC/ST
        3. Industrial workmen
        4. Victim of mass disaster, violence
        5. Disabled persons
        6. Person in custody
        7. Persons whose annual income does not exceed Rs one lakh.

        Unattempted

        National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA) was formed on 5 December 1995 under the authority of the Legal Services Authorities Act 1987.
        Its purpose is to provide free legal services to eligible candidates (defined in Sec. 12 of the Act), and to organize LokAdalats for speedy resolution of cases.
        The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief of NALSA while second seniormost judge of Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman.
        The eligible person under The Legal Service Authority Act, 1987 include:
        1. Women and children
        2. Members of SC/ST
        3. Industrial workmen
        4. Victim of mass disaster, violence
        5. Disabled persons
        6. Person in custody
        7. Persons whose annual income does not exceed Rs one lakh.

      82. Question 82 of 100
        82. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following recommendations of Finance Commission with respect to financial relations are implemented by an order of the President?
        (1) Grants-in-aid
        (2) Debt relief
        (3) Central taxes and duties
        Select the correct answer using the code given below.

        (A) 1 and 3 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) 2 and 3 only
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        The recommendations of the Finance Commission with respect to financial relations are implemented as under:-
        Those to be implemented by an order of the President: distribution of Union Taxes and Duties and Grants-in-aid fall in this category.

        Those to be implemented by executive orders: sharing of Profit Petroleum, Debt Relief, Mode of Central Assistance, etc.

        Incorrect

        The recommendations of the Finance Commission with respect to financial relations are implemented as under:-
        Those to be implemented by an order of the President: distribution of Union Taxes and Duties and Grants-in-aid fall in this category.

        Those to be implemented by executive orders: sharing of Profit Petroleum, Debt Relief, Mode of Central Assistance, etc.

        Unattempted

        The recommendations of the Finance Commission with respect to financial relations are implemented as under:-
        Those to be implemented by an order of the President: distribution of Union Taxes and Duties and Grants-in-aid fall in this category.

        Those to be implemented by executive orders: sharing of Profit Petroleum, Debt Relief, Mode of Central Assistance, etc.

      83. Question 83 of 100
        83. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding Atal Tinkering Lab Marathon :
        (1) It is a six-month-long nationwide challenge across six different thematic areas.

        (2) This is open to all students above the age of 18 years.
        Select the correct codes given below :
        (A) 1 only
        (B)
        2 only
        (C)
        Both 1 and 2
        (D)
        Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        It is a six-month-long nationwide challenge across six different thematic areas, namely, clean energy, water resources, waste management, healthcare, smart mobility and agriculture-tech.
        This is open to all students under the age of 18 years.
        Students of top 30 innovations will be trained on business and entrepreneurship skills, including intellectual property, effective communication, making an elevator pitch, etc.
        Atal Tinkering Lab Marathon is being organised by the Atal Tinkering Labs of Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) and the NITI Aayog in an effort to identify India”s best student innovators.

        Incorrect

        It is a six-month-long nationwide challenge across six different thematic areas, namely, clean energy, water resources, waste management, healthcare, smart mobility and agriculture-tech.
        This is open to all students under the age of 18 years.
        Students of top 30 innovations will be trained on business and entrepreneurship skills, including intellectual property, effective communication, making an elevator pitch, etc.
        Atal Tinkering Lab Marathon is being organised by the Atal Tinkering Labs of Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) and the NITI Aayog in an effort to identify India”s best student innovators.

        Unattempted

        It is a six-month-long nationwide challenge across six different thematic areas, namely, clean energy, water resources, waste management, healthcare, smart mobility and agriculture-tech.
        This is open to all students under the age of 18 years.
        Students of top 30 innovations will be trained on business and entrepreneurship skills, including intellectual property, effective communication, making an elevator pitch, etc.
        Atal Tinkering Lab Marathon is being organised by the Atal Tinkering Labs of Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) and the NITI Aayog in an effort to identify India”s best student innovators.

      84. Question 84 of 100
        84. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding National Nishtha Mission :
        (1) It is an initiative by the Ministry of Human Resource Development.

        (2) It is a Mission aimed at improving learning outcomes at Elementary level through integrated Teacher Trainings.

