cHECKING ECO

FULL LENGTH TEST 9 – 2024

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1. Answered
2. Review

1. Question 1 of 100

   1. Question

   With reference to Chola administration, the terms muttaiyal and vetti refer to the obligation to
   (A) provide food to state officials
   (B) provide labour services
   (C) pay rural tax in cash
   (D) provide military service in times of conflict

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Cholas as a ruling power rose to eminence in the 9th Century A.D. when Vijayalaya seized Tanjavur from a feudatory chief of the Pallavas called Muttarayas.
   Henceforth the Cholas were able to establish control over Pallava territories and subdued the Pandya power. The Chola state stood on a firm footing deriving sustenance from the resource-pocket located in the fertile and rich area of the Kaveri valley.
   The Cholas had a large land revenue department consisting of several rungs, but it was largely concerned with maintaining accounts.
   Certain frequently occurring terms in inscriptions give information about the dues imposed by the state on cultivators.
   Eccoru referred to the obligation of villagers to provide food for state officials.
   Muttaiyal and vetti meant the obligation to provide labour services.
   Kudimai was another term for such labour services.
   The antarayam was a rural tax realized in cash.
   There was a steady rise in the number of revenue terms in inscriptions, peaking during the reign of Rajendra II (1052–63 AD), and declining from the time of Kulottunga I.

   Unattempted
   

   The Cholas as a ruling power rose to eminence in the 9th Century A.D. when Vijayalaya seized Tanjavur from a feudatory chief of the Pallavas called Muttarayas.
   Henceforth the Cholas were able to establish control over Pallava territories and subdued the Pandya power. The Chola state stood on a firm footing deriving sustenance from the resource-pocket located in the fertile and rich area of the Kaveri valley.
   The Cholas had a large land revenue department consisting of several rungs, but it was largely concerned with maintaining accounts.
   Certain frequently occurring terms in inscriptions give information about the dues imposed by the state on cultivators.
   Eccoru referred to the obligation of villagers to provide food for state officials.
   Muttaiyal and vetti meant the obligation to provide labour services.
   Kudimai was another term for such labour services.
   The antarayam was a rural tax realized in cash.
   There was a steady rise in the number of revenue terms in inscriptions, peaking during the reign of Rajendra II (1052–63 AD), and declining from the time of Kulottunga I.
2. Question 2 of 100

   2. Question

   Consider the following statements with reference to the parallel government set up in Maharashtra during the Quit India Movement:
   (1) It took upon social reforms by inviting untouchables to marriages.
   (2) It set up local courts for dispensation of justice.
   (3) The government was brutally dismissed by the British and lasted only for six months.
   How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of what came to be known as parallel governments in some parts of the country.
   The first one was proclaimed in Ballia, in East U P, in August 1942 under the leadership of Chittu Pande, who called himself a Gandhian. Though it succeeded in getting the Collector to hand over powerand release all the arrested Congress leaders, it could not survive for long and when the soldiers marched in, a week after the parallel government was formed, they found that the leaders had fled.
   In Tamluk, in the Midnapur district of Bengal, the Jatiya Sarkar came into existence on 17 December 1942 and lasted till September 1944.
   Tamluk was an area where Gandhian constructive work had made considerable headway and it was also the scene of earlier mass struggles. The Jatiya Sarkar undertook cyclone relief work, gave grants to schools. It also organized an armed Vidyut Vahini.
   It also set up arbitration courts and distributed the surplus paddy of the well-to-do to the poor. Being located in a relatively remote area, it could continue its activities with comparative ease.
   Satara, in Maharashtra, emerged as the base of the longest-lasting and effective parallel government (1942-45). From the very beginning of the Quit India Movement, the region played an active role. The Prati Sarkar continued to function till 1945. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
   In the first phase from August 1942, there were marches on local government headquarters, sabotage, attacks on post offices, the looting of banks and the cutting of telegraph wires. Y.B. Chavan was the most important leader during the first phase. But by the end of 1942, this phase came to an end with the arrest of about two thousand people.
   From the very beginning of 1943, the underground activists began to regroup, and by the middle of the year, succeeded in consolidating the organization. A parallel government or Prati Sarkar was set up and Nani Patil was its most important leader. This phase was marked by attacks on Government collaborators. Nyayadan Mandals or people’s courts were set up and justice dispensed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
   Prohibition was enforced, and ‘Gandhi marriages’ celebrated to which untouchables were invited and no ostentation was allowed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of what came to be known as parallel governments in some parts of the country.
   The first one was proclaimed in Ballia, in East U P, in August 1942 under the leadership of Chittu Pande, who called himself a Gandhian. Though it succeeded in getting the Collector to hand over powerand release all the arrested Congress leaders, it could not survive for long and when the soldiers marched in, a week after the parallel government was formed, they found that the leaders had fled.
   In Tamluk, in the Midnapur district of Bengal, the Jatiya Sarkar came into existence on 17 December 1942 and lasted till September 1944.
   Tamluk was an area where Gandhian constructive work had made considerable headway and it was also the scene of earlier mass struggles. The Jatiya Sarkar undertook cyclone relief work, gave grants to schools. It also organized an armed Vidyut Vahini.
   It also set up arbitration courts and distributed the surplus paddy of the well-to-do to the poor. Being located in a relatively remote area, it could continue its activities with comparative ease.
   Satara, in Maharashtra, emerged as the base of the longest-lasting and effective parallel government (1942-45). From the very beginning of the Quit India Movement, the region played an active role. The Prati Sarkar continued to function till 1945. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
   In the first phase from August 1942, there were marches on local government headquarters, sabotage, attacks on post offices, the looting of banks and the cutting of telegraph wires. Y.B. Chavan was the most important leader during the first phase. But by the end of 1942, this phase came to an end with the arrest of about two thousand people.
   From the very beginning of 1943, the underground activists began to regroup, and by the middle of the year, succeeded in consolidating the organization. A parallel government or Prati Sarkar was set up and Nani Patil was its most important leader. This phase was marked by attacks on Government collaborators. Nyayadan Mandals or people’s courts were set up and justice dispensed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
   Prohibition was enforced, and ‘Gandhi marriages’ celebrated to which untouchables were invited and no ostentation was allowed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
3. Question 3 of 100

   3. Question

   Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-Islamic architecture during the medieval India:
   (1) Human and animal figures were frequently represented for the decoration of the walls of the mosques.
   (2) The arch and dome method, which was used on a wide scale, was a Turkish invention.
   In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
   (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
   (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
   (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
   (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Turks deliberately avoided the representation of Human and animal figures for the decoration of the walls because it was considered un-Islamic. Rather they used geometric and floral designs along with Quran verses. It was called Arabesque. The Hindu motifs like a bell, lotus, swastik, etc were also frequently used. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   In the buildings, The arch and dome method was used on a wide scale. However, it was not a Turkish invention. The Arabs borrowed them from Rome through the Byzantine empire; developed them and used them as per their own requirements. The dome provided a pleasing skyline and with the passage of time, the domes got more loftier. Further, the use of fine quality light mortar became popular with the arrival of the Turks. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

   Unattempted
   

   The Turks deliberately avoided the representation of Human and animal figures for the decoration of the walls because it was considered un-Islamic. Rather they used geometric and floral designs along with Quran verses. It was called Arabesque. The Hindu motifs like a bell, lotus, swastik, etc were also frequently used. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   In the buildings, The arch and dome method was used on a wide scale. However, it was not a Turkish invention. The Arabs borrowed them from Rome through the Byzantine empire; developed them and used them as per their own requirements. The dome provided a pleasing skyline and with the passage of time, the domes got more loftier. Further, the use of fine quality light mortar became popular with the arrival of the Turks. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
4. Question 4 of 100

   4. Question

   The British government appointed the Lothian Committee to:
   (A) suggest an effective response to growing revolutionary upsurge in India.
   (B) formulate a system of franchise for India.
   (C) draw up a comprehensive code of conduct for the Indian vernacular press.
   (D) suggest means to improve the industrial output of India.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The Simon Commission, which came to study and make recommendations for Constitutional reforms in India, held negotiations and consultations with different groups of people.
   Dr. Ambedkar appeared before the Commission to demand reserved seats for the 'untouchables' in legislative bodies, special educational concessions, and recruitment to Government posts. These recommendations were substantially accepted in the Commission’s report. In the Simon Commission Report that was submitted in 1930 backward people were categorized into:
   o Depressed Classes,
   o Aboriginals and Hill Tribes and
   o Other Backward Classes.
   But there was stiff opposition to the recommendations of the Simon Commission Report.
   The British Government appointed Lothian Committee (also known as Indian Franchise Committee) in December 1931, to formulate a system of franchise whereby all sections of the people would be represented in the legislature. The Committee was specifically required to 'investigate the need, justification and methods to ensure adequate representation for the depressed classes.'
   It was the Lothian committee's report that formed the basis of the 'Communal Award' announced by Ramsay MacDonald in 1932.

   Unattempted
   

   The Simon Commission, which came to study and make recommendations for Constitutional reforms in India, held negotiations and consultations with different groups of people.
   Dr. Ambedkar appeared before the Commission to demand reserved seats for the 'untouchables' in legislative bodies, special educational concessions, and recruitment to Government posts. These recommendations were substantially accepted in the Commission’s report. In the Simon Commission Report that was submitted in 1930 backward people were categorized into:
   o Depressed Classes,
   o Aboriginals and Hill Tribes and
   o Other Backward Classes.
   But there was stiff opposition to the recommendations of the Simon Commission Report.
   The British Government appointed Lothian Committee (also known as Indian Franchise Committee) in December 1931, to formulate a system of franchise whereby all sections of the people would be represented in the legislature. The Committee was specifically required to 'investigate the need, justification and methods to ensure adequate representation for the depressed classes.'
   It was the Lothian committee's report that formed the basis of the 'Communal Award' announced by Ramsay MacDonald in 1932.
5. Question 5 of 100

   5. Question

   Water in the areas of upwelling is generally associated with which of the following characters?
   (A) Warm and lacking in nutrients
   (B) Warm and rich in nutrients
   (C) Cold and lacking in nutrients
   (D) Cold and rich in nutrients

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Upwelling is a process in which deep, cold water rises toward the surface. Winds blowing across the ocean surface push water away. Water then rises up from beneath the surface to replace the water that was pushed away.
   Upwelling occurs in the open ocean and along coastlines. Water that rises to the surface as a result of upwelling is typically colder and is rich in nutrients. These nutrients fertilize surface waters meaning that these surface waters of often have high biological productivity. Therefore good fishing grounds are typically found where upwelling is common.
   The reverse process, called “downwelling,” also occurs when wind causes surface water to build up along a coastline and the surface water eventually sinks toward the bottom

   Unattempted
   

   Upwelling is a process in which deep, cold water rises toward the surface. Winds blowing across the ocean surface push water away. Water then rises up from beneath the surface to replace the water that was pushed away.
   Upwelling occurs in the open ocean and along coastlines. Water that rises to the surface as a result of upwelling is typically colder and is rich in nutrients. These nutrients fertilize surface waters meaning that these surface waters of often have high biological productivity. Therefore good fishing grounds are typically found where upwelling is common.
   The reverse process, called “downwelling,” also occurs when wind causes surface water to build up along a coastline and the surface water eventually sinks toward the bottom
6. Question 6 of 100

   6. Question

   Which is the southernmost point of the continent of Africa?
   (A) South East Cape
   (B) Cape of Agulhas
   (C) Cape Horn
   (D) Cape Leeuwin

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Cape Agulhas: The southernmost part of the African continent is the former clipper route as named by sailors, but currently, the region is called the Cape Agulhas. This area is not only the southernmost part of Africa but it is also the start of the borderline between the Atlantic and the Indian oceans.
   Cape Horn is a rocky headland on Hornos Island, in southern Chile's Tierra del Fuego archipelago. It's surrounded by wild seas off the southern tip of South America where the Pacific and Atlantic oceans meet.
   Cape Leeuwin is the most south-westerly mainland point of the Australian continent, in the state of Western Australia. A few small islands and rocks, the St Alouarn Islands, extend further in Flinders Bay to the east of the cape.
   The South East Cape is a cape located at the southernmost point of the main island of Tasmania, the southernmost state of Australia

   Unattempted
   

   Cape Agulhas: The southernmost part of the African continent is the former clipper route as named by sailors, but currently, the region is called the Cape Agulhas. This area is not only the southernmost part of Africa but it is also the start of the borderline between the Atlantic and the Indian oceans.
   Cape Horn is a rocky headland on Hornos Island, in southern Chile's Tierra del Fuego archipelago. It's surrounded by wild seas off the southern tip of South America where the Pacific and Atlantic oceans meet.
   Cape Leeuwin is the most south-westerly mainland point of the Australian continent, in the state of Western Australia. A few small islands and rocks, the St Alouarn Islands, extend further in Flinders Bay to the east of the cape.
   The South East Cape is a cape located at the southernmost point of the main island of Tasmania, the southernmost state of Australia
7. Question 7 of 100

   7. Question

   Consider the following pairs :
   Range/Peak : Himalayan Type
   (1) Dhauladhar : Punjab Himalayas
   (2) Dhaulagiri : Nepal Himalayas
   (3) Nanda Devi : Kumaon Himalayas
   (4) Namcha Barwa : Assam Himalayas
   How many of the above pairs is/are incorrectly matched?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Besides the longitudinal divisions, the Himalayas have been divided on the basis of regions from west to east. These divisions have been demarcated by river valleys.
   Punjab Himalaya: The part of the Himalayas lying between Indus and Satluj has been traditionally known as Punjab Himalaya but it is also known regionally as Kashmir and Himachal Himalaya from west to east respectively. Karakoram, Zaskar, Ladakh, Pir panjal, DholaDhar are the main ranges of this section.
   Kumaon Himalayas: The part of the Himalayas lying between Satluj and Kali rivers. Nanda Devi, Kamet, Trishul, Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri are important peak.
   Nepal Himalayas: The part of the Himalayas lying between Kali and Teesta. This is the tallest section of Himalayas and is covered by peaks of perpetual snow. Mount Everest is the highest peak of the world isfound in this region. Other important Peaks are Kanchenjunga, Lhotse, Cho Oyu, DhaulaGiri, and Anapurna.
   Assam Himalayas: The part lying between Teesta and Dihang rivers. This part of Himalayas spread over large parts so Sikkim, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. The important Peaks of this region are NamchaBarwa, Kuala Kangri, and Chomo Lhari.
   The Brahmaputra mark the easternmost boundary of the Himalayas. Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas bend sharply to the south and spread along the eastern boundary of India. They are known as the Purvachal or the Eastern hills and mountains. These hills running through the north-eastern states are mostly composed of strong sandstones which are sedimentary rocks. Covered with dense forests, they mostly run as parallel ranges and valleys
   Hence, all pairs are correct.

   Unattempted
   

   Besides the longitudinal divisions, the Himalayas have been divided on the basis of regions from west to east. These divisions have been demarcated by river valleys.
   Punjab Himalaya: The part of the Himalayas lying between Indus and Satluj has been traditionally known as Punjab Himalaya but it is also known regionally as Kashmir and Himachal Himalaya from west to east respectively. Karakoram, Zaskar, Ladakh, Pir panjal, DholaDhar are the main ranges of this section.
   Kumaon Himalayas: The part of the Himalayas lying between Satluj and Kali rivers. Nanda Devi, Kamet, Trishul, Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri are important peak.
   Nepal Himalayas: The part of the Himalayas lying between Kali and Teesta. This is the tallest section of Himalayas and is covered by peaks of perpetual snow. Mount Everest is the highest peak of the world isfound in this region. Other important Peaks are Kanchenjunga, Lhotse, Cho Oyu, DhaulaGiri, and Anapurna.
   Assam Himalayas: The part lying between Teesta and Dihang rivers. This part of Himalayas spread over large parts so Sikkim, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. The important Peaks of this region are NamchaBarwa, Kuala Kangri, and Chomo Lhari.
   The Brahmaputra mark the easternmost boundary of the Himalayas. Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas bend sharply to the south and spread along the eastern boundary of India. They are known as the Purvachal or the Eastern hills and mountains. These hills running through the north-eastern states are mostly composed of strong sandstones which are sedimentary rocks. Covered with dense forests, they mostly run as parallel ranges and valleys
   Hence, all pairs are correct.
8. Question 8 of 100

   8. Question

   Consider the following statements:
   (1) The ecological pyramid of biomass is normally upright in terrestrial ecosystems and inverted in aquatic ecosystems.
   (2) In a grassland ecosystem, the ecological pyramid will generally be inverted.
   (3) The ecological pyramid of energy is always upright.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
   (A) Only one
   (B) Only two
   (C) All
   (D) None

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   The ecological pyramid deals with the relationship between the number of primary producers and consumers (herbivores and carnivores) of different orders. In the pyramid of biomass, individuals in each trophic level are weighed i.e., the total dry weight of all organisms at each trophic level at a particular time. For most ecosystems on land, the pyramid of biomass has a large base of primary producers with a smaller trophic level perched on top. In contrast, in many aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass may assume an inverted form. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
   In a grassland ecosystem, the amount of grass (producers) is always high, followed by primary consumers (herbivores) that are less, the secondary consumers (carnivores) that are lesser and finally the top carnivore. Hence, the ecological pyramid will generally be upright. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
   An energy pyramid reflects the laws of thermodynamics, with the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy and heat energy at each trophic level and with loss of energy being depicted at each transfer to another trophic level. Hence the pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

   Unattempted
   

   The ecological pyramid deals with the relationship between the number of primary producers and consumers (herbivores and carnivores) of different orders. In the pyramid of biomass, individuals in each trophic level are weighed i.e., the total dry weight of all organisms at each trophic level at a particular time. For most ecosystems on land, the pyramid of biomass has a large base of primary producers with a smaller trophic level perched on top. In contrast, in many aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass may assume an inverted form. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
   In a grassland ecosystem, the amount of grass (producers) is always high, followed by primary consumers (herbivores) that are less, the secondary consumers (carnivores) that are lesser and finally the top carnivore. Hence, the ecological pyramid will generally be upright. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
   An energy pyramid reflects the laws of thermodynamics, with the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy and heat energy at each trophic level and with loss of energy being depicted at each transfer to another trophic level. Hence the pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
9. Question 9 of 100

   9. Question

   With reference to nutrient cycling, consider the following statements:
   (1) The reservoir for the gaseous as well as sedimentary cycle exists in the earth’s crust.
   (2) Sedimentary cycles are perfect cycles as they provide immediate recycling of nutrients.
   In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
   (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
   (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
   (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
   (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

   • A
   • B
   • C
   • D
   Correct
   

   Incorrect
   

   Nutrient cycling: It refers to various cycles that keep the nutrients cycling so as to support life on the earth. Such nutrient cycles include the carbon cycle, the nitrogen cycle and the sulphur cycle etc. They are of two types: (A) gaseous and (B) sedimentary. The reservoir for gaseous type of nutrient cycle (e.g., nitrogen, carbon cycle) exists in the atmosphere and for the sedimentary cycle (e.g., sulphur and phosphorus cycle), the reservoir is located in Earth’s crust. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   Gaseous cycles are generally perfect cycles as they provide immediate recycling of nutrients whereas in sedimentary cycles nutrients might get locked into sediments and are not always immediately available. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

   Unattempted
   

   Nutrient cycling: It refers to various cycles that keep the nutrients cycling so as to support life on the earth. Such nutrient cycles include the carbon cycle, the nitrogen cycle and the sulphur cycle etc. They are of two types: (A) gaseous and (B) sedimentary. The reservoir for gaseous type of nutrient cycle (e.g., nitrogen, carbon cycle) exists in the atmosphere and for the sedimentary cycle (e.g., sulphur and phosphorus cycle), the reservoir is located in Earth’s crust. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
   Gaseous cycles are generally perfect cycles as they provide immediate recycling of nutrients whereas in sedimentary cycles nutrients might get locked into sediments and are not always immediately available. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
10. Question 10 of 100

    10. Question

    With reference to the GAGAN satellite technology, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is jointly developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation and the Airports Authority of India (AAI).
    (2) India is the only country which has a Space-Based satellite technology system in the world.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the Prime Minister of India lauded Asia’s first demonstration of Performance-Based Navigation for helicopters for a flight from Juhu to Pune using GAGAN satellite technology.
    GAGAN is the acronym for GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation.It is jointly developed by ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) and the Airports Authority of India (AAI).
    It uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentations to the GPS standard positioning service (SPS) navigation signal.
    It is designed to provide the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary to enable users to rely on GPS for all phases of flight.
    It also provides the capability for increased accuracy in position reporting, allowing for more uniform and high-quality Air Traffic Management (ATM).
    In addition, GAGAN will provide benefits beyond aviation to all modes of transportation, including maritime, highways, and railroads.
    There are only four Space-Based augmentation systems available in the world namely India (GAGAN), US (WAAS,) Europe(EGNOS) and Japan (MSAS).
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the Prime Minister of India lauded Asia’s first demonstration of Performance-Based Navigation for helicopters for a flight from Juhu to Pune using GAGAN satellite technology.
    GAGAN is the acronym for GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation.It is jointly developed by ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) and the Airports Authority of India (AAI).
    It uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentations to the GPS standard positioning service (SPS) navigation signal.
    It is designed to provide the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary to enable users to rely on GPS for all phases of flight.
    It also provides the capability for increased accuracy in position reporting, allowing for more uniform and high-quality Air Traffic Management (ATM).
    In addition, GAGAN will provide benefits beyond aviation to all modes of transportation, including maritime, highways, and railroads.
    There are only four Space-Based augmentation systems available in the world namely India (GAGAN), US (WAAS,) Europe(EGNOS) and Japan (MSAS).
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
11. Question 11 of 100

    11. Question

    With reference to the productivity of an ecosystem, consider the following statements:
    (1) Primary Productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area.
    (2) Gross Primary Productivity is the amount of organic substances left in the plant after its own metabolism.
    (3) Secondary Productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
    (4) Oceans have higher annual net primary productivity compared to land.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Primary Production:
    It is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of weight or energy. The rate of biomass production is called productivity.
    Primary Productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. It also depends on a variety of environmental factors, availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants. Therefore, it varies in different types of ecosystems. So, statement 1 is correct.
    Gross Primary Production (GPP):
    It is the total rate at which the radiant energy is stored by the process of photosynthesis in green plants. It can also be defined as the total amount of solar energy captured and stored in the form of organic substances by the green plants. This is also known as total photosynthesis or total assimilation. So, statement 2 is not correct.
    Net primary productivity (NPP):
    From the gross primary productivity a part is utilized by the plants for its own metabolism.
    Net primary productivity is the amount of organic substances left in the plant after its own metabolism that GPP = NPP + plant respiration.
    Secondary productivity
    It is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers. So, statement 3 is correct.
    The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. Of this, despite occupying about 70 percent of the surface, the productivity of the oceans is only 55 billion tons. Rest is on land. So, statement 4 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Primary Production:
    It is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of weight or energy. The rate of biomass production is called productivity.
    Primary Productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. It also depends on a variety of environmental factors, availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants. Therefore, it varies in different types of ecosystems. So, statement 1 is correct.
    Gross Primary Production (GPP):
    It is the total rate at which the radiant energy is stored by the process of photosynthesis in green plants. It can also be defined as the total amount of solar energy captured and stored in the form of organic substances by the green plants. This is also known as total photosynthesis or total assimilation. So, statement 2 is not correct.
    Net primary productivity (NPP):
    From the gross primary productivity a part is utilized by the plants for its own metabolism.
    Net primary productivity is the amount of organic substances left in the plant after its own metabolism that GPP = NPP + plant respiration.
    Secondary productivity
    It is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers. So, statement 3 is correct.
    The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. Of this, despite occupying about 70 percent of the surface, the productivity of the oceans is only 55 billion tons. Rest is on land. So, statement 4 is not correct.
12. Question 12 of 100

    12. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Digital carbon footprint is an aggregate of the emissions created by the lifecycle of a device or software, including its creation, usage, and maintenance.
    (2) Green computing is primarily focused on increasing energy consumption and promoting the use of non-renewable energy sources in IT operations.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : Digital carbon footprint is an aggregate of the emissions created by the lifecycle of a device or software, including its creation, usage, and maintenance.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : Green computing, also called sustainable or eco-friendly computing, aims to design, use, and dispose of IT resources in an environmentally responsible, energyefficient way to reduce environmental impact and energy usage while promoting renewable energy sources.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : Digital carbon footprint is an aggregate of the emissions created by the lifecycle of a device or software, including its creation, usage, and maintenance.
    Statement 2 is incorrect : Green computing, also called sustainable or eco-friendly computing, aims to design, use, and dispose of IT resources in an environmentally responsible, energyefficient way to reduce environmental impact and energy usage while promoting renewable energy sources.
13. Question 13 of 100

    13. Question

    Consider the following:
    (1) Zoological Park
    (2) Seed bank
    (3) Arboreta
    (4) Biosphere reserve
    How many of the sites given above is/are the methods of ex-situ biodiversity conservation?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Ex-situ conservation:
    It is literally an ‘off site’ conservation policy that involves techniques linking the transfer of an objective species, experiencing various threats, away from its native habitat to a much safer abode.
    This involves the conservation of genetic resources, as well as wild and cultivated species. The strategies include the establishment of botanical gardens, zoos, conservation strands and genes, pollen, seed, seedling, tissue culture and DNA banks. This requires knowledge of the genetic structure of population sampling techniques, methods of regeneration and maintenance of varietal gene pools particularly in cross-pollinated plants.
    Examples of Ex-situ conservation include Botanical Garden, Zoological Garden, Seed Bank or Gene Bank, Arboreta, Aquaria, Home garden, cryopreservation, etc.
    Biosphere reserve falls under the category of In-situ or on-site conservation.

    Unattempted
    

    Ex-situ conservation:
    It is literally an ‘off site’ conservation policy that involves techniques linking the transfer of an objective species, experiencing various threats, away from its native habitat to a much safer abode.
    This involves the conservation of genetic resources, as well as wild and cultivated species. The strategies include the establishment of botanical gardens, zoos, conservation strands and genes, pollen, seed, seedling, tissue culture and DNA banks. This requires knowledge of the genetic structure of population sampling techniques, methods of regeneration and maintenance of varietal gene pools particularly in cross-pollinated plants.
    Examples of Ex-situ conservation include Botanical Garden, Zoological Garden, Seed Bank or Gene Bank, Arboreta, Aquaria, Home garden, cryopreservation, etc.
    Biosphere reserve falls under the category of In-situ or on-site conservation.
14. Question 14 of 100

    14. Question

    Under which of the following cases can Judicial Review be exercised by high court?
    (1) The legislative enactment by state which infringes on the fundamental rights.
    (2) The executive orders of central government, if it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.
    (3) The executive orders of state government are outside the competence of the authority which has framed it.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    All the above statements are correct.
    Power of Judicial Review
    Judicial review is the power of a high court to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and state governments. On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultravires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and voi(D) by the high court. Consequently, they cannot be enforced by the government.
    Though the phrase ‘judicial review’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution, the provisions of Articles 13 and 226 explicitly confer the power of judicial review on a high court. The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in a high court on the following three grounds:
    (A) it infringes the fundamental rights (Part III),
    (B) it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and
    (C) it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.

    Unattempted
    

    All the above statements are correct.
    Power of Judicial Review
    Judicial review is the power of a high court to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and state governments. On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultravires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and voi(D) by the high court. Consequently, they cannot be enforced by the government.
    Though the phrase ‘judicial review’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution, the provisions of Articles 13 and 226 explicitly confer the power of judicial review on a high court. The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in a high court on the following three grounds:
    (A) it infringes the fundamental rights (Part III),
    (B) it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and
    (C) it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.
15. Question 15 of 100

    15. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) :
    (1) It is a statutory body
    (2) It was set up under the Companies Act, 1956
    (3) It works under the aegis of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
    (1) It is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    (2) It is a statutory body established in 1987. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    (3) It is established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    (4) The Minister in charge of the Ministry or Department having administrative control of the BIS is the ex-officio President of the BIS.
    Composition: As a corporate body, it has 25 members drawn from Central or State Governments, industry, scientific and research institutions, and consumer organisations.

    Unattempted
    

    Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
    (1) It is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    (2) It is a statutory body established in 1987. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    (3) It is established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    (4) The Minister in charge of the Ministry or Department having administrative control of the BIS is the ex-officio President of the BIS.
    Composition: As a corporate body, it has 25 members drawn from Central or State Governments, industry, scientific and research institutions, and consumer organisations.
16. Question 16 of 100

    16. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.
    (2) Policy cut motion represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand.
    (3) Token cut motion represents the economy that can be affected in the proposed expenditure.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha, that is, the Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands. The voting is confined to the votable part of the budget– the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote (it can only be discussed).
    Statement 2 is correct : Policy Cut Motion represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced to Re 1. The members can also advocate an alternative policy.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : Economy Cut Motion represents the economy that can be affected in the proposed expenditure. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount (which may be either a lumpsum reduction in the demand or omission or reduction of an item in the demand).
    Token Cut Motion ventilates a specific grievance that is within the sphere of responsibility of the Government of India. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by ₹100.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha, that is, the Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands. The voting is confined to the votable part of the budget– the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote (it can only be discussed).
    Statement 2 is correct : Policy Cut Motion represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced to Re 1. The members can also advocate an alternative policy.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : Economy Cut Motion represents the economy that can be affected in the proposed expenditure. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount (which may be either a lumpsum reduction in the demand or omission or reduction of an item in the demand).
    Token Cut Motion ventilates a specific grievance that is within the sphere of responsibility of the Government of India. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by ₹100.
17. Question 17 of 100

    17. Question

    'Doctrine of Eminent Domain' is related to which of the following rights?
    (A) Right to move freely
    (B) Right to form association
    (C) Right to Property
    (D) Right to Education

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Doctrine of Eminent Domain and Right to Property: Doctrine of Eminent Domain is a concept in the American Constitution. It is the acquisition of private property by the state for a public purpose with paying certain amount of compensation. Initially when India got Independence, the legislature to abolish the Zamindari System, enacted various laws through which it took the property from various landholders and used it for public purpose. Many a times mala-fide intention can be seen achieved through this doctrine.
    • There are two essentials of the Doctrine of Eminent Domain:
    o Property is taken for public use
    o Compensation is paid for the property taken.
    • In Indian Constitution, Entry 42 of List III speaks about ‘acquisitioning and requisitioning of property’. In the case of State of Bihar v Kameshwar Singh, Supreme Court defined eminent Domain as “the power of a sovereign to take property for public use without the owner’s consent upon making just compensation.”
    • Article 31A, 31B and 31C as well as Art. 300A are the existing constitutional provisions concerning private property.

    Unattempted
    

    Doctrine of Eminent Domain and Right to Property: Doctrine of Eminent Domain is a concept in the American Constitution. It is the acquisition of private property by the state for a public purpose with paying certain amount of compensation. Initially when India got Independence, the legislature to abolish the Zamindari System, enacted various laws through which it took the property from various landholders and used it for public purpose. Many a times mala-fide intention can be seen achieved through this doctrine.
    • There are two essentials of the Doctrine of Eminent Domain:
    o Property is taken for public use
    o Compensation is paid for the property taken.
    • In Indian Constitution, Entry 42 of List III speaks about ‘acquisitioning and requisitioning of property’. In the case of State of Bihar v Kameshwar Singh, Supreme Court defined eminent Domain as “the power of a sovereign to take property for public use without the owner’s consent upon making just compensation.”
    • Article 31A, 31B and 31C as well as Art. 300A are the existing constitutional provisions concerning private property.
18. Question 18 of 100

    18. Question

    With reference to ‘Accredited Investors’ in Indian securities market, consider the following statements:
    (1) Accredited investors will enjoy certain relaxations in respect of their participation in financial market.
    (2) An entity will be identified as ‘Accredited investor’ on the basis of net worth or income.
    (3) According to SEBI, individuals and Hindu Undivided Family cannot become ‘Accredited investors’ in India.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct : Accredited investors will have the flexibility to participate in some investment products. They will have relaxation in participation with an investment amount lesser than the minimum amount mandated in the Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) norms and Portfolio Management Services (PMS) rules. Accredited investors, are professional investors, who have an understanding of various financial products and the risks and returns associated with them.
    Statement 2 is correct : A person or entity will be identified as an accredited investor on the basis of net worth or income. Markets regulator SEBI has introduced the concept of 'accredited investors' in the Indian securities market, a move expected to open up a new channel for raising funds.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : Individuals, Hindu Undivided Family (HUFs), family trusts, sole proprietorships, partnership firms, trusts and body corporates can get accreditation based on financial parameters specified by SEBI.
    An individual, HUF, family trust or sole proprietorship, can be an accredited investor if their annual income is at least ₹ 2 crore or net worth is at least ₹7.50 crore, with at least half of it in financial assets

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct : Accredited investors will have the flexibility to participate in some investment products. They will have relaxation in participation with an investment amount lesser than the minimum amount mandated in the Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) norms and Portfolio Management Services (PMS) rules. Accredited investors, are professional investors, who have an understanding of various financial products and the risks and returns associated with them.
    Statement 2 is correct : A person or entity will be identified as an accredited investor on the basis of net worth or income. Markets regulator SEBI has introduced the concept of 'accredited investors' in the Indian securities market, a move expected to open up a new channel for raising funds.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : Individuals, Hindu Undivided Family (HUFs), family trusts, sole proprietorships, partnership firms, trusts and body corporates can get accreditation based on financial parameters specified by SEBI.
    An individual, HUF, family trust or sole proprietorship, can be an accredited investor if their annual income is at least ₹ 2 crore or net worth is at least ₹7.50 crore, with at least half of it in financial assets
19. Question 19 of 100

    19. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding specific and ad valorem tax:
    (1) While a specific tax is levied on the value of the imported item, ad valorem is computed on the physical quantity of the goods being imported.
    (2) Specific taxes are more progressive than ad-valorem taxes.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A tariff is any tax or fee collected by a government. An import tariff is a tax imposed on goods to be imported. Though tariff is used in a non-trade context, it is commonly applied to a tax on imported goods.
    Statement 1 is not correct: There are two broad ways in which tariffs are normally levied namely, specific tax and ad valorem tax. A specific tax is levied as a fixed charge per unit of imports. Where ad valorem is charged on the assessed value of the asset.
    Statement 2 is not correct-A progressive tax is a tax in which the tax rate increases as the taxable base amount increases. Ad valorem means – according to value. Thus, it is a tax that is flexible and depends on the value of the asset or the price of the good. In this regard, it is a progressive tax. Specific tax, the tax remains fixed and depends on the quantity, so it is not progressive as compared to ad-valorem.

    Unattempted
    

    A tariff is any tax or fee collected by a government. An import tariff is a tax imposed on goods to be imported. Though tariff is used in a non-trade context, it is commonly applied to a tax on imported goods.
    Statement 1 is not correct: There are two broad ways in which tariffs are normally levied namely, specific tax and ad valorem tax. A specific tax is levied as a fixed charge per unit of imports. Where ad valorem is charged on the assessed value of the asset.
    Statement 2 is not correct-A progressive tax is a tax in which the tax rate increases as the taxable base amount increases. Ad valorem means – according to value. Thus, it is a tax that is flexible and depends on the value of the asset or the price of the good. In this regard, it is a progressive tax. Specific tax, the tax remains fixed and depends on the quantity, so it is not progressive as compared to ad-valorem.
20. Question 20 of 100

    20. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding ‘International Court of Justice’:
    (1) ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations situated at the Peace Palace in Hague.
    (2) A candidate to the post of judge in ICJ is elected through consensus in United Nations General Assembly.
    (3) ICJ can settle legal disputes submitted by States in accordance with established international laws.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The International Court of Justice(ICJ) was established in 1945 by the United Nations charter. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations situated at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).
    Statement 2 is incorrect. International Court of Justice (ICJ) is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council.In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both UN bodies.
    Statement 3 is correct. The ICJ has two primary functions (A) to settle legal disputes submitted by States in accordance with established international laws and (B) to act as an advisory board on issues submitted to it by authorized international organizations.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is correct. The International Court of Justice(ICJ) was established in 1945 by the United Nations charter. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations situated at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).
    Statement 2 is incorrect. International Court of Justice (ICJ) is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council.In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both UN bodies.
    Statement 3 is correct. The ICJ has two primary functions (A) to settle legal disputes submitted by States in accordance with established international laws and (B) to act as an advisory board on issues submitted to it by authorized international organizations.
21. Question 21 of 100

    21. Question

    Arrange the following islands located in the South China Sea in their order of occurrence from North to South:
    (1) Natuna Islands
    (2) Spratly Islands
    (3) Paracel Islands
    (4) Pratas Islands
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) 1-2-3-4
    (B) 1-3-2-4
    (C) 4-2-3-1
    (D) 4-3-2-1

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pratas Islands are located in the northern part of the South China Sea. It lies near the Taiwan strait.
    Paracel Islands are a collection of 130 islands and coral reefs and is located in the South China Sea. It is disputed between China and Vietnam.They lie east of Vietnam and southeast of Hainan Island, China.
    Spratley Islands are a group of uninhabited islands in the South China Sea. They lie roughly midway between Vietnam and the Philippines. There has been an ongoing territorial dispute between China, Taiwan, Vietnam, the Philippines, and Malaysia concerning the ownership of the Spratly Islands archipelago.
    Natuna Islandsare an archipelago of 272 islands, located between Malaysia and Borneo. It is nearly 1,500 km from the Chinese mainland. Indonesia and China are engaged in a dispute over the exclusive economic zone that these islands confer on Indonesia.
    Hence, the correct sequence from North to South is: 4-3-2-1

    Unattempted
    

    Pratas Islands are located in the northern part of the South China Sea. It lies near the Taiwan strait.
    Paracel Islands are a collection of 130 islands and coral reefs and is located in the South China Sea. It is disputed between China and Vietnam.They lie east of Vietnam and southeast of Hainan Island, China.
    Spratley Islands are a group of uninhabited islands in the South China Sea. They lie roughly midway between Vietnam and the Philippines. There has been an ongoing territorial dispute between China, Taiwan, Vietnam, the Philippines, and Malaysia concerning the ownership of the Spratly Islands archipelago.
    Natuna Islandsare an archipelago of 272 islands, located between Malaysia and Borneo. It is nearly 1,500 km from the Chinese mainland. Indonesia and China are engaged in a dispute over the exclusive economic zone that these islands confer on Indonesia.
    Hence, the correct sequence from North to South is: 4-3-2-1
22. Question 22 of 100

    22. Question

    In the context of the ecosystem, the term extirpation is:
    (A) It is the condition of a species that ceases to exist in the chosen geographic area of study, though it still exists elsewhere.
    (B) It is an evolutionary process that leads to the disappearance of a species on the earth surface.
    (C) It refers to evolutionary process that leads to disappearance of unused body parts and specialisation of over used parts.
    (D) It refers to an ecological succession process in which invasive plants colonise a given area.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Extirpation (also known as ‘local extinction’) describes the situation in which a species or population no longer exists within a certain geographical location. Unlike extinction, whereby a species no longer exists anywhere, extirpation means that at least one other population of the species still persists in other areas.
    Most species of plants and animals have a number of different breeding populations, which exist either globally or within a defined region or habitat. This means that when a population ceases to exist in acertain area, the other populations remain to keep the species extant (still in existence).
    Since the entire species is not extinct, it is possible for populations to recolonize after extirpation. Examples of stocks and populations assessed by the IUCN for the threat of local extinction are Marshdeer, Blue whale – North Pacific stock and North Atlantic stock, Bowhead whale etc.

    Unattempted
    

    Extirpation (also known as ‘local extinction’) describes the situation in which a species or population no longer exists within a certain geographical location. Unlike extinction, whereby a species no longer exists anywhere, extirpation means that at least one other population of the species still persists in other areas.
    Most species of plants and animals have a number of different breeding populations, which exist either globally or within a defined region or habitat. This means that when a population ceases to exist in acertain area, the other populations remain to keep the species extant (still in existence).
    Since the entire species is not extinct, it is possible for populations to recolonize after extirpation. Examples of stocks and populations assessed by the IUCN for the threat of local extinction are Marshdeer, Blue whale – North Pacific stock and North Atlantic stock, Bowhead whale etc.
23. Question 23 of 100

    23. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Amino Acids:
    (1) It is the fundamental molecule that serves as the building block for proteins.
    (2) All amino acids can be synthesized in the body.
    (3) Milk Protein is a good source of essential amino acids.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A recent study suggests that ageing mice, worms and monkeys can live longer or healthier lives when fed large amounts of taurine.
    About Taurine:
    It is a naturally occurring sulfur-containing amino acid.
    It’s particularly concentrated in your brain, eyes, heart, and muscles.Sources:Taurine occurs naturally in foods with protein, such as meat or fish.
    Functions:
    The human body uses taurine for actions in cells. One example is that taurine is used for energy production.
    Taurine also helps the body process bile acid and balance fluids, salts and minerals, among other actions.
    It has important functions in the heart and brain. It helps support nerve growth.
    It might also benefit people with heart failure by lowering blood pressure and calming the nervous system.
    It is also used for obesity, athletic performance, fatigue, diabetes, and many other conditions.
    What are Amino Acids?
    An amino acid is the fundamental molecule that serves as the building block for proteins.
    There are 20 different amino acids.
    A protein consists of one or more chains of amino acids (called polypeptides) whose sequence is encoded in a gene.
    Some amino acids can be synthesized in the body, but others (essential amino acids) cannot and must be obtained from a person’s diet. 
    Milk Protein is a good source of essential amino acids. They are easily digestible and do not contain any anti-nutritional factors like many plant-based proteins.
    Hence, only statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    A recent study suggests that ageing mice, worms and monkeys can live longer or healthier lives when fed large amounts of taurine.
    About Taurine:
    It is a naturally occurring sulfur-containing amino acid.
    It’s particularly concentrated in your brain, eyes, heart, and muscles.Sources:Taurine occurs naturally in foods with protein, such as meat or fish.
    Functions:
    The human body uses taurine for actions in cells. One example is that taurine is used for energy production.
    Taurine also helps the body process bile acid and balance fluids, salts and minerals, among other actions.
    It has important functions in the heart and brain. It helps support nerve growth.
    It might also benefit people with heart failure by lowering blood pressure and calming the nervous system.
    It is also used for obesity, athletic performance, fatigue, diabetes, and many other conditions.
    What are Amino Acids?
    An amino acid is the fundamental molecule that serves as the building block for proteins.
    There are 20 different amino acids.
    A protein consists of one or more chains of amino acids (called polypeptides) whose sequence is encoded in a gene.
    Some amino acids can be synthesized in the body, but others (essential amino acids) cannot and must be obtained from a person’s diet. 
    Milk Protein is a good source of essential amino acids. They are easily digestible and do not contain any anti-nutritional factors like many plant-based proteins.
    Hence, only statement 2 is incorrect.
24. Question 24 of 100

    24. Question

    With reference to Vertical farming, consider the following statements:
    (1) It permits round the year cultivation of crops under artificial conditions of light and temperature.
    (2) It uses less water and pesticides than traditional agricultural methods.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Vertical farming is a system of indoor farming that can be practiced for producing food in vertically stacked layers, vertically inclined surfaces and/or integrated with other structures.
    It often incorporates controlled-environment agriculture, which aims to optimize plant growth, and soilless farming techniques such as hydroponics, aquaponics, and aeroponics.
    The modern idea of vertical farming uses controlled-environment agriculture technology like utilization of artificial control of light, environmental control(humidity, temperature, gases etc.), and fertigation. Vertical farms come in different shapes and sizes, from simple two-level or wall-mounted systems to large warehouses type. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Vertical farming is an innovative approach to produce good quantities of nutritious and quality fresh food all year-round, without relying on skilled-labor, favorable weather, high soil fertility or high water usage.
    The vertical farm is cheap to construct, safe to operate and offers the promise of urban renewal, sustainable production of a varied food supply (year-round production), and the eventual repair of ecosystems that have been sacrificed for horizontal farming.
    By controlling the growing environment Vertical Farms do not need to use much pesticides or fungicides providing healthier, safer food products untainted by chemicals. It uses significantly less water as the climate and drainage can be more easily controlled and regulated. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Vertical farming can relieve the pressure on land consumption for farming and providing those lands to regenerate themselves which in turn reduces the carbon consumption associated with traditional farming and supply chain delivery.

    Unattempted
    

    Vertical farming is a system of indoor farming that can be practiced for producing food in vertically stacked layers, vertically inclined surfaces and/or integrated with other structures.
    It often incorporates controlled-environment agriculture, which aims to optimize plant growth, and soilless farming techniques such as hydroponics, aquaponics, and aeroponics.
    The modern idea of vertical farming uses controlled-environment agriculture technology like utilization of artificial control of light, environmental control(humidity, temperature, gases etc.), and fertigation. Vertical farms come in different shapes and sizes, from simple two-level or wall-mounted systems to large warehouses type. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Vertical farming is an innovative approach to produce good quantities of nutritious and quality fresh food all year-round, without relying on skilled-labor, favorable weather, high soil fertility or high water usage.
    The vertical farm is cheap to construct, safe to operate and offers the promise of urban renewal, sustainable production of a varied food supply (year-round production), and the eventual repair of ecosystems that have been sacrificed for horizontal farming.
    By controlling the growing environment Vertical Farms do not need to use much pesticides or fungicides providing healthier, safer food products untainted by chemicals. It uses significantly less water as the climate and drainage can be more easily controlled and regulated. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Vertical farming can relieve the pressure on land consumption for farming and providing those lands to regenerate themselves which in turn reduces the carbon consumption associated with traditional farming and supply chain delivery.
25. Question 25 of 100

    25. Question

    Which of the following best describes Entrepot Ports?
    (A) Ports that are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail.
    (B) Ports where ships used to anchor for refuelling, watering and taking food items.
    (C) Ports dealing in the processing and shipping of oil.
    (D) Ports acting as collection centres where the goods are brought from different countries for export.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The chief gateways of the world of international trade are the harbours and ports. Cargoes and travellers pass from one part of the world to another through these ports.
    • Types of port on the basis of specialised functions:
    o Entrepot Ports: These are collection centres where the goods are brought from different countries for export. Singapore is an entrepot for Asia. Rotterdam for Europe, and Copenhagen for the Baltic region.
    o Oil Ports: These ports deal in the processing and shipping of oil. Some of these are tanker ports and some are refinery ports. Maracaibo in Venezuela, Esskhira in Tunisia, Tripoli in Lebanon are tanker ports. Abadan on the Gulf of Persia is a refinery port.
    o Ports of Call: These are the ports which originally developed as calling points on main sea routes where ships used to anchor for refuelling, watering and taking food items. Later on, they developed into commercial ports. Aden, Honolulu and Singapore are good examples.
    o Packet Station: These are also known as ferry ports. These packet stations are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short distances. These stations occur in pairs located in such a way that they face each other across the water body, e.g. Dover in England and Calais in France across the English Channel

    Unattempted
    

    The chief gateways of the world of international trade are the harbours and ports. Cargoes and travellers pass from one part of the world to another through these ports.
    • Types of port on the basis of specialised functions:
    o Entrepot Ports: These are collection centres where the goods are brought from different countries for export. Singapore is an entrepot for Asia. Rotterdam for Europe, and Copenhagen for the Baltic region.
    o Oil Ports: These ports deal in the processing and shipping of oil. Some of these are tanker ports and some are refinery ports. Maracaibo in Venezuela, Esskhira in Tunisia, Tripoli in Lebanon are tanker ports. Abadan on the Gulf of Persia is a refinery port.
    o Ports of Call: These are the ports which originally developed as calling points on main sea routes where ships used to anchor for refuelling, watering and taking food items. Later on, they developed into commercial ports. Aden, Honolulu and Singapore are good examples.
    o Packet Station: These are also known as ferry ports. These packet stations are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short distances. These stations occur in pairs located in such a way that they face each other across the water body, e.g. Dover in England and Calais in France across the English Channel
26. Question 26 of 100

    26. Question

    The collection, production, and. dissemination of information or even the production of information are involved in which of the following activities?
    (A) Quaternary
    (B) Quinary
    (C) Tertiary
    (D) Secondary

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Human activities which generate income are known as economic activities. Economic activities are broadly grouped into primary, secondary, tertiary activities.
    • Quaternary activities are specialized tertiary activities in the ‘Knowledge Sector’ which demands a separate classification. There has been a very high growth in demand for and consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, software developers and statisticians.
    • Quaternary activities involve some of the following: the collection, production and dissemination of information or even the production of information.
    • Quaternary activities center around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge, technical skills, and administrative competence.

    Unattempted
    

    Human activities which generate income are known as economic activities. Economic activities are broadly grouped into primary, secondary, tertiary activities.
    • Quaternary activities are specialized tertiary activities in the ‘Knowledge Sector’ which demands a separate classification. There has been a very high growth in demand for and consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, software developers and statisticians.
    • Quaternary activities involve some of the following: the collection, production and dissemination of information or even the production of information.
    • Quaternary activities center around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge, technical skills, and administrative competence.
27. Question 27 of 100

    27. Question

    With reference to the District Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is formed under the Legal Services Authorities Act, of 1987.
    (2) It is constituted by the Chief Justice of India in consultation with the respected state governments.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, under the Department of Justice's (Ministry of Law and Justice) Nyaya Bandhu, Pro Bono Club, ICFAI Law School, The ICFAI University, Tripura, in association with District Legal Services Authority West Tripura, organized a Door-to-Door Legal Aid Campaign.
    It is formed under Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free legal aid and services to the weaker sections of this society to make sure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen because of economic or other disabilities.
    It is a statutory body organized at the district level to provide effective monitoring of legal aid programmes and their composition.
    Legal Services Authorities are statutory bodies that are formed or constituted in the various states of India by the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
    Constitutional provision:
    Article 39-A: Deals with the provision of providing free legal services to the citizens of India.
    The provision applies to the citizens if they are unable to bear the expenditure of legal services. It also helps the defendant in a case by appointing a lawyer to act for him in legal aspects.
    Composition of DLSA:
    It is a body that shall be constituted by the State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court.
    The act provides that a District Authority requires the district judge as its chairman.
    It shall also consist of a number of other members who have the experience and qualifications as prescribed by the State Government.
    The members possessing such requirements may be nominated by the Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court.
    The person to be appointed shall belong to the State Judicial Service not lower rank than that of a Subordinate Judge or Civil Judge posted at the seat of the District Judiciary as Secretary of the District Authority.
    The Assistant Commissioner of the concerned District acts as the Member Secretary of the District Authority.
    The officers and other employees of the District Authority are entitled to salary and allowances and shall also be subject to such other conditions of the services as the State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court prescribes
    Hence only statement 1 is correct

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, under the Department of Justice's (Ministry of Law and Justice) Nyaya Bandhu, Pro Bono Club, ICFAI Law School, The ICFAI University, Tripura, in association with District Legal Services Authority West Tripura, organized a Door-to-Door Legal Aid Campaign.
    It is formed under Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free legal aid and services to the weaker sections of this society to make sure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen because of economic or other disabilities.
    It is a statutory body organized at the district level to provide effective monitoring of legal aid programmes and their composition.
    Legal Services Authorities are statutory bodies that are formed or constituted in the various states of India by the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
    Constitutional provision:
    Article 39-A: Deals with the provision of providing free legal services to the citizens of India.
    The provision applies to the citizens if they are unable to bear the expenditure of legal services. It also helps the defendant in a case by appointing a lawyer to act for him in legal aspects.
    Composition of DLSA:
    It is a body that shall be constituted by the State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court.
    The act provides that a District Authority requires the district judge as its chairman.
    It shall also consist of a number of other members who have the experience and qualifications as prescribed by the State Government.
    The members possessing such requirements may be nominated by the Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court.
    The person to be appointed shall belong to the State Judicial Service not lower rank than that of a Subordinate Judge or Civil Judge posted at the seat of the District Judiciary as Secretary of the District Authority.
    The Assistant Commissioner of the concerned District acts as the Member Secretary of the District Authority.
    The officers and other employees of the District Authority are entitled to salary and allowances and shall also be subject to such other conditions of the services as the State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court prescribes
    Hence only statement 1 is correct
28. Question 28 of 100

    28. Question

    With reference to Shola forests and grasslands, which of the following statements is not correct?
    (A) They play a major role in conserving water supply of the Nilgiris' streams.
    (B) The vegetation that grows in Shola forests is evergreen.
    (C) Himalayan rhododendron species are predominantly found here.
    (D) They are of great commercial importance owing to heavy lumbering.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Sholas are the local name for patches of stunted tropical montane forest found in valleys amid rolling grassland in the higher montane regions of South India. These patches of shola forest are found mainly in the valleys and are usually separated from one another by undulating montane grassland. The shola and grassland together form the shola-grassland complex or mosaic. They are Classified as ‘Southern Montane Wet Temperate Forest’. These forests are found sheltered in valleys with sufficient moisture and proper drainage.
    The upper reaches are covered with grasslands, known as Shola grasslands. Usually, Shola forests and grasslands are found in a ratio of 1:5. The vegetation that grows in Shola forests is evergreen. Red coloured young leaves turning into different colours on maturity is a prominent characteristic of the Shola forests. The occurrence of Himalayan plants like rhododendron in these Shola forests is a mystery. Sholas play a major role in conserving water supply of the Nilgiris’ streams. The Sholas of the plateau are not of any great importance from a commercial point of view, as the trees are slow-growing varieties which produce timber of little or no value and probably take at least a century to mature. Hence option (D) is not correct. But they add greatly to the beauty of the country and are of immense use in protecting the source of water supply. Alien species like Sticky Snakeroot, Gorse and Scotch Broom introduced during British rule, have encroached upon the grasslands.