        (3) The mission is limited to CBSE affiliated schools.
        Select the correct codes given below:
        (A) 1 and 2 only
        (B) 2 and 3 only
        (C) 1 and 3 only
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        It is a Mission aimed at improving learning outcomes at Elementary level through integrated Teacher Trainings.
        This Mission aims to build the capacities of 42 lakh participants covering all teachers and Heads of Schools at elementary level in all Government Schools across the country, faculty members of SIEs/SCERTs, DIETs etc.
        NISHTHA- National Initiative for School Heads” and Teachers” Holistic Advancement (NISHTHA) has been launched in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

        Incorrect

        It is a Mission aimed at improving learning outcomes at Elementary level through integrated Teacher Trainings.
        This Mission aims to build the capacities of 42 lakh participants covering all teachers and Heads of Schools at elementary level in all Government Schools across the country, faculty members of SIEs/SCERTs, DIETs etc.
        NISHTHA- National Initiative for School Heads” and Teachers” Holistic Advancement (NISHTHA) has been launched in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

        Unattempted

        It is a Mission aimed at improving learning outcomes at Elementary level through integrated Teacher Trainings.
        This Mission aims to build the capacities of 42 lakh participants covering all teachers and Heads of Schools at elementary level in all Government Schools across the country, faculty members of SIEs/SCERTs, DIETs etc.
        NISHTHA- National Initiative for School Heads” and Teachers” Holistic Advancement (NISHTHA) has been launched in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

      85. Question 85 of 100
        85. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements about the Public Financial Management System (PFMS):
        (1) It is being administered by the NITI Aayog.

        (2) It is a unified platform for tracking fund releases and monitoring utilisation.

        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        PFMS is a web based online transaction system for fund management and e-payment to implementing agencies and beneficiaries.

        The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is an end-to-end solution for processing payments, tracking, monitoring, accounting, reconciliation and reporting.

        It provides the scheme managers a unified platform for tracking fund releases and monitoring their last mile utilization.

        Hence, statement 2 is correct.
        Mandate The mandate given to PFMS by Cabinet decision is to provide:
        • A financial management platform for all plan schemes, a database of all recipient agencies, integration with core banking solution of banks handling plan funds, integration with State Treasuries and efficient and effective tracking of fund flow to the lowest level of implementation for plan scheme of the Government.

        • To provide information across all plan schemes/ implementation agencies in the country on fund utilization leading to better monitoring, review and decision support system to enhance public accountability in the implementation of plan schemes.

        • To result in effectiveness and economy in Public Finance Management through better cash management for Government transparency in public expenditure and real-time information on resource availability and utilization across schemes.
        The roll-out will also result in improved programme administration and management, reduction of float in the system, direct payment to beneficiaries and greater transparency and accountability in the use of public funds.
        The proposed system will be an important tool for improving governance.

        • It was previously under NITI Aayog but now has been transferred to the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

        Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

        Incorrect

        PFMS is a web based online transaction system for fund management and e-payment to implementing agencies and beneficiaries.

        The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is an end-to-end solution for processing payments, tracking, monitoring, accounting, reconciliation and reporting.

        It provides the scheme managers a unified platform for tracking fund releases and monitoring their last mile utilization.

        Hence, statement 2 is correct.
        Mandate The mandate given to PFMS by Cabinet decision is to provide:
        • A financial management platform for all plan schemes, a database of all recipient agencies, integration with core banking solution of banks handling plan funds, integration with State Treasuries and efficient and effective tracking of fund flow to the lowest level of implementation for plan scheme of the Government.

        • To provide information across all plan schemes/ implementation agencies in the country on fund utilization leading to better monitoring, review and decision support system to enhance public accountability in the implementation of plan schemes.

        • To result in effectiveness and economy in Public Finance Management through better cash management for Government transparency in public expenditure and real-time information on resource availability and utilization across schemes.
        The roll-out will also result in improved programme administration and management, reduction of float in the system, direct payment to beneficiaries and greater transparency and accountability in the use of public funds.
        The proposed system will be an important tool for improving governance.

        • It was previously under NITI Aayog but now has been transferred to the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

        Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

        Unattempted

        PFMS is a web based online transaction system for fund management and e-payment to implementing agencies and beneficiaries.

        The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is an end-to-end solution for processing payments, tracking, monitoring, accounting, reconciliation and reporting.

        It provides the scheme managers a unified platform for tracking fund releases and monitoring their last mile utilization.

        Hence, statement 2 is correct.
        Mandate The mandate given to PFMS by Cabinet decision is to provide:
        • A financial management platform for all plan schemes, a database of all recipient agencies, integration with core banking solution of banks handling plan funds, integration with State Treasuries and efficient and effective tracking of fund flow to the lowest level of implementation for plan scheme of the Government.