    Unattempted
    

    Sholas are the local name for patches of stunted tropical montane forest found in valleys amid rolling grassland in the higher montane regions of South India. These patches of shola forest are found mainly in the valleys and are usually separated from one another by undulating montane grassland. The shola and grassland together form the shola-grassland complex or mosaic. They are Classified as ‘Southern Montane Wet Temperate Forest’. These forests are found sheltered in valleys with sufficient moisture and proper drainage.
    The upper reaches are covered with grasslands, known as Shola grasslands. Usually, Shola forests and grasslands are found in a ratio of 1:5. The vegetation that grows in Shola forests is evergreen. Red coloured young leaves turning into different colours on maturity is a prominent characteristic of the Shola forests. The occurrence of Himalayan plants like rhododendron in these Shola forests is a mystery. Sholas play a major role in conserving water supply of the Nilgiris’ streams. The Sholas of the plateau are not of any great importance from a commercial point of view, as the trees are slow-growing varieties which produce timber of little or no value and probably take at least a century to mature. Hence option (D) is not correct. But they add greatly to the beauty of the country and are of immense use in protecting the source of water supply. Alien species like Sticky Snakeroot, Gorse and Scotch Broom introduced during British rule, have encroached upon the grasslands.
29. Question 29 of 100

    29. Question

    How many of the following is/are Money market instruments?
    (1) Commercial Bills
    (2) Corporate Bonds
    (3) Treasury Bills
    (4) Inflation Indexed Bonds
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Commercial bills are unsecured, short-term debt issued by a corporation, often times for the financing of short-term liabilities and inventory. So, instrument 1 is correct.
    Bonds are long-term debt instruments, unless specified. Corporate bonds are issued by companies to raise long-term loans from public and banks. So, instrument 2 is not correct.
    Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government. So, instrument 3 is correct.
    Inflation indexed bonds are also long-term instruments under which the interest rate depends on the change in inflation. So, instrument 4 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Commercial bills are unsecured, short-term debt issued by a corporation, often times for the financing of short-term liabilities and inventory. So, instrument 1 is correct.
    Bonds are long-term debt instruments, unless specified. Corporate bonds are issued by companies to raise long-term loans from public and banks. So, instrument 2 is not correct.
    Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government. So, instrument 3 is correct.
    Inflation indexed bonds are also long-term instruments under which the interest rate depends on the change in inflation. So, instrument 4 is not correct.
30. Question 30 of 100

    30. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) :
    (1) They are allowed to accept demand deposits from the public.
    (2) They hold banking licence and provide banking services without meeting the legal definition of bank.
    (3) They are not allowed to provide service of extending loans and credit facilities.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Nonbank financial companies (NBFCs), also known as nonbank financial institutions (NBFIs) are financial institutions that offer various banking services but do not have a banking license. Generally, these institutions are not allowed to take traditional demand deposits—readily available funds, such as those in checking or savings accounts—from the public.
    NBFCs are regulated by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and the Reserve Bank of India. NBFCs are NOT allowed to accept demand deposits from the public. So, statement 1 is not correct.
    NBFCs do not hold banking license. They are not bound by the banking regulations and oversight to which the traditional banks have to adhere. So, statement 2 is not correct.
    They are registered as companies under the Companies Act. NBFCs are allowed to provide service of extending loans and credit facilities. So, statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Nonbank financial companies (NBFCs), also known as nonbank financial institutions (NBFIs) are financial institutions that offer various banking services but do not have a banking license. Generally, these institutions are not allowed to take traditional demand deposits—readily available funds, such as those in checking or savings accounts—from the public.
    NBFCs are regulated by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and the Reserve Bank of India. NBFCs are NOT allowed to accept demand deposits from the public. So, statement 1 is not correct.
    NBFCs do not hold banking license. They are not bound by the banking regulations and oversight to which the traditional banks have to adhere. So, statement 2 is not correct.
    They are registered as companies under the Companies Act. NBFCs are allowed to provide service of extending loans and credit facilities. So, statement 3 is not correct.
31. Question 31 of 100

    31. Question

    Under which of the following mechanisms can a commercial bank take short-term loans?
    (1) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
    (2) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
    (3) Call Money Market
    (4) Treasury Bill Market
    How many of the above options is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) is a tool used in monetary policy, primarily by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that allows banks to borrow money through repurchase agreements (repos) or to make loans to the RBI through reverse repo agreements. This arrangement is effective in managing liquidity pressures and assuring basic stability in the financial markets. So, (1) is correct.
    Marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. So, (2) is correct.
    Call Money is a segment of the market where scheduled commercial banks lend or borrow on short notice (say a period of 14 days). In order to manage day-to-day cash flows. The interest rates in the market are market-driven and hence highly sensitive to demand and supply. Also, the interest rates have been known to fluctuate by a large % at certain times. So, (3) is correct.
    Treasury Bills are short-term government securities. So, the government can take loan by issuing these bills and not banks. Banks, however, can use TBs as securities while taking loans from RBI under LAF and MSF. So, (4) is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) is a tool used in monetary policy, primarily by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that allows banks to borrow money through repurchase agreements (repos) or to make loans to the RBI through reverse repo agreements. This arrangement is effective in managing liquidity pressures and assuring basic stability in the financial markets. So, (1) is correct.
    Marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. So, (2) is correct.
    Call Money is a segment of the market where scheduled commercial banks lend or borrow on short notice (say a period of 14 days). In order to manage day-to-day cash flows. The interest rates in the market are market-driven and hence highly sensitive to demand and supply. Also, the interest rates have been known to fluctuate by a large % at certain times. So, (3) is correct.
    Treasury Bills are short-term government securities. So, the government can take loan by issuing these bills and not banks. Banks, however, can use TBs as securities while taking loans from RBI under LAF and MSF. So, (4) is not correct.
32. Question 32 of 100

    32. Question

    How many of the following can be associated with the weather phenomenon called El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO)?
    (1) The appearance of warm water off the coast of Peru
    (2) Change in pressure condition over the Pacific and Australia
    (3) The occurrence of drought in India
    (4) The occurrence of floods in China
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Warming and cooling of the Pacific Ocean is most important in terms of general atmospheric circulation. The warm water of the central Pacific Ocean slowly drifts towards the South American coast and replaces the cool Peruvian current. Such an appearance of warm water off the coast of Peru is known as El Nino.
    The El Nino event is closely associated with the pressure changes in the Central Pacific and Australia. This change in pressure conditions over the Pacific is known as the southern oscillation. The combined phenomenon of southern oscillation and El Nino is known as ENSO.
    In the years when the ENSO is strong, large-scale variations in weather occur over the world. The arid west coast of South America receives heavy rainfall, drought occurs in Australia and sometimes in India and floods in China. This phenomenon is closely monitored and is used for long-range forecasting in major parts of the world.

    Unattempted
    

    Warming and cooling of the Pacific Ocean is most important in terms of general atmospheric circulation. The warm water of the central Pacific Ocean slowly drifts towards the South American coast and replaces the cool Peruvian current. Such an appearance of warm water off the coast of Peru is known as El Nino.
    The El Nino event is closely associated with the pressure changes in the Central Pacific and Australia. This change in pressure conditions over the Pacific is known as the southern oscillation. The combined phenomenon of southern oscillation and El Nino is known as ENSO.
    In the years when the ENSO is strong, large-scale variations in weather occur over the world. The arid west coast of South America receives heavy rainfall, drought occurs in Australia and sometimes in India and floods in China. This phenomenon is closely monitored and is used for long-range forecasting in major parts of the world.
33. Question 33 of 100

    33. Question

    Consider the following statements about Taiga Forests :
    (1) These are present only in the Northern hemisphere.
    (2) This biome typically has short, wet summers and long, cold winters.
    (3) These forests are endangered due to logging and mining by humans as they have a short growing season.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Taiga, which is also known as the boreal (meaning Northern) forest region, occupies about 17% of Earth's land surface area. It occurs in 50 and 60 degrees north latitudes. The taiga is nowhere in the southern hemisphere, since there is no mass of mainland at the appropriate latitudes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The taiga biome is the largest terrestrial biome and extends across Europe, NorthAmerica, and Asia. It is located right below the tundra biome. The taiga biome is also known as a coniferous forest or borealforest. This biome typically has short, wet summers and long, cold winters. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The taiga forests are endangered due to logging and mining by humans. When trees are cut down in the taiga, it takes a very long time to restore itself because of the very short growing season. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    The taiga lies between the tundra to the north and temperate forests to the south. Alaska, Canada, Scandinavia, and Siberia have taigas. In Russia, the world’s largest taiga stretches about 5,800 kilometers from the Pacific Ocean to the Ural Mountains.

    Unattempted
    

    The Taiga, which is also known as the boreal (meaning Northern) forest region, occupies about 17% of Earth's land surface area. It occurs in 50 and 60 degrees north latitudes. The taiga is nowhere in the southern hemisphere, since there is no mass of mainland at the appropriate latitudes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    The taiga biome is the largest terrestrial biome and extends across Europe, NorthAmerica, and Asia. It is located right below the tundra biome. The taiga biome is also known as a coniferous forest or borealforest. This biome typically has short, wet summers and long, cold winters. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The taiga forests are endangered due to logging and mining by humans. When trees are cut down in the taiga, it takes a very long time to restore itself because of the very short growing season. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    The taiga lies between the tundra to the north and temperate forests to the south. Alaska, Canada, Scandinavia, and Siberia have taigas. In Russia, the world’s largest taiga stretches about 5,800 kilometers from the Pacific Ocean to the Ural Mountains.
34. Question 34 of 100

    34. Question

    Consider the following statements :
    (1) Stem cells are specialized cells having tissue-specific structures.
    (2) Stem cells can be found in embryos.
    (3) Stem cell therapy is used to treat cancers.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Stem cells are special human cells that have the ability to develop into many different cell types, from muscle cells to brain cells. In some cases, they also have the ability to repair damaged tissues.
    • Stem cells differ from other kinds of cells in the body.
    o Self-renewal: They can divide and renew themselves for long periods.
    o Stem Cells are Unspecialised: It does not have any tissue-specific structure that allows it to perform specialized functions. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    o Potency: Specialised cells can be derived from stem cells through a process called differentiation. While differentiating, the cell usually goes through several stages, gaining more specialization at each step.
    • Stem cells are divided into two main forms: embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.
    o The embryonic stem cells used in research today come from unused embryos resulting from an in vitro fertilization procedure and that are donated to science. These embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, meaning that they can turn into more than one type of cell.
    o There are two types of adult stem cells.
    ✓ One type comes from fully developed tissues, like the brain, skin, and bone marrow. There are only small numbers of stem cells in these tissues, and they are more likely to generate only certain types of cells. For example, a stem cell-derived from the liver will only generate liver cells.
    ✓ The second type is induced pluripotent stem cells. These are adult stem cells that have been manipulated in a laboratory to take on the pluripotent characteristics of embryonic stem cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Stem cells are applied especially to treat cancers, which require high-dose chemotherapy within the scope of medical care. The patient’s own stem cells are extracted from bone marrow or peripheral blood prior to high-dose chemotherapy, stored temporarily and transplanted after the treatment in order to minimize the side effects of the aggressive chemotherapy and to support the regeneration of destroyed cells. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • Besides cancer, Stem cell therapy offers great potential for the treatment of diseases such as neurodegenerative diseases, cardiac infarction, stroke, arthritis, or diabetes.

    Unattempted
    

    Stem cells are special human cells that have the ability to develop into many different cell types, from muscle cells to brain cells. In some cases, they also have the ability to repair damaged tissues.
    • Stem cells differ from other kinds of cells in the body.
    o Self-renewal: They can divide and renew themselves for long periods.
    o Stem Cells are Unspecialised: It does not have any tissue-specific structure that allows it to perform specialized functions. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    o Potency: Specialised cells can be derived from stem cells through a process called differentiation. While differentiating, the cell usually goes through several stages, gaining more specialization at each step.
    • Stem cells are divided into two main forms: embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.
    o The embryonic stem cells used in research today come from unused embryos resulting from an in vitro fertilization procedure and that are donated to science. These embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, meaning that they can turn into more than one type of cell.
    o There are two types of adult stem cells.
    ✓ One type comes from fully developed tissues, like the brain, skin, and bone marrow. There are only small numbers of stem cells in these tissues, and they are more likely to generate only certain types of cells. For example, a stem cell-derived from the liver will only generate liver cells.
    ✓ The second type is induced pluripotent stem cells. These are adult stem cells that have been manipulated in a laboratory to take on the pluripotent characteristics of embryonic stem cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Stem cells are applied especially to treat cancers, which require high-dose chemotherapy within the scope of medical care. The patient’s own stem cells are extracted from bone marrow or peripheral blood prior to high-dose chemotherapy, stored temporarily and transplanted after the treatment in order to minimize the side effects of the aggressive chemotherapy and to support the regeneration of destroyed cells. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • Besides cancer, Stem cell therapy offers great potential for the treatment of diseases such as neurodegenerative diseases, cardiac infarction, stroke, arthritis, or diabetes.
35. Question 35 of 100

    35. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the executive powers of Governor:
    (1) Governor acts as the Chancellor of Universities in the state.
    (2) He appoints the Chief Electoral Officer.
    (3) He can remove a member of the state public service commission.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Governor of the state possesses certain executive powers and functions likeo S/he acts as the chancellor of universities in the state. S/he also appoints the vice-chancellors of universities in the state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    o S/He appoints Tribal Welfare minister in the states of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha. The state of Bihar was excluded from this provision by the 94th Amendment Act of 2006.
    o Under Article 317 of the Constitution, the President, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission, and the Governor in the case of a State Commission, may suspend (but cannot remove) from office the Chairman or any other member of the Commission in respect of whom a reference has been made to the Supreme Court until the President has passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court on such reference. The chairman and the members of a state public service commission can be removed only by the President. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    The Chief Electoral Officer assists the Election Commission at the state level. He is appointed by the Chief Election Commissioner in consultation with the state government. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Governor of the state possesses certain executive powers and functions likeo S/he acts as the chancellor of universities in the state. S/he also appoints the vice-chancellors of universities in the state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    o S/He appoints Tribal Welfare minister in the states of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha. The state of Bihar was excluded from this provision by the 94th Amendment Act of 2006.
    o Under Article 317 of the Constitution, the President, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission, and the Governor in the case of a State Commission, may suspend (but cannot remove) from office the Chairman or any other member of the Commission in respect of whom a reference has been made to the Supreme Court until the President has passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court on such reference. The chairman and the members of a state public service commission can be removed only by the President. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    The Chief Electoral Officer assists the Election Commission at the state level. He is appointed by the Chief Election Commissioner in consultation with the state government. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
36. Question 36 of 100

    36. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) A living person must not be less than 15 years of age to donate the organs.
    (2) Pancreas and intestine are not permitted to be donated.
    (3) National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) is the apex body for the coordination of organ donation in India.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Organ Donation in India is regulated under the Transplantation of Human Organs Act of 1994.
    National Network division of National Organ & Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) function as apex center for All India activities of coordination and networking for procurement and distribution of Organs and Tissues and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    (NOTTO) is a National level organization set up under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
    In India, the organs (a part of the body that performs a specific function) that can be donated are: Liver, Kidney, Pancreas, Heart, Lung, Intestine. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The tissues that can be donated are: Cornea, Bone, Skin, Heart Valve, blood vessels, nerves, and tendon etc.
    • Who can be a Donor?
    o Living Donor: Any person not less than 18 years of age, who voluntarily authorize the removal of any of his organ and/or tissue, during his or her lifetime, as per prevalent medical practices for therapeutic purposes. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    o Deceased Donor: Anyone, regardless of age, race or gender can become an organ and tissue donor after his or her Death (Brainstem/Cardiac). Consent of near relative or a person in lawful possession of the dead body is required. If the deceased donor is under the age of 18 years, then the consent required from one of the parents or any near relative authorized by the parents is essential. Medical suitability for donation is determined at the time of death.
    • About NOTTO: It has following two divisions:
    o National Human Organ and Tissue Removal and Storage Network: This has been mandated as per the Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011. It would function as apex centre for All India activities of coordination and networking for procurement and distribution of Organs and Tissues and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country. The network will be established initially for Delhi and gradually expanded to include other States and Regions of the country.
    o National Biomaterial Centre (National Tissue Bank): The Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011 has included the component of tissue donation and registration of tissue Banks. It becomes imperative under the changed circumstances to establish National level Tissue Bank to fulfill the demands of tissue transplantation including activities for procurement, storage and fulfil distribution of biomaterials.
    • The main thrust & objective of establishing the centre is to fill up the gap between ‘Demand’ and ‘Supply’ as well as ‘Quality Assurance’ in the availability of various tissues.

    Unattempted
    

    Organ Donation in India is regulated under the Transplantation of Human Organs Act of 1994.
    National Network division of National Organ & Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) function as apex center for All India activities of coordination and networking for procurement and distribution of Organs and Tissues and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    (NOTTO) is a National level organization set up under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
    In India, the organs (a part of the body that performs a specific function) that can be donated are: Liver, Kidney, Pancreas, Heart, Lung, Intestine. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The tissues that can be donated are: Cornea, Bone, Skin, Heart Valve, blood vessels, nerves, and tendon etc.
    • Who can be a Donor?
    o Living Donor: Any person not less than 18 years of age, who voluntarily authorize the removal of any of his organ and/or tissue, during his or her lifetime, as per prevalent medical practices for therapeutic purposes. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    o Deceased Donor: Anyone, regardless of age, race or gender can become an organ and tissue donor after his or her Death (Brainstem/Cardiac). Consent of near relative or a person in lawful possession of the dead body is required. If the deceased donor is under the age of 18 years, then the consent required from one of the parents or any near relative authorized by the parents is essential. Medical suitability for donation is determined at the time of death.
    • About NOTTO: It has following two divisions:
    o National Human Organ and Tissue Removal and Storage Network: This has been mandated as per the Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011. It would function as apex centre for All India activities of coordination and networking for procurement and distribution of Organs and Tissues and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country. The network will be established initially for Delhi and gradually expanded to include other States and Regions of the country.
    o National Biomaterial Centre (National Tissue Bank): The Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011 has included the component of tissue donation and registration of tissue Banks. It becomes imperative under the changed circumstances to establish National level Tissue Bank to fulfill the demands of tissue transplantation including activities for procurement, storage and fulfil distribution of biomaterials.
    • The main thrust & objective of establishing the centre is to fill up the gap between ‘Demand’ and ‘Supply’ as well as ‘Quality Assurance’ in the availability of various tissues.
37. Question 37 of 100

    37. Question

    With reference to the Sal tree, consider the following statements:
    (1) It requires well-drained, moist and sandy loam soil for its growth.
    (2) It is endemic to the Western Himalayan region of India.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the government-owned Tribal Development Co-operative Corporation of Odisha Ltd (TDCCOL) decided to procure sal seeds (Shorea robusta) from nine Odisha districts.
    Sal tree is a large sub-deciduous tree which is seldom completely leafless.It is indigenous to India and occurs in two main regions separated by Gangetic plain namely the northern and central Indian regions.
    It requires well-drained, moist and sandy loam soil.
    Climatic conditions required: It survives upto a maximum temperature of 36°C to 44°C and minimum temperature of 11°C to 17°C and it needs an average rainfall of 1000 mm to 3500 mm per annum.
    The resin of this tree is used in the indigenous system of medicine.
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the government-owned Tribal Development Co-operative Corporation of Odisha Ltd (TDCCOL) decided to procure sal seeds (Shorea robusta) from nine Odisha districts.
    Sal tree is a large sub-deciduous tree which is seldom completely leafless.It is indigenous to India and occurs in two main regions separated by Gangetic plain namely the northern and central Indian regions.
    It requires well-drained, moist and sandy loam soil.
    Climatic conditions required: It survives upto a maximum temperature of 36°C to 44°C and minimum temperature of 11°C to 17°C and it needs an average rainfall of 1000 mm to 3500 mm per annum.
    The resin of this tree is used in the indigenous system of medicine.
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
38. Question 38 of 100

    38. Question

    How many of the following is/are correct with reference to the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)?
    (1) It is a quantitative tool on which the RBI charges a low-interest rate.
    (2) It carries no penalty in case the banks violate the CRR ratio.
    (3) RBI approved securities are allowed as a part of CRR.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the share of a bank’s total deposit that is mandated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to be maintained with the latter in the form of liquid cash. There is no interest charged or given on CRR. Current CRR stands at around 4%.
    Statement 2 is not correct: If not maintained by the banks, it carries a penalty of (bank-rate)+ (3 to 5%) . It is purely cash component.
    Statement 3 is not correct: Securities are allowed in SLR and not CRR.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the share of a bank’s total deposit that is mandated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to be maintained with the latter in the form of liquid cash. There is no interest charged or given on CRR. Current CRR stands at around 4%.
    Statement 2 is not correct: If not maintained by the banks, it carries a penalty of (bank-rate)+ (3 to 5%) . It is purely cash component.
    Statement 3 is not correct: Securities are allowed in SLR and not CRR.
39. Question 39 of 100

    39. Question

    Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement is mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003. It sets out the three-year rolling targets for how many of the following fiscal indicators?
    (1) Fiscal Deficit
    (2) Revenue Deficit
    (3) Non-tax Revenue
    (4) Debt of Centre and State Government
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only three
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement cum Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement is presented to Parliament under Section 3 of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.
    It sets out the three-year rolling targets for six specific fiscal indicators in relation to GDP at market prices, namely
    Fiscal Deficit
    Revenue Deficit
    Primary Deficit
    Tax Revenue
    Non-tax Revenue
    Central Government Debt (hence, only option 4 is not correct)
    The Statement includes the underlying assumptions, an assessment of the balance between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure and the use of capital receipts including market borrowings for the creation of productive assets.
    It also outlines for the existing financial year, the strategic priorities of the Government relating to taxation, expenditure, lending and investments, administered pricing, borrowings and guarantees.
    The Statement explains how the current fiscal policies are in conformity with sound fiscal management principles and gives the rationale for any major deviation in key fiscal measures.

    Unattempted
    

    The Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement cum Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement is presented to Parliament under Section 3 of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.
    It sets out the three-year rolling targets for six specific fiscal indicators in relation to GDP at market prices, namely
    Fiscal Deficit
    Revenue Deficit
    Primary Deficit
    Tax Revenue
    Non-tax Revenue
    Central Government Debt (hence, only option 4 is not correct)
    The Statement includes the underlying assumptions, an assessment of the balance between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure and the use of capital receipts including market borrowings for the creation of productive assets.
    It also outlines for the existing financial year, the strategic priorities of the Government relating to taxation, expenditure, lending and investments, administered pricing, borrowings and guarantees.
    The Statement explains how the current fiscal policies are in conformity with sound fiscal management principles and gives the rationale for any major deviation in key fiscal measures.
40. Question 40 of 100

    40. Question

    Which of the following is/are correct regarding the wise use approach of wetland management?
    (1) It was coined and adopted at the 1992 Rio Earth summit.
    (2) It emphasizes that human use of these ecosystems on sustainable basis is compatible with conservation.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Convention on Wetlands, called the Ramsar Convention, is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. The Convention was adopted in 1971 at the Iranian City of Ramsar. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The ‘wise use’ approach of Ramsar Convention is globally recognized. Notably, the wise use approach was coined in 1972, much before the hallmark 1992 Rio Conference wherein the term sustainable development was rendered a definition.
    As endorsed by Contracting Parties of the Ramsar Convention, the wise use of wetlands is “the maintenance of their ecological character, achieved through the implementation of ecosystem approaches, within the context of sustainable development”. The wise use approach recognizes that stemming wetland loss and degradation requires the incorporation of linkages between people and wetlands, and thereby emphasizes that human use of these ecosystems on a sustainable basis is compatible with conservation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Convention on Wetlands, called the Ramsar Convention, is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. The Convention was adopted in 1971 at the Iranian City of Ramsar. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The ‘wise use’ approach of Ramsar Convention is globally recognized. Notably, the wise use approach was coined in 1972, much before the hallmark 1992 Rio Conference wherein the term sustainable development was rendered a definition.
    As endorsed by Contracting Parties of the Ramsar Convention, the wise use of wetlands is “the maintenance of their ecological character, achieved through the implementation of ecosystem approaches, within the context of sustainable development”. The wise use approach recognizes that stemming wetland loss and degradation requires the incorporation of linkages between people and wetlands, and thereby emphasizes that human use of these ecosystems on a sustainable basis is compatible with conservation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
41. Question 41 of 100

    41. Question

    If you want to see a Hangul deer in their natural habitat in India, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
    (A) Manas National park
    (B) Dachigam National park
    (C) Kaziranga wildlife century
    (D) Keibul lamjao National park

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Option (B) is the correct answer : Hangul is the Kashmiri red stag is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir. Hangul comes from Kashmiri word haang, which means a dark, rusty brown colour. It is the only surviving subspecies of the red deer family in the Indian subcontinent. The Dachigam National park was meant to be a habitat exclusively for the hangul. Dachigam National Park is located 22 kilometers from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.