        • To provide information across all plan schemes/ implementation agencies in the country on fund utilization leading to better monitoring, review and decision support system to enhance public accountability in the implementation of plan schemes.

        • To result in effectiveness and economy in Public Finance Management through better cash management for Government transparency in public expenditure and real-time information on resource availability and utilization across schemes.
        The roll-out will also result in improved programme administration and management, reduction of float in the system, direct payment to beneficiaries and greater transparency and accountability in the use of public funds.
        The proposed system will be an important tool for improving governance.

        • It was previously under NITI Aayog but now has been transferred to the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

        Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

      86. Question 86 of 100
        86. Question
        2 points

        With respect to the Bar Council of India, consider the following statements:
        (1) It is a statutory body.

        (2) Attorney General of India is the ex- officio member of the Council.

        (3) It lays down standards for legal education in India.

        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 3 only
        (B) 2 and 3 only
        (C) 1, 2 and 3
        (D) 1 only

        Correct

        The Bar Council of India (BCI) is a statutory body constituted under the Advocates Act, 1961 to regulate and represent the Indian bar.

        Hence, statement 1 is correct.
        Its functions are as follows:
        • To lay down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates.

        • To safeguard the rights, privileges and interests of advocates.

        – To promote and support law reform.

        • To promote legal education and to lay down standards of legal education.

        Hence, statement 3 is correct.

        • To recognise universities whose degree in law shall be a qualification for enrolment as an advocate.

        • To organise legal aid to the poor.

        • To recognise on a reciprocal basis, the foreign qualifications in law obtained outside India for the purpose of admission as an advocate in India.

        The Bar Council of India consists of members elected from each State Bar Council, and the Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India who are ex-officio members.

        Hence, statement 2 is correct.

        The members from the State Bar Councils are elected for a period of five years.

        The Council elects its own Chairman and Vice-Chairman for a period of two years from amongst its members.

        Incorrect

        The Bar Council of India (BCI) is a statutory body constituted under the Advocates Act, 1961 to regulate and represent the Indian bar.

        Hence, statement 1 is correct.
        Its functions are as follows:
        • To lay down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates.

        • To safeguard the rights, privileges and interests of advocates.

        – To promote and support law reform.

        • To promote legal education and to lay down standards of legal education.

        Hence, statement 3 is correct.

        • To recognise universities whose degree in law shall be a qualification for enrolment as an advocate.

        • To organise legal aid to the poor.

        • To recognise on a reciprocal basis, the foreign qualifications in law obtained outside India for the purpose of admission as an advocate in India.

        The Bar Council of India consists of members elected from each State Bar Council, and the Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India who are ex-officio members.

        Hence, statement 2 is correct.

        The members from the State Bar Councils are elected for a period of five years.

        The Council elects its own Chairman and Vice-Chairman for a period of two years from amongst its members.

        Unattempted

        The Bar Council of India (BCI) is a statutory body constituted under the Advocates Act, 1961 to regulate and represent the Indian bar.

        Hence, statement 1 is correct.
        Its functions are as follows:
        • To lay down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates.

        • To safeguard the rights, privileges and interests of advocates.

        – To promote and support law reform.

        • To promote legal education and to lay down standards of legal education.

        Hence, statement 3 is correct.

        • To recognise universities whose degree in law shall be a qualification for enrolment as an advocate.

        • To organise legal aid to the poor.

        • To recognise on a reciprocal basis, the foreign qualifications in law obtained outside India for the purpose of admission as an advocate in India.

        The Bar Council of India consists of members elected from each State Bar Council, and the Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India who are ex-officio members.

        Hence, statement 2 is correct.

        The members from the State Bar Councils are elected for a period of five years.

        The Council elects its own Chairman and Vice-Chairman for a period of two years from amongst its members.

      87. Question 87 of 100
        87. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following are grounds for disqualification of a member of Union Public Service Commission?
        (1) If he is adjudged an insolvent.

        (2) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.

        (3) If he is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India.
        Select the correct answer using the code given below.

        (A) 1 and 2 only
        (B) 1 and 3 only
        (C) 2 and 3 only
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        All of the given statements are correct.
        The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
        (A) If he is adjudged an insolvent;
        (B) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
        (C) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body In addition to these, the president can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour.
        However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
        If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member.
        Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the president.
        During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the president can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.
        Defining the term misbehaviour” in this context, the Constitution states that the chairman or any other member of the UPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour if he
        (A) is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the government of a state, or
        (B) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit there from otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an incorporated company.

        Incorrect

        All of the given statements are correct.
        The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
        (A) If he is adjudged an insolvent;
        (B) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office;
        or
        (C) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body In addition to these, the president can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour.
        However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
        If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member.
        Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the president.
        During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the president can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.
        Defining the term ̳misbehaviour” in this context, the Constitution states that the chairman or any other member of the UPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour if he
        (A) is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the government of a state, or
        (B) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit there from otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an incorporated company.

        Unattempted

        All of the given statements are correct.
        The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
        (A) If he is adjudged an insolvent;
        (B) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office;
        or
        (C) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body In addition to these, the president can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour.
        However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
        If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member.
        Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the president.
        During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the president can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.
        Defining the term ̳misbehaviour” in this context, the Constitution states that the chairman or any other member of the UPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour if he
        (A) is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the government of a state, or
        (B) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit there from otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an incorporated company.

      88. Question 88 of 100
        88. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy is/are classified as Liberal- Intellectual Principles?
        (1) To secure uniform civil code throughout the country.

        (2) To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines.

        (3) To separate judiciary from executive in public services of the state.
        Select the correct answer using the code given below.

        (A) 3 only
        (B) 1 and 2 only
        (C) 2 and 3 only
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        Liberal intellectual principles included in DPSPs are:
        •To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country(Article 44).

        •To provide early childhood care and education for all the children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45).

        •To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article 48).

        •To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forest and wildlife (Article 48A).

        •To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49).

        •To separate judiciary from executive in public services of the state (Article 50).

        •To promote international peace and security and to maintain just and honorable relations between nations, to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations and encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration(Article 51).

        Incorrect

        Liberal intellectual principles included in DPSPs are:
        •To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country(Article 44).

        •To provide early childhood care and education for all the children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45).

        •To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article 48).

        •To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forest and wildlife (Article 48A).

        •To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49).

        •To separate judiciary from executive in public services of the state (Article 50).

        •To promote international peace and security and to maintain just and honorable relations between nations, to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations and encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration(Article 51).

        Unattempted

        Liberal intellectual principles included in DPSPs are:
        •To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country(Article 44).

        •To provide early childhood care and education for all the children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45).

        •To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article 48).

        •To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forest and wildlife (Article 48A).

        •To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49).

        •To separate judiciary from executive in public services of the state (Article 50).

        •To promote international peace and security and to maintain just and honorable relations between nations, to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations and encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration(Article 51).

      89. Question 89 of 100
        89. Question
        2 points

        The Courts apply which of the following doctrine to invalidate any law to the extent to which it is inconsistent with the Fundamental rights?
        (A) Doctrine of Severability
        (B) Doctrine of Pith and Substance
        (C) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
        (D) Doctrine of Implied Power

        Correct

        -Doctrine of Severability: A law becomes invalid only to the extent to which it is inconsistent with the fundamental rights.
        So only that part of the law will be declared invalid which is inconsistent, and the rest of the law will stand.
        However, on this point a clarification has been made by the courts that invalid part of the law shall be severed and declared invalid if really it is severable, i.e. if after separating the invalid part the valid part is capable of giving effect to the legislature”s intent, then only it will survive, otherwise the court shall declare the entire law as invalid.
        This is known as Doctrine severability.
        -Doctrine of implied power: This is a Legal principle which states that, in general, the rights and duties of a legislative body or organization are determined from its functions and purposes as specified in its constitution or charter and developed in practice.
        -Doctrine of pith and substance: Pith means “true nature” or “essence” and substance means the essential nature underlying a phenomenon.
        Thus, the doctrine of pith and substance relates to finding out the true nature of a statute.
        This doctrine is widely used when deciding whether a state is within its rights to create a statute that involves a subject mentioned in Union List of the Constitution.
        The basic idea behind this principle is that an act or a provision created by the State is valid if the true nature of the act or the provision is about a subject that falls in the State list.
        -Doctrine of colourable legislation: It is a tool to determine the Legislative competencies of the respective Legislatures.
        The doctrine can be applied by both the supreme court and the high courts.
        It is not applicable to subordinate legislations.
        It does not involve any question of bona fides or mala fides on the part of the legislature.
        The whole doctrine resolves itself into the, question of competency of a particular legislature to enact a particular law.