    Unattempted
    

    Option (B) is the correct answer : Hangul is the Kashmiri red stag is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir. Hangul comes from Kashmiri word haang, which means a dark, rusty brown colour. It is the only surviving subspecies of the red deer family in the Indian subcontinent. The Dachigam National park was meant to be a habitat exclusively for the hangul. Dachigam National Park is located 22 kilometers from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
42. Question 42 of 100

    42. Question

    The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid because
    (A) water is a poor conductor of heat.
    (B) water reaches a maximum density at about 4°C.
    (C) water does not expand upon freezing.
    (D) of presence of impurities due to pollution.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Water exhibits an anomalous behaviour; it contracts on heating between 0 °C and 4 °C. The volume of a given amount of water decreases as it is cooled from room temperature, until its temperature reaches 4 °C. Below 4 °C, the volume increases, and therefore the density decreases. This means that water has a maximum density at 4 °C.
    This property has an important environmental effect: Bodies of water, such as lakes and ponds, freeze at the top first. As a lake cools toward 4 °C, water near the surface loses energy to the atmosphere, becomes denser, and sinks; the warmer, less dense water near the bottom rises. However, once the colder water on top reaches temperature below 4 °C, it becomes less dense and remains at the surface, where it freezes.
    If water did not have this property, lakes and ponds would freeze from the bottom up, which would destroy much of their animal and plant life.

    Unattempted
    

    Water exhibits an anomalous behaviour; it contracts on heating between 0 °C and 4 °C. The volume of a given amount of water decreases as it is cooled from room temperature, until its temperature reaches 4 °C. Below 4 °C, the volume increases, and therefore the density decreases. This means that water has a maximum density at 4 °C.
    This property has an important environmental effect: Bodies of water, such as lakes and ponds, freeze at the top first. As a lake cools toward 4 °C, water near the surface loses energy to the atmosphere, becomes denser, and sinks; the warmer, less dense water near the bottom rises. However, once the colder water on top reaches temperature below 4 °C, it becomes less dense and remains at the surface, where it freezes.
    If water did not have this property, lakes and ponds would freeze from the bottom up, which would destroy much of their animal and plant life.
43. Question 43 of 100

    43. Question

    With reference to the Dimethyl Ether,consider the following statements:
    (1) It is a synthetically produced alternative to diesel for use in specially designed compression ignition diesel engines.
    (2) It has a very low cetane number.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, researchers at IIT Kanpur developed a 100% DME-fuelled engine with a mechanical fuel injection system.
    Dimethyl Ether is a synthetically produced alternative to diesel for use in specially designed compression ignition diesel engines.
    It can be produced indigenously, and several countries, like Japan, USA, China, Sweden, Denmark, and Korea, are already using DME to power their vehicles.
    The DME-fuelled engine emitted extremely low particulate and soot emissions and almost no smoke without using expensive exhaust gas after-treatment devices and advanced engine technologies.
    It can be a viable alternative fuel and engine technology to adapt to conventional diesel engines used in India’s economy’s agricultural and transport sectors.
    It has a very high cetane number, which is a measure of the fuel's ignitibility in compression ignition engines.
    Under normal atmospheric conditions, DME is a colorless gas.
    It is used extensively in the chemical industry and as an aerosol propellant.
    It is used in chemical industries and also to produce dyes and plastics.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, researchers at IIT Kanpur developed a 100% DME-fuelled engine with a mechanical fuel injection system.
    Dimethyl Ether is a synthetically produced alternative to diesel for use in specially designed compression ignition diesel engines.
    It can be produced indigenously, and several countries, like Japan, USA, China, Sweden, Denmark, and Korea, are already using DME to power their vehicles.
    The DME-fuelled engine emitted extremely low particulate and soot emissions and almost no smoke without using expensive exhaust gas after-treatment devices and advanced engine technologies.
    It can be a viable alternative fuel and engine technology to adapt to conventional diesel engines used in India’s economy’s agricultural and transport sectors.
    It has a very high cetane number, which is a measure of the fuel's ignitibility in compression ignition engines.
    Under normal atmospheric conditions, DME is a colorless gas.
    It is used extensively in the chemical industry and as an aerosol propellant.
    It is used in chemical industries and also to produce dyes and plastics.
44. Question 44 of 100

    44. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Barak River :
    (1) Barak river flows through the four states of India.
    (2) It forms India's boundary with Myanmar.
    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Barak is a 900 km (560 miles) long river flowing through the states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram and Assam in India and into the Bay of Bengal via Bangladesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Of the 900 km, 524 km is in India, 31 km on Indo – Bangladesh border and the rest is in Bangladesh. So it does not make border with Myanmar. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The navigable portion of Barak River in India, the 121km stretch between Lakhipur and Bhanga has been declared as National Waterway 16, (NW-16) in the year 2016.
    The principal tributaries of Barak joining from the north bank are the Jiri, the Chiri, the Modhura, the Jatinga, the Harang, the Kalain and the Gumra whereas the Dhaleswari, the Singla, the Longai, the Sonai and the Katakhal joins from the south bank.
    Tipaimukh multipurpose hydroelectric project is on the Barak river.

    Unattempted
    

    The Barak is a 900 km (560 miles) long river flowing through the states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram and Assam in India and into the Bay of Bengal via Bangladesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Of the 900 km, 524 km is in India, 31 km on Indo – Bangladesh border and the rest is in Bangladesh. So it does not make border with Myanmar. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    The navigable portion of Barak River in India, the 121km stretch between Lakhipur and Bhanga has been declared as National Waterway 16, (NW-16) in the year 2016.
    The principal tributaries of Barak joining from the north bank are the Jiri, the Chiri, the Modhura, the Jatinga, the Harang, the Kalain and the Gumra whereas the Dhaleswari, the Singla, the Longai, the Sonai and the Katakhal joins from the south bank.
    Tipaimukh multipurpose hydroelectric project is on the Barak river.
45. Question 45 of 100

    45. Question

    Land surface becomes warm and cold more quickly than the water surface at the same latitude due to which of the following reasons?
    (1) Specific heat of water is much less than that of the land surface.
    (2) Redistribution of heat by conduction is slower in land surface than water.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The contrasting nature of the land and water surfaces in relation to incoming shortwave solar radiation largely affects the spatial and temporal distribution of temperature.
    It may be pointed out that land becomes warm and cold more quickly than the water body. This is why even after receiving an equal amount of insolation the temperature of land becomes more than thetemperature of the water body.
    The following reasons explains the differential rate of heating and cooling of land and water:
    Compared to air or land, water is a slow conductor of heat. That means it needs to gain more energy than a comparable amount of air or land to increase its temperature.
    The sun's rays penetrate to a depth of only 3 feet in land because it is opaque but they penetrate to a greater depth of several meters in water because it is transparent to solar radiation.
    The thin layer of soils and rocks of land, thus, gets heated quickly because of the greater concentration of insolation in a much smaller mass of material of the ground surface. Similarly, the thin layer of ground emits heat quickly and becomes colder.
    On the other hand, the same amount of insolation falling on the water surface has to heat larger volume of water because of the penetration of solar rays to greater depth and thus the temperature of ground surface becomes higher than that of the water surface through the amount of insolation received by both the surfaces may be equal.
    The heat is concentrated at the place where insolation is received and there is a very slow process of redistribution of heat by conduction because the land surface is static. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It may be noted that the downward distribution of temperature in the land surface within a day is effective upto depth of only 10 cm. Thus, the land surface becomes warm during the day and cold during the nightvery rapidly.
    On the other hand, water is mobile, the upper surface of the water becomes lighter when heated by insolation and thus moves away horizontally to other places and the solar rays have to heat fresh layer ofcold water.
    Secondly, heat is redistributed in water bodies by sea waves, ocean currents and tidal waves. All these extend the period of warming the surface of water.
    More evaporation from the sea.
    There is more evaporation from the seas and the oceans and hence more heat is spent in this process with the results oceans get less insolation than the land surface. On the other hand, there is less evaporation from the land surface because of very limited amount of water.
    Specific heat
    The specific heat capacity (the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram of the substance by 1 degree) of water is much greater than the land because the relative density of water is much lower than that of the land surface. It means more heat is required to raise the temperature of one gram of water by 1 degree than one gram of land. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Oceanic areas are generally clouded and hence they absorb less insolation than land surface. But clouds absorb outgoing terrestrial radiation and counter- radiate heat back to the earth's surface.
    This process retards the loss of heat from the oceanic surfaces and hence slows down the mechanism of cooling of the air lying over the oceans. On the other hand, land surfaces receive more insolation at a faster rate because of less cloudiness and simultaneously lose more heat through outgoing terrestrial radiation very quickly.

    Unattempted
    

    The contrasting nature of the land and water surfaces in relation to incoming shortwave solar radiation largely affects the spatial and temporal distribution of temperature.
    It may be pointed out that land becomes warm and cold more quickly than the water body. This is why even after receiving an equal amount of insolation the temperature of land becomes more than thetemperature of the water body.
    The following reasons explains the differential rate of heating and cooling of land and water:
    Compared to air or land, water is a slow conductor of heat. That means it needs to gain more energy than a comparable amount of air or land to increase its temperature.
    The sun's rays penetrate to a depth of only 3 feet in land because it is opaque but they penetrate to a greater depth of several meters in water because it is transparent to solar radiation.
    The thin layer of soils and rocks of land, thus, gets heated quickly because of the greater concentration of insolation in a much smaller mass of material of the ground surface. Similarly, the thin layer of ground emits heat quickly and becomes colder.
    On the other hand, the same amount of insolation falling on the water surface has to heat larger volume of water because of the penetration of solar rays to greater depth and thus the temperature of ground surface becomes higher than that of the water surface through the amount of insolation received by both the surfaces may be equal.
    The heat is concentrated at the place where insolation is received and there is a very slow process of redistribution of heat by conduction because the land surface is static. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    It may be noted that the downward distribution of temperature in the land surface within a day is effective upto depth of only 10 cm. Thus, the land surface becomes warm during the day and cold during the nightvery rapidly.
    On the other hand, water is mobile, the upper surface of the water becomes lighter when heated by insolation and thus moves away horizontally to other places and the solar rays have to heat fresh layer ofcold water.
    Secondly, heat is redistributed in water bodies by sea waves, ocean currents and tidal waves. All these extend the period of warming the surface of water.
    More evaporation from the sea.
    There is more evaporation from the seas and the oceans and hence more heat is spent in this process with the results oceans get less insolation than the land surface. On the other hand, there is less evaporation from the land surface because of very limited amount of water.
    Specific heat
    The specific heat capacity (the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram of the substance by 1 degree) of water is much greater than the land because the relative density of water is much lower than that of the land surface. It means more heat is required to raise the temperature of one gram of water by 1 degree than one gram of land. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Oceanic areas are generally clouded and hence they absorb less insolation than land surface. But clouds absorb outgoing terrestrial radiation and counter- radiate heat back to the earth's surface.
    This process retards the loss of heat from the oceanic surfaces and hence slows down the mechanism of cooling of the air lying over the oceans. On the other hand, land surfaces receive more insolation at a faster rate because of less cloudiness and simultaneously lose more heat through outgoing terrestrial radiation very quickly.
46. Question 46 of 100

    46. Question

    In the context of geographical landforms, consider the following statements with respect to Windgap:
    (1) Wind gaps are abandoned sections of the valley after river capture.
    (2) The windgaps are suitable sites for rail and road bridge construction.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    River capture is a natural process which is more active in the youthful stage of the valley development because the streams are actively engaged in headward erosion and valley lengthening. The stronger and more powerful streams capture the upper courses of weak and sluggish streams. Sections of valley abandoned after such captures are known as wind gaps. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Windgaps contrast with the water gaps that still contain transverse streams. The stream capture usually occurs in hilly areas where the river's erosion power is maximum. So they are majorly formed in mountainous regions.
    Water gaps and wind gaps often provide routes which, due to their gently inclined profile, are suitable for trails, roads, and railroads through mountainous terrain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    River capture is a natural process which is more active in the youthful stage of the valley development because the streams are actively engaged in headward erosion and valley lengthening. The stronger and more powerful streams capture the upper courses of weak and sluggish streams. Sections of valley abandoned after such captures are known as wind gaps. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Windgaps contrast with the water gaps that still contain transverse streams. The stream capture usually occurs in hilly areas where the river's erosion power is maximum. So they are majorly formed in mountainous regions.
    Water gaps and wind gaps often provide routes which, due to their gently inclined profile, are suitable for trails, roads, and railroads through mountainous terrain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
47. Question 47 of 100

    47. Question

    How many of the following temples is/are located within a Tiger Reserve?
    (1) Beladakuppe Mahadeshwara temple
    (2) Lingaraja Temple
    (3) Sabarimala temple
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Beladakuppe Mahadeshwara temple is located in the inside Bandipur Tiger Reserve (in the Hediyala range)
    The Sabarimala temple is a temple complex located at Sabarimala inside the Periyar Tiger Reserve Forest in Kerala. It is the site of the one of the largest annual pilgrimage in the world with an estimate ofbetween 40 million and 50 million devotees visiting every year. The temple is dedicated to the Hindu celibate deity Ayyappan also known as Dharma Sastha, who according to belief is the son of Shiva and Mohini, the feminine incarnation of Vishnu. The traditions of Sabarimala are a confluence of Shaivism, Shaktism, Vaishnavism, and other Sramaṇa traditions.
    Lingaraja Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva and is one of the oldest temples in Bhubaneswar, the capital of the Indian state of Odisha. It is not located in a Tiger Reserve.
    Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Beladakuppe Mahadeshwara temple is located in the inside Bandipur Tiger Reserve (in the Hediyala range)
    The Sabarimala temple is a temple complex located at Sabarimala inside the Periyar Tiger Reserve Forest in Kerala. It is the site of the one of the largest annual pilgrimage in the world with an estimate ofbetween 40 million and 50 million devotees visiting every year. The temple is dedicated to the Hindu celibate deity Ayyappan also known as Dharma Sastha, who according to belief is the son of Shiva and Mohini, the feminine incarnation of Vishnu. The traditions of Sabarimala are a confluence of Shaivism, Shaktism, Vaishnavism, and other Sramaṇa traditions.
    Lingaraja Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva and is one of the oldest temples in Bhubaneswar, the capital of the Indian state of Odisha. It is not located in a Tiger Reserve.
    Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.
48. Question 48 of 100

    48. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Bitumen:
    (1) It is a dense, highly viscous, petroleum-based hydrocarbon.
    (2) It is obtained only as a residue of the distillation of crude oil and is not found naturally.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Goa Power Minister recently said that bitumen used in road construction is a major cause of pollution.
    About Bitumen:
    It is a dense, highly viscous, petroleum-based hydrocarbon.
    It is found in deposits such as oil sands and pitch lakes (natural bitumen) or is obtained as a residue of the distillation of crude oil.
    At the temperatures normally encountered in natural deposits, bitumen will not flow. In order to be moved through a pipe, it must be heated and, in some cases, diluted with a lighter oil.
    Bitumen can deform permanently under heavy loads. Continued stress on the material can result in cracking.
    Composition:
    It owes its density and viscosity to its chemical composition—mainly large hydrocarbon molecules known as asphaltenes and resins, which are present in lighter oils but are highly concentrated in bitumen.
    In addition, bitumen frequently has a high content of metals, such as nickel and vanadium, and nonmetallic inorganic elements, such as nitrogen, oxygen, and sulfur.
    Uses:
    Bitumen is known for its waterproofing and adhesive properties and is commonly used in the construction industry, notably for roads and highways.
    It is commonly used to waterproof boats and other marine vessels.
    It is also used by companies that create and manufacture roofing products.
    It is used for sealing and insulating purposes in various building materials such as carpet tile backing and paint.
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Goa Power Minister recently said that bitumen used in road construction is a major cause of pollution.
    About Bitumen:
    It is a dense, highly viscous, petroleum-based hydrocarbon.
    It is found in deposits such as oil sands and pitch lakes (natural bitumen) or is obtained as a residue of the distillation of crude oil.
    At the temperatures normally encountered in natural deposits, bitumen will not flow. In order to be moved through a pipe, it must be heated and, in some cases, diluted with a lighter oil.
    Bitumen can deform permanently under heavy loads. Continued stress on the material can result in cracking.
    Composition:
    It owes its density and viscosity to its chemical composition—mainly large hydrocarbon molecules known as asphaltenes and resins, which are present in lighter oils but are highly concentrated in bitumen.
    In addition, bitumen frequently has a high content of metals, such as nickel and vanadium, and nonmetallic inorganic elements, such as nitrogen, oxygen, and sulfur.
    Uses:
    Bitumen is known for its waterproofing and adhesive properties and is commonly used in the construction industry, notably for roads and highways.
    It is commonly used to waterproof boats and other marine vessels.
    It is also used by companies that create and manufacture roofing products.
    It is used for sealing and insulating purposes in various building materials such as carpet tile backing and paint.
    Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
49. Question 49 of 100

    49. Question

    With reference to “Sedition”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) It is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
    (2) It was first passed by the British government to curb the activities of the Hindustan Socialist Republic Association.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The law was originally drafted in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay, the British historian-politician, but was inexplicably omitted when the Indian Penal Code (IP(C) was enacted in 1860. Section 124A was inserted in 1870 by an amendment introduced by Sir James Stephen when it felt the need for a specific section to deal with the offense. It was one of the many draconian laws enacted to stifle any voices of dissent at that time.
    It is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
    The Indian Penal Code defines sedition (Section 124(A) as an offence committed when “any person by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attemptsto bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government established by law in India”. Disaffection includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity. However,comments without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, will not constitute an offence under this section.
    • Punishment for the offence of sedition:
    o Sedition is a non-bailable offence.
    o Punishment under the Section 124A ranges from imprisonment up to three years to a life term, to which fine may be added.
    o A person charged under this law is barred from a government job. They have to live without their passport and must produce themselves in the court at all times as and when required.
    • The constitutionality of sedition was challenged in the Supreme Court in Kedar Nath Vs State of Bihar (1962).
    o The Court upheld the law on the basis that this power was required by the state to protect itself. However, it had added a vital caveat that “a person could be prosecuted for sedition only if his acts caused incitement to violence or intention or tendency to create public disorder or cause disturbance of public peace”.
    o The court held that “a citizen has a right to say or write whatever he likes about the Government, or its measures, by way of criticism or comment, so long as he does not incite people to violence against theGovernment established by law or with the intention of creating public disorder”.
    o In September 2016, the Supreme Court had reiterated these necessary safeguards and held that they should be followed by all authorities.
    • Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSR(A) was a revolutionary organization, also known as Hindustan Socialist Republican Army established in 1928 by Chandrasekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar and others. The sedition act was used against a few important leaders of HSRA, example, Bhagat Singh but not against the organization as such.

    Unattempted
    

    The law was originally drafted in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay, the British historian-politician, but was inexplicably omitted when the Indian Penal Code (IP(C) was enacted in 1860. Section 124A was inserted in 1870 by an amendment introduced by Sir James Stephen when it felt the need for a specific section to deal with the offense. It was one of the many draconian laws enacted to stifle any voices of dissent at that time.
    It is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
    The Indian Penal Code defines sedition (Section 124(A) as an offence committed when “any person by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attemptsto bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government established by law in India”. Disaffection includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity. However,comments without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, will not constitute an offence under this section.
    • Punishment for the offence of sedition:
    o Sedition is a non-bailable offence.
    o Punishment under the Section 124A ranges from imprisonment up to three years to a life term, to which fine may be added.
    o A person charged under this law is barred from a government job. They have to live without their passport and must produce themselves in the court at all times as and when required.
    • The constitutionality of sedition was challenged in the Supreme Court in Kedar Nath Vs State of Bihar (1962).
    o The Court upheld the law on the basis that this power was required by the state to protect itself. However, it had added a vital caveat that “a person could be prosecuted for sedition only if his acts caused incitement to violence or intention or tendency to create public disorder or cause disturbance of public peace”.
    o The court held that “a citizen has a right to say or write whatever he likes about the Government, or its measures, by way of criticism or comment, so long as he does not incite people to violence against theGovernment established by law or with the intention of creating public disorder”.
    o In September 2016, the Supreme Court had reiterated these necessary safeguards and held that they should be followed by all authorities.
    • Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSR(A) was a revolutionary organization, also known as Hindustan Socialist Republican Army established in 1928 by Chandrasekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar and others. The sedition act was used against a few important leaders of HSRA, example, Bhagat Singh but not against the organization as such.
50. Question 50 of 100

    50. Question

    In the context of food fortification, consider the following statements:
    (1) The fortified foods in India are identified through the logo “+F”.
    (2) Currently, fortification of rice is mandatory under the Mid-Day meal scheme.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has notified the “+F” logo on packets of fortified foods which will help people identify the nutritious products. Packaging and labelling have to state the food fortificant added, +F logo, and the tagline “SampoornaPoshanSwasth Jeevan”. So, statement 1 is correct.
    NITI Aayog in its “Strategy for new INDIA @75” has suggested a mandatory fortification of staples and to incorporate fortified food-grains in Government programmes, TPDS (NFS(A) ICDS, Mid-day Meal Scheme (MDM) etc.
    However, for realising the above goal, there is a need to scale up the supply of Fortified Rice Kernels (FRK), whose availability is currently is at a meagre quantity of 15,000 MT per annum. Covering 112 Aspirational Districts for PDS, ICDS and MDM would mean a requirement of nearly 130 Lakh MT of Fortified Rice, for which FRK supply capacity in the country needs to go up to nearly 1.3 Lakh MT.  If the entire PDS (NFS(A) rice supply which is of the order of about 350 Lakh MT is to be fortified, then there has to be an uninterrupted supply pipeline of FRK from the industry of the order of about 3.5 Lakh MT.Also, in an ambitious attempt to combat the serious problem of anaemia due to malnutrition, Prime Minister made an announcement to mandate rice fortification in all social safety net schemes by 2024. So, statement 2 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has notified the “+F” logo on packets of fortified foods which will help people identify the nutritious products. Packaging and labelling have to state the food fortificant added, +F logo, and the tagline “SampoornaPoshanSwasth Jeevan”. So, statement 1 is correct.
    NITI Aayog in its “Strategy for new INDIA @75” has suggested a mandatory fortification of staples and to incorporate fortified food-grains in Government programmes, TPDS (NFS(A) ICDS, Mid-day Meal Scheme (MDM) etc.
    However, for realising the above goal, there is a need to scale up the supply of Fortified Rice Kernels (FRK), whose availability is currently is at a meagre quantity of 15,000 MT per annum. Covering 112 Aspirational Districts for PDS, ICDS and MDM would mean a requirement of nearly 130 Lakh MT of Fortified Rice, for which FRK supply capacity in the country needs to go up to nearly 1.3 Lakh MT.  If the entire PDS (NFS(A) rice supply which is of the order of about 350 Lakh MT is to be fortified, then there has to be an uninterrupted supply pipeline of FRK from the industry of the order of about 3.5 Lakh MT.Also, in an ambitious attempt to combat the serious problem of anaemia due to malnutrition, Prime Minister made an announcement to mandate rice fortification in all social safety net schemes by 2024. So, statement 2 is not correct.
51. Question 51 of 100

    51. Question

    With reference to Operation Greens Scheme, consider the following statements :
    (1) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
    (2) It seeks to stabilize the supply of Tomato, Onion and Potato throughout the year without price volatility.
    (3) Crop-wise and state-wise specific funds are earmarked under it.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Operation Greens was launched on the lines of “Operation Flood”, to promote Farmer Producers Organisations, agri-logistics, processing facilities etc. The Ministry of Food Processing Industries launched the Operation Greens scheme. So, statement 1 is not correct.
    Operation Greens seeks to stabilize the supply of Tomato, Onion and Potato (TOP) crops and to ensure availability of TOP crops throughout the country round the year without price volatility. The scheme was extended during June 2020 to cover all fruits & vegetables (TOTAL) for a period of six months on a pilot basis as part of Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. So, statement 2 is correct.
    The crop-wise/state-wise specific funds are not earmarked under the scheme as the scheme is demand-driven and projects are sanctioned in the identified production clusters on the basis of the applications received from investors against Expression of Interest (EOI) issued from time to time. So, statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Operation Greens was launched on the lines of “Operation Flood”, to promote Farmer Producers Organisations, agri-logistics, processing facilities etc. The Ministry of Food Processing Industries launched the Operation Greens scheme. So, statement 1 is not correct.
    Operation Greens seeks to stabilize the supply of Tomato, Onion and Potato (TOP) crops and to ensure availability of TOP crops throughout the country round the year without price volatility. The scheme was extended during June 2020 to cover all fruits & vegetables (TOTAL) for a period of six months on a pilot basis as part of Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. So, statement 2 is correct.
    The crop-wise/state-wise specific funds are not earmarked under the scheme as the scheme is demand-driven and projects are sanctioned in the identified production clusters on the basis of the applications received from investors against Expression of Interest (EOI) issued from time to time. So, statement 3 is not correct.
52. Question 52 of 100

    52. Question

    In the history of Indian freedom struggle the day 7th August 1905 is well-known for?
    (A) The passage of Indian Universities Act.
    (B) The split between the moderates and extremists within the Congress.
    (C) The announcement of the partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon.
    (D) The Swadeshi movement was launched from Calcutta Town Hall