        Incorrect

        -Doctrine of Severability: A law becomes invalid only to the extent to which it is inconsistent with the fundamental rights.
        So only that part of the law will be declared invalid which is inconsistent, and the rest of the law will stand.
        However, on this point a clarification has been made by the courts that invalid part of the law shall be severed and declared invalid if really it is severable, i.e. if after separating the invalid part the valid part is capable of giving effect to the legislature”s intent, then only it will survive, otherwise the court shall declare the entire law as invalid.
        This is known as Doctrine severability.
        -Doctrine of implied power: This is a Legal principle which states that, in general, the rights and duties of a legislative body or organization are determined from its functions and purposes as specified in its constitution or charter and developed in practice.
        -Doctrine of pith and substance: Pith means “true nature” or “essence” and substance means the essential nature underlying a phenomenon.
        Thus, the doctrine of pith and substance relates to finding out the true nature of a statute.
        This doctrine is widely used when deciding whether a state is within its rights to create a statute that involves a subject mentioned in Union List of the Constitution.
        The basic idea behind this principle is that an act or a provision created by the State is valid if the true nature of the act or the provision is about a subject that falls in the State list.
        -Doctrine of colourable legislation: It is a tool to determine the Legislative competencies of the respective Legislatures.
        The doctrine can be applied by both the supreme court and the high courts.
        It is not applicable to subordinate legislations.
        It does not involve any question of bona fides or mala fides on the part of the legislature.
        The whole doctrine resolves itself into the, question of competency of a particular legislature to enact a particular law.

        Unattempted

        -Doctrine of Severability: A law becomes invalid only to the extent to which it is inconsistent with the fundamental rights.
        So only that part of the law will be declared invalid which is inconsistent, and the rest of the law will stand.
        However, on this point a clarification has been made by the courts that invalid part of the law shall be severed and declared invalid if really it is severable, i.e. if after separating the invalid part the valid part is capable of giving effect to the legislature”s intent, then only it will survive, otherwise the court shall declare the entire law as invalid.
        This is known as Doctrine severability.
        -Doctrine of implied power: This is a Legal principle which states that, in general, the rights and duties of a legislative body or organization are determined from its functions and purposes as specified in its constitution or charter and developed in practice.
        -Doctrine of pith and substance: Pith means “true nature” or “essence” and substance means the essential nature underlying a phenomenon.
        Thus, the doctrine of pith and substance relates to finding out the true nature of a statute.
        This doctrine is widely used when deciding whether a state is within its rights to create a statute that involves a subject mentioned in Union List of the Constitution.
        The basic idea behind this principle is that an act or a provision created by the State is valid if the true nature of the act or the provision is about a subject that falls in the State list.
        -Doctrine of colourable legislation: It is a tool to determine the Legislative competencies of the respective Legislatures.
        The doctrine can be applied by both the supreme court and the high courts.
        It is not applicable to subordinate legislations.
        It does not involve any question of bona fides or mala fides on the part of the legislature.
        The whole doctrine resolves itself into the, question of competency of a particular legislature to enact a particular law.

      90. Question 90 of 100
        90. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following statements is correct with regard to administration of tribal areas under sixth schedule?
        (A) The tribal areas under the sixth schedule do no fall under the executive authority of the state concerned.

        (B) The President is empowered to organise and reorganise the tribal areas.

        (C) Each autonomous tribal area has a district council with nominated and elected members.

        (D) The district councils are empowered to collect land revenue with the assent of the Governor only.

        Correct

        The Constitution, under sixth schedule, contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
        The tribal areas in the four states have been constituted as autonomous districts.
        But, they donot fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned as majority of powers with respect to tribal areas are in hands of Governor.
        Hence, option (A) is not correct.
        The Governor is empowered to organise and reorganise the autonomous districts.
        Thus, he can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries.
        If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the governor can divide the district into several autonomous regions.
        Hence, option (B) is not correct.
        Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise.
        The elected members hold office for a term of five years (unless the council is dissolved earlier) and nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the governor.
        Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council.
        Hence, option (C) is correct.
        The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to impose certain specified taxes.
        It is in the case when district council is making regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals, such regulations require the assent of the governor.
        Hence, option (D) is not correct.

        Incorrect

        The Constitution, under sixth schedule, contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
        The tribal areas in the four states have been constituted as autonomous districts.
        But, they donot fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned as majority of powers with respect to tribal areas are in hands of Governor.
        Hence, option (A) is not correct.
        The Governor is empowered to organise and reorganise the autonomous districts.
        Thus, he can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries.
        If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the governor can divide the district into several autonomous regions.
        Hence, option (B) is not correct.
        Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise.
        The elected members hold office for a term of five years (unless the council is dissolved earlier) and nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the governor.
        Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council.
        Hence, option (C) is correct.
        The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to impose certain specified taxes.
        It is in the case when district council is making regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals, such regulations require the assent of the governor.
        Hence, option (D) is not correct.