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Partition of Bengal was announced by Lord Curzon in July 1905. Hence option (C) is not correct. Partition came into effect on 16th October 1905. The partition proposals had come onto the public domain as early as 1903. Therefore, since 1903, there was prepared the ground for the launch of the Swadeshi Movement.
    The formal proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement was made on August 7, 1905, in a massive meeting in the Calcutta Townhall. The movement involved the revival of domestic products and production processes. Apart from this at the meeting Boycott Resolution was also passed. With this formal proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement was made on this day. Hence option (D) is correct.
    With an idea to bring the Universities under control, which he felt had become hotbeds of revolutionary activities. Lord Curzon appointed Raleigh Commission under Sir Thomas Raleigh. This commission submitted its report in 1902 and this followed the introduction of a Bill called Raleigh Bill. The Raleigh Bill when became an act, it was called the Indian Universities Act 1904. Hence option (A) is not correct.
    The Act increased the Government's control over the universities.
    It could veto the regulations passed by the Senate of the University.
    It allowed the Government to appoint a majority of the fellows in a university.
    The Governor-General was now empowered to decide a University's territorial limits.
    Also, it increased University control over private colleges by laying down stricter conditions for affiliation and periodical inspection. Here also, the government approval was necessary for grant of affiliation and disaffiliation of colleges.
    The Extremists wanted the 1907 session to be held in Nagpur (Central Provinces) with Tilak or Lajpat Rai as the president and reiteration of the swadeshi, boycott, and national education resolutions.
    The Moderates wanted the session at Surat in order to exclude Tilak from the presidency since a leader from the host province could not be session president (Surat being in Tilak's home province of Bombay).
    Instead, they wanted Rashbehari Ghosh as the president and sought to drop the resolutions on the swadeshi, boycott and national education. Both sides adopted rigid positions, leaving no room for compromise. The split became inevitable in 1907, and the Congress was now dominated by the Moderates who lost no time in reiterating Congress' commitment to the goal of self- government within the British Empire and to constitutional methods only to achieve this goal. Hence option (B) is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Partition of Bengal was announced by Lord Curzon in July 1905. Hence option (C) is not correct. Partition came into effect on 16th October 1905. The partition proposals had come onto the public domain as early as 1903. Therefore, since 1903, there was prepared the ground for the launch of the Swadeshi Movement.
    The formal proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement was made on August 7, 1905, in a massive meeting in the Calcutta Townhall. The movement involved the revival of domestic products and production processes. Apart from this at the meeting Boycott Resolution was also passed. With this formal proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement was made on this day. Hence option (D) is correct.
    With an idea to bring the Universities under control, which he felt had become hotbeds of revolutionary activities. Lord Curzon appointed Raleigh Commission under Sir Thomas Raleigh. This commission submitted its report in 1902 and this followed the introduction of a Bill called Raleigh Bill. The Raleigh Bill when became an act, it was called the Indian Universities Act 1904. Hence option (A) is not correct.
    The Act increased the Government's control over the universities.
    It could veto the regulations passed by the Senate of the University.
    It allowed the Government to appoint a majority of the fellows in a university.
    The Governor-General was now empowered to decide a University's territorial limits.
    Also, it increased University control over private colleges by laying down stricter conditions for affiliation and periodical inspection. Here also, the government approval was necessary for grant of affiliation and disaffiliation of colleges.
    The Extremists wanted the 1907 session to be held in Nagpur (Central Provinces) with Tilak or Lajpat Rai as the president and reiteration of the swadeshi, boycott, and national education resolutions.
    The Moderates wanted the session at Surat in order to exclude Tilak from the presidency since a leader from the host province could not be session president (Surat being in Tilak's home province of Bombay).
    Instead, they wanted Rashbehari Ghosh as the president and sought to drop the resolutions on the swadeshi, boycott and national education. Both sides adopted rigid positions, leaving no room for compromise. The split became inevitable in 1907, and the Congress was now dominated by the Moderates who lost no time in reiterating Congress' commitment to the goal of self- government within the British Empire and to constitutional methods only to achieve this goal. Hence option (B) is not correct.
53. Question 53 of 100

    53. Question

    Methane is a strong greenhouse gas with a global warming potential. How many of the following is/are the sources of methane emission?
    (1) Paddy rice fields
    (2) Livestock production systems
    (3) Soil with high concentration of Methanotrophic bacteria
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Methane (CH4) is the second most important greenhouse gas. Methane is more potent than CO2 because the radiative forcing produced per molecule is greater. However, CH4 exists in far lowerconcentrations than CO2 in the atmosphere.
    • Natural sources of methane include
    o Tropical and northern wetlands,
    o Methane oxidizing bacteria that feed on organic material consumed by termites, volcanoes,
    o Seepage vents of the seafloor in regions rich with organic sediment
    o Methane hydrates trapped along the continental shelves of the oceans.
    o Paddy rice fields
    o Emission from livestock production systems (including intrinsic fermentation and animal waste)
    o Biomass burning (including forest fires, charcoal combustion, and firewood burning)
    o The primary natural sink for methane is the atmosphere itself, as methane reacts readily with the hydroxyl radical (OH−) within the troposphere to form CO2 and water vapour (H2O). When CH4 reaches the stratosphere, it is destroyed. Another natural sink is soil, where methane is oxidized by methanotrophic bacteria. Hence soil with high concentration of Methanotrophic bacteria act as a sink of methane.
    Hence, options 1 and 2 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Methane (CH4) is the second most important greenhouse gas. Methane is more potent than CO2 because the radiative forcing produced per molecule is greater. However, CH4 exists in far lowerconcentrations than CO2 in the atmosphere.
    • Natural sources of methane include
    o Tropical and northern wetlands,
    o Methane oxidizing bacteria that feed on organic material consumed by termites, volcanoes,
    o Seepage vents of the seafloor in regions rich with organic sediment
    o Methane hydrates trapped along the continental shelves of the oceans.
    o Paddy rice fields
    o Emission from livestock production systems (including intrinsic fermentation and animal waste)
    o Biomass burning (including forest fires, charcoal combustion, and firewood burning)
    o The primary natural sink for methane is the atmosphere itself, as methane reacts readily with the hydroxyl radical (OH−) within the troposphere to form CO2 and water vapour (H2O). When CH4 reaches the stratosphere, it is destroyed. Another natural sink is soil, where methane is oxidized by methanotrophic bacteria. Hence soil with high concentration of Methanotrophic bacteria act as a sink of methane.
    Hence, options 1 and 2 are correct.
54. Question 54 of 100

    54. Question

    How many of the following gases is/are well known Green House Gases?
    (1) Water Vapor
    (2) Surface Level Ozone
    (3) Nitrous oxides
    (4) Carbon Monoxide
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Kyoto protocol included six greenhouse gases which include carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane, Nitrous oxide, Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC), Perfluorocarbons (PF(C) and Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6). Water Vapor, Surface Level Ozone, Nitrous oxides are also potent GHGs. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
    Carbon monoxide is not considered a primary (or significant) greenhouse gas due to the weak (but nonzero) absorption of energy in the infrared. However, it does increase global warming by reacting withcertain chemical species in the atmosphere which in turn leads to an increase in the concentration of primary greenhouse gasses, most notably methane and ozone. Hence, option 4 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    The Kyoto protocol included six greenhouse gases which include carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane, Nitrous oxide, Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC), Perfluorocarbons (PF(C) and Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6). Water Vapor, Surface Level Ozone, Nitrous oxides are also potent GHGs. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
    Carbon monoxide is not considered a primary (or significant) greenhouse gas due to the weak (but nonzero) absorption of energy in the infrared. However, it does increase global warming by reacting withcertain chemical species in the atmosphere which in turn leads to an increase in the concentration of primary greenhouse gasses, most notably methane and ozone. Hence, option 4 is not correct.
55. Question 55 of 100

    55. Question

    With reference to the Mahua Tree, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is native to the evergreen forests of South Asia.
    (2) It requires sandy-loamy soil with good drainage for its growth.
    (3) It grows well where annual rainfall is between 500 mm to 1500 mm.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Around 120 tribal women members of the Odisha state’s Van Dhan Vikas Kendras prepare laddus, cakes, jam, toffees, pickles, squash, pakodas and biscuits using dry mahua flowers and supply them in the local market.
    Key Facts about Mahua Tree:
    It is mainly cultivated or harvested in the wild in South Asia countries for its edible flowers and oil seeds.
    It is commonly known as madhūka, madkam, mahuwa, Butter Tree, mahua, mahwa, mohulo, Iluppai , Mee or vippa chettu.
    It is a frost-resistant species that can grow in marginal areas of dry tropical and subtropical forests up to an altitude of 1200-1800 m.
    It can be found scattered in pastures, in crop fields in central India, and on river banks in semi-evergreen forests.
    It grows well where annual rainfall is between 500 mm to 1500 mm, and where temperatures are in the range of 2-46°C.
    It requires loamy or sandy-loam soils with good drainage and also occurs on shallow stony, clayey and calcareous soils.
    Hence, only statement 1 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Around 120 tribal women members of the Odisha state’s Van Dhan Vikas Kendras prepare laddus, cakes, jam, toffees, pickles, squash, pakodas and biscuits using dry mahua flowers and supply them in the local market.
    Key Facts about Mahua Tree:
    It is mainly cultivated or harvested in the wild in South Asia countries for its edible flowers and oil seeds.
    It is commonly known as madhūka, madkam, mahuwa, Butter Tree, mahua, mahwa, mohulo, Iluppai , Mee or vippa chettu.
    It is a frost-resistant species that can grow in marginal areas of dry tropical and subtropical forests up to an altitude of 1200-1800 m.
    It can be found scattered in pastures, in crop fields in central India, and on river banks in semi-evergreen forests.
    It grows well where annual rainfall is between 500 mm to 1500 mm, and where temperatures are in the range of 2-46°C.
    It requires loamy or sandy-loam soils with good drainage and also occurs on shallow stony, clayey and calcareous soils.
    Hence, only statement 1 is incorrect.
56. Question 56 of 100

    56. Question

    Dutt-Bradley thesis emphasized the great role of the Indian National Congress in realizing the anti-imperialist people’s front. It was associated with which one of the following political parties?
    (A) Communist Party of India
    (B) Hindu Mahasabha
    (C) Swaraj Party
    (D) Congress Socialist Party

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    In 1935 the Communist Party was reorganized under the leadership of P.C. Joshi. Faced with the threat of fascism the Seventh Congress of the Communist International, meeting at Moscow in August 1935, radically changed its earlier position and advocated the formation of a united front with socialists and other anti-fascists in the capitalist countries and with bourgeois-led nationalist movements in colonial countries.
    The Indian Communists were to once again participate in the activities of the mainstream of the national movement led by the National Congress. The theoretical and political basis for the change in communist politics in India was laid in early 1936 by a document popularly known as the DuttBradley Thesis.
    According to this thesis, the National Congress could play ‘a great part and a foremost part in the work of realizing the anti-imperialist people’s front.

    Unattempted
    

    In 1935 the Communist Party was reorganized under the leadership of P.C. Joshi. Faced with the threat of fascism the Seventh Congress of the Communist International, meeting at Moscow in August 1935, radically changed its earlier position and advocated the formation of a united front with socialists and other anti-fascists in the capitalist countries and with bourgeois-led nationalist movements in colonial countries.
    The Indian Communists were to once again participate in the activities of the mainstream of the national movement led by the National Congress. The theoretical and political basis for the change in communist politics in India was laid in early 1936 by a document popularly known as the DuttBradley Thesis.
    According to this thesis, the National Congress could play ‘a great part and a foremost part in the work of realizing the anti-imperialist people’s front.
57. Question 57 of 100

    57. Question

    Which one of the following committees was appointed to prepare a concept paper on Revitalization of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development?
    (A) L M Singhvi Committee
    (B) G.V.K. Rao Committee
    (C) Ashok Mehta Committee
    (D) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Option A is correct. In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L.M. Singhvi.
    Option B is incorrect. The Committee to review the existing Administrative Arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes under the chairmanship of G.V.K. Rao was appointed by the Planning Commission in 1985. The Committee came to conclusion that the developmental process was gradually bureaucratised and divorced from the Panchayati Raj.
    Option C is incorrect. In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a committee on panchayati raj institutions under the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. It submitted its report in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to revive and strengthen the declining panchayati raj system in the country.
    Option D is incorrect. In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralization’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

    Unattempted
    

    Option A is correct. In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L.M. Singhvi.
    Option B is incorrect. The Committee to review the existing Administrative Arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes under the chairmanship of G.V.K. Rao was appointed by the Planning Commission in 1985. The Committee came to conclusion that the developmental process was gradually bureaucratised and divorced from the Panchayati Raj.
    Option C is incorrect. In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a committee on panchayati raj institutions under the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. It submitted its report in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to revive and strengthen the declining panchayati raj system in the country.
    Option D is incorrect. In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralization’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
58. Question 58 of 100

    58. Question

    With reference to the office of the whip, consider the following statements:
    (1) Although the office of the whip is not a constitutional post, it is mentioned in the rules of the house.
    (2) Every major political party, whether ruling or opposition, has its own whip in Parliament.
    (3) The whip acts as the floor leader for the political party.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The office of Whip is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Every major political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader (not floor leader). The floor leader is the leader of the political party. Hence, statement 2 is correct and 3 is not correct.
    The whip is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his party members in large numbers and securing their support in favour of or against a particular issue. He regulates and monitors their behaviour in Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken.

    Unattempted
    

    The office of Whip is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Every major political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader (not floor leader). The floor leader is the leader of the political party. Hence, statement 2 is correct and 3 is not correct.
    The whip is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his party members in large numbers and securing their support in favour of or against a particular issue. He regulates and monitors their behaviour in Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken.
59. Question 59 of 100

    59. Question

    In the context of cultural history of India, Saptamatrikas refers to a group of seven:
    (A) female poets in the court of Vijaynagara Kings.
    (B) gods, each of whom represents an element of nature.
    (C) mother-goddesses, each of whom is the female counterpart of a god.
    (D) council of ministers in charge of various departments during the reign of Chola dynasty

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Saptamatrika refers to a group of seven mother-goddesses, each of whom is the shakti, or female counterpart, of a god. Hence option (C) is the correct answer.
    They are Brahmani (wife of Brahma), Maheshvari (wife of Shiva), Kaumari (wife of Kumara), Vaishnavi (wife of Vishnu), Varahi (wife of Varaha, or the boar, an avatar [incarnation] of Vishnu), Indrani (wife ofIndra), and Chamunda, or Yami (wife of Yama). One text, the Varaha-purana, states that they number eight, including Yogeshvari, created out of the flame from Shiva’s mouth.

    Unattempted
    

    Saptamatrika refers to a group of seven mother-goddesses, each of whom is the shakti, or female counterpart, of a god. Hence option (C) is the correct answer.
    They are Brahmani (wife of Brahma), Maheshvari (wife of Shiva), Kaumari (wife of Kumara), Vaishnavi (wife of Vishnu), Varahi (wife of Varaha, or the boar, an avatar [incarnation] of Vishnu), Indrani (wife ofIndra), and Chamunda, or Yami (wife of Yama). One text, the Varaha-purana, states that they number eight, including Yogeshvari, created out of the flame from Shiva’s mouth.
60. Question 60 of 100

    60. Question

    With respect to the Ajivika Sect, consider the following statements :
    (1) Its central idea was that human efforts play an important role in determining his own karma and ultimately his own destiny.
    (2) It was founded by the Makkhali Gosala.
    (3) Barabar caves that belonged to Ajivika sects are a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: A central Ajivika idea was that of niyati (fate), the principle that ultimately determined and controlled everything. The human effort was of no consequence in this strictly deterministic doctrine. Ajivikas were described as fatalists, they believed that there was no free will and everything that has happened, is happening and will happen is entirely preordained and nothing couldchange it.
    Karma and transmigration existed, but human effort played no role in it, as the paths for souls over thousands of years had already been mapped out.
    Statement 2 is correct: Ajivika was a religious order or a heterodox sect in the time of Buddha founded by the Makkhali Gosala, a senior contemporary of Buddha and Mahavira. Ajivikas were one of theNastika Darsana or Heterodox Philosophies as they did not believe in the Vedas.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The rock-cut cave carved at Barabar hills near Gaya in Bihar is known as the Lomas Rishi cave. Barabar caves are a set of 7 rock-cut-caves dating back to the third century BC. The facade of the cave is decorated with the semicircular chaitya arch as the entrance. The elephant frieze carved in high relief on the chaitya arch shows considerable movement. The interior hall of this cave is rectangular with a circular chamber at the back. The entrance is located on the sidewall of the hall.
    Mauryan king Ashoka and his grandson Dashratha donated the Barabar caves to Ajivika sect monks. The inscription in the Sudama cave informs that the four caves on Barabar hill were assigned by King Ashokato Ajivika monks in 261 BC. Another inscription on the Nagarjuni hill is of the grandson of King Ashoka, Dasaratha Maurya, which tells that the Ajivikas continued to enjoy imperial Mauryan patronage for long. The caves are not a world heritage site.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is not correct: A central Ajivika idea was that of niyati (fate), the principle that ultimately determined and controlled everything. The human effort was of no consequence in this strictly deterministic doctrine. Ajivikas were described as fatalists, they believed that there was no free will and everything that has happened, is happening and will happen is entirely preordained and nothing couldchange it.
    Karma and transmigration existed, but human effort played no role in it, as the paths for souls over thousands of years had already been mapped out.
    Statement 2 is correct: Ajivika was a religious order or a heterodox sect in the time of Buddha founded by the Makkhali Gosala, a senior contemporary of Buddha and Mahavira. Ajivikas were one of theNastika Darsana or Heterodox Philosophies as they did not believe in the Vedas.
    Statement 3 is not correct: The rock-cut cave carved at Barabar hills near Gaya in Bihar is known as the Lomas Rishi cave. Barabar caves are a set of 7 rock-cut-caves dating back to the third century BC. The facade of the cave is decorated with the semicircular chaitya arch as the entrance. The elephant frieze carved in high relief on the chaitya arch shows considerable movement. The interior hall of this cave is rectangular with a circular chamber at the back. The entrance is located on the sidewall of the hall.
    Mauryan king Ashoka and his grandson Dashratha donated the Barabar caves to Ajivika sect monks. The inscription in the Sudama cave informs that the four caves on Barabar hill were assigned by King Ashokato Ajivika monks in 261 BC. Another inscription on the Nagarjuni hill is of the grandson of King Ashoka, Dasaratha Maurya, which tells that the Ajivikas continued to enjoy imperial Mauryan patronage for long. The caves are not a world heritage site.
61. Question 61 of 100

    61. Question

    The terms Toomba, Tarab and Tabli are associated with which type of musical instruments?
    (A) Solid instruments
    (B) Percussion instruments
    (C) Wind instruments
    (D) String instruments

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Toomba, Tarab and Tabli are different parts of a string instrument.
    o Toomba is the resonator of most stringed instruments. It is either made of wood or from a specially grown gourd.
    o Tabli is a plate of wood over the Toomba. The resonator is attached to the fingerboard-the Danda at the top end of which are inserted the pegs-the Khoontis, for tuning the instrument.
    o Tarab – On the Tabli there is a bridge made of ivory or bone. The main strings pass over the bridge, some instruments also have a number of sympathetic strings below the main strings. They are called the Tarab. When these strings vibrate, they add resonance to the sound.

    Unattempted
    

    Toomba, Tarab and Tabli are different parts of a string instrument.
    o Toomba is the resonator of most stringed instruments. It is either made of wood or from a specially grown gourd.
    o Tabli is a plate of wood over the Toomba. The resonator is attached to the fingerboard-the Danda at the top end of which are inserted the pegs-the Khoontis, for tuning the instrument.
    o Tarab – On the Tabli there is a bridge made of ivory or bone. The main strings pass over the bridge, some instruments also have a number of sympathetic strings below the main strings. They are called the Tarab. When these strings vibrate, they add resonance to the sound.
62. Question 62 of 100

    62. Question

    Consider the following pairs :
    Hydropower Project : River
    (1) Bhakra Dam : Sutlej
    (2) Idukki Dam : Cauveri
    (3) Srisailam Dam : Godavari
    (4) Salal Dam : Chenab
    How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Sutlej River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    o It forms the Gobind Sagar reservoir.
    o In terms of quantity of water, it is one of the largest reservoirs in India along with Indira Sagar dam, Nagarjunasagar Dam etc.
    o Nangal Dam is another dam in Punjab downstream of Bhakra Dam. However, sometimes both the dams together are called Bhakra-Nangal Dam though they are two separate dams.
    • Salal Dam is a run-of-the-river hydropower project on the Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
    o It was the first hydropower project built by India in Jammu and Kashmir under the Indus Water Treaty regime.
    o After having reached a bilateral agreement with Pakistan in 1978, India completed the project in 1987.
    • Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River in Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
    o It is the second largest capacity working hydroelectric station in the country.
    o It was constructed in a deep gorge in the Nallamala Hills.
    • Idukki Dam is constructed across the Periyar River in a narrow gorge between two granite hills locally known as Kuravan and Kurathi in Kerala. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
    o It is one of the highest arch dams in Asia.
    o This dam was constructed along with two other dams at Cheruthoni and Kulamavu. Together, the three dams have created an artificial lake.

    Unattempted
    

    Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Sutlej River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    o It forms the Gobind Sagar reservoir.
    o In terms of quantity of water, it is one of the largest reservoirs in India along with Indira Sagar dam, Nagarjunasagar Dam etc.
    o Nangal Dam is another dam in Punjab downstream of Bhakra Dam. However, sometimes both the dams together are called Bhakra-Nangal Dam though they are two separate dams.
    • Salal Dam is a run-of-the-river hydropower project on the Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
    o It was the first hydropower project built by India in Jammu and Kashmir under the Indus Water Treaty regime.
    o After having reached a bilateral agreement with Pakistan in 1978, India completed the project in 1987.
    • Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River in Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
    o It is the second largest capacity working hydroelectric station in the country.
    o It was constructed in a deep gorge in the Nallamala Hills.
    • Idukki Dam is constructed across the Periyar River in a narrow gorge between two granite hills locally known as Kuravan and Kurathi in Kerala. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
    o It is one of the highest arch dams in Asia.
    o This dam was constructed along with two other dams at Cheruthoni and Kulamavu. Together, the three dams have created an artificial lake.
63. Question 63 of 100

    63. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the mineral 'Manganese' in India:
    (1) It is mainly found in the Vindhyan geological rock system.
    (2) Odisha is the state with the highest reservoirs in India.
    (3) High content of phosphorous in Indian manganese makes it suitable for metallurgical purposes.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Manganese is an important raw material for the smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferroalloys. Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with the Dharwar system. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    (Odisha has the largest reserves of Manganese) State-wise, Odisha tops the total reserves/resources with 44% share followed by Karnataka 22%, Madhya Pradesh 12%, Maharashtra & Goa 7% each, Andhra Pradesh 4% and Jharkhand 2%, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Telangana and West Bengal together shared the remaining about 2% resources. Major mines in Odisha are located in the central part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi and Bolangir. Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurga and Tumakuru. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Maharashtra is also an important producer of manganese, which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri districts. The disadvantage to these mines is that they are located far from steel plants. The manganese belt of Madhya Pradesh extends in a belt in Balaghat-Chhindwara-Nimar-Mandla and Jhabua districts. Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.
    About 90 to 95% of world production of manganese ore is used in the metallurgy of iron and steel. A high amount of phosphorous makes the manganese ore unsuitable for its metallurgical use, whereas, high phosphorous and high iron content makes it unsuitable for the battery industry. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Manganese is an important raw material for the smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferroalloys. Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with the Dharwar system. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    (Odisha has the largest reserves of Manganese) State-wise, Odisha tops the total reserves/resources with 44% share followed by Karnataka 22%, Madhya Pradesh 12%, Maharashtra & Goa 7% each, Andhra Pradesh 4% and Jharkhand 2%, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Telangana and West Bengal together shared the remaining about 2% resources. Major mines in Odisha are located in the central part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi and Bolangir. Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurga and Tumakuru. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Maharashtra is also an important producer of manganese, which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri districts. The disadvantage to these mines is that they are located far from steel plants. The manganese belt of Madhya Pradesh extends in a belt in Balaghat-Chhindwara-Nimar-Mandla and Jhabua districts. Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.
    About 90 to 95% of world production of manganese ore is used in the metallurgy of iron and steel. A high amount of phosphorous makes the manganese ore unsuitable for its metallurgical use, whereas, high phosphorous and high iron content makes it unsuitable for the battery industry. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
64. Question 64 of 100

    64. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding NRI deposits:
    (1) Only foreign currency deposits are allowed for NRI accounts.
    (2) Repatriation of funds is not allowed in any of the NRI accounts in India.
    (3) The NRI accounts are included in India’s external debt outstanding.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Foreign Exchange Management (Deposit) Regulations, 2000 permits Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) to have deposit accounts with banks authorized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The major accounts that can be opened in India by a non-resident includes:
    o Foreign Currency (Non-Resident) Account (Banks) Scheme (FCNR(B) account)
    o Non-Resident (External) Rupee Account Scheme (NRE account)
    o Non-Resident Ordinary Rupee Account Scheme (NRO account)
    • Deposits in NRE account and NRO account can be made in Indian currency. Whereas, deposits in FCNR (B) account can be made in any permitted currency i.e. a foreign currency which is freely convertible. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    • Foreign Currency (Non-Resident) Account (Banks) Scheme: FCNR(B) accounts can be opened by NRIs, PIOs (Person of Indian Origin), and Overseas Corporate Bodies (OCBs). The accounts can be opened in the form of term deposits only and for a period not less than 1 year and not more than 5 years. The rate of interest applicable to these accounts is in accordance with the directives issued by RBI from time to time. Repatriation of funds in FCNR(B) accounts is permitted.
    • Non-Resident (External) Rupee Account Scheme (NRE account): NRE accounts can be opened by NRIs, PIOs, and OCBs with banks authorized by RBI. These can be in the form of savings, current, recurring or fixed deposit accounts. The rate of interest applicable to these accounts is in accordance with the directives issued by RBI from time to time. Repatriation of funds in NRE accounts is permitted. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    • Non-Resident Ordinary Rupee Account Scheme: NRO accounts can be opened by any person resident outside India (Individuals/ entities of Pakistan nationality/ origin and entities of Bangladesh origin require the prior approval of the Reserve Bank of Indi(A) with an authorized bank for collecting their funds from local bonafide transactions in Indian Rupees. When a resident becomes an NRI, his existing Rupee accounts are designated as NRO. These accounts can be in the form of current, savings, recurring or fixed deposit accounts. While the principal of NRO deposits is non-repatriable, current income and interestearnings are repatriable. Balances in an NRO account of NRIs/ PIOs are remittable up to USD 1 (one) million per financial year (April-March) along with their other eligible assets.
    • Repatriation of funds in FCNR(B) and NRE accounts is permitted. Hence, deposits in these accounts are included in India’s external debt outstanding. While the principal of NRO deposits is non-repatriable, current income and interest-earnings are repatriable. Therefore, deposits in NRO accounts are also included in India’s external debt outstanding. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Foreign Exchange Management (Deposit) Regulations, 2000 permits Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) to have deposit accounts with banks authorized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The major accounts that can be opened in India by a non-resident includes:
    o Foreign Currency (Non-Resident) Account (Banks) Scheme (FCNR(B) account)
    o Non-Resident (External) Rupee Account Scheme (NRE account)
    o Non-Resident Ordinary Rupee Account Scheme (NRO account)
    • Deposits in NRE account and NRO account can be made in Indian currency. Whereas, deposits in FCNR (B) account can be made in any permitted currency i.e. a foreign currency which is freely convertible. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    • Foreign Currency (Non-Resident) Account (Banks) Scheme: FCNR(B) accounts can be opened by NRIs, PIOs (Person of Indian Origin), and Overseas Corporate Bodies (OCBs). The accounts can be opened in the form of term deposits only and for a period not less than 1 year and not more than 5 years. The rate of interest applicable to these accounts is in accordance with the directives issued by RBI from time to time. Repatriation of funds in FCNR(B) accounts is permitted.
    • Non-Resident (External) Rupee Account Scheme (NRE account): NRE accounts can be opened by NRIs, PIOs, and OCBs with banks authorized by RBI. These can be in the form of savings, current, recurring or fixed deposit accounts. The rate of interest applicable to these accounts is in accordance with the directives issued by RBI from time to time. Repatriation of funds in NRE accounts is permitted. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    • Non-Resident Ordinary Rupee Account Scheme: NRO accounts can be opened by any person resident outside India (Individuals/ entities of Pakistan nationality/ origin and entities of Bangladesh origin require the prior approval of the Reserve Bank of Indi(A) with an authorized bank for collecting their funds from local bonafide transactions in Indian Rupees. When a resident becomes an NRI, his existing Rupee accounts are designated as NRO. These accounts can be in the form of current, savings, recurring or fixed deposit accounts. While the principal of NRO deposits is non-repatriable, current income and interestearnings are repatriable. Balances in an NRO account of NRIs/ PIOs are remittable up to USD 1 (one) million per financial year (April-March) along with their other eligible assets.
    • Repatriation of funds in FCNR(B) and NRE accounts is permitted. Hence, deposits in these accounts are included in India’s external debt outstanding. While the principal of NRO deposits is non-repatriable, current income and interest-earnings are repatriable. Therefore, deposits in NRO accounts are also included in India’s external debt outstanding. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
65. Question 65 of 100

    65. Question

    Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Grant?
    (A) It is a way of providing grants to states for development related projects and schemes.
    (B) These are provided to all states to meet their revenue deficits
    (C) It is provided to those states which incurred losses on account of better performance in population control measures.
    (D) These are released in monthly instalments as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Grants are provided to the States under Article 275 of the Constitution.
    Statement A is incorrect. Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Grants are not provided for development related projects and schemes. These are provided to states to meet the gap in Revenue Accounts of the states post devolution.
    Statement B is incorrect. The Finance Commission decides the state’s eligibility to receive this grants. This is based on the gap between assessment of revenue and expenditure of the State after taking into account the assessed devolution for the current financial year. So, it is not provided to all states.
    Statement C is incorrect. The eligibility of States to receive this grant and the quantum of grant was decided by the Commission based on the gap between assessment of revenue and expenditure of the State after taking into account the assessed devolution.
    Statement D is correct. The grants are released in monthly instalments as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission to meet the gap in Revenue Accounts of the States post devolution

    Unattempted
    

    The Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Grants are provided to the States under Article 275 of the Constitution.
    Statement A is incorrect. Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Grants are not provided for development related projects and schemes. These are provided to states to meet the gap in Revenue Accounts of the states post devolution.
    Statement B is incorrect. The Finance Commission decides the state’s eligibility to receive this grants. This is based on the gap between assessment of revenue and expenditure of the State after taking into account the assessed devolution for the current financial year. So, it is not provided to all states.
    Statement C is incorrect. The eligibility of States to receive this grant and the quantum of grant was decided by the Commission based on the gap between assessment of revenue and expenditure of the State after taking into account the assessed devolution.
    Statement D is correct. The grants are released in monthly instalments as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission to meet the gap in Revenue Accounts of the States post devolution
66. Question 66 of 100

    66. Question

    With reference to the Financial Services Institution Bureau, consider the following statements:
    (1) It is set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFI).
    (2) It is entrusted with making recommendations for the appointment of full-time directors of state-run financial services institutions.
    (3) It replaced the Bank Board’s Bureau (BBB), which was declared an incompetent authority.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, the Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB) has selected new chiefs for the General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re) and National Insurance Company (NIC).
    It’s a government body set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFI) by replacing the Bank Board’s Bureau (BBB).
    Structure:
    It is headed by a chairman who is nominated by the central government.
    The board would comprise the Secretaries of the DFS, the chairman of IRDAI, and a deputy governor of the RBI.
    Additionally, it will have three part-time members who are experts in banking and three more from the insurance sector.
    The Primary role of FSIB:
    To identify manpower capabilities and ensure proper selection of talent for senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government.
    It is entrusted with making recommendations for the appointment of full-time directors and non-executive chairmen of state-run financial services institutions.
    The final decision on the FSIB recommendation would be taken by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister.
    It would also issue guidelines for selecting general managers and directors of public sector general insurance companies
    Hence, all statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, the Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB) has selected new chiefs for the General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re) and National Insurance Company (NIC).
    It’s a government body set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFI) by replacing the Bank Board’s Bureau (BBB).
    Structure:
    It is headed by a chairman who is nominated by the central government.
    The board would comprise the Secretaries of the DFS, the chairman of IRDAI, and a deputy governor of the RBI.
    Additionally, it will have three part-time members who are experts in banking and three more from the insurance sector.
    The Primary role of FSIB:
    To identify manpower capabilities and ensure proper selection of talent for senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government.
    It is entrusted with making recommendations for the appointment of full-time directors and non-executive chairmen of state-run financial services institutions.
    The final decision on the FSIB recommendation would be taken by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister.
    It would also issue guidelines for selecting general managers and directors of public sector general insurance companies
    Hence, all statements are correct.
67. Question 67 of 100

    67. Question

    In the context of ecology, the presence of 'Species evenness' indicates how many of the following ?
    (1) The variation in genes within a particular species.
    (2) The variety of living organisms on earth.
    (3) The measure of number of species found in a community.
    (4) The measure of proportion of species at a given site.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Species evenness is how evenly spread the population is across the species in an area. If you have 100 elephants and 105 lions, the population has high evenness but if you have 200 elephants and 5 lions, even the number of animals is the same, the population is not very even so here there is species unevenness. Hence, only option 4 is correct.
    The variation in genes within a particular species is genetic variation. The variety of living organisms on earth is biodiversity.
    Species diversity is a measure of community complexity, it is a function of both the number of different species in the community (species richness) and their relative abundance(species evenness).

    Unattempted
    

    Species evenness is how evenly spread the population is across the species in an area. If you have 100 elephants and 105 lions, the population has high evenness but if you have 200 elephants and 5 lions, even the number of animals is the same, the population is not very even so here there is species unevenness. Hence, only option 4 is correct.
    The variation in genes within a particular species is genetic variation. The variety of living organisms on earth is biodiversity.
    Species diversity is a measure of community complexity, it is a function of both the number of different species in the community (species richness) and their relative abundance(species evenness).
68. Question 68 of 100

    68. Question

    With reference to migration, how many of the following can be considered as the push factors?
    (1) Political turmoil
    (2) Peace and stability
    (3) Better living conditions
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    When people move from one place to another, the place they move from is called the Place of Origin and the place they move to is called the Place of Destination. The place of origin shows a decrease in population while the population increases in the place of destination.
    Migration may be interpreted as a spontaneous effort to achieve a better balance between population and resources. Migration may be permanent, temporary or seasonal. It may take place from rural to rural areas, rural to urban areas, urban to urban areas and urban to rural areas.
    o Immigration: Migrants who move into a new place are called Immigrants.
    o Emigration: Migrants who move out of a place are called Emigrants.
    People migrate for better economic and social life. There are two sets of factors that influence migration.
    o The Push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive for reasons like unemployment, poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, natural disasters, epidemics and socioeconomic backwardness. Hence, only option 1 is correct.
    o The Pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin for reasons like better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, the security of life and property and pleasant climate.

    Unattempted
    

    When people move from one place to another, the place they move from is called the Place of Origin and the place they move to is called the Place of Destination. The place of origin shows a decrease in population while the population increases in the place of destination.
    Migration may be interpreted as a spontaneous effort to achieve a better balance between population and resources. Migration may be permanent, temporary or seasonal. It may take place from rural to rural areas, rural to urban areas, urban to urban areas and urban to rural areas.
    o Immigration: Migrants who move into a new place are called Immigrants.
    o Emigration: Migrants who move out of a place are called Emigrants.
    People migrate for better economic and social life. There are two sets of factors that influence migration.
    o The Push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive for reasons like unemployment, poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, natural disasters, epidemics and socioeconomic backwardness. Hence, only option 1 is correct.
    o The Pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin for reasons like better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, the security of life and property and pleasant climate.
69. Question 69 of 100

    69. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Nord Stream 2:
    (1) Nord Stream 2 is a cold water current which causes a desiccating effect on the eastern side of Europe.
    (2) It passes through the Baltic sea.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Nord Stream 2 is a 1,200km-long offshore natural gas pipeline being constructed to connect Europe to the world’s largest reserves in Northern Russia. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Nord Stream 2 will follow the route laid down by the Nord Stream pipeline and run through the Baltic Sea from the St Petersburg region (Russi(A) to Baltic Coast in north-east Germany. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Nord Stream 2 is a 1,200km-long offshore natural gas pipeline being constructed to connect Europe to the world’s largest reserves in Northern Russia. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    Nord Stream 2 will follow the route laid down by the Nord Stream pipeline and run through the Baltic Sea from the St Petersburg region (Russi(A) to Baltic Coast in north-east Germany. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
70. Question 70 of 100

    70. Question

    How many of the following is/are centres for Iron and Steel industries ?
    (1) Ruhr region of Germany
    (2) Mesabi Region of North America
    (3) Manchuria region of China
    (4) Ural region of Europe
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The iron and steel industry forms the base of all other industries and, therefore, it is called a basic industry. It is basic because it provides the raw material for other industries such as machine tools used for further production. It may also be called a heavy industry because it uses large quantities of bulky raw materials and its products are also heavy.
    Distribution: The industry is one of the most complex and capital-intensive industries and is concentrated in the advanced countries of North America, Europe and Asia.
    In the U.S.A, most of the production comes from the northern Appalachian region (Pittsburgh), Great Lake region (Chicago-Gary, Erie, Cleveland, Lorain, Buffalo and Duluth) Mesabi Range, largest ofthree iron ranges in northern Minnesota, and the Atlantic Coast (Sparrows Point and Morrisville).
    The industry also moved towards the southern state of Alabama. Pittsburg area is now losing ground. It has now become the “rust bowl” of U.S.A.
    In Europe, the U.K., Germany, France, Belgium, Luxembourg, the Netherlands and Russia are the leading producers. The important steel centres are Scun Thorpe, Port Talbot, Birmingham and Sheffield in the U.K.; The Ruhr region is responsible for 80 per cent of Germany’s total steel production. Duisburg, Dortmund, Dusseldorf and Essen in Germany; Le Creusot and St. Ettienne in France; and Moscow, St. Petersburgh, Lipetsk, Tula, in Russia and Krivoi Rog, and Donetsk in Ukraine.
    Ural Region: It lies on both sides of the Urals. The major steel centres of this region are – Magnitogorsk, Chelyabinsk, Nizhnitagil, Sverdlovsk, Serov, Perm, Orsk, etc. Magnitogorsk is the largest steel-producing centre of Russia.
    In Asia, the important centres include Nagasaki and Tokyo-Yokohama in Japan; Shanghai, Tientsin, Southern Manchuria (largest steel plant of China at Anshan) and Wuhan in China; and Jamshedpur, Kulti-Burnpur, Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai, Bokaro, Salem, Visakhapatnam and Bhadravati in India.

    Unattempted
    

    The iron and steel industry forms the base of all other industries and, therefore, it is called a basic industry. It is basic because it provides the raw material for other industries such as machine tools used for further production. It may also be called a heavy industry because it uses large quantities of bulky raw materials and its products are also heavy.
    Distribution: The industry is one of the most complex and capital-intensive industries and is concentrated in the advanced countries of North America, Europe and Asia.
    In the U.S.A, most of the production comes from the northern Appalachian region (Pittsburgh), Great Lake region (Chicago-Gary, Erie, Cleveland, Lorain, Buffalo and Duluth) Mesabi Range, largest ofthree iron ranges in northern Minnesota, and the Atlantic Coast (Sparrows Point and Morrisville).
    The industry also moved towards the southern state of Alabama. Pittsburg area is now losing ground. It has now become the “rust bowl” of U.S.A.
    In Europe, the U.K., Germany, France, Belgium, Luxembourg, the Netherlands and Russia are the leading producers. The important steel centres are Scun Thorpe, Port Talbot, Birmingham and Sheffield in the U.K.; The Ruhr region is responsible for 80 per cent of Germany’s total steel production. Duisburg, Dortmund, Dusseldorf and Essen in Germany; Le Creusot and St. Ettienne in France; and Moscow, St. Petersburgh, Lipetsk, Tula, in Russia and Krivoi Rog, and Donetsk in Ukraine.
    Ural Region: It lies on both sides of the Urals. The major steel centres of this region are – Magnitogorsk, Chelyabinsk, Nizhnitagil, Sverdlovsk, Serov, Perm, Orsk, etc. Magnitogorsk is the largest steel-producing centre of Russia.
    In Asia, the important centres include Nagasaki and Tokyo-Yokohama in Japan; Shanghai, Tientsin, Southern Manchuria (largest steel plant of China at Anshan) and Wuhan in China; and Jamshedpur, Kulti-Burnpur, Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai, Bokaro, Salem, Visakhapatnam and Bhadravati in India.
71. Question 71 of 100

    71. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform:
    (1) Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in TReDS.
    (2) Only Government Departments and PSUs can participate as buyers in TReDS.
    (3) TReDS offers a new avenue for lending with low risk and high returns.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Reserve Bank recently expanded the trade receivables discounting system (TReDS) by permitting insurance companies to function as participants.
    About Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform:
    It is an electronic platform for facilitating the financing/discounting of trade receivables of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) through multiple financiers.
    These receivables can be due from corporates and other buyers, including Government Departments and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
    Purpose: To allow MSME sellers to discount invoices raised against major corporations, which helps them manage their working capital demands. The platform enables MSMEs to receive payments more quickly.
    Participants:
    Sellers, buyers, and financiers are the participants on a TReDS platform.
    Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in TReDS.
    Corporates, Government Departments, PSUs, and any other entity can participate as buyers in TReDS.
    Banks, NBFC – Factors, and other financial institutions, as permitted by the RBI, can participate as financiers in TReDS.
    RBI has not made it compulsory for any buyer, seller, or financier to participate in TReDS.
    The Government has made it compulsory for certain segments of companies to mandatorily register as buyers on the TReDS platform(s).
    The government directive, however, does not make it compulsory for these entities to perform transactions in TReDS.
    TReDS offers a new avenue for lending with low risk and high returns. It also enables them to diversify their portfolio and reach out to a large number of MSMEs.
    How does TReDS work?
    Creation of a Factoring Unit (FU) – standard nomenclature used in TReDS for invoice(s) or bill(s) of exchange – containing details of invoices/bills of exchange.
    Acceptance of the FU by the counterparty – buyer or the seller, as the case may be;
    Bidding by financiers;
    Selection of best bid by the seller or the buyer, as the case may be;
    Payment made by the financier (of the selected bid) to the MSME seller at the agreed rate of financing/discounting;
    Payment by the buyer to the financier on the due date.
    What are Trade receivables?
    Trade receivables are defined as the amount owed to a business by its customers following the sale of goods or services on credit.
    Hence only statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    The Reserve Bank recently expanded the trade receivables discounting system (TReDS) by permitting insurance companies to function as participants.
    About Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform:
    It is an electronic platform for facilitating the financing/discounting of trade receivables of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) through multiple financiers.
    These receivables can be due from corporates and other buyers, including Government Departments and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
    Purpose: To allow MSME sellers to discount invoices raised against major corporations, which helps them manage their working capital demands. The platform enables MSMEs to receive payments more quickly.
    Participants:
    Sellers, buyers, and financiers are the participants on a TReDS platform.
    Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in TReDS.
    Corporates, Government Departments, PSUs, and any other entity can participate as buyers in TReDS.
    Banks, NBFC – Factors, and other financial institutions, as permitted by the RBI, can participate as financiers in TReDS.
    RBI has not made it compulsory for any buyer, seller, or financier to participate in TReDS.
    The Government has made it compulsory for certain segments of companies to mandatorily register as buyers on the TReDS platform(s).
    The government directive, however, does not make it compulsory for these entities to perform transactions in TReDS.
    TReDS offers a new avenue for lending with low risk and high returns. It also enables them to diversify their portfolio and reach out to a large number of MSMEs.
    How does TReDS work?
    Creation of a Factoring Unit (FU) – standard nomenclature used in TReDS for invoice(s) or bill(s) of exchange – containing details of invoices/bills of exchange.
    Acceptance of the FU by the counterparty – buyer or the seller, as the case may be;
    Bidding by financiers;
    Selection of best bid by the seller or the buyer, as the case may be;
    Payment made by the financier (of the selected bid) to the MSME seller at the agreed rate of financing/discounting;
    Payment by the buyer to the financier on the due date.
    What are Trade receivables?
    Trade receivables are defined as the amount owed to a business by its customers following the sale of goods or services on credit.
    Hence only statement 2 is incorrect.
72. Question 72 of 100

    72. Question

    Which of the following correctly describes Sedentary agriculture?
    (A) Renting out of farms by landlords to tenants for crop cultivation.
    (B) Cultivation of only fruits and vegetables to meet the personal needs of farmers and their families on smallholdings.
    (C) Agriculture practice where crops are planted on the same piece of land year after year.
    (D) Rotational farming in which land is cleared for cultivation and then left to regenerate after a few years.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Sedentary agriculture describes an agriculture practice in which the same crops are planted on the same piece of land year after year.
    Sedentary agriculture systems have been practiced since ancient times whereby groups of people and their animals started staying in one location permanently.
    Currently, such a system may include communal pastures where animals graze in proximity distances per day. The pastures are mainly natural rangelands and the cropping areas after harvesting or fallows. Sedentary agriculture is one of the coping strategies to enhance household food security.
    Sedentary agriculture has a great influence on soil quality. The quality of soil gradually deteriorates with time. Hence option (C) is the correct answer.
    Shifting cultivation, also known as Swidden agriculture, refers to a technique of rotational farming in which land is cleared for cultivation (normally by fire) and then left to regenerate after a few years. Governments worldwide have long sought to eradicate swidden agriculture, which is often pejoratively called ‘slash-and-burn’, due to a mistaken belief that it is a driver of deforestation.
    Absentee landlordism refers to a practice where the landowner rents out a profit-earning property but does not live within the property's local economic region.
    Subsistence agriculture occurs when farmers grow food crops to meet the needs of themselves and their families on smallholdings. In subsistence agriculture, farm output is targeted to survival and is mostly for local requirements with little or no surplus.

    Unattempted
    

    Sedentary agriculture describes an agriculture practice in which the same crops are planted on the same piece of land year after year.
    Sedentary agriculture systems have been practiced since ancient times whereby groups of people and their animals started staying in one location permanently.
    Currently, such a system may include communal pastures where animals graze in proximity distances per day. The pastures are mainly natural rangelands and the cropping areas after harvesting or fallows. Sedentary agriculture is one of the coping strategies to enhance household food security.
    Sedentary agriculture has a great influence on soil quality. The quality of soil gradually deteriorates with time. Hence option (C) is the correct answer.
    Shifting cultivation, also known as Swidden agriculture, refers to a technique of rotational farming in which land is cleared for cultivation (normally by fire) and then left to regenerate after a few years. Governments worldwide have long sought to eradicate swidden agriculture, which is often pejoratively called ‘slash-and-burn’, due to a mistaken belief that it is a driver of deforestation.
    Absentee landlordism refers to a practice where the landowner rents out a profit-earning property but does not live within the property's local economic region.
    Subsistence agriculture occurs when farmers grow food crops to meet the needs of themselves and their families on smallholdings. In subsistence agriculture, farm output is targeted to survival and is mostly for local requirements with little or no surplus.
73. Question 73 of 100

    73. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Norovirus:
    (1) It is a common and highly contagious virus that causes nausea, vomiting and diarrhea.
    (2) No vaccines are currently available to prevent norovirus.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Twenty-five crew members and 152 of the 2,144 passengers onboard the 2023 voyage of the Celebrity Summit recently reported norovirus symptoms.
    About Norovirus:
    It is a common and very contagious virus.
    It causes nausea, vomiting and diarrhea.
    It is also sometimes referred to as the ‘stomach flu’ or the ‘ winter vomiting bug’.
    People of all ages can get infected and sick with norovirus , which spreads very easily and quickly.
    You can get norovirus illness many times in your life because there are many different types of noroviruses.
    Transmission:
    They commonly spread through food or water that is contaminated during preparation or through contaminated surfaces.
    Noroviruses can also spread through close contact with a person who has norovirus infection.
    Symptoms:
    The initial symptoms of norovirus are vomiting and/or diarrhoea, which show up one or two days after exposure to the virus.
    Patients also feel nauseous, and suffer from abdominal pain, fever, headaches and body aches.
    In extreme cases, loss of fluids could lead to dehydration.
    Treatment:
    No vaccines are currently available to prevent norovirus. Treatment for the infection focuses on relieving your symptoms.
    It is important to maintain hydration in the acute phase. In extreme cases, patients have to be administered rehydration fluids intravenously.
    Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.

    Unattempted
    

    Twenty-five crew members and 152 of the 2,144 passengers onboard the 2023 voyage of the Celebrity Summit recently reported norovirus symptoms.
    About Norovirus:
    It is a common and very contagious virus.
    It causes nausea, vomiting and diarrhea.
    It is also sometimes referred to as the ‘stomach flu’ or the ‘ winter vomiting bug’.
    People of all ages can get infected and sick with norovirus , which spreads very easily and quickly.
    You can get norovirus illness many times in your life because there are many different types of noroviruses.
    Transmission:
    They commonly spread through food or water that is contaminated during preparation or through contaminated surfaces.
    Noroviruses can also spread through close contact with a person who has norovirus infection.
    Symptoms:
    The initial symptoms of norovirus are vomiting and/or diarrhoea, which show up one or two days after exposure to the virus.
    Patients also feel nauseous, and suffer from abdominal pain, fever, headaches and body aches.
    In extreme cases, loss of fluids could lead to dehydration.
    Treatment:
    No vaccines are currently available to prevent norovirus. Treatment for the infection focuses on relieving your symptoms.
    It is important to maintain hydration in the acute phase. In extreme cases, patients have to be administered rehydration fluids intravenously.
    Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
74. Question 74 of 100

    74. Question

    With reference to the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) lending, consider the following statements:
    (1) It enables individuals to obtain loans directly from other individuals without the involvement of the financial institution.
    (2) The minimum capital required to set up a P2P platform is Rs. 200 Crores.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    After digital payments and digital lending, the Reserve Bank of India is looking closely at platforms that facilitate direct, or peer-to-peer (P2P), lending between individuals.
    It is done through a website that connects borrowers and lenders directly.
    Those who want to lend money, open an account with a P2P platform as a lender. And those who require a loan register themselves as a borrower.
    It enables individuals to obtain loans directly from other individuals, cutting out the financial institution as the middleman.
    In 2017, the Reserve Bank of India brought this service under its regulatory purview.
    Only an NBFC can register as a P2P lender with the permission of RBI.
    Every P2P lender should obtain a certificate of registration from the RBI.
    The minimum capital requirement to set up a P2P platform is fixed at Rs. 2 Crores.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    After digital payments and digital lending, the Reserve Bank of India is looking closely at platforms that facilitate direct, or peer-to-peer (P2P), lending between individuals.
    It is done through a website that connects borrowers and lenders directly.
    Those who want to lend money, open an account with a P2P platform as a lender. And those who require a loan register themselves as a borrower.
    It enables individuals to obtain loans directly from other individuals, cutting out the financial institution as the middleman.
    In 2017, the Reserve Bank of India brought this service under its regulatory purview.
    Only an NBFC can register as a P2P lender with the permission of RBI.
    Every P2P lender should obtain a certificate of registration from the RBI.
    The minimum capital requirement to set up a P2P platform is fixed at Rs. 2 Crores.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.
75. Question 75 of 100

    75. Question

    Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the famous Mughal structure, 'Ibadat khana'?
    (A) It was built during the reign of Mughal emperor Shahjahan.
    (B) The origins of 'Din-i-ilahi' could be traced to Ibadat khana.
    (C) It is a hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions.
    (D) The evidence of this complex is found in the miniature painting of “Akbarnama”.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Ibādat Khāna (House of Worship) was a meeting house built in 1575 CE by the Mughal Emperor Akbar (r. 1556–1605) at Fatehpur Sikri to gather spiritual leaders of different religious grounds soas to conduct a discussion on the teachings of the respective religious leaders. Hence option (A) is not correct.

    the construction of ‘Ibadat Khana’ in 1575, where Muslim scholars would come together to have discussions on Islam to enlightening emperor Akbar. The ‘House of Worship’ soon became a place forarguments, which led to Akbar opening the gates for scholars of other religions, thus making it the first-ever attempt at secularism, also known as ‘Din-i-Ilahi’. Here, the best elements from all religions were encouraged. He encouraged Hindus, Roman Catholics, Zoroastrians, Jains, Buddhists, Sikhs and even atheists to participate. Religious leaders and philosophers from around this diverse empire, as well as those passing through, were invited to Akbar's Thursday evening discussions
    The excavated complex of Ibadat khana at 'Fatehpur Sikri' has been done with the image in a miniature painting of Akbarnama housed at Chester Beatty Library. The painting convinced the excavators about the site is that of Ibadat Khana. This famous Ibadat Khana (at Fatehpur Sikri), a house to hold religious discourses of all faiths was a notable step in this regard. Thus, Akbar himself became the torchbearer for the fundamental unity of various faiths which differed only on the surface.
    About Shahjahan:
    o Shah Jahan (Shahab-ud-din Muhammad Khurram) was one of the most successful emperors of the Mughal Empire. He was the fifth Mughal ruler after Babur, Humayun, Akbar and Jahangir.
    o After winning the war of succession post the demise of his father Jahangir, Shah Jahan successfully ruled the empire for 30 years(1628-1658).
    o He is best known for the construction of the Taj Mahal, which he built in the memory of his beloved wife, Mumtaz Mahal.
    o He is also the founder of Shahjahanabad in Delhi.
    o The exquisite ‘Peacock Throne’, he got built for himself.
    o During his final days, he was held captive by his son Aurangzeb, who went on to succeed him to the throne

    Unattempted
    

    The Ibādat Khāna (House of Worship) was a meeting house built in 1575 CE by the Mughal Emperor Akbar (r. 1556–1605) at Fatehpur Sikri to gather spiritual leaders of different religious grounds soas to conduct a discussion on the teachings of the respective religious leaders. Hence option (A) is not correct.

    the construction of ‘Ibadat Khana’ in 1575, where Muslim scholars would come together to have discussions on Islam to enlightening emperor Akbar. The ‘House of Worship’ soon became a place forarguments, which led to Akbar opening the gates for scholars of other religions, thus making it the first-ever attempt at secularism, also known as ‘Din-i-Ilahi’. Here, the best elements from all religions were encouraged. He encouraged Hindus, Roman Catholics, Zoroastrians, Jains, Buddhists, Sikhs and even atheists to participate. Religious leaders and philosophers from around this diverse empire, as well as those passing through, were invited to Akbar's Thursday evening discussions
    The excavated complex of Ibadat khana at 'Fatehpur Sikri' has been done with the image in a miniature painting of Akbarnama housed at Chester Beatty Library. The painting convinced the excavators about the site is that of Ibadat Khana. This famous Ibadat Khana (at Fatehpur Sikri), a house to hold religious discourses of all faiths was a notable step in this regard. Thus, Akbar himself became the torchbearer for the fundamental unity of various faiths which differed only on the surface.
    About Shahjahan:
    o Shah Jahan (Shahab-ud-din Muhammad Khurram) was one of the most successful emperors of the Mughal Empire. He was the fifth Mughal ruler after Babur, Humayun, Akbar and Jahangir.
    o After winning the war of succession post the demise of his father Jahangir, Shah Jahan successfully ruled the empire for 30 years(1628-1658).
    o He is best known for the construction of the Taj Mahal, which he built in the memory of his beloved wife, Mumtaz Mahal.
    o He is also the founder of Shahjahanabad in Delhi.
    o The exquisite ‘Peacock Throne’, he got built for himself.
    o During his final days, he was held captive by his son Aurangzeb, who went on to succeed him to the throne
76. Question 76 of 100

    76. Question

    Who among the following is not a member of selection committee for appointment of chairperson and members of National Human Rights Commission?
    (A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    (B) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
    (C) Leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament
    (D) Central home minister

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The chairperson and members are appointed by the president on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament and the Central home minister. Further, a sitting judge of the Supreme Court or a sitting chief justice of a high court can be appointed only after consultation with the chief justice of India.