        Unattempted

        The Constitution, under sixth schedule, contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
        The tribal areas in the four states have been constituted as autonomous districts.
        But, they donot fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned as majority of powers with respect to tribal areas are in hands of Governor.
        Hence, option (A) is not correct.
        The Governor is empowered to organise and reorganise the autonomous districts.
        Thus, he can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries.
        If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the governor can divide the district into several autonomous regions.
        Hence, option (B) is not correct.
        Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise.
        The elected members hold office for a term of five years (unless the council is dissolved earlier) and nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the governor.
        Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council.
        Hence, option (C) is correct.
        The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to impose certain specified taxes.
        It is in the case when district council is making regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals, such regulations require the assent of the governor.
        Hence, option (D) is not correct.

      91. Question 91 of 100
        91. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following are the implications of right to property being a legal right in India?
        (1) Private property is protected against executive action and not legislative action.

        (2) Right to compensation is not guaranteed in case of its acquisition by the state.

        (3) The aggrieved person cannot directly approach the Supreme Court for its violation.
        Select the correct answer using the code given below.

        (A) 1 only
        (B) 1 and 2 only
        (C) 2 and 3 only
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III.
        It inserted a new Article 300A under the heading ̳Right to Property”.
        – The right to property as a legal right (as distinct from the Fundamental Rights) has the following implications:
        It can be curtailed, abridged or modified without constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the Parliament.
        It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative action.
        In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot directly move to the Supreme Court under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs) for its enforcement.
        He can move to the High Court under Article 226.
        No guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or requisition of the private property by the state.

        Incorrect

        The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III.
        It inserted a new Article 300A under the heading ̳Right to Property”.
        – The right to property as a legal right (as distinct from the Fundamental Rights) has the following implications:
        It can be curtailed, abridged or modified without constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the Parliament.
        It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative action.
        In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot directly move to the Supreme Court under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs) for its enforcement.
        He can move to the High Court under Article 226.
        No guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or requisition of the private property by the state.

        Unattempted

        The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III.
        It inserted a new Article 300A under the heading ̳Right to Property”.
        – The right to property as a legal right (as distinct from the Fundamental Rights) has the following implications:
        It can be curtailed, abridged or modified without constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the Parliament.
        It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative action.
        In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot directly move to the Supreme Court under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs) for its enforcement.
        He can move to the High Court under Article 226.
        No guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or requisition of the private property by the state.

      92. Question 92 of 100
        92. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements:
        (1) The Public Accounts Committee was set up under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935 and has since been in existence.

        (2) The function of the Committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.

        (3) The Committee examines public expenditure not only from the legal and formal point of view, to discover technical irregularities, but also from the point of view of economy, prudence, wisdom and propriety to bring out the cases of waste, loss, corruption, extravagance, inefficiency and nugatory expenses.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 2 only
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) 1 and 3
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        The Public Accounts Committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence.

        Incorrect

        The Public Accounts Committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence.

        Unattempted

        The Public Accounts Committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence.

      93. Question 93 of 100
        93. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following is/are included in the objectives of the Provisions of the Panchayats Extension to the Schedule Areas (PESA) Act, 1996 ?
        (A) To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the panchayats to the scheduled areas with certain modifications.

        (B) To provide self‐rule for the bulk of the tribal population.

        (C) To safeguard and to preserve the traditions and customs of tribal communities.

        (D) All of the above.

        Correct

        All of the above.
        In addition to these objectives, other objectives of PESA Act are given below :
        • To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of panchayats at the lower level of the Gram Sabha.

        • To empower panchayats at the appropriate levels with specific powers conducive to tribal requirements.

        • To evolve a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices.

        • To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make the Gram Sabha a nucleus of all activities.

        Incorrect

        All of the above.
        In addition to these objectives, other objectives of PESA Act are given below :
        • To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of panchayats at the lower level of the Gram Sabha.

        • To empower panchayats at the appropriate levels with specific powers conducive to tribal requirements.

        • To evolve a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices.

        • To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make the Gram Sabha a nucleus of all activities.

        Unattempted

        All of the above.
        In addition to these objectives, other objectives of PESA Act are given below :
        • To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of panchayats at the lower level of the Gram Sabha.