    Unattempted
    

    The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The chairperson and members are appointed by the president on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament and the Central home minister. Further, a sitting judge of the Supreme Court or a sitting chief justice of a high court can be appointed only after consultation with the chief justice of India.
77. Question 77 of 100

    77. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding notified area committee :
    (1) It is established by a notification in the government gazette.
    (2) It may be wholly elected or wholly nominated by the state government or partly elected and partly nominated.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Notified Area Committee
    A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types of areas–a fast developing town due to industrialization, and a town which does not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered important by the state government. Since it is established by a notification in the government gazette, it is called as notified area committee. Though it functions within the framework of the State Municipal Act, only those provisions of the act apply to it which are notified in the government gazette by which it is created. It may also be entrusted to exercise powers under any other act. Its powers are almost equivalent to those of a municipality. But unlike the municipality, it is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government.
    Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a statutory body. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Notified Area Committee
    A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types of areas–a fast developing town due to industrialization, and a town which does not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered important by the state government. Since it is established by a notification in the government gazette, it is called as notified area committee. Though it functions within the framework of the State Municipal Act, only those provisions of the act apply to it which are notified in the government gazette by which it is created. It may also be entrusted to exercise powers under any other act. Its powers are almost equivalent to those of a municipality. But unlike the municipality, it is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government.
    Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a statutory body. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
78. Question 78 of 100

    78. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Double Membership in Houses of Parliament :
    (1) If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he should exercise his option for one, otherwise, both seats become vacant.
    (2) If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.
    (3) If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should exercise his option for one, otherwise, both seats become vacant.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Double Membership
    A person cannot be a member of both Houses of Parliament at the same time. Thus, the Representation of People Act (1951) provides for the following:

    (A) If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve. In default of such intimation, his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant. Hence, only statement 1 is incorrect.
    (B) If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.
    (C) If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise, both seats become vacant.
    Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.

    Unattempted
    

    Double Membership
    A person cannot be a member of both Houses of Parliament at the same time. Thus, the Representation of People Act (1951) provides for the following:

    (A) If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve. In default of such intimation, his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant. Hence, only statement 1 is incorrect.
    (B) If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.
    (C) If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise, both seats become vacant.
    Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
79. Question 79 of 100

    79. Question

    Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve, lies in which state?
    (A) Madhya Pradesh
    (B) Karnataka
    (C) Bihar
    (D) Chhattisgarh

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Villagers recently attacked a team of forest personnel and injured three of them when they arrived to clear encroachments inside the Udanti Sitanadi tiger reserve.
    About Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve:
    Location: It is located in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh.
    Udanti and Sitanadi are two wildlife sanctuaries combined together, covering a total area of 1842.54 kilometre square.
    It was declared a tiger reserve in the year 2008-09.
    The Udanti river flow through the Reserve. There is few perennial springs including the famous Deodhara and Godene falls.
    Topography: The topography of the area is a broken mass of land traversed by innumerable hill ranges intercepted by strips of plains.
    Flora:
    The flora of the tiger reserve contains various types of forest crop mixed with Sal forest.
    Dry Deciduous Forests, Tropical and Sub-Tropical vegetation is also observed here.
    Fauna:
    All the representative faunal species of Central India are found in both the Core areas of UdantiSitanadi Tiger reserve.
    Asiatic Wild Buffalo is the key endangered species found in the Core Area.
    Apart from the tiger other endangered and rare species are Indian Wolf, Leopard, Sloth Bear and Mouse Deer.

    Unattempted
    

    Villagers recently attacked a team of forest personnel and injured three of them when they arrived to clear encroachments inside the Udanti Sitanadi tiger reserve.
    About Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve:
    Location: It is located in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh.
    Udanti and Sitanadi are two wildlife sanctuaries combined together, covering a total area of 1842.54 kilometre square.
    It was declared a tiger reserve in the year 2008-09.
    The Udanti river flow through the Reserve. There is few perennial springs including the famous Deodhara and Godene falls.
    Topography: The topography of the area is a broken mass of land traversed by innumerable hill ranges intercepted by strips of plains.
    Flora:
    The flora of the tiger reserve contains various types of forest crop mixed with Sal forest.
    Dry Deciduous Forests, Tropical and Sub-Tropical vegetation is also observed here.
    Fauna:
    All the representative faunal species of Central India are found in both the Core areas of UdantiSitanadi Tiger reserve.
    Asiatic Wild Buffalo is the key endangered species found in the Core Area.
    Apart from the tiger other endangered and rare species are Indian Wolf, Leopard, Sloth Bear and Mouse Deer.
80. Question 80 of 100

    80. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
    (1) It is a statutory committee under the Ministry of Science and Technology
    (2) It keeps a check on the use, import, and export of genetically modified (GM) organisms and crops.
    (3) It is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Three states, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Telangana, have recently rebuffed a proposal, approved by the Centre’s Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), to test a new kind of transgenic cotton seed.
    About Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
    It is a statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro Organisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
    GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
    It was earlier called Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, which was changed to Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee in the year 2010.
    Functions:
    As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle.
    The committee is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment, including experimental field trials.
    It keeps a check on the use, import, and export of genetically modified (GM) organisms and crops.
    GEAC also has the power to prohibit the manufacture and use of certain recombinants as they are hazardous for commercial use.
    Composition:
    GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
    Presently, it has 24 members and meets every month to review the applications in the areas indicated above.
    The members comprise experts from other ministries as well as institutions such as the ICAR, ICMR, CCMB, and so on.
    Hence, only statement 1 is incorrect.

    Unattempted
    

    Three states, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Telangana, have recently rebuffed a proposal, approved by the Centre’s Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), to test a new kind of transgenic cotton seed.
    About Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
    It is a statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro Organisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
    GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
    It was earlier called Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, which was changed to Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee in the year 2010.
    Functions:
    As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle.
    The committee is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment, including experimental field trials.
    It keeps a check on the use, import, and export of genetically modified (GM) organisms and crops.
    GEAC also has the power to prohibit the manufacture and use of certain recombinants as they are hazardous for commercial use.
    Composition:
    GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
    Presently, it has 24 members and meets every month to review the applications in the areas indicated above.
    The members comprise experts from other ministries as well as institutions such as the ICAR, ICMR, CCMB, and so on.
    Hence, only statement 1 is incorrect.
81. Question 81 of 100

    81. Question

    How many of the following temples is/are found in the Aihole region?
    (1) Ravanphadi cave temple
    (2) Durga temple
    (3) The Lad Khan temple
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Aihole also referred to as Aivalli, Ahivolal or Aryapura, is a historic site of ancient and medieval era Buddhist, Hindu and Jain monuments in north Karnataka, India dated from the sixth century through the twelfth century CE. Aihole is 22 miles (35 km) from Badami and about 6 miles (9.7 km) from Pattadakal, both of which are major centers of historically important Chalukyan monuments. Aihole, along with nearby Badami (Vatapi), emerged by the 6th century as the cradle of experimentation with temple architecture, stone artwork, and construction techniques. This resulted in 16 types of free-standing temples and 4 types of rock-cut shrines. The experimentation in architecture and arts that began in Aihole yielded the group of monuments at Pattadakal, a UNESCO world heritage site.
    Over one hundred Aihole temples are Hindu, a few are Jain and one is Buddhist. These were built and coexisted in close proximity. The Hindu temples are dedicated to Shiva, Vishnu, Durga, Surya, and other Hindu deities. The Jain Basadi temples are dedicated to Mahavira, Parshvanatha, Neminatha and other Jain Tirthankaras. The Buddhist monument is a temple and a small monastery. Both Hindu and Jainmonuments include monasteries, as well as social utilities such as stepwell water tanks with artistic carvings near major temples.
    The Lad Khan temple, a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva came to be called Lad Khan temple, named after the Muslim commander who used it as his operational hub, and a name that has been used ever since. It is constructed in the Panchayatana style of architecture. The shrine has a Garba Griha (inner sanctum) which houses a Shiva Linga, a mukha mantapa which leads to Sabha Mandapa (hall). There is also a Maha mandapa (great hall) with open windows. The Mukha Mantapa is a pillared hall whereas the other halls are spacious. The outer walls and interior walls have carvings depicting the Hindu mythologies. The pillars and carvings also has interesting motifs on them. One of the interestingfeatures of Lad Khan Temple is that it does not have a Shikhara. This indicates that it follows a cavetemple style of architecture.
    The Durga temple at Aihole is an apsidal temple of about 550 A.D.The name of the temple may have derived from the word ‘durga’ meaning fort. It is dedicated to either Vishnu or Shiva as the representations of Vishnu are as numerous as those of Shiva. The most original feature of the temple is a peristyle delimiting an ambulatory around the temple itself and whose walls are covered with sculptures of different gods or goddesses. This temple is provided with a high pedestal, an open pillared verandah serving as pradakshanapatha, in place of a dark, ambulatory passage as in the case of the Ladkhan temple. Instead of perforated jallies is a pillared verandah running round the shrine, open, well ventilated and well lit.
    Ravana phadi is one of the oldest rock-cut cave temples in Aihole, located less than a kilometer uphill, northeast from the Durga temple complex. The temple dates to the 6th century. The entrance has aneroded fluted column and seated Nandi facing the temple sanctum, with several other small monuments.

    Unattempted
    

    Aihole also referred to as Aivalli, Ahivolal or Aryapura, is a historic site of ancient and medieval era Buddhist, Hindu and Jain monuments in north Karnataka, India dated from the sixth century through the twelfth century CE. Aihole is 22 miles (35 km) from Badami and about 6 miles (9.7 km) from Pattadakal, both of which are major centers of historically important Chalukyan monuments. Aihole, along with nearby Badami (Vatapi), emerged by the 6th century as the cradle of experimentation with temple architecture, stone artwork, and construction techniques. This resulted in 16 types of free-standing temples and 4 types of rock-cut shrines. The experimentation in architecture and arts that began in Aihole yielded the group of monuments at Pattadakal, a UNESCO world heritage site.
    Over one hundred Aihole temples are Hindu, a few are Jain and one is Buddhist. These were built and coexisted in close proximity. The Hindu temples are dedicated to Shiva, Vishnu, Durga, Surya, and other Hindu deities. The Jain Basadi temples are dedicated to Mahavira, Parshvanatha, Neminatha and other Jain Tirthankaras. The Buddhist monument is a temple and a small monastery. Both Hindu and Jainmonuments include monasteries, as well as social utilities such as stepwell water tanks with artistic carvings near major temples.
    The Lad Khan temple, a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva came to be called Lad Khan temple, named after the Muslim commander who used it as his operational hub, and a name that has been used ever since. It is constructed in the Panchayatana style of architecture. The shrine has a Garba Griha (inner sanctum) which houses a Shiva Linga, a mukha mantapa which leads to Sabha Mandapa (hall). There is also a Maha mandapa (great hall) with open windows. The Mukha Mantapa is a pillared hall whereas the other halls are spacious. The outer walls and interior walls have carvings depicting the Hindu mythologies. The pillars and carvings also has interesting motifs on them. One of the interestingfeatures of Lad Khan Temple is that it does not have a Shikhara. This indicates that it follows a cavetemple style of architecture.
    The Durga temple at Aihole is an apsidal temple of about 550 A.D.The name of the temple may have derived from the word ‘durga’ meaning fort. It is dedicated to either Vishnu or Shiva as the representations of Vishnu are as numerous as those of Shiva. The most original feature of the temple is a peristyle delimiting an ambulatory around the temple itself and whose walls are covered with sculptures of different gods or goddesses. This temple is provided with a high pedestal, an open pillared verandah serving as pradakshanapatha, in place of a dark, ambulatory passage as in the case of the Ladkhan temple. Instead of perforated jallies is a pillared verandah running round the shrine, open, well ventilated and well lit.
    Ravana phadi is one of the oldest rock-cut cave temples in Aihole, located less than a kilometer uphill, northeast from the Durga temple complex. The temple dates to the 6th century. The entrance has aneroded fluted column and seated Nandi facing the temple sanctum, with several other small monuments.
82. Question 82 of 100

    82. Question

    Consider the following passage:
    “It was a suburban township near Vijayanagara. It was founded byKrishnadeva Raya who named it after his mother.”
    Which of the following is being referred to in the above passage?
    (A) Hampi
    (B) Talikota
    (C) Penukonda
    (D) Nagalapuram

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Krishnadeva Raya’s rule was characterised by expansion and consolidation. This was the time when the land between the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers (the Raichur doa(B) was acquired (1512), the rulers of Orissa were subdued (1514) and severe defeats were inflicted on the Sultan of Bijapur (1520).

    Although the kingdom remained in a constant state of military preparedness, it flourished under conditions of unparalleled peace and prosperity. Krishnadeva Raya is credited with building some fine temples and adding impressive gopurams to many important south Indian temples.
    He also founded a suburban township near Vijayanagara called Nagalapuram after his mother, Nagala Devi. This town is home to Vedanarayana Temple, where the presiding deity Vishnu is in the form of Matsya, the first incarnation of Dasavatara.

    Unattempted
    

    Krishnadeva Raya’s rule was characterised by expansion and consolidation. This was the time when the land between the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers (the Raichur doa(B) was acquired (1512), the rulers of Orissa were subdued (1514) and severe defeats were inflicted on the Sultan of Bijapur (1520).

    Although the kingdom remained in a constant state of military preparedness, it flourished under conditions of unparalleled peace and prosperity. Krishnadeva Raya is credited with building some fine temples and adding impressive gopurams to many important south Indian temples.
    He also founded a suburban township near Vijayanagara called Nagalapuram after his mother, Nagala Devi. This town is home to Vedanarayana Temple, where the presiding deity Vishnu is in the form of Matsya, the first incarnation of Dasavatara.
83. Question 83 of 100

    83. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):
    (1) It is a statutory regulatory body set up under PFRDA Act.
    (2) It comes under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) Chairman recently said that a pension scheme with minimum assured returns is in the works by the PFRDA, which may entail higher premium payments for higher returns.
    About Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):
    It is a statutory regulatory body set up under PFRDA Act enacted in 2014.
    Objective: To promote old age income security by establishing, developing, and regulating pension funds and to protect the interests of subscribers to schemes of pension funds and related matters.
    It comes under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.
    Headquarters: New Delhi
    Composition: It consists of a Chairperson and not more than six members, of whom at least three shall be Whole-Time Members, to be appointed by the Central Government.
    Functions:
    Regulate National Pension System (NPS) and other pension schemes to which PFRDA Act applies;
    Establish, develop and regulate pension funds;
    Protect the interest of pension fund subscribers;
    Register and regulate intermediaries;
    Laying down norms for management of corpus of pension funds;
    Establish grievance redressal mechanism for subscribers;
    Settle disputes among intermediaries and also between intermediaries and subscribers;
    Train intermediaries and educate subscribers and the general public with respect to pension, retirement savings, and related issues;
    Call for information, conduct inquiries, investigations, and audit of intermediaries and other entities connected with pension funds;
    Hence both statements are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) Chairman recently said that a pension scheme with minimum assured returns is in the works by the PFRDA, which may entail higher premium payments for higher returns.
    About Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):
    It is a statutory regulatory body set up under PFRDA Act enacted in 2014.
    Objective: To promote old age income security by establishing, developing, and regulating pension funds and to protect the interests of subscribers to schemes of pension funds and related matters.
    It comes under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.
    Headquarters: New Delhi
    Composition: It consists of a Chairperson and not more than six members, of whom at least three shall be Whole-Time Members, to be appointed by the Central Government.
    Functions:
    Regulate National Pension System (NPS) and other pension schemes to which PFRDA Act applies;
    Establish, develop and regulate pension funds;
    Protect the interest of pension fund subscribers;
    Register and regulate intermediaries;
    Laying down norms for management of corpus of pension funds;
    Establish grievance redressal mechanism for subscribers;
    Settle disputes among intermediaries and also between intermediaries and subscribers;
    Train intermediaries and educate subscribers and the general public with respect to pension, retirement savings, and related issues;
    Call for information, conduct inquiries, investigations, and audit of intermediaries and other entities connected with pension funds;
    Hence both statements are correct.
84. Question 84 of 100

    84. Question

    Bagh Print, recently seen in the news, is a block printing technique unique to which one of the following states?
    (A) Bihar
    (B) Madhya Pradesh
    (C) Gujarat
    (D) Odisha

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    MP Tourism Board in association with district administration Dhar recently launched a training camp on manufacturing sustainable bags based on Bagh Print.
    About Bagh Print:
    It is the name of a block printing technique unique to a small village called Bagh in Madhya Pradesh.
    The craft, as well as the village, derive their names from the River ‘Baghini’ that flows through the village.
    It was started by the community of Muslim Khatris (they were converts to Islam under the influence of a sufi saint) in 1962 when they migrated from Manawar to Bagh.
    Weaving and hand block printing process with the geometric designs, imaginative use of red and black natural colours and taking advantage of the chemical properties of the river and effective use of colours results in Bagh Prints in a unique art form.
    Features:
    In this printing technique, the cloth used is cotton and silk cloth which, are subject to the treatment of a blend of corroded iron fillings, alum and Alizarin.
    The designs are patterned by skilled artisans.
    They are created using natural dyes, which are eco-friendly and non-hazardous.
    On completion of the printing process, the printed fabric is subject to repeated washing in the flowing waters of the river and then dried in the sun for a specific period to obtain a fine luster.

    Unattempted
    

    MP Tourism Board in association with district administration Dhar recently launched a training camp on manufacturing sustainable bags based on Bagh Print.
    About Bagh Print:
    It is the name of a block printing technique unique to a small village called Bagh in Madhya Pradesh.
    The craft, as well as the village, derive their names from the River ‘Baghini’ that flows through the village.
    It was started by the community of Muslim Khatris (they were converts to Islam under the influence of a sufi saint) in 1962 when they migrated from Manawar to Bagh.
    Weaving and hand block printing process with the geometric designs, imaginative use of red and black natural colours and taking advantage of the chemical properties of the river and effective use of colours results in Bagh Prints in a unique art form.
    Features:
    In this printing technique, the cloth used is cotton and silk cloth which, are subject to the treatment of a blend of corroded iron fillings, alum and Alizarin.
    The designs are patterned by skilled artisans.
    They are created using natural dyes, which are eco-friendly and non-hazardous.
    On completion of the printing process, the printed fabric is subject to repeated washing in the flowing waters of the river and then dried in the sun for a specific period to obtain a fine luster.
85. Question 85 of 100

    85. Question

    Tropical Cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in tropical areas. In this context, consider the following conditions:
    (1) sea surface temperature higher than 27° celsius.
    (2) absence of coriolis force.
    (3) high variations in the vertical wind speed.
    How many of the above condition is/are favorable for the formation of tropical cyclones?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. The conditions favourable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are:
    o Large sea surface with a temperature higher than 27° C; Hence option 1 is correct.
    o Presence of the Coriolis force. Hence option 2 is not correct.
    o Small variations in the vertical wind speed; Hence option 3 is not correct.
    o A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation
    o Upper divergence above the sea level system.
    • The cyclones, which cross 20°N latitude generally, recurve and they are more destructive (cyclones do not form near the equator due to the absence of Coriolis force).

    Unattempted
    

    Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. The conditions favourable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are:
    o Large sea surface with a temperature higher than 27° C; Hence option 1 is correct.
    o Presence of the Coriolis force. Hence option 2 is not correct.
    o Small variations in the vertical wind speed; Hence option 3 is not correct.
    o A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation
    o Upper divergence above the sea level system.
    • The cyclones, which cross 20°N latitude generally, recurve and they are more destructive (cyclones do not form near the equator due to the absence of Coriolis force).
86. Question 86 of 100

    86. Question

    Consider the following statements:
    (1) Intertropical convergence represents the meeting ground of north-east and southeast trade winds.
    (2) Intertropical convergence is the region of ascending air, maximum clouds and heavy rainfall throughout the year.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The equatorial or tropical fronts are called intertropical fronts (ITF) or intertropical convergence (ITC). These fronts represent the meeting ground of north-east and south-east trade winds. This convergence zone lies more or less parallel to the equator but moves north or south with the apparent movement of the sun. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    As these winds converge, moist air is forced upward, producing cumulus clouds and heavy precipitation. These clouds occur in scattered masses about 100 km across.
    Thus it is the region of ascending air, maximum clouds and heavy rainfall. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The northern and southern boundaries of intertropical convergence are called north intertropical convergence (NIT(C) and south intertropical convergence (SIT(C) respectively.
    On an average, there is westerly air circulation (from west to east) in the doldrums or say in the intertropical convergence .These westerly winds have been called by Flohn as equatorial westerlies. The equatorial westerlies are associated with strong atmospheric disturbances (cyclonic storms).

    Unattempted
    

    The equatorial or tropical fronts are called intertropical fronts (ITF) or intertropical convergence (ITC). These fronts represent the meeting ground of north-east and south-east trade winds. This convergence zone lies more or less parallel to the equator but moves north or south with the apparent movement of the sun. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    As these winds converge, moist air is forced upward, producing cumulus clouds and heavy precipitation. These clouds occur in scattered masses about 100 km across.
    Thus it is the region of ascending air, maximum clouds and heavy rainfall. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    The northern and southern boundaries of intertropical convergence are called north intertropical convergence (NIT(C) and south intertropical convergence (SIT(C) respectively.
    On an average, there is westerly air circulation (from west to east) in the doldrums or say in the intertropical convergence .These westerly winds have been called by Flohn as equatorial westerlies. The equatorial westerlies are associated with strong atmospheric disturbances (cyclonic storms).
87. Question 87 of 100

    87. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to Mascarene High:
    (1) It is a high-pressure area located near the Mascarene Islands in the southern Indian Ocean.
    (2) Arrival of Indian Monsoon may be delayed due to delays in the formation of Mascarene High.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Mascarene High: This high-pressure region located between 25°S-35°S and 40°E-90°E near the Mascarene Islands in the southern Indian Ocean is a source of Southwest monsoon in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

    Since, it is a high pressure area, it is also known as Mascarene high. This is responsible for crossequatorial flow through south Arabian Sea and it acts as southern hemispheric linkage. The variation in the intensity of High Pressure causes monsoon surges across equatorial flow. These surges are responsible for heavy rains along the west coast.
    If there is a delay in the formation of Mascarene High there is a possibility of delay in the onset of Indian Monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Mascarene High: This high-pressure region located between 25°S-35°S and 40°E-90°E near the Mascarene Islands in the southern Indian Ocean is a source of Southwest monsoon in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

    Since, it is a high pressure area, it is also known as Mascarene high. This is responsible for crossequatorial flow through south Arabian Sea and it acts as southern hemispheric linkage. The variation in the intensity of High Pressure causes monsoon surges across equatorial flow. These surges are responsible for heavy rains along the west coast.
    If there is a delay in the formation of Mascarene High there is a possibility of delay in the onset of Indian Monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
88. Question 88 of 100

    88. Question

    With reference to global economy, consider the following statements:
    (1) The Extended Fund Facility is a World Bank initiative to provide concessional loans to countries for infrastructure development.
    (2) The Special Drawing Rights is an international reserve asset created to supplement the official reserves of countries.
    (3) Special Drawing Rights is a currency that can be claimed by a member country on the International Monetary Fund.
    (4) Reserve Tranche is the quota of currency that each member country must provide to the International Monetary Fund.
    How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : Extended Fund Facility is a fund created by International monetary fund (IMF) and (not the World Bank) for helping economies to address serious medium-term balance of payments problems.
    Statement 2 is correct : The special drawing rights (SDR) is an international reserve asset, created by the International monetary fund (IMF) in 1969 to supplement its member countries’ official reserves, and help countries meet Balance of Payment problem. SDRs can be exchanged for freely usable currencies. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five major currencies – the US dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi (RMB), the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : The SDR is neither a currency, nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. Holders of SDRs can obtain these currencies in exchange for their SDRs in two ways
    1) Through the arrangement of voluntary exchanges between members.
    2) By the IMF, designating members with strong external positions, to purchase SDRs from members with weak external positions.
    Statement 4 is correct : Reserve tranche position (gold tranche) is the proportion of the required quota of currency that each IMF member country must provide to the IMF. Part of the quota can be withdrawn from the IMF without any interest during critical situations of a country such as Balance of Payment (BOP) crises.

    Unattempted
    

    Statement 1 is incorrect : Extended Fund Facility is a fund created by International monetary fund (IMF) and (not the World Bank) for helping economies to address serious medium-term balance of payments problems.
    Statement 2 is correct : The special drawing rights (SDR) is an international reserve asset, created by the International monetary fund (IMF) in 1969 to supplement its member countries’ official reserves, and help countries meet Balance of Payment problem. SDRs can be exchanged for freely usable currencies. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five major currencies – the US dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi (RMB), the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling.
    Statement 3 is incorrect : The SDR is neither a currency, nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. Holders of SDRs can obtain these currencies in exchange for their SDRs in two ways
    1) Through the arrangement of voluntary exchanges between members.
    2) By the IMF, designating members with strong external positions, to purchase SDRs from members with weak external positions.
    Statement 4 is correct : Reserve tranche position (gold tranche) is the proportion of the required quota of currency that each IMF member country must provide to the IMF. Part of the quota can be withdrawn from the IMF without any interest during critical situations of a country such as Balance of Payment (BOP) crises.
89. Question 89 of 100

    89. Question

    In how many of the following entities Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is prohibited in India?
    (1) Real Estate Investment Trusts
    (2) NIDHI company
    (3) Chit Funds
    (4) Manufacturing of equipment for nuclear power plants
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    A foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment in the form of a controlling ownership in a business in one country by an entity based in another country. It is thus distinguished from a foreign portfolioinvestment by a notion of direct control.
    Foreign direct investment (FDI) in India is a major monetary source for economic development in India. Economic liberalisation started in India in wake of the 1991 economic crisis and since then FDI has steadily increased in India.
    Following are the sectors where Foreign Direct Investment is prohibited in India:
    o Lottery including Government or private lotteries, online lotteries, etc.
    o Gambling, betting including casinos etc. Foreign technology collaboration, including licensing for franchise, trademarks or brand name, is also prohibited for lottery, gambling and betting activities.
    o Chit funds
    o Nidhi company
    o Real estate business or construction of farm houses – This shall not include the construction of townships, residential or commercial premises, roads, bridges and Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) registered with SEBI.
    o Cigars, cheroots, cigarillos and cigarette manufacture
    o Sectors not open to private investment such aso Atomic Energy
    o Railway operations (other than permitted activities).
    o Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs). TDRs means certificates issued in respect of category of land acquired for public purposes, either by the Central or State Government in consideration of surrender of land by the owner without monetary compensation, which are transferable in part or whole.
    • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India's nuclear programme is not allowed. However, there is no restriction on FDI in the nuclear industries for manufacturing of equipment and providing other supplies for nuclear power plants and other related facilities.
    Hence, options 2 and 3 are correct.

    Unattempted
    

    A foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment in the form of a controlling ownership in a business in one country by an entity based in another country. It is thus distinguished from a foreign portfolioinvestment by a notion of direct control.
    Foreign direct investment (FDI) in India is a major monetary source for economic development in India. Economic liberalisation started in India in wake of the 1991 economic crisis and since then FDI has steadily increased in India.
    Following are the sectors where Foreign Direct Investment is prohibited in India:
    o Lottery including Government or private lotteries, online lotteries, etc.
    o Gambling, betting including casinos etc. Foreign technology collaboration, including licensing for franchise, trademarks or brand name, is also prohibited for lottery, gambling and betting activities.
    o Chit funds
    o Nidhi company
    o Real estate business or construction of farm houses – This shall not include the construction of townships, residential or commercial premises, roads, bridges and Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) registered with SEBI.
    o Cigars, cheroots, cigarillos and cigarette manufacture
    o Sectors not open to private investment such aso Atomic Energy
    o Railway operations (other than permitted activities).
    o Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs). TDRs means certificates issued in respect of category of land acquired for public purposes, either by the Central or State Government in consideration of surrender of land by the owner without monetary compensation, which are transferable in part or whole.
    • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India's nuclear programme is not allowed. However, there is no restriction on FDI in the nuclear industries for manufacturing of equipment and providing other supplies for nuclear power plants and other related facilities.
    Hence, options 2 and 3 are correct.
90. Question 90 of 100

    90. Question

    Which of the following statements regarding the effects of gaseous air pollutants is not correct?
    (A) Sulphur Dioxide causes stiffness of flower buds which fall off from the plants.
    (B) The red haze in traffic is due to existence of oxides of Nitrogen.
    (C) Hydrocarbon pollutants are formed by incomplete combustion of fuel.
    (D) Carbon dioxide binds with hemoglobin in blood to form carboxyhemoglobin.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Oxides of Sulphur are produced when sulphur containing fossil fuel is burnt.
    The most common oxide, Sulphur dioxide, is a gas that is poisonous to both animals and plants. It has been reported that even a low concentration of Sulphur dioxide causes respiratory diseases e.g., asthma, bronchitis, emphysema in human beings. Sulphur dioxide causes irritation to the eyes, resulting in tears and redness. High concentration of SO2 leads to stiffness of flower buds which eventually fall off from plants. So, option (A) is correct.
    In an automobile engine, (at high temperature) when fossil fuel is burnt, di nitrogen and di oxygen combine to yield significant quantities of nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2). The irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places is due to oxides of nitrogen. Higher concentrations of NO2 damage the leaves of plants and retard the rate of photosynthesis. Nitrogen dioxide is a lung irritant that can lead to an acute respiratory disease in children. It is toxic to living tissues also. So, option (B) is correct.
    Hydrocarbons are composed of hydrogen and carbon only and are formed by incomplete combustion of fuel used in automobiles. Hydrocarbons are carcinogenic, i.e., they cause cancer. They harm plants by causing ageing, breakdown of tissues and shedding of leaves, flowers and twigs. So, option (C) is correct.
    Carbon monoxide (CO) is one of the most serious air pollutants. It is a colourless and odourless gas, highly poisonous to living beings because of its ability to block the delivery of oxygen to the organs and tissues. It is produced as a result of incomplete combustion of carbon. Carbon monoxide is mainly released into the air by automobile exhaust. It binds to haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin, which is about 300 times more stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex. In blood, when the concentration of carboxyhaemoglobin reaches about 3–4 per cent, the oxygen carrying capacity of blood is greatly reduced. This oxygen deficiency, results into headache, weak eyesight, nervousness and cardiovascular disorder. So, option (D) is not correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Oxides of Sulphur are produced when sulphur containing fossil fuel is burnt.
    The most common oxide, Sulphur dioxide, is a gas that is poisonous to both animals and plants. It has been reported that even a low concentration of Sulphur dioxide causes respiratory diseases e.g., asthma, bronchitis, emphysema in human beings. Sulphur dioxide causes irritation to the eyes, resulting in tears and redness. High concentration of SO2 leads to stiffness of flower buds which eventually fall off from plants. So, option (A) is correct.
    In an automobile engine, (at high temperature) when fossil fuel is burnt, di nitrogen and di oxygen combine to yield significant quantities of nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2). The irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places is due to oxides of nitrogen. Higher concentrations of NO2 damage the leaves of plants and retard the rate of photosynthesis. Nitrogen dioxide is a lung irritant that can lead to an acute respiratory disease in children. It is toxic to living tissues also. So, option (B) is correct.
    Hydrocarbons are composed of hydrogen and carbon only and are formed by incomplete combustion of fuel used in automobiles. Hydrocarbons are carcinogenic, i.e., they cause cancer. They harm plants by causing ageing, breakdown of tissues and shedding of leaves, flowers and twigs. So, option (C) is correct.
    Carbon monoxide (CO) is one of the most serious air pollutants. It is a colourless and odourless gas, highly poisonous to living beings because of its ability to block the delivery of oxygen to the organs and tissues. It is produced as a result of incomplete combustion of carbon. Carbon monoxide is mainly released into the air by automobile exhaust. It binds to haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin, which is about 300 times more stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex. In blood, when the concentration of carboxyhaemoglobin reaches about 3–4 per cent, the oxygen carrying capacity of blood is greatly reduced. This oxygen deficiency, results into headache, weak eyesight, nervousness and cardiovascular disorder. So, option (D) is not correct.
91. Question 91 of 100

    91. Question

    The gas is a lung irritant that can lead to an acute respiratory disease in children, is toxic to living tissues, harmful to various textile fibers and metal. It produces an irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places.
    Which gas is being described in the above paragraph?
    (A) Sulphur dioxide
    (B) Nitrogen dioxide
    (C) Ammonia
    (D) Carbon monoxide

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Nitrogen dioxide: The irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places is due to oxides of nitrogen. Higher concentrations of NO2 damage the leaves of plants and retard the rate of photosynthesis. Nitrogen dioxide is a lung irritant that can lead to acute respiratory disease in children. It is toxic to living tissues also. Nitrogen dioxide is also harmful to various textile fibers and metals. So, option (B) is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Nitrogen dioxide: The irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places is due to oxides of nitrogen. Higher concentrations of NO2 damage the leaves of plants and retard the rate of photosynthesis. Nitrogen dioxide is a lung irritant that can lead to acute respiratory disease in children. It is toxic to living tissues also. Nitrogen dioxide is also harmful to various textile fibers and metals. So, option (B) is correct.
92. Question 92 of 100

    92. Question

    Permafrost, the perennially frozen soil in high latitude and altitude regions, has exhibited increased thawing due to global warming. How many of the following may be its consequences?
    (1) It may lead to positive feedback loop.
    (2) It may pose a threat to local ecosystems.
    (3) It may cause damage to local infrastructure.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Permafrost is perennially frozen soil that has been below 0°C for at least two years. Permafrost is condition where top layer up to depth of 20-40 cm is completely frozen. This happens in high latitude and altitude regions. It’s found underneath about 25% of the northern hemisphere, mainly around the Arctic – but also in the Antarctic and Alpine regions. In the northern region of Alaska, the permafrost has been warming at about one-tenth of a degree Celsius per year since the mid-2000s.These top soils melt due to global warming which is a great threat as the melt will aggravate the condition of global warming. As permafrost thaws, this carbon is released to the atmosphere in the form of methane, a powerful greenhouse gas. This process leads to more climate change and is an example of a positive feedback loop, which happens when warming causes changes that lead to even more warming. So, statement 1 is correct.
    As permafrost thaws, it can also cause substantial changes in the local ecosystem, altering the flow of water atop and through the soil, as well as what plant and animal life can thrive in the area. So, statement 2 is correct.
    It is a part of life in the frigid North Slope, underlying buildings, roads and other infrastructure. When it thaws, it can cause considerable damage. In Alaska, the warming of the permafrost has been linked to trees toppling, roads buckling and the development of sinkholes. When permafrost melts, the land above it sinks or changes shape. Sinking land can damage buildings and infrastructure such as roads, airports, and water and sewer pipes. It also affects ecosystems. So, statement 3 is correct.

    Unattempted
    

    Permafrost is perennially frozen soil that has been below 0°C for at least two years. Permafrost is condition where top layer up to depth of 20-40 cm is completely frozen. This happens in high latitude and altitude regions. It’s found underneath about 25% of the northern hemisphere, mainly around the Arctic – but also in the Antarctic and Alpine regions. In the northern region of Alaska, the permafrost has been warming at about one-tenth of a degree Celsius per year since the mid-2000s.These top soils melt due to global warming which is a great threat as the melt will aggravate the condition of global warming. As permafrost thaws, this carbon is released to the atmosphere in the form of methane, a powerful greenhouse gas. This process leads to more climate change and is an example of a positive feedback loop, which happens when warming causes changes that lead to even more warming. So, statement 1 is correct.
    As permafrost thaws, it can also cause substantial changes in the local ecosystem, altering the flow of water atop and through the soil, as well as what plant and animal life can thrive in the area. So, statement 2 is correct.
    It is a part of life in the frigid North Slope, underlying buildings, roads and other infrastructure. When it thaws, it can cause considerable damage. In Alaska, the warming of the permafrost has been linked to trees toppling, roads buckling and the development of sinkholes. When permafrost melts, the land above it sinks or changes shape. Sinking land can damage buildings and infrastructure such as roads, airports, and water and sewer pipes. It also affects ecosystems. So, statement 3 is correct.
93. Question 93 of 100

    93. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Nath-Panthis sect:
    (1) They are the followers of Hindu yogi Gorakhnath.
    (2) They denounce the caste system and the privileges claimed by the Brahmanas.
    (3) The path preached by them is referred to as tantra.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) All
    (D) None

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Nath-Panthis are a Shaivist sub-tradition within Hinduism. A medieval movement, combined ideas from Buddhism, Shaivism and Yoga traditions in India. The Naths have been a confederation of devotees who consider Adinatha, or Shiva, as their first lord or guru, with varying lists of additional lords.

    Statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is correct : Nath-Panthis are followers of Hindu yogi Gorakhnath and one time was popular all over North India. They believe in the power of uttering magical words (mantras) and adopting various kinds of austerities and secret rites. The path preached by them is referred to as tantra.
    o Tantra considers Prakriti to be animate with a will of its own, which is why in Tantra, nature is addressed as Shakti, or goddess. A follower of Tantra seeks power over nature.
    The references to the Nath-Panthis and Gorakhnath come from various sources from the 8th century to the 14th century, from Afghanistan, across Punjab, Sindh, Rajasthan, Gangetic plains, Bengal delta, Maharashtra, right down to Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. The influence of Nath-Panthis in general and Gorakhnath, in particular, has clearly been widespread and memorable.
    Statement 2 is correct: Many of the followers of Nath-Panthis belong to the lower castes. They denounce the caste system and the privileges claimed by the Brahmanas. Their path is open to all, irrespective of caste distinctions.
    A large number of Nath-Panthi preachers called Siddhas belonged.to the lower castes – doma, chamara, (tanners), washerman, oilman, tailor, fisherman, woodcutter, cobbler, etc. With the establishment of Turkish rule in northern India, the popularity of the Nath Panthi movement reached its peak during the 13th and 14th centuries. Anybody could be ' initiated into the sect of the Nath-Panthi yogis irrespective of caste.

    Unattempted
    

    Nath-Panthis are a Shaivist sub-tradition within Hinduism. A medieval movement, combined ideas from Buddhism, Shaivism and Yoga traditions in India. The Naths have been a confederation of devotees who consider Adinatha, or Shiva, as their first lord or guru, with varying lists of additional lords.

    Statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is correct : Nath-Panthis are followers of Hindu yogi Gorakhnath and one time was popular all over North India. They believe in the power of uttering magical words (mantras) and adopting various kinds of austerities and secret rites. The path preached by them is referred to as tantra.
    o Tantra considers Prakriti to be animate with a will of its own, which is why in Tantra, nature is addressed as Shakti, or goddess. A follower of Tantra seeks power over nature.
    The references to the Nath-Panthis and Gorakhnath come from various sources from the 8th century to the 14th century, from Afghanistan, across Punjab, Sindh, Rajasthan, Gangetic plains, Bengal delta, Maharashtra, right down to Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. The influence of Nath-Panthis in general and Gorakhnath, in particular, has clearly been widespread and memorable.
    Statement 2 is correct: Many of the followers of Nath-Panthis belong to the lower castes. They denounce the caste system and the privileges claimed by the Brahmanas. Their path is open to all, irrespective of caste distinctions.
    A large number of Nath-Panthi preachers called Siddhas belonged.to the lower castes – doma, chamara, (tanners), washerman, oilman, tailor, fisherman, woodcutter, cobbler, etc. With the establishment of Turkish rule in northern India, the popularity of the Nath Panthi movement reached its peak during the 13th and 14th centuries. Anybody could be ' initiated into the sect of the Nath-Panthi yogis irrespective of caste.
94. Question 94 of 100

    94. Question

    With reference to foreign travelers and Mughal courts they visited, consider the following pairs:
    Foreign Travellers : Mughal Emperor
    (1) Ralph Fitch : Akbar
    (2) Sir Thomas Roe : Jahangir
    (3) Antonio Montserrate : Shahjahan
    (4) Jean Baptiste Tavernier : Aurangzeb
    How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
    (A) Only one
    (B) Only two
    (C) Only three
    (D) All

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Ralph Fitch (1550-1611), an English traveller visited the court of the Mughal emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sīkri, near Āgra, in north-central India. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    In 1615, English diplomat Sir Thomas Roe arrived at the Surat port as the ambassador of the English King, James I to Mughal Emperor Jahangir’s court. It was the first step towards establishing the British East India Company as a paramount power in the Indian subcontinent. Roe, with his clever skills, was successful in keeping out the Portuguese and also in obtaining a ‘firman’ from the Mughal King to establish factories at Surat. He also gained exclusive trading rights for the English. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
    Antonio Montserrate also known as Anthony de Montserrate (1536‒1600) was a Portuguese priest who accompanied two other priests, Father Rodolfo Acquaviva and Father Francisco Enriquez, on the first Jesuit mission to the court of Emperor Akbar. The Jesuit mission was sent on the request of the emperor sent through an embassy to Goa. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
    Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (1605 – 1689) was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveler. Tavernier, wrote a book “Travels In India” which contains detail information about sea trade, sea routes, currency, weights and measures and means of communication of India during the Mughal empire. He visited mughal court during Shahjahan and also stayed during the reign of Aurangzeb. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.

    Unattempted
    

    Ralph Fitch (1550-1611), an English traveller visited the court of the Mughal emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sīkri, near Āgra, in north-central India. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    In 1615, English diplomat Sir Thomas Roe arrived at the Surat port as the ambassador of the English King, James I to Mughal Emperor Jahangir’s court. It was the first step towards establishing the British East India Company as a paramount power in the Indian subcontinent. Roe, with his clever skills, was successful in keeping out the Portuguese and also in obtaining a ‘firman’ from the Mughal King to establish factories at Surat. He also gained exclusive trading rights for the English. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
    Antonio Montserrate also known as Anthony de Montserrate (1536‒1600) was a Portuguese priest who accompanied two other priests, Father Rodolfo Acquaviva and Father Francisco Enriquez, on the first Jesuit mission to the court of Emperor Akbar. The Jesuit mission was sent on the request of the emperor sent through an embassy to Goa. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
    Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (1605 – 1689) was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveler. Tavernier, wrote a book “Travels In India” which contains detail information about sea trade, sea routes, currency, weights and measures and means of communication of India during the Mughal empire. He visited mughal court during Shahjahan and also stayed during the reign of Aurangzeb. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
95. Question 95 of 100

    95. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to “Equatorial Counter Current”:
    (1) It is a current majorly driven by density differences.
    (2) It transports water against the mean westward wind stress in the tropics.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The Equatorial Counter Current (or Counter Equatorial current) is an eastward flowing, the winddriven current which extends to depths of 100-150m in the Atlantic, Indian, and Pacific Oceans. More often called the North Equatorial Countercurrent (NECC), this current flows west-to-east at about 3-10°N in the Atlantic, Indian Ocean and Pacific basins, between the North Equatorial Current (NE(C) and the South Equatorial Current (SEC). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The NECC is an interesting case because while it results from wind-driven circulation, it transports water against the mean westward wind stress in the tropics. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Types of ocean currents- There are two main types of ocean currents: currents driven mainly by wind and currents mainly driven by density differences. Density depends on the temperature and salinity of the water. Cold and salty water is dense and will sink. Warm and less salty water will float. Although tides are generally a dominant driver of water motion in shallow coastal waters, their relative importance in the oceans is less.

    Unattempted
    

    The Equatorial Counter Current (or Counter Equatorial current) is an eastward flowing, the winddriven current which extends to depths of 100-150m in the Atlantic, Indian, and Pacific Oceans. More often called the North Equatorial Countercurrent (NECC), this current flows west-to-east at about 3-10°N in the Atlantic, Indian Ocean and Pacific basins, between the North Equatorial Current (NE(C) and the South Equatorial Current (SEC). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    The NECC is an interesting case because while it results from wind-driven circulation, it transports water against the mean westward wind stress in the tropics. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    Types of ocean currents- There are two main types of ocean currents: currents driven mainly by wind and currents mainly driven by density differences. Density depends on the temperature and salinity of the water. Cold and salty water is dense and will sink. Warm and less salty water will float. Although tides are generally a dominant driver of water motion in shallow coastal waters, their relative importance in the oceans is less.
96. Question 96 of 100

    96. Question

    Consider the following statements with respect to the Mercalli scale and Richter scale:
    (1) Mercalli scale is linear whereas the Richter scale is logarithmic.
    (2) The Mercalli scale measurement is based on the observation of the earthquake's effect on the earth's surface and Richter scale's measurement is based on the amplitude of Seismic waves.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect..
    (D) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Earthquakes are tremors which are produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth. The severity of an earthquake can be expressed in terms of both intensity and magnitude.
    Intensity is based on the observed effects of ground shaking on people, buildings, and natural features. It varies from place to place within the disturbed region depending on the location of the observer withrespect to the earthquake epicenter. Magnitude is related to the amount of seismic energy released at the hypocenter of the earthquake. It is based on the amplitude of the earthquake waves recorded oninstruments which have a common calibration.
    Both statements are correct: Mercalli scale is a seismic intensity scale used for measuring the intensity of shaking produced by an earthquake. It measures the effects of an earthquake at a given location. It measures the intensity of an earthquake by observing its effect on people, the environment and the earth’s surface. It is a linear measurement.
    Richter scale is a quantitative measure of an earthquake’s magnitude (size). The earthquake’s magnitude is determined using the logarithm of the amplitude (height) of the largest seismic wave calibrated to a scale by a seismograph. The Richter Scale measures the energy released by an earthquake using a seismograph.

    Unattempted
    

    Earthquakes are tremors which are produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth. The severity of an earthquake can be expressed in terms of both intensity and magnitude.
    Intensity is based on the observed effects of ground shaking on people, buildings, and natural features. It varies from place to place within the disturbed region depending on the location of the observer withrespect to the earthquake epicenter. Magnitude is related to the amount of seismic energy released at the hypocenter of the earthquake. It is based on the amplitude of the earthquake waves recorded oninstruments which have a common calibration.
    Both statements are correct: Mercalli scale is a seismic intensity scale used for measuring the intensity of shaking produced by an earthquake. It measures the effects of an earthquake at a given location. It measures the intensity of an earthquake by observing its effect on people, the environment and the earth’s surface. It is a linear measurement.
    Richter scale is a quantitative measure of an earthquake’s magnitude (size). The earthquake’s magnitude is determined using the logarithm of the amplitude (height) of the largest seismic wave calibrated to a scale by a seismograph. The Richter Scale measures the energy released by an earthquake using a seismograph.
97. Question 97 of 100

    97. Question

    Kakhovka Dam, which was recently seen in the news, is built on which one of the following rivers?
    (A) Dnieper
    (B) Rhine
    (C) Mekong
    (D) None of the above

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Recently, a huge Soviet-era Kakhovka dam that separates Russian and Ukrainian forces was breached and unleashed floodwaters across the war zone.
    It is located on the Dnieper or Dnipro River in southern Ukraine which was built as part of the Kakhovka hydroelectric power plant.
    The reservoir also supplies water to the Crimean peninsula and the Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant.
    Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant is Europe’s largest and gets its cooling water from the reservoir which is located on the southern side, now under Russian control.
    It holds water a volume about equal to the Great Salt Lake in the U.S.
    Key facts about the Dnieper
    It is the fourth longest river in Europe.
    It runs a total length of 1,368 miles extending from the uplands of Russia’s Valdai Hills.
    It flows in a southerly direction through western Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine before emptying into the Black Sea.

    Unattempted
    

    Recently, a huge Soviet-era Kakhovka dam that separates Russian and Ukrainian forces was breached and unleashed floodwaters across the war zone.
    It is located on the Dnieper or Dnipro River in southern Ukraine which was built as part of the Kakhovka hydroelectric power plant.
    The reservoir also supplies water to the Crimean peninsula and the Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant.
    Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant is Europe’s largest and gets its cooling water from the reservoir which is located on the southern side, now under Russian control.
    It holds water a volume about equal to the Great Salt Lake in the U.S.
    Key facts about the Dnieper
    It is the fourth longest river in Europe.
    It runs a total length of 1,368 miles extending from the uplands of Russia’s Valdai Hills.
    It flows in a southerly direction through western Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine before emptying into the Black Sea.
98. Question 98 of 100

    98. Question

    Arrange the correct order of the process of soil-erosion from the following:
    (1) Splash erosion
    (2) Sheet erosion
    (3) Rill erosion
    (4) Gully erosion
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (A) 1-2-4-3
    (B) 1-2-3-4
    (C) 2-1-4-3
    (D) 2-1-3-4

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    The correct order of the process of soil-erosion is Splash erosion-Sheet erosion-Rill erosion-Gully erosion. Hence option (B) is the correct answer.

    Splash erosion or raindrop impact represents the first stage in the erosion process. Splash erosion results from the bombardment of the soil surface by raindrops. Raindrops behave as little bombs whenfalling on exposed or bare soil, displacing soil particles and destroying soil structure.
    Sheet erosion (the second stage) occurs as a shallow 'sheet' of water flowing over the ground surface, resulting in the removal of a uniform layer of soil from the soil surface.
    Rill erosion occurs when runoff water forms small channels as it concentrates down a slope. These rills can be up to 0.3m deep.
    If they become any deeper than 0.3m they are referred to as gully erosion, which forms the last stage.

    Unattempted
    

    The correct order of the process of soil-erosion is Splash erosion-Sheet erosion-Rill erosion-Gully erosion. Hence option (B) is the correct answer.

    Splash erosion or raindrop impact represents the first stage in the erosion process. Splash erosion results from the bombardment of the soil surface by raindrops. Raindrops behave as little bombs whenfalling on exposed or bare soil, displacing soil particles and destroying soil structure.
    Sheet erosion (the second stage) occurs as a shallow 'sheet' of water flowing over the ground surface, resulting in the removal of a uniform layer of soil from the soil surface.
    Rill erosion occurs when runoff water forms small channels as it concentrates down a slope. These rills can be up to 0.3m deep.
    If they become any deeper than 0.3m they are referred to as gully erosion, which forms the last stage.
99. Question 99 of 100

    99. Question

    It is a highly variable surface ocean current of warm water that flows northeasterly past the island chain that separates the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean. It is
    (A) Angola Current
    (B) Benguela Current
    (C) Antilles Current
    (D) Guinea Current

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    Correct
    

    Incorrect
    

    Angola Current is a temporary ocean surface current. It is an extension of the Guinea Current, flowing near western Africa's coast.
    Benguela Current is the broad, northward flowing ocean current that forms the eastern portion of the South Atlantic Ocean gyre.
    Antilles Current is a highly variable surface ocean current of warm water that flows northeasterly past the island chain that separates the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean. Hence option (C) is the correctanswer.
    Guinea Current is a slow warm water current that flows to the east along the Guinea coast of West Africa.

    Unattempted
    

    Angola Current is a temporary ocean surface current. It is an extension of the Guinea Current, flowing near western Africa's coast.
    Benguela Current is the broad, northward flowing ocean current that forms the eastern portion of the South Atlantic Ocean gyre.
    Antilles Current is a highly variable surface ocean current of warm water that flows northeasterly past the island chain that separates the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean. Hence option (C) is the correctanswer.
    Guinea Current is a slow warm water current that flows to the east along the Guinea coast of West Africa.
100. Question 100 of 100

     100. Question