        • To empower panchayats at the appropriate levels with specific powers conducive to tribal requirements.

        • To evolve a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices.

        • To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make the Gram Sabha a nucleus of all activities.

      94. Question 94 of 100
        94. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding the pardoning power of the President :
        (1) Remission‐ It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence for a temporary period. Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation from the President.

        (2) Reprieve‐ It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.

        (3) Commutation‐ It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) 3 only
        (B) 2 and 3
        (C) 1 and 2
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        The pardoning power of the President (Article 72 of the Constitution) includes the following :
        Pardon‐ It removes both the sentence and the conviction, and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
        Remission‐ It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.
        Reprieve‐ It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence for a temporary period.
        Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation from the President.
        Respite‐ It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
        Commutation‐It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
        It is notable that under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor of a state also possesses the pardoning power.

        Incorrect

        The pardoning power of the President (Article 72 of the Constitution) includes the following :
        Pardon‐ It removes both the sentence and the conviction, and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
        Remission‐ It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.
        Reprieve‐ It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence for a temporary period.
        Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation from the President.
        Respite‐ It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
        Commutation‐It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
        It is notable that under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor of a state also possesses the pardoning power.

        Unattempted

        The pardoning power of the President (Article 72 of the Constitution) includes the following :
        Pardon‐ It removes both the sentence and the conviction, and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
        Remission‐ It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.
        Reprieve‐ It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence for a temporary period.
        Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation from the President.
        Respite‐ It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
        Commutation‐It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
        It is notable that under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor of a state also possesses the pardoning power.

      95. Question 95 of 100
        95. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding the National Emergency :
        (1) There is no maximum period prescribed for its operation. It can be continued indefinitely with the approval of the Parliament for every six months.

        (2) Under this, the Parliament can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List and it can delegate the same to any other body or authority.

        (3) During its operation the Centre gets concurrent powers of administration and legislation in the state.
        Which of the statements given above are correct?
        (A) 1 and 2
        (B) 1 and 3
        (C) 2 and 3
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        ‐Under this, the Parliament can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List only by itself and it cannot delegate the same to any other body or authority.
        ‐National Emergency (Article 352) and comparison between the National Emergency and the President”s Rule should be seen in the wake of imposition of the President”s Rule in Arunachal Pradesh.
        ‐It is also notable that National Emergency can be proclaimed only when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

        Incorrect

        ‐Under this, the Parliament can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List only by itself and it cannot delegate the same to any other body or authority.
        ‐National Emergency (Article 352) and comparison between the National Emergency and the President”s Rule should be seen in the wake of imposition of the President”s Rule in Arunachal Pradesh.
        ‐It is also notable that National Emergency can be proclaimed only when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

        Unattempted

        ‐Under this, the Parliament can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List only by itself and it cannot delegate the same to any other body or authority.
        ‐National Emergency (Article 352) and comparison between the National Emergency and the President”s Rule should be seen in the wake of imposition of the President”s Rule in Arunachal Pradesh.
        ‐It is also notable that National Emergency can be proclaimed only when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

      96. Question 96 of 100
        96. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements regarding the President”s Rule :
        (1) A proclamation imposing the President”s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of the Parliament, within two months from the date of its issue.

        (2) The 44nd Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a new provision to put restraint on the power of the Parliament to extend a proclamation of the President”s Rule beyond one year.

        (3) The President”s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of two years, with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
        Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (A) Only 1
        (B) 1 and 3
        (C) 1 and 2
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        The President”s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
        It is notable that beyond one year, the President”s Rule can be extended by six months at a time only when the following two conditions are fulfilled:
        – A proclamation of National Emergency should be in operation in whole of India, or in whole or any part of the state; and
        – The Election Commission must certify that general elections to the Legislative Assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties.

        Incorrect

        The President”s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
        It is notable that beyond one year, the President”s Rule can be extended by six months at a time only when the following two conditions are fulfilled:
        – A proclamation of National Emergency should be in operation in whole of India, or in whole or any part of the state; and
        – The Election Commission must certify that general elections to the Legislative Assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties.

        Unattempted

        The President”s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
        It is notable that beyond one year, the President”s Rule can be extended by six months at a time only when the following two conditions are fulfilled:
        – A proclamation of National Emergency should be in operation in whole of India, or in whole or any part of the state; and
        – The Election Commission must certify that general elections to the Legislative Assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties.

      97. Question 97 of 100
        97. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following statements is/are correct?
        (1) 42nd amendment to the Constitution of India gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.

        (2) Minerva Mills case ruled that there has to be a balance between Part III and Part IV of the Constitution.

        (3) National Commission for Review of the Constitution has recommended that Directive Principles be made justiciable.
        Select the correct answer using the code given below:
        (A) 1 and 2 only
        (B) 2 and 3 only
        (C) 1 and 3 only
        (D) 1, 2 and 3

        Correct

        • Article 31C was inserted by 25th amendment and undeterred by Keshavananda Judgement of declaring a part of the article being invalid, the Parliament enacted 42nd amendment and enlarged the scope of the article to include all directive principles and not just article 39 (B) and (C).

        • Minerva Mills case (1980) declared the harmonial balance between FR and DPSP is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.

        • The National Commission recommended that the heading of Part IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as “DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY AND ACTION”.
        It suggested for incorporation of certain new articles as new directives in the Part IV.

        Incorrect

        • Article 31C was inserted by 25th amendment and undeterred by Keshavananda Judgement of declaring a part of the article being invalid, the Parliament enacted 42nd amendment and enlarged the scope of the article to include all directive principles and not just article 39 (B) and (C).

        • Minerva Mills case (1980) declared the harmonial balance between FR and DPSP is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.

        • The National Commission recommended that the heading of Part IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as “DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY AND ACTION”.
        It suggested for incorporation of certain new articles as new directives in the Part IV.

        Unattempted

        • Article 31C was inserted by 25th amendment and undeterred by Keshavananda Judgement of declaring a part of the article being invalid, the Parliament enacted 42nd amendment and enlarged the scope of the article to include all directive principles and not just article 39 (B) and (C).

        • Minerva Mills case (1980) declared the harmonial balance between FR and DPSP is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.

        • The National Commission recommended that the heading of Part IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as “DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY AND ACTION”.
        It suggested for incorporation of certain new articles as new directives in the Part IV.

      98. Question 98 of 100
        98. Question
        2 points

        Which of the following goals, if sought to implemented through laws, could enable the courts to upheld such legislations on the ground that they are made to implement the goal of socio-economic justice under the Indian Constitution?
        (1) to remove economic inequalities
        (2) to provide a decent standard of living to the working people
        (3) to protect the interests of the weaker sections of the society
        (4) to ensure dignity of individuals
        Which of the statements given above are correct?
        (A) 2 and 4 only
        (B) 1 and 3 only
        (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
        (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

        Correct

        • Understanding the meaning of the philosophies of “social justice” and “economic justice” of the Preamble will enable you to identify the justification of the answer.

        Incorrect

        • Understanding the meaning of the philosophies of “social justice” and “economic justice” of the Preamble will enable you to identify the justification of the answer.

        Unattempted

        • Understanding the meaning of the philosophies of “social justice” and “economic justice” of the Preamble will enable you to identify the justification of the answer.

      99. Question 99 of 100
        99. Question
        2 points

        The scope of “life and personal liberty,” as envisages in Article 21 of the Constitution of India, has expanded considerably over the years.
        Which one of the following can still not be subject of this protection?
        (A) The right to good health
        (B) The right of a bonded labour to rehabilitation after release
        (C) The right, under a settlement, to claim bonus or dearness allowance
        (D) The right to livelihood by means which are not illegal, immoral or opposed to public Policy

        Correct

        • Refer list of rights that judiciary has interpreted under Right to Life under Article 21.

        Incorrect

        • Refer list of rights that judiciary has interpreted under Right to Life under Article 21.

        Unattempted

        • Refer list of rights that judiciary has interpreted under Right to Life under Article 21.

      100. Question 100 of 100
        100. Question
        2 points

        Consider the following statements with respect to “basic structure” and choose the correct statements.

        (1) In the Kesavanandha Bharati case the Supreme Court ruled that the Constituent power of the Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the “basic structure” of the constitution.

        (2) However the Supreme Court in its review changed its earlier stand with respect to “basis structure” and ruled that if the public opinion is against basis structure it can be altered.
        Select the correct answer using the code given below:
        (A) 1 only
        (B) 2 only
        (C) Both 1 and 2
        (D) Neither 1 nor 2

        Correct

        • The content of the Kesavananda Bharathi case is that the constituent power of the Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the basis structure of the constitution.

        Incorrect

        • The content of the Kesavananda Bharathi case is that the constituent power of the Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the basis structure of the constitution.

        Unattempted

        • The content of the Kesavananda Bharathi case is that the constituent power of the Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the basis structure of the constitution.

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